GPSC Assistant Engineer 2021: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) Class-2 (GWSSB)
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BCG
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2 (GWSSB)
Advertisement No 02/2021-22
Preliminary Test Held On 05-12-2021
Que. No. 001-300
Publish Date 06-12-2021
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 14-12 -2021
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet
PHYSICALLY.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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101. The unit of temperature in S.I. unit is
(A) Centigrade (B) Celsius
(C) Fahrenheit (D) Kelvin
102. Which of the following is not a path function?
(A) thermal conductivity (B) kinetic energy
(C) heat (D) work
103. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
(A) liquid water
(B) a mixture of liquid water and water vapor (steam)
(C) a mixture of ice and liquid water
(D) a mixture of liquid air and gaseous air
104. Area below the equilibrium process curve drawn in a P-V diagram is equal to
(A) work (B) internal energy
(C) heat energy (D) none of the above
105. _______ is an extensive property
(A) pressure (B) temperature
(C) internal energy (D) none of the above
106. An isothermal process is governed by
(A) Boyle’s law (B) Gay-Lussac law
(C) Charles’ law (D) Avogadro’s law
107. The value of specific heat at Constant volume (CV) is _______ that of at Constant pressure (CP)
(A) equal to (B) more than
(C) less than (D) none of these
108. The ratio of specific heats of gas at constant pressure and at constant volume
(A) Varies with temperature (B) Varies with pressure
(C) Is always constant (D) None of the above
109. Absolute zero pressure exists
(A) At sea level (B) At –273O K
(C) At vacuum condition (D) None of the above
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110. Kelvin-Planck’s law deals with
(A) Conservation of work (B) Conversion of heat into work
(C) Conversion of work into heat (D) Conversion of heat
111. In Carnot cycle heat is rejected at constant
(A) Volume (B) Pressure
(C) Entropy (D) Temperature
112. The process in which working substance neither receives nor gives out heat to its surrounding
during its expansion or contraction is known as
(A) Isothermal process (B) Isentropic process
(C) Polytropic process (D) Adiabatic process
113. Equal volume of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of
molecules. This is according to
(A) Charles’ law (B) Avagadro’s law
(C) Joule’s law (D) Gay-Lussac's law
114. The measurement of thermodynamic property known as temperature, is based upon
(A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Second law of thermodynamics
(D) Measurement and not on thermodynamics laws
115. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called
(A) Absolute zero temperature (B) Absolute temperature
(C) Zero volume temperature (D) None of the above
116. If heat transfers through the glass of a window is in the direction normal to the surface of the glass
only then it is _______ dimension heat transfer problem
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) none of the above
117. _______ is the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent
less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles.
(A) Convection (B) Conduction
(C) Radiation (D) None of the above
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118. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in W/mK is of the order of
(A) 2.4520 (B) 0.2928
(C) 0.0262 (D) 26.240
119. A Nusselt number equal to _______ for a fluid layer represents heat transfer across the layer by
pure conduction.
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) zero
120. The flow of high-viscosity fluids such as oils at low velocities is typically _______.
(A) turbulent (B) laminar
(C) transient (D) none of the above
121. The relative thickness of the velocity and the thermal boundary layers is best described by _______.
(A) Prandtl number (B) Nusselt number
(C) Reynolds number (D) Grashof number
122. Thermal radiation is also defined as the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that extends
from about _______.
(A) 0.01 to 0.1 µm (B) 0.1 to 100 µm
(C) 10–5 to 10–2 µm (D) 102 to 105 µm
123. In case of black body, at any wavelength, the amount of emitted radiation _______with increasing
temperature.
(A) decreases (B) same as
(C) increases (D) none of the above
124. For forced convection, the Nusselt number is generally a function of
(A) The Reynolds number and the Prandtl number
(B) The Reynolds number and dynamic viscosity
(C) Dynamic viscosity and the Prandtl number
(D) None of the above
125. In radiative heat transfer a gray surface is one
(A) Which appears gray to eye
(B) Which has reflectivity equal to zero
(C) Which appears equally bright from all directions
(D) Whose emissivity is independent of wavelength
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126. Which order is correct for decreasing thermal conductivity?
(A) Cast iron, Glass (window), Water, Wood
(B) Water, Caste iron, Glass (window), Wood
(C) Glass (window), Water, Caste iron, Wood
(D) Caste iron, Water, Glass (window), Wood
127. The ratio of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is called
(A) Nusselt Number (B) Biot Number
(C) Stanton Number (D) Reynolds Number
128. As the temperature of air increases the thermal conductivity
(A) Decreases (B) May increase or decrease
(C) Increases (D) Remains constant
129. For gray body, emissivity is
(A) Less than 1 (B) Greater than 1
(C) Equal to 1 (D) None of the above
130. The ratio of specific weight of the liquid to the specific weight of a standard fluid is known as
(A) specific volume (B) weight density
(C) specific gravity (D) viscosity
131. _______ is a phenomenon by which a liquid rises into a thin glass tube above or below its
general level.
(A) Surface tension (B) Capillarity
(C) Cohesion (D) Adhesion
132. The height of the free surface above any point is known as
(A) static head (B) intensity of pressure
(C) surface tension (D) viscosity
133. Piezometers measure _______ pressure only
(A) absolute (B) gauge
(C) atmospheric (D) all of the above
134. In a turbulent flow, Reynolds number is
(A) less than 2000 (B) more than 4000
(C) between 2000 and 4000 (D) none of the above
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135. The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when head lost due to friction in the pipe is
equal to
(A) one-third of the total supply head
(B) one-fourth of the total supply head
(C) one-half of the total supply head
(D) one-fifth of the total supply head
136. The force exerted by a jet of water on a stationary vertical plate in the direction of jet is given by
(A) raV (B) ra2V
(C) raV 3 (D) raV 2
137. The power which appears in the expression for the specific speed is the
(A) shaft power (B) water power
(C) power into the turbine (D) none of the above
138. Which of the following draft tubes is suited particularly for helical flow?
(A) Conical type draft tube (B) Elbow type draft tube
(C) Moody’s spreading draft tube (D) None of the above
139. _______ of a turbine is defined as the ratio of power available at the turbine shaft to the power
supplied by the water jet.
(A) Mechanical efficiency (B) Hydraulic efficiency
(C) Overall efficiency (D) Volumetric efficiency
140. A real fluid in which shear stress is directly proportional to the rate of shear strain is called as
(A) Non-Newtonian fluid (B) Newtonian fluid
(C) Ideal fluid (D) None of the above
141. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
(A) Upthrust (B) Centre of pressure
(C) Buoyancy (D) All of the above
142. Kinematic viscosity of fluid is equal to
(A) dynamic viscosity × density (B) 1/(dynamic viscosity × density)
(C) density/dynamic viscosity (D) dynamic viscosity/density
143. Vena contracta is formed in the flow through
(A) Venture tube (B) Orifice plate
(C) Notch (D) Pipe
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144. Cavitation occurs if
(A) Pressure in a flow system decreases to the level of vapour pressure of liquid
(B) Flow passes through bend
(C) Velocity of flow exceeds critical limit
(D) If part of the flow system is above hydraulic gradient
145. Which of the following assumption/s made while deriving Bernoulli’s equation for ideal fluid?
(A) Flow is rotational (B) Flow is compressible
(C) Flow is unsteady (D) None of the above
146. The rate of flow of fluid through open channel is measured by
(A) Venturi meter (B) Orifice meter
(C) Notches (D) All of the above
147. Hydraulic turbine is known as reaction turbine if energy available at the inlet is
(A) only kinetic energy (B) only pressure energy
(C) sum of kinetic and pressure energy (D) none of the above
148. Pelton turbine is operated under_______
(A) Low head and high discharge
(B) High head and low discharge
(C) Medium head and high discharge
(D) Medium head and medium discharge
149. What is the full form of NPSH in a pump?
(A) Net pressure suction head (B) Net positive suction head
(C) Non-pressure suction head (D) Net pressure super head
150. Duplex feed pumps are used in steam boilers. These operate on the principle of
(A) Centrifugal pump (B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Gear pump (D) Ejector pump
151. Between the same temperature limits Rankine cycle provides a _______ than a Carnot cycle
(A) higher specific work output (B) lower specific work output
(C) equal specific work output (D) none of the above
152. The draught which a chimney produces is called
(A) induced draught (B) natural draught
(C) forced draught (D) balanced draught
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153. Rateau steam turbine is
(A) reaction steam turbine
(B) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(C) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(D) pressure-velocity compounded steam turbine
154. In a two-stroke cycle engine, the operations namely suction, compression, expansion and exhaust
are completed in the number of revolutions of crank shaft equal to
(A) four (B) three
(C) two (D) one
155. In a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, during suction stroke
(A) only air is sucked in (B) only fuel is sucked in
(C) mixture of fuel and air is sucked in (D) none of the above
156. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle
(C) Joule cycle (D) Atkinson cycle
157. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as compared to diesel engine plant is
(A) higher (B) lower
(C) same (D) none of the above
158. In a gas turbine plant, a regenerator increases
(A) work output (B) pressure ratio
(C) thermal efficiency (D) none of the above
159. Water hammer is developed in
(A) penstock (B) draft tube
(C) turbine (D) surge tank
160. Location of the surge tank in a hydro-electric station is near to the
(A) tailrace (B) turbine
(C) reservoir (D) none of the above
161. Francis turbine is usually used for
(A) low head installation (B) medium head installation
(C) high head installation (D) for all heads
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162. Reflectors of a nuclear reactor are made up of
(A) boron (B) cast iron
(C) beryllium (D) steel
163. The function of the moderator in a nuclear reactor is to
(A) stop chain reaction (B) absorb neutrons
(C) reduce the speed of neutrons (D) reduce temperature
164. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(A) maximum demand/average load (B) average load × maximum demand
(C) average load/maximum demand (D) none of the above
165. In reaction steam turbine, when steam flows through fixed blades
(A) Pressure and velocity both increase
(B) Pressure and velocity both decrease
(C) Pressure decreases while velocity increases
(D) Velocity increases while pressure decreases
166. Device that keeps mean speed of the engine within specified limits under varying load conditions
is called
(A) Governor (B) Flywheel
(C) Cross head (D) Speed valve
167. A device used to convert saturated steam or wet steam into superheated steam or dry steam
is called
(A) Economiser (B) Preheater
(C) Superheater (D) Feed pump
168. If steam is throttled, its
(A) Pressure and enthalpy remain unchanged
(B) Temperature and entropy remain unchanged
(C) Enthalpy remains unchanged pressure may or may not change
(D) Enthalpy remains unchanged but other properties change
169. With increase in pressure the temperature of steam formation will
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant (D) Become zero
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170. Choose the wrong statement. Economiser in a boiler plant
(A) Is a secondary heater (B) Is used to absorb heat from flue gases
(C) Increases temperature of feed water (D) Reduces amount of water
171. The volumetric efficiency of the SI engine is comparatively
(A) lower than CI engine (B) higher than CI engine
(C) will be same as CI engine (D) none of the above
172. Venturi in the carburetor results in
(A) decrease of air velocity (B) increase of air velocity
(C) decrease of fuel flow (D) increase of manifold vacuum
173. Lean air mixture is required during
(A) idling (B) starting
(C) accelerating (D) cruising
174. With increase in compression ratio flame speed
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) none of the above
175. In compression-ignition engines, the autoignition of the charge causing knocking is _______.
(A) at the start of combustion (B) at the end of combustion
(C) during combustion (D) none of the above
176. Anti-knock characteristics of gasoline when compared to alcohol is
(A) higher (B) lower
(C) equal (D) none of the above
177. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder?
(A) air alone (B) air and fuel
(C) air and lub oil (D) fuel alone
178. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
(A) fuel pump (B) governor
(C) injector (D) carburetor
179. A 100 cc engine has following parameter as 100 cc
(A) fuel tank capacity (B) lube oil capacity
(C) swept volume (D) cylinder volume
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180. Pour point of fuel oil is
(A) indicated by 90% distillation temperature
(B) temperature at which it solidifies
(C) it catches fire without external aid
(D) none of the above
181. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
(A) Cetane number (B) Calorific value
(C) Octane number (D) All of the above
182. Compression ratio for petrol engine is
(A) 6 to 10 (B) 10 to 15
(C) 15 to 25 (D) 25 to 40
183. In I.C. engine process of removing the burnt gases from the combustion chamber of the cylinder
is known as
(A) Scavenging (B) Supercharging
(C) Detonation (D) Polymerization
184. Actual cycle efficiency is much lower than the air standard efficiency due to which of the following
loss/losses occurring in the actual engine operation?
(A) Direct heat losses (B) Time losses
(C) Pumping losses (D) All of the above
185. Which of the following abnormal combustion puts limit on compression ratio at which I. C. engine
can be operated?
(A) Detonation or knock (B) Preignition
(C) Run-on (D) None of the option
186. For the same compression ratio and heat input
(A) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(B) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(C) Both diesel and Otto cycle have same efficiency
(D) None of the above
187. Which of the following engines are more suitable for super charging?
(A) SI engines (B) CI engines
(C) Steam engines (D) None of the above
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188. Which of the following method/s can be used to find friction power of an engine?
(A) Morse test (B) Willian’s line method
(C) Motoring test (D) All of the above
189. By applying choke in petrol engine, the engine gets
(A) Extra spark energy (B) Weak mixture
(C) Rich mixture (D) Lean mixture
190. In an I.C. engine, the ratio of volume displaced by the piston per stroke to clearance volume in
cylinder is known as
(A) Expansion ratio (B) Compression ratio
(C) Combustion ratio (D) Cut-off ratio
191. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant?
(A) Ericsson (B) Stirling
(C) Carnot (D) Bell-Coleman
192. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires
(A) very little work input
(B) maximum work input
(C) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(D) zero work input
193. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour
(A) after passing through the condenser
(B) before passing through the condenser
(C) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(D) before entering the expansion valve
194. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle
(A) Rankine (B) Carnot
(C) Reversed Rankine (D) Reversed Carnot
195. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant
(A) CO2 (B) Freon-11
(C) Freon-22 (D) Air
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196. In electolux refrigerator there is no
(A) Electricity required (B) Moving machinery
(C) Noise (D) All of the above
197. The process in which after condensation the refrigerant is cooled below the saturation temperature
before throttling, is known as
(A) Subcooling (B) Supercooling
(C) Normal cooling (D) None of the above
198. Evaporating pressure of the refrigerant as compared to atmospheric pressure is
(A) More (B) Equal
(C) Less (D) None of the above
199. In sensible cooling process of air, specific humidity
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant (D) None of the above
200. In psychrometric chart, the humidification process is indicated by
(A) Vertical line (B) Horizontal line
(C) Inclined line (D) Curved line
201. The process used for winter air conditioning is
(A) Heating and humidification (B) Humidification and dehumidification
(C) Heating and dehumidification (D) Cooling humidification
202. In vapour compression system, the highest temperature of the refrigerant during the cycle
occurs after
(A) Evaporation (B) Condensation
(C) Expansion (D) Compression
203. Cup & Cone fracture is indication of _______
(A) brittle fracture (B) ductile fracture
(C) fatigue fracture (D) none of the above
204. The amount of energy a material can absorb before fracture is called
(A) tensile strength (B) yield strength
(C) stiffness (D) toughness
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205. The failure that happens due to cyclic loading is called
(A) creep failure (B) fatigue failure
(C) static failure (D) shear failure
206. Which of the following is not a metal forming process?
(A) wire drawing (B) deep drawing
(C) casting (D) rolling
207. Which of the following is not ductile?
(A) aluminum (B) copper
(C) boron (D) mild steel
208. Poisson’s ratio refers to the ratio of
(A) modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity
(B) longitudinal strain to lateral strain
(C) engineering strain to true strain
(D) lateral strain to longitudinal strain
209. The interstitial solid solution of carbon in g iron is called
(A) cementite (B) ferrite
(C) austenite (D) pearlite
210. If a plain carbon steel is rapidly cooled to the room temperature by quenching it in water, its
structure is changed from
(A) austenite to pearlite (B) austenite to martensite
(C) austenite to bainite (D) austenite to ferrite
211. In strain hardening, the modulus of elasticity_______; and, the material’s ductility decreases.
(A) Remains the same (B) Increases
(C) Decreases (D) None of the above
212. The modulus of rigidity in terms of the modulus of elasticity (E) and Poisson’s ratio ( ) is given by
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
213. The property of the material to resist indentation or penetration by means of abrasion or scratching
is known as ____
(A) Hardness (B) Strength
(C) Toughness (D) Brittleness
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214. In which of the following structures unit cell is a cube with one atom at each corner of the cube
and one on each face?
(A) FCC (B) BCC
(C) HCP (D) All of the above
215. ———— is a heat treatment technique applied to ferrous alloys, such as steel or cast iron, to
achieve greater toughness by decreasing the hardness of the alloy.
(A) Tempering (B) Recrystallization
(C) Strain hardening (D) Carburizing
216. Pyramid type diamond indenter is used in
(A) Rockwell hardness test (B) Brinell hardness test
(C) Vickers hardness test (D) All of the above
217. Parting line in sand casting should be according to the following guideline
(A) There is no need of any specific guideline
(B) It has to be simple and straight
(C) Irregular parting line to be used as it decreases casting cost
(D) Multiple parting lines to be used as it decreases casting cost
218. An expendable pattern is used in
(A) Slush casting (B) Squeeze casting
(C) Centrifugal casting (D) Investment casting
219. Which one of the following is a solid state joining process?
(A) Gas tungsten arc welding (B) Shielded metal arc welding
(C) Friction welding (D) Submerged arc welding
220. Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?
(A) Gas metal arc welding (B) Submerged arc welding
(C) Gas tungsten arc welding (D) Flux coated arc welding
221. Ultrasonic machining is based on
(A) Uniform heating (B) Uniform grinding
(C) Vibratory waves of high frequency (D) Uniform machining
222. Abrasive Jet Machining (AJM) is used for
(A) Plastics only (B) Ductile materials only
(C) Brittle materials only (D) none of the above
30 [BCG] [Contd.
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223. Under uniaxial loading the maximum shear stress is equal to
(A) double the uniaxial stress (B) equal to uniaxial stress
(C) 1.5 times the uniaxial stress (D) half of uniaxial stress
224. Principal planes are the planes on which maximum stress is the
(A) shear stress (B) normal stress
(C) thermal stress (D) none of the above
225. The shear stress in a circular shaft under torsion varies
(A) non-uniformly (B) linearly
(C) parabolically (D) hyperbolically
226. True stress is based on
(A) the original area of cross section (B) the instantaneous area of cross section
(C) the average area of cross section (D) final area of cross section
227. The maximum bending moment in a cantilever carrying a concentrated load at the free end occurs
(A) below the load (B) at mid-span
(C) at the fixed end (D) near the load
228. To increase the resistance to corrosion of steel, we should add
(A) Sulphur (B) Copper
(C) Manganese (D) Chromium
229. The function of a washer is to
(A) provide cushioning effect (B) provide bearing area
(C) absorb shocks and vibrations (D) provide smooth surface
230. Which of the following is not a desirable property for shaft material?
(A) high strength (B) high notch sensitivity
(C) good machinability (D) good wear resistance
231. Choose the flexible machine element for power transmission
(A) coupling (B) belts
(C) gear (D) clutches
232. Investment casting uses pattern made of
(A) Wax (B) Clay
(C) Metal (D) Wood
[BCG] 31
Text of page 32
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233. Cores are used to
(A) Make internal cavities in castings (B) Strengthen moulding sand
(C) Support loose pieces (D) Remove pattern easily
234. Shrinkage allowance is made by
(A) Adding to external and internal dimensions
(B) Subtracting from external and internal dimensions
(C) Subtracting from external dimensions and adding to internal dimensions
(D) Adding to external dimensions and subtracting from internal dimensions
235. In foundry(Casting) shop, riddles is
(A) Round sieve
(B) A long flat metal plate fitted with an offset handle
(C) Used to make or repair corners in mould
(D) Used to scoop sand deep in the mould
236. Water Jet Machining (WJM) makes use of the principle of
(A) Conversion of pressure energy into kinetic energy
(B) Controlled dissolution
(C) Faraday’s law of electrolysis
(D) Conversion of kinetic energy into pressure energy
237. The process of metal removal from a conducting workpiece by a repetitive spark discharge
initiated between negative tool and positive workpiece separated by a dielectric medium is called
(A) Electrochemical Machining Process (ECM)
(B) Ultrasonic machining process (USM)
(C) Ion beam machining (IBM)
(D) Electrical discharge machining (EDM)
238. Based on which of the following criterion numerical control machines are classified?
(A) Type of motion of cutting tool (B) Programming method
(C) Control system (D) All of the above
239. NC system in which the coordinates of the target point are defined with respect to a fixed program
zero point it is then called as
(A) Chain positioning (B) Absolute positioning
(C) Absolute and chain positioning (D) None of the above
32 [BCG] [Contd.
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240. Which of the following is a stress relieving process for a welded work part by causing change in its
structural properties?
(A) Annealing (B) Case hardening
(C) Quenching (D) Nitriding
241. Carburizing flame is obtained by supplying
(A) Equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
(B) More volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen
(C) More volume of oxygen and less volume of acetylene
(D) None of the above
242. In gas welding maximum flame temperature occurs at
(A) Inner cone (B) Outer cone
(C) Next of inner cone (D) Tip of the flame
243. Cold working of metal increases
(A) Tensile strength (B) Hardness
(C) Yield strength (D) All of the above
244. The process of folding over the edge of a piece sheet metal and then pressing it to make it flat to
make safer edge is called
(A) Hemming (B) Flanging (C) Seaming (D) Lancing
245. A tolerance is which one of the following?
(A) Clearance between a shaft and a mating hole
(B) Measurement error
(C) Total permissible variation from a specified dimension
(D) Variation in manufacturing
246. In inspection of a shaft if the Go Gauge as well as No Go Gauge comes over the shaft being
inspected, the part is
(A) Oversized hence reworked
(B) Undersized hence rejected
(C) Meets the tolerance limits hence accepted
(D) Such condition is not possible
247. What is accuracy?
(A) Degree of conformity with a standard (B) Reproducibility of the process
(C) Performance of the product (D) None of the above
[BCG] 33
Text of page 34
M
248. Maximum Material Condition for a shaft is
(A) Higher limit of size (B) Lower limit of size
(C) Basic size (D) None of the above
249. Sine bar is specified by
(A) Its total length (B) The center distance between the two rollers
(C) Weight of the sine bar (D) Size of the rollers
250. The impact test is done to test the _______ of the material
(A) Strength (B) Toughness
(C) Ductility (D) Hardness
251. The relation between slope and maximum bending moment is
(A) Directly proportion (B) Inverse proportion
(C) Relative proportion (D) Mutual incidence
252. The ability of the material to withstand maximum tensile force without breaking is called _______
(A) Yield strength (B) Compressive strength
(C) Tensile strength (D) Creep strength
253. The bending moment diagram for a cantilever with point load, at the free end will be
(A) A triangle with max. height under free end
(B) A triangle with max. height under fixed end
(C) A parabolic curve
(D) None of the above
254. The rate of change of bending moment is equal to
(A) Shear force (B) Deflection
(C) Slope (D) None of the above
255. Neutral axis of a beam cross-section always coincides with
(A) Axis passing through bottom of beam cross-section
(B) Axis passing through half of height of beam cross-section (h/2) from bottom
(C) Axis passing through one-third height of beam cross-section (h/3)
(D) Axis passing through centroid of beam cross-section
34 [BCG] [Contd.
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M
256. Under torsion, brittle materials generally fail
(A) Along a plane perpendicular to its longitudinal axis
(B) In the direction of minimum tension
(C) Along surfaces forming a 45 degree with the longitudinal axis
(D) None of the above
257. In a statically determinate plane truss, the number of joints (j) and the number of members (m)
are related by
(A) m = 2j – 3 (B) j = 2m – 3
(C) m = 2j – 2 (D) m = 2j + 1
258. Which of the following functions can the spring perform?
(A) Absorb energy (B) Store energy
(C) Measure force (D) All of the above
259. According to principle of superposition the deflection at any point in the shaft is equal to _______
each load separately.
(A) Sum of the deflections caused by (B) Difference of the deflections caused by
(C) Maximum of the deflections caused by (D) All of the above
260. Shaft key will fail in which of the following manner?
(A) Shear (B) Compression
(C) Both Shear and Compression (D) None of the above
261. The rated life of a bearing varies
(A) directly as load (B) inversely as square of load
(C) inversely as cube of load (D) inversely as fourth power of load
262. Uniform pressure theory as compared to uniform wear theory gives
(A) Higher frictional torques (B) Lower frictional torque
(C) Either lower or higher frictional torque (D) None of the above
263. In involute gears, the pressure angle
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant (D) None of the above
264. The number of revolutions (or hours at a constant speed) that 90 percent of a group of nominally
identical ball or roller bearings will achieve or exceed before the failure criterion develops is called
(A) Rating life of bearing (B) Median life of bearing
(C) Average life of bearing (D) None of the above
[BCG] 35
Text of page 36
M
265. A cylinder is considered as thin when the ratio of its inner diameter to the wall thickness is ____
(A) More than 3 (B) More than 15
(C) Less than 15 (D) None of the above
266. The bearings those support steady loads without any relative motion between the journal and the
bearing by forcing externally pressurized lubricant between the members are called
(A) Hydrostatic bearings (B) Hydrodynamic bearings
(C) Rolling contact bearings (D) All of the above
267. In a four bar mechanism, the sum of the shortest and the longest link is less than the sum of the
other two links. It will act as a rocker-rocker mechanism if
(A) The link opposite to the shortest link is fixed
(B) The shortest link is fixed
(C) Any link adjacent to the shortest link is fixed
(D) None of the link is fixed
268. Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain?
(A) Elliptical trammel (B) Hand pump
(C) Scotch yoke (D) Oldham’s coupling
269. The component of the acceleration directed toward the centre of rotation of a revolving body is
known as _______ component.
(A) Tangential (B) Centripetal
(C) Coriolis (D) None of the above
270. The reference point on the follower to lay the cam profile is known as the
(A) cam centre (B) pitch point
(C) trace point (D) prime point
271. In a governor if the equilibrium speed is constant for all radii of rotation of balls, the governor is
said to be
(A) stable (B) unstable
(C) inertia (D) isochronous
272. In reciprocating engines the primary unbalanced force
(A) cannot be balanced (B) can be fully balanced
(C) can be partially balanced (D) none of the above
36 [BCG] [Contd.
Text of page 37
M
273. Ratio of the number of teeth on the gear to the pitch circle diameter is called
(A) Circular pitch (B) Module
(C) Diametral pitch (D) None of these
274. A process oriented layout
(A) allocates shelf space based on customer behaviour
(B) addresses the layout requirements of large bulky projects such as ships and buildings
(C) deals with low volume, high variety production.
(D) seeks the best machine utilization in continuous production
275. Critical Ratio, CR >1 means:
(A) Job is just on time
(B) Cannot make such inferences as it is related to project management
(C) job is ahead of schedule
(D) job is behind schedule
276. Aggregate production planning caters to
(A) short range production plans (B) revenue management plans
(C) detailed production schedules (D) medium range production plans
277. Productivity decreases when
(A) inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
(B) inputs increase while output remains the same
(C) outputs increase when inputs remain the same
(D) inputs and outputs, both increase by same amount
278. The assignment method involves adding and subtracting appropriate numbers in the table to find
the lowest _______ for entire batch of assignments.
(A) opportunity cost (B) number of steps
(C) range per row (D) number of allocations
279. The scheduling rule that will clear rush of jobs from the work space quickly is:
(A) Longest Processing Time (LPT) first (B) Shortest Processing Time (SPT) first
(C) Last Come First Serve (LCFS) first (D) First Come First Serve (FCFS) first
280. The critical path in a project activities network refers to:
(A) path with the fewest activities (B) longest time path through the network
(C) path with most activities (D) path with maximum slack
[BCG] 37
Text of page 38
M
281. Extra units kept in inventory to help reduce stockouts are called
(A) reorder point (B) safety stock
(C) just in time inventory (D) EOQ
282. Crystal diode has _______
(A) one P-N junction (B) two P-N junctions
(C) three P-N junctions (D) none of the above
283. The junction is said to be biased in the forward direction when the positive battery terminal is
connected to _______
(A) P-type region (B) N-type region
(C) both P&N type region (D) none of the above
284. A crystal diode is used as _______
(A) an amplifier (B) a rectifier
(C) an oscillator (D) a voltage regulator
285. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current _______.
(A) remains the same (B) decreases
(C) increases (D) becomes zero
286. A zener diode is used as _______.
(A) an amplifier (B) a voltage regulator
(C) a rectifier (D) a multivibrator
287. As the load current increases, the zener current _______
(A) decreases (B) remains same
(C) increases (D) none of the above
288. A zener diode is always _______ connected.
(A) reverse (B) forward
(C) either reverse or forward (D) none of the above
289. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the _______.
(A) components are expensive (B) diodes must have a higher power rating
(C) output is difficult to filter (D) none of the above
290. The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is _______.
(A) 2 (B) 1.21
(C) 2.5 (D) 0.48
38 [BCG] [Contd.
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M
291. Adding nickel to copper _______ its electrical resistivity
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) unaffected (D) none of the above
292. Maximum strength of aluminum alloy is achieved by
(A) grain refinement (B) solid solution strengthening
(C) precipitation hardening (D) cold working
293. _______ contains graphite in the form of flakes.
(A) White iron (B) Ductile iron
(C) Malleable iron (D) Gray iron
294. AISI 1045 steel is a
(A) low-carbon steel (B) medium-carbon steel
(C) high-carbon steel (D) tool steel
295. _______ is an austenite stabilizing element
(A) Tungsten (B) Molybdenum
(C) Titanium (D) Nickel
296. In a reverted gear train, the axes of the first and last gear are
(A) parallel (B) co-axial
(C) skew (D) perpendicular to each other
297. If a rotating system is dynamically balanced, it is statically
(A) balanced (B) unbalanced
(C) partially balanced (D) none of the above
298. The height of a Watt governor is inversely proportional to the _______
(A) speed (B) cube of the speed
(C) square of the speed (D) none of the above
299. Sensitivity of an isochronous governor is
(A) zero (B) one
(C) four (D) infinity
300. A V-belt should touch the pulley groove at the
(A) sides only (B) bottom only
(C) bottom and sides (D) one side only
_________________
[BCG] 339 39
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-II (GWSSB)(Advt No. 02/2021-22) Exam Date:05-12-2021
BCG
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 A 61 B 91 D 121 A 151 A 181 C 211 A 241 B 271 D
2 B 32 B 62 C 92 C 122 B 152 B 182 A 212 B 242 A 272 C
3 D 33 B 63 B 93 B 123 C 153 C 183 A 213 A 243 D 273 C
4 C 34 B 64 D 94 C 124 A 154 D 184 D 214 A 244 A 274 C
5 D 35 B 65 C 95 D 125 D 155 A 185 A 215 A 245 C 275 C
6 B 36 C 66 D 96 A 126 A 156 C 186 A 216 C 246 B 276 D
7 B 37 A 67 C 97 B 127 A 157 B 187 B 217 B 247 A 277 B
8 B 38 C 68 * 98 B 128 C 158 C 188 D 218 D 248 A 278 A
9 D 39 C 69 C 99 B 129 A 159 A 189 C 219 C 249 B 279 B
10 B 40 B 70 C 100 D 130 C 160 B 190 * 220 C 250 B 280 B
11 D 41 D 71 A 101 D 131 B 161 B 191 D 221 C 251 * 281 B
12 B 42 B 72 D 102 * 132 A 162 C 192 A 222 C 252 C 282 A
13 A 43 C 73 B 103 D 133 B 163 C 193 B 223 D 253 B 283 A
14 B 44 B 74 A 104 A 134 B 164 C 194 C 224 B 254 A 284 B
15 D 45 A 75 * 105 C 135 A 165 * 195 D 225 B 255 D 285 C
16 C 46 D 76 C 106 A 136 D 166 A 196 D 226 B 256 C 286 B
17 C 47 B 77 C 107 C 137 A 167 C 197 A 227 C 257 A 287 A
18 C 48 C 78 A 108 * 138 C 168 D 198 A 228 D 258 D 288 A
19 C 49 B 79 B 109 C 139 C 169 A 199 C 229 B 259 A 289 C
20 C 50 C 80 B 110 B 140 B 170 D 200 A 230 B 260 C 290 B
21 A 51 C 81 B 111 D 141 C 171 A 201 A 231 B 261 C 291 B
22 B 52 C 82 D 112 D 142 D 172 B 202 D 232 A 262 A 292 C
23 D 53 D 83 B 113 B 143 B 173 D 203 B 233 A 263 C 293 D
24 C 54 C 84 B 114 A 144 A 174 A 204 D 234 A 264 A 294 B
25 D 55 B 85 B 115 A 145 D 175 A 205 B 235 A 265 B 295 D
26 A 56 A 86 B 116 A 146 C 176 B 206 C 236 A 266 A 296 B
27 C 57 D 87 B 117 B 147 C 177 A 207 C 237 D 267 A 297 A
28 D 58 C 88 C 118 C 148 B 178 D 208 D 238 D 268 B 298 C
29 B 59 D 89 A 119 A 149 B 179 C 209 C 239 B 269 B 299 D
30 D 60 D 90 B 120 B 150 B 180 B 210 B 240 A 270 C 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-06-2022
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-II (GWSSB)(Advt No. 02/2021-22) Exam Date:05-12-2021
BCG
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 B 61 D 91 D 121 A 151 B 181 A 211 C 241 B 271 B
2 C 32 D 62 B 92 C 122 B 152 A 182 C 212 A 242 A 272 A
3 D 33 B 63 A 93 * 123 D 153 D 183 * 213 C 243 D 273 C
4 B 34 B 64 B 94 C 124 A 154 C 184 C 214 A 244 A 274 D
5 D 35 B 65 D 95 C 125 A 155 B 185 B 215 B 245 C 275 A
6 A 36 B 66 C 96 A 126 A 156 C 186 D 216 A 246 B 276 A
7 B 37 B 67 C 97 D 127 A 157 A 187 D 217 A 247 A 277 D
8 B 38 C 68 C 98 B 128 C 158 A 188 B 218 B 248 A 278 B
9 B 39 A 69 C 99 A 129 A 159 D 189 A 219 B 249 B 279 D
10 B 40 B 70 C 100 * 130 C 160 A 190 A 220 C 250 B 280 B
11 C 41 D 71 A 101 A 131 B 161 A 191 A 221 D 251 D 281 C
12 A 42 C 72 B 102 B 132 A 162 B 192 B 222 C 252 B 282 C
13 C 43 B 73 D 103 C 133 B 163 D 193 C 223 C 253 A 283 D
14 C 44 C 74 C 104 D 134 B 164 C 194 A 224 C 254 B 284 C
15 B 45 D 75 D 105 A 135 A 165 * 195 B 225 C 255 B 285 B
16 D 46 A 76 C 106 C 136 D 166 D 196 A 226 B 256 B 286 A
17 B 47 B 77 C 107 B 137 A 167 A 197 B 227 C 257 A 287 B
18 C 48 B 78 D 108 C 138 C 168 B 198 C 228 D 258 A 288 A
19 B 49 B 79 C 109 A 139 C 169 C 199 A 229 B 259 B 289 A
20 A 50 D 80 B 110 B 140 B 170 D 200 D 230 B 260 C 290 A
21 D 51 A 81 A 111 B 141 C 171 D 201 * 231 B 261 B 291 C
22 B 52 B 82 D 112 C 142 D 172 A 202 C 232 A 262 A 292 B
23 C 53 D 83 C 113 C 143 B 173 A 203 B 233 A 263 A 293 D
24 B 54 C 84 D 114 C 144 A 174 C 204 A 234 A 264 C 294 C
25 C 55 D 85 D 115 * 145 D 175 A 205 D 235 A 265 B 295 C
26 C 56 B 86 B 116 A 146 C 176 D 206 C 236 A 266 B 296 C
27 C 57 B 87 C 117 C 147 C 177 * 207 A 237 D 267 C 297 C
28 A 58 B 88 B 118 D 148 B 178 D 208 D 238 D 268 D 298 D
29 B 59 D 89 D 119 A 149 B 179 A 209 A 239 B 269 B 299 B
30 B 60 B 90 C 120 D 150 B 180 C 210 C 240 A 270 D 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-06-2022
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-II (GWSSB)(Advt No. 02/2021-22) Exam Date:05-12-2021
BCG
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 A 61 C 91 D 121 D 151 A 181 B 211 B 241 C 271 D
2 B 32 D 62 A 92 C 122 A 152 B 182 A 212 A 242 B 272 C
3 D 33 C 63 C 93 B 123 A 153 C 183 B 213 A 243 D 273 C
4 C 34 D 64 C 94 C 124 C 154 D 184 B 214 C 244 C 274 C
5 D 35 D 65 B 95 D 125 A 155 A 185 A 215 B 245 C 275 C
6 B 36 B 66 D 96 A 126 D 156 C 186 D 216 B 246 C 276 B
7 B 37 C 67 B 97 B 127 * 157 B 187 A 217 C 247 C 277 C
8 B 38 B 68 C 98 B 128 D 158 C 188 C 218 D 248 D 278 D
9 D 39 D 69 B 99 B 129 A 159 A 189 C 219 B 249 B 279 B
10 B 40 C 70 A 100 D 130 C 160 B 190 B 220 D 250 B 280 B
11 D 41 D 71 D 101 B 131 A 161 B 191 C 221 B 251 * 281 B
12 B 42 C 72 B 102 A 132 C 162 C 192 D 222 A 252 C 282 A
13 A 43 * 73 C 103 D 133 * 163 C 193 B 223 C 253 B 283 A
14 B 44 C 74 B 104 C 134 C 164 C 194 A 224 D 254 A 284 A
15 D 45 C 75 C 105 B 135 B 165 * 195 D 225 A 255 D 285 A
16 C 46 A 76 C 106 C 136 D 166 A 196 C 226 A 256 C 286 A
17 C 47 D 77 C 107 A 137 D 167 C 197 C 227 D 257 A 287 D
18 C 48 B 78 A 108 A 138 B 168 D 198 B 228 B 258 D 288 D
19 C 49 A 79 B 109 D 139 A 169 A 199 B 229 D 259 A 289 B
20 C 50 * 80 B 110 A 140 A 170 D 200 B 230 B 260 C 290 A
21 A 51 A 81 B 111 A 141 A 171 A 201 D 231 C 261 C 291 B
22 B 52 C 82 D 112 B 142 B 172 B 202 B 232 C 262 A 292 A
23 D 53 D 83 B 113 D 143 C 173 D 203 A 233 D 263 C 293 D
24 C 54 B 84 B 114 C 144 A 174 A 204 B 234 C 264 A 294 A
25 D 55 D 85 B 115 * 145 B 175 A 205 B 235 B 265 B 295 C
26 C 56 A 86 B 116 D 146 A 176 A 206 B 236 A 266 A 296 B
27 C 57 B 87 B 117 A 147 B 177 A 207 A 237 B 267 A 297 A
28 D 58 B 88 C 118 B 148 C 178 C 208 A 238 A 268 B 298 A
29 C 59 B 89 A 119 C 149 A 179 A 209 B 239 A 269 B 299 B
30 B 60 B 90 B 120 D 150 D 180 C 210 C 240 A 270 C 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-06-2022
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-II (GWSSB)(Advt No. 02/2021-22) Exam Date:05-12-2021
BCG
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 B 61 B 91 D 121 A 151 A 181 C 211 A 241 A 271 B
2 C 32 B 62 C 92 B 122 B 152 A 182 A 212 B 242 A 272 A
3 A 33 B 63 B 93 C 123 C 153 C 183 A 213 A 243 B 273 A
4 B 34 D 64 D 94 B 124 A 154 A 184 D 214 A 244 B 274 B
5 B 35 B 65 C 95 A 125 D 155 C 185 A 215 A 245 C 275 B
6 B 36 D 66 D 96 D 126 A 156 B 186 A 216 C 246 D 276 D
7 D 37 B 67 C 97 B 127 B 157 A 187 B 217 B 247 C 277 B
8 B 38 A 68 * 98 C 128 C 158 B 188 D 218 D 248 C 278 A
9 B 39 B 69 C 99 B 129 D 159 B 189 C 219 C 249 C 279 B
10 B 40 D 70 C 100 C 130 A 160 A 190 * 220 C 250 C 280 B
11 B 41 C 71 A 101 D 131 C 161 D 191 D 221 C 251 B 281 B
12 B 42 C 72 D 102 * 132 B 162 A 192 A 222 C 252 C 282 A
13 C 43 C 73 B 103 D 133 C 163 C 193 B 223 D 253 D 283 A
14 A 44 C 74 A 104 A 134 A 164 C 194 C 224 B 254 B 284 B
15 B 45 C 75 * 105 C 135 B 165 B 195 D 225 B 255 B 285 C
16 D 46 A 76 A 106 A 136 B 166 C 196 D 226 * 256 B 286 B
17 C 47 B 77 C 107 C 137 C 167 D 197 A 227 C 257 A 287 A
18 B 48 D 78 D 108 * 138 C 168 B 198 A 228 B 258 A 288 A
19 C 49 C 79 B 109 C 139 C 169 A 199 C 229 A 259 A 289 C
20 D 50 D 80 D 110 B 140 * 170 D 200 A 230 D 260 A 290 B
21 A 51 C 81 A 111 D 141 A 171 C 201 A 231 C 261 A 291 B
22 B 52 C 82 B 112 D 142 C 172 C 202 D 232 A 262 D 292 C
23 B 53 D 83 B 113 B 143 D 173 B 203 B 233 D 263 D 293 D
24 B 54 C 84 B 114 A 144 A 174 B 204 D 234 A 264 B 294 B
25 D 55 B 85 B 115 A 145 D 175 B 205 B 235 C 265 A 295 D
26 A 56 A 86 C 116 A 146 A 176 B 206 C 236 C 266 B 296 B
27 B 57 D 87 A 117 B 147 B 177 A 207 C 237 A 267 A 297 A
28 D 58 C 88 C 118 C 148 D 178 D 208 D 238 C 268 D 298 C
29 C 59 D 89 C 119 A 149 A 179 C 209 C 239 A 269 A 299 D
30 D 60 D 90 B 120 B 150 A 180 B 210 B 240 B 270 C 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-06-2022
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-II (GWSSB)(Advt No. 02/2021-22) Exam Date:05-12-2021
BCG
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 A 61 B 91 C 121 C 151 D 181 C 211 A 241 B 271 C
2 C 32 B 62 B 92 C 122 C 152 * 182 B 212 D 242 C 272 C
3 D 33 B 63 C 93 C 123 B 153 D 183 C 213 D 243 D 273 D
4 C 34 B 64 A 94 C 124 B 154 A 184 A 214 B 244 B 274 B
5 B 35 B 65 B 95 C 125 B 155 C 185 B 215 A 245 D 275 B
6 A 36 C 66 D 96 A 126 B 156 A 186 B 216 B 246 B 276 *
7 D 37 A 67 C 97 B 127 A 157 C 187 C 217 A 247 A 277 C
8 C 38 C 68 B 98 D 128 D 158 * 188 C 218 D 248 C 278 B
9 D 39 C 69 C 99 C 129 C 159 C 189 C 219 A 249 D 279 A
10 D 40 B 70 D 100 D 130 B 160 B 190 * 220 C 250 A 280 D
11 B 41 D 71 A 101 A 131 C 161 D 191 A 221 B 251 A 281 C
12 C 42 B 72 B 102 A 132 A 162 D 192 C 222 A 252 D 282 A
13 B 43 C 73 B 103 C 133 A 163 B 193 D 223 A 253 B 283 D
14 D 44 B 74 B 104 A 134 D 164 A 194 A 224 B 254 D 284 A
15 C 45 A 75 D 105 C 135 A 165 A 195 D 225 B 255 B 285 C
16 D 46 D 76 A 106 B 136 A 166 A 196 A 226 D 256 C 286 C
17 C 47 B 77 B 107 A 137 B 167 B 197 B 227 B 257 C 287 A
18 * 48 C 78 D 108 B 138 D 168 C 198 D 228 A 258 D 288 C
19 C 49 B 79 C 109 B 139 C 169 A 199 A 229 B 259 C 289 A
20 C 50 C 80 D 110 A 140 * 170 B 200 A 230 B 260 B 290 B
21 A 51 C 81 B 111 D 141 D 171 A 201 B 231 B 261 A 291 A
22 D 52 C 82 B 112 A 142 A 172 B 202 C 232 A 262 B 292 A
23 B 53 A 83 B 113 C 143 B 173 C 203 D 233 A 263 A 293 B
24 A 54 B 84 D 114 C 144 C 174 A 204 B 234 B 264 A 294 B
25 * 55 B 85 B 115 B 145 D 175 D 205 B 235 C 265 A 295 C
26 A 56 B 86 D 116 C 146 D 176 A 206 B 236 B 266 C 296 D
27 C 57 D 87 B 117 D 147 A 177 B 207 A 237 A 267 B 297 C
28 D 58 B 88 A 118 B 148 A 178 C 208 A 238 A 268 D 298 C
29 B 59 B 89 B 119 A 149 C 179 D 209 A 239 C 269 C 299 C
30 D 60 B 90 D 120 D 150 A 180 A 210 A 240 B 270 C 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-06-2022Page 1 of 39
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.