GPSC Assistant Engineer 2023: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Civil) Class-2 (GWSSB)
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB)
Advertisement No 26/2022-23
Preliminary Test Held On 25-06-2023
Que. No. 001-300
Publish Date 26-06-2023
04-07 -2023
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S)
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet
PHYSICALLY.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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101. Percentage of water absorption in a good quality of building stone should be
(A) 0 – 5% (B) 10 – 15%
(C) 15 – 20% (D) 20 – 25%
102. How old is a particular tree can be found out by knowing the status of
(A) Cambium layer
(B) Medullary rings
(C) Annual rings
(D) Bark of tree
103. In a good brick earth used for making good quality bricks, percentage of silica lies
(A) 10 – 20% (B) 20 – 30%
(C) 30 – 40% (D) 50 – 60%
104. To impart plasticity is a main function of which ingredient?
(A) Silica (B) Alumina
(C) Iron (D) MgO
105. To construct brick masonry of one cubic meter, number of bricks required are
(A) 300 (B) 500
(C) 800 (D) 1000
106. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Grade 43 cement – Used in plastering and flooring
(B) Grade 33 cement – Used in RCC work of multi-storey building
(C) Grade 53 cement – compressive strength is 53 N/mm3 (28 days)
(D) Portland puzzolana cement (PPC) – used in mass concrete and marine structure
107. Main ingredients of Portland cement are
(A) Lime and Alumina
(B) Lime and Silica
(C) Silica and MgO
(D) Silica and Alumina
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108. Which of the following pairs of cement test and equipment used in that test is not correctly
matched ?
(A) Soundness test – Le Chatelier's apparatus
(B) Fineness test – Le Chatelier's apparatus
(C) Consistency test – Vicat’s Apparatus
(D) Setting time test – Vicat’s Apparatus
109. The concrete mix with slump value between 25 and 75 is considered _______ workable.
(A) Very low (B) Low
(C) Medium (D) High
110. As per IS 456:200, the minimum cement content for Reinforced concrete member with
normal weight aggregates of 20 mm nominal maximum size for severe exposure condition
is _______.
(A) 320 kg/m3 (B) 250 kg/m3
(C) 200 kg/m3 (D) 350 kg/m3
111. _______ is the ability of a material to resist deterioration over long period of time.
(A) Toughness (B) Hardness
(C) Durability (D) Ductility
112. Poisson’s ratio for structural steel is _______.
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.35
113. Upon loading a ductile bar beyond proportional limit, _______ increases more rapidly
than the force.
(A) Strength (B) Stress
(C) Resistance (D) Elongation
114. Soundness of cement means _______.
(A) Passing of sound waves through concrete
(B) Minimum volume change after setting
(C) Heat insulation
(D) Early strength gain
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115. The air permeability test is used for finding out _______.
(A) Fineness of cement (B) Permeability of cement
(C) Consistency of cement (D) Strength of cement
116. In case of a beam subjected to distributed load, the rate of change of bending moment
is _______.
(A) Slope (B) Deflection
(C) Shear force (D) Intensity of loading
117. The maximum strain energy stored by a member without being permanently strained
is _______.
(A) Resilience (B) Proof resilience
(C) Resistance (D) None of the above
118. Which one of the following is a kinematically determinate structure?
(A) Simply supported beam (B) Cantilever beam
(C) Fixed beam (D) Propped cantilever beam
119. For no tension condition, the maximum eccentricity in rectangular foundation of width
‘b’ should not exceed _______.
(A) b / 2 (B) b / 6
(C) b / 3 (D) b / 4
120. The Poisson’s ratio of a material which has Young’s modulus of 120 GPa and Shear
modulus of 50 GPa is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2
(C) 0.3 (D) 0.4
121. The section modulus of a rectangular section is proportional to
(A) area of the section (B) square of the area of the section
(C) product of the area and depth (D) product of the area and width
122. Product of modulus of rigidity G and polar moment of inertia J is called
(A) Axial rigidity (B) Flexural rigidity
(C) Torsional rigidity (D) Shear stiffness
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123. Polar moment of inertia of circular section having diameter of 2m is
(A) 1.2 (B) 1.6
(C) 1.3 (D) 1.57
124. The shear force diagram of a beam is shown in the given figure. The absolute maximum
bending moment in the beam is
(A) 2P × a (B) 5P × a
(C) 4P × a (D) 7P × a
125. A mild steel beam develops a bending stress of 80 MPa at a distance of 8 cm from the
neutral layer. If E = 200 GPa, the radius of curvature is
(A) 400 m (B) 200 m
(C) 100 m (D) None of the above
126. For any beam if NR = No. of Reactions, NM = No. of Members, NJ = No. of joints, then
relation between SI and KI is
(A) SI + KI = NR + NM (B) SI + KI = 3NM
(C) SI = KI + NR (D) SI – KI = NR + 3NM
127. Two people weighing W each are sitting on a plank of length L on the water at L/4 from
either end. Neglecting weight of plank, bending moment at the centre of plank is
(A) WL/8 (B) WL/16
(C) WL/32 (D) Zero
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128. A simply supported beam is subjected to uniformly distributed load on whole span.
If both supports are made fixed, the reduction in deflection at centre will be
(A) 1/5 (B) 1/4
(C) 1/3 (D) 1/2
129. A propped cantilever beam having uniform cross-section throughout a span of 4 m carried
a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m. Reaction at prop will be
(A) 80 kN (B) 20 kN
(C) 30 kN (D) 40 kN
130. A pin-jointed tower truss is loaded as shown in the given figure. The force induced in the
member DF is
(A) 1.5 kN Tension (B) 4.5 kN Tension
(C) 1.5 kN Compression (D) 4.5 kN Compression
131. In moment distribution method, the unbalanced moment at a joint is distributed to
members in _______.
(A) proportion to the stiffness of members meeting at joint
(B) proportion to stiffness of all the members of structure
(C) proportion to the fixed end moments
(D) proportion to ratio of spans
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132. A two-hinged arch is _______.
(A) Statically determinate structure (B) Kinematically determinate structure
(C) Statically indeterminate structure (D) None of the above
133. The internal forces in grids are _______.
(A) The bending moment only
(B) The bending moment and shear force
(C) The shear force, bending moment and axial force
(D) The shear force, bending moment and torsion
134. A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The ratio of
bending moment at mid span to bending moment at support is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
135. The moment at the intermediate support of a two-span continuous beam of 6 m each with
simple support at the ends carrying a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over only left
span is (EI is same for both spans)
(A) 90 kN-m Hogging (B) 45 kN-m Sagging
(C) 45 kN-m Hogging (D) Zero
136. A simply supported beam of span L carries two-point loads P at a distance 1/3 from either
support. The value of maximum bending moment anywhere in the section will be
(A) PL/2 (B) PL/4
(C) PL/6 (D) PL/3
137. A beam of span ‘L’ is fixed at both ends and carries a point load ‘W’ at its mid point.
At what distance from each support will be the point of contraflexure?
(A) 3L/8 (B) 5L/8
(C) L/4 (D) L/3
138. For a fixed beam with span L and flexural rigidity EI, amount of force required to produce
unit vertical displacement at any support is
(A) 12EI/L3 (B) 6EI/L3
(C) 4EI/L (D) Zero
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139. If three hinge parabolic arch carries uniformly distributed load on entire span, every
section of the arch will resist
(A) only pure compressive force
(B) compressive force & radial shear
(C) compressive force & bending moment
(D) compressive force, radial shear & bending moment
140. If a structure is statically indeterminate to second degree, then maximum number of
plastic hinges required to render the structure a mechanism is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) Infinite
141. The diameter of hole for 16 mm diameter bolt with standard clearance is _______.
(A) 16.5 mm (B) 18 mm
(C) 17 mm (D) 17.5 mm
142.
The steel cross-sections, which can develop plastic moment of resistance, but have
inadequate plastic hinge rotation capacity for formation of plastic mechanism is called
(A) Plastic section (B) Semi compact section
(C) Compact section (D) Slender section
143. The channel, angle and T sections belong to buckling class _______.
(A) A (B) C
(C) B (D) D
144. The function of _______ is to improve the buckling strength of a slender web due to shear.
(A) Intermediate transverse web stiffener (B) Load carrying stiffener
(C) Bearing stiffener (D) Torsion stiffener
145. Where a fillet weld is applied to the square edge of a part, the size of weld should be
at least _______ less than the edge thickness.
(A) 1.5 mm (B) 2.0 mm
(C) 2.5 mm (D) 3.0 mm
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146. For limit state of serviceability, the partial safety factor for Dead load (DL) & Live load
(LL) for DL + LL + CL (Crane load) combination is _______.
(A) 1.2 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.5 (D) 0.8
147. In case of single laced system, the direction of lacing on opposite faces of the column
shall be _______
(A) Random (B) Perpendicular
(C) Opposite (D) Same
148. The spacing between adjacent parallel line of fasteners, in transverse to the direction of
load is _______
(A) Spacing (B) Gauge
(C) Edge distance (D) Pitch
149.
Cross-section in which the elements buckle locally before reaching yield moment
is called _______.
(A) Short section (B) Flexural section
(C) Slender section (D) Axially loaded section
150. In the case of plate girder (with fy = 250 MPa), the width to thickness ratio to prevent local
buckling for plastic section shall be
(A) 9.4 (B) 8.4
(C) 10.4 (D) 13.6
151. Web crippling generally occurs at the point where
(A) bending moment is maximum (B) concentrated loads act
(C) shearing force is minimum (D) all of the above
152. Angle of inclination of lacing bar as per IS:800-2007 is between _______ degree.
(A) 20-30 (B) 30-40
(C) 40-70 (D) 70-90
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153. Two plates of 16 mm and 14 mm are joined by lap joint with a fillet weld. The maximum
size of fillet weld may be
(A) 16.0 mm (B) 14.0 mm
(C) 12.5 mm (D) 14.5 mm
154. An ISMB 400 is used as a beam in a framed structure. If it can be taken as a laterally
restrained then its
(A) Tension flange is laterally restrained (B) Compression flange is laterally restrained
(C) Web is adequately stiffened (D) Both (A) & (B) are met
155. Which of the following elements are essentially required to provide in a roof and sides of
an industrial structure to resist wind force?
(A) purlin (B) bracing
(C) truss (D) sag rod
156. A compression member may be considered as short when both the slenderness ratios are
less than _______.
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 8 (D) 16
157. When high strength deformed bars are used, the reinforcement in either direction in slabs
shall not be less than _______% of total cross-sectional area.
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.10
(C) 0.12 (D) 0.2
158. The minimum thickness of flat slab shall be _______.
(A) 100 mm (B) 175 mm
(C) 125 mm (D) 150 mm
159. The bending moment used in design of isolated footing supporting RC column shall be
computed at _______.
(A) Center of column
(B) Edge of footing
(C) At a distance of effective depth ‘d’ away from face of column
(D) Face of column
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160. In limit state method, the design strength is calculated as characteristics strength _______.
(A) Multiplied by partial safety factor (B) Divided by partial safety factor
(C) Divided by factor of safety (D) Multiplied by factor of safety
161. The maximum spacing of shear reinforcement shall not be more than _______ for vertical
stirrups.
(A) Effective depth (B) Width of member
(C) 0.75 times effective depth (D) 0.5 times effective depth
162.
The actual concrete cover at site should not deviate from the required nominal
cover by _______.
(A) + 10 mm (B) ± 10 mm
(C) + 10 mm – 5 mm (D) – 10 mm
163. Accelerator reduces _______ time and accelerate rate of hydration.
(A) Curing (B) Hardening
(C) Strengthening (D) Setting
164. The formwork from sides of beams can be removed after _______ days.
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 14 (D) 1
165. Lateral ties in reinforced concrete column are provided to resist
(A) Bending moment
(B) Shear force
(C) Buckling of longitudinal steel reinforcements
(D) Both bending moment and shear force
166. As per IS:456-2000, the short term modulus of elasticity of M25 grade of concrete can be
assumed to be
(A) 25000 MPa (B) 28500 MPa
(C) 30000 MPa (D) 36000 MPa
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167. For maximum negative moment at internal support of a multi-span beam, the arrangements
of Dead load(DL) and Live load(LL) shall be
(A) DL and LL on all span
(B) DL on all span & LL on alternate span
(C) DL on all span and LL on adjacent span meeting the support at which negative moment
to be determined.
(D) Only DL or LL on all span
168. Minimum percentage of steel provided in the column as per IS:456 is _______ of its gross
sectional area.
(A) 0.5% (B) 0.8%
(C) 1.0% (D) 1.2%
169. Which one of the following loss do not occur in pretensioned beam?
(A) Elastic shortening (B) Anchorage slip
(C) Relaxation (D) Shrinkage & Creep
170. Which one of the following parameters is not taken into account in Response reduction
factor, which is used in the determination of seismic force?
(A) Overstrength (B) Redundancy
(C) Ductility (D) Stiffness
171. When activity can be started before completion of predecessor activity, such activity is
called
(A) Sequential activity (B) Parallel activity
(C) Overlapping activity (D) None of the above
172. What is the expected activity duration for an activity whose optimistic time period is
3 days, most likely time period is 5 days and pessimistic time period is 13 days?
(A) 5 days (B) 6 days
(C) 7 days (D) 10 days
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173. Which statement is incorrect?
(A) Tail event marks the beginning of an activity
(B) Dummy activity requires highest time and maximum recourses
(C) Event that follows another event is called successor event
(D) Event that occurs before another event is called predecessor event
174. Which is correct in case of slack?
i. Slack is negative if latest allowable time is more than earliest expected time
ii. Slack is positive if latest allowable time is less than earliest expected time
iii. Slack is zero if latest allowable time is equal to earliest expected time
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (B) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (iii) is correct (D) All three are correct
175. The equipment used for precise excavation as far as depth of excavation is concerned for
utility trenches is
(A) Drag line (B) Hoe
(C) Grader (D) Shovel
176. Consider the following activities in building construction:
1. Concreting of roof slab
2. Placing of steel cage
3. Erection of form work for slab
4. Construction of parapet wall
Which one is the correct sequence of constructional activities?
(A) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (B) 3, 1, 4 and 2
(C) 1, 4, 3 and 2 (D) 3, 2, 1 and 4
177. Which type of fund is the Sinking Fund?
(A) Fund to rebuild structure when its economic life is over
(B) Fund to be raised to meet maintenance cost
(C) Fund for paying to Municipal authorities as building tax
(D) Fund for doing modifications in structure
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178. Earth work for excavation of foundation of a single room of 4.8 m × 3.6 m for depth of
foundation of 1 m and wall thickness of 30 cm is
(A) 21.5 cum (B) 19.6 cum
(C) 16.2 cum (D) 14.8 cum
179. In the analysis of rates used in the estimation and costing of the building, percentage
provision for water charges is generally around
(A) 1.5 % (B) 3.5 %
(C) 8.5 % (D) Never included
180. What is correct in case of Schedule of rates ?
i. It consists rates of different items of works
ii. PWD of state and Central governments maintain printed book of it
iii. Schedule of rates (SOR) are fixed and never revised
iv. Working rates when differ much from schedule of rates (SOR), then rates are revised,
generally after three years
(A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (D) All are correct
181. What is incorrect in case of earnest money used in contract?
(A) It is about 20 % – 25 % of estimated cost of the work
(B) It is forfeited when the contractor run away even his tender is accepted
(C) It is to be deposited by the contractor while submitting tender
(D) It is refunded to the contractor whose tender is not accepted
182. Which statement is not correct related to Measurement Book (MB)?
(A) MB is always numbered serially and issued to particular person
(B) Continuous entries are recorded in the book without leaving any blank page
(C) Payment of works and supply is made on the basis of measurements recorded in MB
(D) S
tandard measurement book (SMB) is never used for annual repair and
maintenance work
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183. A brick portion obtained by cutting a brick lengthwise into two pieces is called
(A) King closer (B) Queen closer
(C) Bat closer (D) Corner closer
184. In a masonry work, single Flemish bond should have at least thickness of
(A) Half brick (B) One brick
(C) One-and-half bricks (D) Two bricks
185. A joint in which projection is provided in one stone and depression in other stone to
prevent sliding is termed as
(A) Joggle joint (B) Butt joint
(C) Lap joint (D) Dowel joint
186. Vertical member of a frame which subdivide a window or door vertically is known as
(A) Transom (B) Jamb
(C) Mullion (D) Reveal
187. What number of treads will be there in a single flight of stair provided for floor height of
3.0 m with 15 cm height of each riser?
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 15
188. With respect to dry weight, first class bricks should not have water absorption more than
(A) 20% (B) 30%
(C) 40% (D) 50%
189. Properly designed stair should have maximum pitch value of
(A) 20° (B) 40°
(C) 60° (D) 70°
190. Type of flooring suitable for theatres and library, where noiseless covering is required is
(A) Glass flooring (B) Linoleum flooring
(C) Cork flooring (D) Tiles flooring
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191. Expansion joints in masonry walls are generally provided at length interval of more than
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m
(C) 30 m (D) 40 m
192. Which one of following is not a dewatering method used for digging foundation in
waterlogged area?
(A) Well point system
(B) Cement grouting
(C) Freezing process
(D) Electrical resistivity method
193. What is correct as per requirement for Low cost housing generally used in village?
i. Low energy consumption
ii. Use of local material with improved technology
iii. Use of costly and high strength material for long life
(A) Only (iii) is correct
(B) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
194. Which of the following is correct in case of roominess?
i. It means getting maximum benefits from minimum dimensions of the room
ii. As per this length to width ratio of 1.2 to 1.5 is desired
iii. very long length compared to width may create tunnel effect
(A) Only (iii) is correct (B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
195. A vertical window provided in sloping roof of building to admit light and air and also to
impart architectural view is called
(A) Dormer window (B) Bay window
(C) Gable window (D) Lantern light window
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196. At what temperature water is treated as standard fluid in case of specific gravity?
(A) 0°C (B) 4°C
(C) – 4°C (D) 100°C
197. If the cylinder contains 0.3 m3 of air at pressure of 100 kPa, what will be the pressure in
that cylinder if this air is compressed to 0.06 m3?
(A) 50 kPa (B) 100 kPa
(C) 500 kPa (D) 1000 kPa
198. Stokes, which is a unit of kinematic viscosity is also equivalent to
(A) cm2/s (B) m2/s
(C) mm2/s (D) dm2/s
199. Regarding specific gravity which statement is correct?
i. Ratio of specific weight of fluid to specific weight of standard fluid
ii. Ratio of mass density of fluid to mass density of standard fluid
iii. it is dimensionless and have no unit
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (D) Only (i) is correct
200. Ratio of Bulk modulus of water to Bulk modulus of air is about
(A) 1000 (B) 2000
(C) 10000 (D) 20000
201. Which of the following is used to measure discharge?
(A) Venturimeter (B) Current meter
(C) Anemometer (D) All of the above
202. Maximum thickness of boundary layer in a pipe of diameter D is
(A) D/10 (B) D/4
(C) D/2 (D) D
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203. When constant rate flow takes place through a tapering pipe then flow is
(A) Unsteady and uniform
(B) Unsteady and non-uniform
(C) Steady and uniform
(D) Steady and non-uniform
204. Which statement is correct in the context of flow net?
i. Used to study irrotational flow
ii. Obtained by plotting a series of stream lines and equipotential lines
iii. Fluid flow is confined within two-dimensional boundaries
(A) Only (ii) is correct
(B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
205. Head loss in a circular pipe of water supply for a fixed distance is proportional
(A) Directly to pipe diameter
(B) Directly to square of pipe length
(C) Directly to square of flow velocity
(D) Inversely square of flow velocity
206. Which of the following accessories will cause maximum head loss in pipe flow?
(A) 45° elbow (B) 60° bend
(C) U bend (D) 90° T-bend
207. Which statement is correct when pipes are arranged in parallel system in pipe flow?
(A) Same flow in all pipes
(B) Same head loss across each pipe
(C) Increased flow in parallel pipes
(D) None of the above
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208. Installation of draft tube in a reaction turbine helps to
(A) Increase flow rate
(B) Transport water to downstream
(C) Convert potential energy to kinetic energy
(D) Convert kinetic energy to pressure head
209. Kaplan turbine is suitable for
(A) Low head and low discharge
(B) Low head and high discharge
(C) High head and low discharge
(D) High head and high discharge
210. Single stage centrifugal pump delivers 1 m3/s of water against net head of 16 m. What is
specific speed of pump if it runs at 800 rpm?
(A) 50 (B) 100
(C) 125 (D) 200
211. If two identical pumps each of capability of delivering discharge Q against head H are
connected in series, then resulting discharge is
(A) 2Q against head of H (B) 2Q against head of 2H
(C) Q against head of H (D) Q against head of 2H
212. Which is incorrect in case of the methods used for measurement of average rainfall?
(A) Isohyetal method is used for hilly area
(B) Theissen polygon method is used for hilly area
(C) Theissen polygon method is used for plain area
(D) Theissen polygon method is used when gauging stations are less
213. Which is incorrect in case of unit hydrograph theory?
(A) Unit hydrograph represents 1 cm of runoff
(B) Effective rainfall in unit hydrograph is uniformly distributed over entire area
(C) Unit hydrograph theory is not applicable to large area
(D) Unit hydrograph theory is applicable to appreciable precipitation of snow also
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214. Area under the hyetograph represents
(A) Total rainfall occurred in that period
(B) Total runoff occurred during that period
(C) Total infiltration occurred in that period
(D) Total evapotranspiration occurred in that period
215. What is coefficient of permeability in cm/day for a 1000 cm thick aquifer, which shows
transmissibility of 20 m2/day?
(A) 50 (B) 200
(C) 500 (D) 20000
216. Which statement is correct regarding flood control ?
i. Construction of Levees
ii. Provision of flood wall
iii. Prevention of diversion channels
iv. Construction of storage reservoirs
(A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (D) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
217. Which of the following water is not available for plant for use?
(A) Capillary water (B) Hygroscopic water
(C) Soil moisture water (D) None of the above
218. What is delta of a crop which has base period of 100 days with duty of 2160 hectare/
cumec?
(A) 200 mm (B) 400 mm
(C) 600 mm (D) 800 mm
219. A cross drainage work in which canal flows over the drain/river and HFL of drain/river is
higher than canal bed is known as
(A) Aqueduct (B) Syphon aqueduct
(C) Super passage (D) Canal syphon
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220. What is width of canal, which has side slope of 0.5 H : 1 V and cross-section area of
42 square meter with depth of canal as 2 m?
(A) 20 m (B) 21 m
(C) 22 m (D) 40 m
221. What percentage of total water demand is considered for industrial purposes?
(A) 5-10 % (B) 20-25 %
(C) 40-45 % (D) 60-65 %
222. What is design flow for per capita demand of 200 litres/day of a city having population of
240000? Consider Peak factor for variations of demand is 1.5.
(A) 3000 m3/hr (B) 4500 m3/hr
(C) 5000 m3/hr (D) 8000 m3/hr
223. Dental disease named as mottling of teeth is caused when concentration of fluoride exceeds
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.5
(C) 1.0 (D) 2.0
224. Hydraulic mean depth of sewer having diameter of 0.80 m is
(A) 200 mm (B) 400 mm
(C) 800 mm (D) 1000 mm
225. Detention time for high rate digestion process is
(A) 5 days (B) 15 days
(C) 30 days (D) 60 days
226. Which is true regarding the following statements?
i. Backwashing is done in RSF
ii. Sludge recirculation is done in activated sludge process
iii. Facultative zone exists in oxidation pond
iv. Trickling filter is an anaerobic process
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are incorrect (B) Only (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(C) Only (iii) is incorrect (D) Only (iv) is incorrect
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227. Principal gases produced in anaerobic decomposition of organic solid waste compounds in
landfills are
(A) CO2 and CH4 (B) NO2 and NH3
(C) SO2 and SO3 (D) NH3 and N2
228. Pathogenic bacteria are usually determined by
(A) MPN test (B) Turbidity test
(C) Jar test (D) Conductivity test
229. Particles released in atmosphere due to incomplete combustion of carbon are called
(A) Particulate (B) Aerosols
(C) Soot (D) PAN
230. Settling velocity in primary settling tank does not depend on
(A) Length of tank (B) Width of tank
(C) Depth of tank (D) Size of particles to be settled
231. Minimum DO for survival of Aquatic life and Fishes in water bodies is around
(A) 1 mg/L (B) 4 mg/L
(C) 8 mg/L (D) 10 mg/L
232. Noise level generated by rail traffic is around
(A) 30-40 dB (B) 50-60 dB
(C) 80-100 dB (D) >150 dB
233. Liquid which is collected after water percolates through solid waste is called
(A) Sediment (B) Sullage
(C) Coagulant (D) Leachate
234. Organisms who derive both energy and material from organic compounds are called
(A) Heterotrophs (B) Phototrophs
(C) Autotrophs (D) None of the above
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235. Approximate Range of velocity gradient (G) for design of flash mixer in water treatment
plant is
(A) 50-100 (B) 200-300
(C) 300-400 (D) 600-800
236.
The effective size, uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are used to
define _______.
(A) Permeability of soil (B) Density of soil
(C) Grading of soil (D) Relative density of soil
237. Sensitivity is measure of change in consistency or strength of soil on _______.
(A) Compaction (B) Remoulding
(C) Consolidation (D) Compression
238. The unit of permeability is _______.
(A) sec / m (B) kg / sec
(C) cm / sec (D) m3/ sec
239. The constant head test is used to determine _______ of soil.
(A) Hydraulic gradient (B) Compressibility
(C) Thermal conductivity (D) Hydraulic conductivity
240. Liquefaction is sudden large decrease of the shearing resistance of _______ soil.
(A) Cohesionless unsaturated (B) Cohesive saturated
(C) Cohesionless (D) Cohesionless saturated
241. In Rankine analysis for lateral earth pressure, the soil deposit is assumed in a state
of _______.
(A) Elastic equilibrium
(B) Plastic equilibrium
(C) Equilibrium of wedge of soil and wall upto assumed failure plane
(D) None of the above
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242. Liquid and plastic limit exists in _______ soil.
(A) Gravel (B) Clay (C) Silty (D) Sandy
243. Proctor’s test is performed to determine _______.
(A) Maximum water content (B) Specific gravity
(C) Maximum dry density (D) Dry density
244. The cohesionless soil loses _______ on attaining quick condition.
(A) Bearing capacity (B) Shear strength
(C) Plasticity (D) Elasticity
245. The black cotton soil is not suitable for foundations because _______
(A) Particles are cohesive
(B) Bearing capacity is low
(C) Undergo volumetric change due to variation in moisture content
(D) Difficult to drain
246. Geodetic survey compared to Plane survey is treated differently because of
(A) Earth’s curvature is considered in it (B) Geodetic survey is used for hilly area
(C) Geodetic survey covers small area (D) Geodetic survey is done by compass
247. In field survey, the Prismatic compass measures on the field
(A) WCB only (B) RB only
(C) Both WCB and RB (D) None of these but only indicates north
248. What is RB of a line if WCB of that line is 220° ?
(A) N 40° E (B) N 220° W (C) S 40° W (D) S 140° W
249. If a line AB has FB of 40° and line BC has FB of 10°, then what is included angle between
these lines ______?
(A) 50° (B) 100° (C) 150° (D) 210°
250.
Contour rings plotted after contour survey, shows higher RL values in outer rings
compared to inner rings represents
(A) Valley (B) Hill (C) Cliff (D) Plane ground
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251. Staff intercept taken on point A is 0.7 m and on point B is 0.6 m from same setting of
instrument, what is true with respect to instrument location _______?
(A) Point B is far compared to point A
(B) Point A is far compared to point B
(C) Point A and B are at same distance
(D) Distance cannot be calculated
252. Which statement is correct for Change point in levelling ?
i. FS and BS is taken on same staff station
ii. Required when line of sight passes over the staff
iii. Required when line of sight passes under the staff through ground
iv. Used when it is not possible to read staff clearly
(A) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(C) All statements are correct (D) No statement is correct
253. What is tangent length of a simple circular curve whose radius is 200 m and deflection angle
is 90° ?
(A) 100 m (B) 200 m
(C) 400 m (D) 800 m
254. What is length of transition curve for maximum super elevation of 400 mm, provided with
rate of 1 in 400 ?
(A) 100 m (B) 160 m (C) 320 m (D) 400 m
255. What is RL of top of hill if a flag of 3.5 m length is put over the hill and angle taken by
theodolite of top of flag is 45° from a distance of 100 m? BM = 50 m and BS = 1.5 m
(A) 100 m (B) 148 m (C) 152 m (D) 155 m
256. What is scale of a vertical photograph which was taken from an aircraft flying at 2000 m
altitude over a hill of 200 m elevation fitted with 200 mm focal length camera?
(A) 1 in 6000 (B) 1 in 8000 (C) 1 in 9000 (D) 1 in 10000
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257. If plumb line is marked above observers station then upper point on the celestial sphere
is called
(A) Zenith (B) Nadir (C) Horizon (D) Equator
258. Range of wavelength for visible spectrum of EMR used in remote sensing is
(A) 100 – 200 nm (B) 400 – 700 nm
(C) 800 – 1200 nm (D) 1500 – 2000 nm
259. Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?
(A) Shale (B) Gneiss (C) Schist (D) Marble
260. Which of the following is not true in case of use of GPS?
(A) Vehicle having GPS is traceable
(B) GPS can be used in fleet management
(C) Traditional surveying equipments needed in GPS which make it costly
(D) Data for prospective project sites are quickly and accurately collected by GPS
261. Recommended values of camber for cement concrete road in the area of light to heavy
rainfall is
(A) 1.7 % – 2.0 % (B) 2.5 % – 3.0 %
(C) 3 % – 4 % (D) 4 % – 5 %
262. Width of carriageway for roads having two lanes with raised kerbs is around
(A) 5.5 m (B) 7.5 m (C) 9.5 m (D) 10.5 m
263. Safe overtaking sight distance as per IRC for speed of 60 kmph is
(A) 100 m (B) 150 m (C) 200 m (D) 300 m
264. What is equivalent factor of PCU (passenger car unit) for straight rural roads for small
bullock cart ?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
265. Total numbers of potential conflicts for two-lane roads when both roads are one-way can
be estimated as
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 24
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266. Which statement is correct ?
i. Dowel bars are provided at the transverse joint in cement concrete road
ii. Dowel bars maintain slab edges at same level at joints
iii. Tie bars are used across the longitudinal joints of cement concrete road
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) Only (iii) is correct
267. In which type of pavement Reflection cracking is generally observed?
(A) Flexible pavement
(B) Rigid overlay over flexible pavement
(C) Rigid pavement
(D) Bituminous overlay over rigid CC road
268. Side drains arc are provided in hill roads in
(A) Only on the hill side of road (B) Only on the opposite side of hill
(C) On both sides of road (D) Side drains are not provided
269. What are the requirements of the investigation for the location of the bridge site ?
i. Technical feasibility study
ii. Techno-economic study
iii. Detailed survey and report
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii) (D) All three
270. As per IRC, minimum height of cushion to be provided in the pipe culverts is
(A) 250 mm (B) 450 mm (C) 600 mm (D) 1200 mm
271. Slab bridges are used for maximum span of
(A) 6 m (B) 9 m (C) 12 m (D) 15 m
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272. Which class of vehicle live loading shall be considered as per IRC, for design of bridges
in select corridors where passage of trailer vehicles carrying stator units, turbines, heavy
equipments and machinery may occur occasionally?
(A) Class A loading (B) Class AA loading
(C) Class 70R loading (D) Class SV loading
273. Which is correct statement in case of lining of tunnels?
i. It supports the loosened rock pieces during blasting
ii. It gives proper section to the tunnel
iii. It strengthens the weak locations in the tunnel
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (B) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
274. Which of the following is the method used for tunnel construction in soft soil ground ?
(A) Compressed air method (B) Full face method
(C) Heading and bench method (D) Pilot tunnel method
275. Resonators are used in tunnels for the purpose of
(A) Noise control (B) Drainage control
(C) Dust control (D) Ventilation control
276. Total storage capacity of Narmada dam reservoir is around
(A) 4400 MCM (B) 9400 MCM
(C) 14400 MCM (D) 24000 MCM
277. Which type of turbine is used in the canal head power house for power generation in
Narmada dam ?
(A) Francis pump turbine (B) Kaplan-type turbine
(C) Pelton wheel turbine (D) Radial flow turbine
278. Which is the world’s largest masonry dam ?
(A) Bhakra Nangal Dam (B) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(C) Bratsk Dam (D) Hoover dam
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279. Which of the following is incorrect statement in case of “Statue of Unity”?
(A) Its height is 282 m
(B) It is the world’s tallest statue
(C) Materials used in its construction were cement, steel and bronze
(D) Its cost of construction was around 3000 crore
280. Along with famous Sun Temple, Modhera village of Gujarat is also famous for
(A) Station of Bullet train (B) 100 % literacy rate
(C) Fully solar powered village (D) 100 % vaccinated village for Covid-19
281. Which of the following statements is not true in case of The Ukai Dam situated in
Gujarat ?
(A) It is meant for irrigation, power generation and flood control
(B) It has second largest reservoir in Gujarat
(C) It is across Tapi river
(D) It is a Gravity Dam
282. How much percentage of railway track will be elevated through viaduct or bridges in
India’s first bullet train project of 508 km between Ahmedabad and Mumbai?
(A) Around 42% (B) Around 62%
(C) Around 82% (D) Around 92%
283. The map of India is divided in _______ seismic zones.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
284. Total length of Ahmedabad-Dholera Expressway is _______.
(A) 109 km (B) 154 km (C) 137 km (D) 176 km
285. Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor runs through total distance of _______.
(A) 510 km (B) 600 km (C) 750 km (D) 800 km
286. Which statement of the following violates the road safety rules and regulations in India ?
(A) Never use mobile while driving (B) Wear seatbelts / helmets for safety
(C) Never drink and drive (D) Overcrossing of specified speed limits
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287. Which is not among Don’ts generally used for driving on roads ?
(A) Don’t horn while on sharp curves or bends
(B) Don’t carry inflammable goods or articles in vehicle
(C) Don’t cross specified speed limits
(D) Don’t overtake an overtaking vehicle
288. Which is not considered a part of 4 Es in road safety measures ?
(A) Education (B) Evaluation
(C) Engineering (D) Environment and Emergency
289. ‘NO STOPPING’ is a _______ sign
(A) Warning (B) Regulatory
(C) Mandatory (D) Informatory
290. The warning signs should be located on the Expressways for plain and rolling terrain at a
distance of
(A) 150 m (B) 180 m (C) 200 m (D) 220 m
291. Which material is not considered as innovative building material in current scenario ?
(A) Fly ash bricks (B) Translucent cement
(C) Hydro ceramic (D) Cigarette butt bricks
292.
Which of the following statements is not correct in case of 3D printing in civil
construction ?
(A) 3D printing has advantage of faster construction work
(B) It can be used to create construction components or to print entire building
(C) Less waste is produced in 3D printing of construction
(D) 3D printing of construction requires more unskilled labour and high cost
293. Which of the following statements can be considered as a disadvantage of modern method
of construction (MMC) ?
(A) More energy-efficient and economic in nature
(B) Reduced wastage and low health & safety risk
(C) Uses concept of sustainable material and pollution control
(D) Need of specialized equipments and skilled personnel
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294. What is the full form of IGBC?
(A) Indian Green Building Council
(B) Indian Green Building Control
(C) International Green Building Control
(D) International Green Building Council
295. Which one of the following NDT is most suitable for determining cracks in concrete?
(A) Rebound hammer (B) Ultrasonic pulse velocity
(C) Impact echo (D) Penetration test
296. Which band of the electromagnetic spectrum has ability to penetrate in ground ?
(A) Visual (B) Infrared
(C) Reflected infrared (D) Microwave
297. Remote sensing techniques make use of the properties of _______ waves emitted, reflected
or diffracted by the sensed objects:
(A) Electric (B) Sound
(C) Electromagnetic (D) Wind
298. Consider the following strengths of concrete :
1. Cube strength 2. Cylinder strength
3. Split-tensile strength 4. Modulus of rupture
The correct sequence in decreasing order of these strengths is
(A) 3, 4 , 2, 1 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2 (C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 4, 3, 1, 2
299. A satellite moves in its orbit around the earth due to
(A) Gravitational force (B) Centrifugal force
(C) Centripetal force (D) None of the above
300. Ultra-High Performance Concrete (UHPC), also known as _______
(A) Reactive powder concrete (B) NPC
(C) Active powder concrete (D) High Strength concrete
_____________
[BEO] [P.T.O. 47
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB)(Advt No. 26/2022-23) Exam Date:25-06-2023
BEO
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 * 31 C 61 A 91 * 121 C 151 B 181 A 211 D 241 B 271 B
2 D 32 C 62 A 92 D 122 C 152 C 182 D 212 B 242 B 272 D
3 A 33 C 63 C 93 D 123 D 153 C 183 B 213 D 243 C 273 D
4 B 34 B 64 B 94 B 124 B 154 B 184 C 214 A 244 B 274 A
5 C 35 C 65 * 95 C 125 B 155 B 185 A 215 B 245 C 275 A
6 D 36 B 66 C 96 C 126 B 156 B 186 C 216 B 246 A 276 B
7 B 37 B 67 B 97 A 127 D 157 C 187 A 217 B 247 A 277 B
8 C 38 D 68 D 98 B 128 A 158 C 188 A 218 B 248 C 278 B
9 D 39 C 69 * 99 B 129 C 159 D 189 B 219 B 249 C 279 A
10 B 40 D 70 B 100 B 130 C 160 B 190 C 220 * 250 A 280 C
11 B 41 C 71 B 101 A 131 A 161 C 191 C 221 B 251 B 281 D
12 C 42 D 72 C 102 C 132 C 162 A 192 D 222 A 252 C 282 D
13 A 43 C 73 C 103 D 133 D 163 D 193 C 223 D 253 B 283 B
14 B 44 D 74 D 104 B 134 A 164 D 194 D 224 A 254 B 284 A
15 A 45 B 75 C 105 B 135 C 165 C 195 A 225 B 255 B 285 A
16 C 46 A 76 B 106 B 136 D 166 A 196 B 226 D 256 C 286 D
17 C 47 A 77 B 107 B 137 C 167 C 197 C 227 A 257 A 287 A
18 B 48 D 78 A 108 B 138 A 168 B 198 A 228 A 258 B 288 B
19 C 49 C 79 A 109 B 139 A 169 B 199 B 229 C 259 A 289 *
20 C 50 D 80 C 110 A 140 C 170 D 200 D 230 C 260 C 290 C
21 C 51 B 81 D 111 C 141 B 171 C 201 A 231 B 261 A 291 A
22 B 52 D 82 B 112 A 142 C 172 B 202 C 232 C 262 B 292 D
23 C 53 B 83 D 113 D 143 B 173 B 203 D 233 D 263 D 293 D
24 * 54 D 84 D 114 B 144 A 174 C 204 D 234 A 264 B 294 A
25 D 55 B 85 A 115 A 145 A 175 B 205 C 235 * 265 B 295 B
26 A 56 D 86 A 116 C 146 B 176 D 206 D 236 C 266 C 296 D
27 D 57 D 87 B 117 B 147 D 177 A 207 B 237 B 267 D 297 C
28 C 58 C 88 B 118 C 148 B 178 C 208 D 238 C 268 A 298 *
29 * 59 D 89 D 119 B 149 C 179 A 209 B 239 D 269 D 299 C
30 A 60 A 90 A 120 B 150 A 180 C 210 B 240 D 270 C 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB)(Advt No. 26/2022-23) Exam Date:25-06-2023
BEO
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 D 61 A 91 C 121 D 151 B 181 B 211 C 241 C 271 C
2 B 32 B 62 A 92 D 122 C 152 C 182 C 212 A 242 B 272 B
3 A 33 C 63 C 93 C 123 * 153 B 183 D 213 A 243 C 273 B
4 A 34 D 64 B 94 D 124 C 154 B 184 A 214 B 244 B 274 C
5 C 35 B 65 * 95 B 125 A 155 B 185 * 215 C 245 B 275 B
6 D 36 B 66 C 96 A 126 A 156 C 186 C 216 C 246 C 276 B
7 B 37 C 67 B 97 A 127 C 157 A 187 B 217 D 247 C 277 D
8 D 38 A 68 D 98 D 128 D 158 B 188 C 218 C 248 D 278 A
9 D 39 B 69 * 99 C 129 D 159 A 189 D 219 D 249 B 279 C
10 A 40 A 70 B 100 D 130 C 160 C 190 D 220 A 250 B 280 C
11 A 41 C 71 B 101 B 131 D 161 A 191 B 221 B 251 B 281 A
12 B 42 C 72 C 102 B 132 B 162 B 192 B 222 C 252 C 282 C
13 B 43 B 73 C 103 B 133 D 163 D 193 C 223 A 253 C 283 D
14 D 44 C 74 D 104 A 134 B 164 B 194 B 224 B 254 B 284 A
15 A 45 C 75 C 105 C 135 B 165 B 195 C 225 D 255 B 285 C
16 * 46 C 76 A 106 D 136 D 166 C 196 A 226 A 256 B 286 D
17 D 47 B 77 D 107 D 137 B 167 D 197 A 227 C 257 C 287 C
18 D 48 C 78 C 108 B 138 D 168 A 198 C 228 D 258 C 288 A
19 B 49 * 79 * 109 A 139 A 169 D 199 C 229 B 259 D 289 A
20 C 50 D 80 A 110 A 140 B 170 C 200 A 230 B 260 B 290 C
21 C 51 B 81 C 111 D 141 B 171 B 201 D 231 B 261 C 291 B
22 A 52 D 82 C 112 A 142 B 172 D 202 A 232 B 262 A 292 C
23 B 53 B 83 C 113 B 143 B 173 D 203 C 233 B 263 D 293 B
24 B 54 D 84 B 114 * 144 B 174 A 204 A 234 B 264 D 294 A
25 B 55 B 85 C 115 C 145 * 175 A 205 C 235 A 265 C 295 A
26 * 56 D 86 B 116 A 146 B 176 D 206 A 236 C 266 A 296 B
27 D 57 D 87 B 117 D 147 A 177 A 207 D 237 A 267 C 297 D
28 A 58 C 88 D 118 D 148 D 178 A 208 B 238 D 268 B 298 B
29 B 59 D 89 C 119 A 149 A 179 C 209 C 239 B 269 B 299 C
30 C 60 A 90 D 120 B 150 B 180 C 210 A 240 A 270 D 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB)(Advt No. 26/2022-23) Exam Date:25-06-2023
BEO
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 D 61 B 91 C 121 A 151 A 181 C 211 D 241 C 271 C
2 D 32 B 62 C 92 B 122 A 152 C 182 A 212 C 242 D 272 C
3 C 33 D 63 A 93 D 123 C 153 D 183 B 213 A 243 C 273 D
4 * 34 D 64 B 94 * 124 C 154 D 184 A 214 A 244 D 274 B
5 A 35 A 65 A 95 B 125 A 155 C 185 C 215 C 245 A 275 B
6 C 36 A 66 C 96 B 126 B 156 D 186 A 216 B 246 B 276 B
7 C 37 B 67 C 97 C 127 B 157 B 187 B 217 C 247 C 277 C
8 C 38 B 68 B 98 C 128 B 158 D 188 D 218 B 248 A 278 C
9 B 39 D 69 C 99 D 129 A 159 B 189 B 219 A 249 B 279 B
10 C 40 A 70 C 100 C 130 C 160 B 190 B 220 A 250 D 280 B
11 B 41 * 71 C 101 D 131 D 161 D 191 C 221 B 251 A 281 B
12 B 42 D 72 B 102 A 132 D 162 B 192 D 222 D 252 C 282 C
13 D 43 D 73 C 103 A 133 B 163 D 193 A 223 B 253 D 283 C
14 C 44 B 74 * 104 C 134 A 164 A 194 D 224 C 254 B 284 D
15 D 45 C 75 D 105 C 135 A 165 B 195 C 225 A 255 B 285 B
16 C 46 C 76 B 106 B 136 D 166 B 196 B 226 D 256 B 286 C
17 D 47 A 77 D 107 C 137 A 167 B 197 D 227 A 257 B 287 A
18 C 48 B 78 B 108 D 138 B 168 B 198 D 228 C 258 B 288 D
19 D 49 B 79 D 109 A 139 * 169 B 199 A 229 A 259 B 289 D
20 B 50 B 80 B 110 * 140 C 170 * 200 A 230 C 260 A 290 C
21 A 51 * 81 D 111 C 141 A 171 B 201 B 231 A 261 C 291 A
22 A 52 D 82 D 112 B 142 D 172 A 202 D 232 D 262 A 292 C
23 D 53 A 83 C 113 C 143 D 173 D 203 A 233 B 263 D 293 B
24 C 54 B 84 D 114 D 144 A 174 A 204 C 234 C 264 B 294 B
25 D 55 C 85 A 115 D 145 B 175 B 205 C 235 A 265 A 295 D
26 B 56 D 86 A 116 B 146 D 176 B 206 A 236 C 266 C 296 C
27 B 57 B 87 A 117 B 147 C 177 C 207 C 237 A 267 B 297 B
28 A 58 C 88 C 118 C 148 * 178 B 208 D 238 A 268 C 298 B
29 A 59 D 89 B 119 B 149 C 179 B 209 A 239 B 269 B 299 C
30 C 60 B 90 * 120 C 150 A 180 B 210 C 240 C 270 B 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB)(Advt No. 26/2022-23) Exam Date:25-06-2023
BEO
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 * 31 D 61 B 91 * 121 B 151 D 181 D 211 C 241 A 271 B
2 D 32 D 62 B 92 D 122 A 152 A 182 D 212 A 242 C 272 D
3 A 33 C 63 D 93 D 123 D 153 A 183 B 213 D 243 B 273 B
4 B 34 D 64 C 94 B 124 A 154 C 184 A 214 B 244 B 274 C
5 C 35 A 65 D 95 C 125 B 155 C 185 A 215 A 245 D 275 A
6 D 36 A 66 C 96 C 126 B 156 B 186 D 216 C 246 C 276 D
7 B 37 A 67 D 97 A 127 C 157 C 187 A 217 B 247 B 277 A
8 C 38 C 68 C 98 B 128 B 158 D 188 B 218 C 248 B 278 C
9 D 39 B 69 D 99 B 129 B 159 A 189 * 219 B 249 C 279 A
10 B 40 * 70 B 100 B 130 B 160 * 190 C 220 B 250 B 280 C
11 B 41 C 71 A 101 A 131 C 161 C 191 A 221 C 251 B 281 A
12 C 42 B 72 A 102 C 132 A 162 B 192 D 222 C 252 D 282 D
13 A 43 D 73 D 103 D 133 B 163 C 193 D 223 D 253 A 283 B
14 B 44 * 74 C 104 D 134 A 164 D 194 A 224 B 254 C 284 C
15 A 45 B 75 D 105 C 135 C 165 D 195 B 225 B 255 C 285 A
16 C 46 B 76 B 106 D 136 A 166 B 196 D 226 B 256 A 286 C
17 C 47 C 77 B 107 B 137 B 167 B 197 C 227 C 257 C 287 A
18 B 48 C 78 A 108 D 138 D 168 C 198 * 228 C 258 D 288 A
19 C 49 D 79 A 109 B 139 B 169 B 199 C 229 B 259 A 289 B
20 C 50 C 80 C 110 B 140 B 170 C 200 A 230 B 260 C 290 C
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 D 141 C 171 A 201 A 231 B 261 D 291 C
22 B 52 D 82 B 112 B 142 D 172 A 202 C 232 C 262 C 292 D
23 C 53 C 83 D 113 D 143 A 173 C 203 D 233 C 263 A 293 C
24 * 54 * 84 D 114 A 144 D 174 C 204 B 234 D 264 A 294 D
25 D 55 A 85 A 115 B 145 C 175 A 205 B 235 B 265 C 295 A
26 B 56 C 86 A 116 B 146 B 176 B 206 B 236 C 266 B 296 B
27 D 57 C 87 B 117 B 147 D 177 B 207 B 237 A 267 C 297 C
28 B 58 C 88 B 118 B 148 D 178 B 208 B 238 D 268 B 298 A
29 D 59 B 89 D 119 B 149 A 179 A 209 B 239 D 269 A 299 B
30 B 60 C 90 A 120 * 150 A 180 C 210 A 240 C 270 A 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, (GWSSB)(Advt No. 26/2022-23) Exam Date:25-06-2023
BEO
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 C 61 A 91 C 121 B 151 B 181 D 211 C 241 B 271 B
2 D 32 C 62 B 92 C 122 D 152 B 182 B 212 A 242 C 272 C
3 B 33 C 63 B 93 B 123 D 153 B 183 D 213 D 243 B 273 A
4 D 34 B 64 D 94 C 124 A 154 A 184 B 214 D 244 A 274 B
5 B 35 C 65 A 95 C 125 A 155 C 185 B 215 C 245 A 275 D
6 D 36 B 66 * 96 C 126 D 156 D 186 D 216 A 246 B 276 A
7 D 37 B 67 D 97 B 127 A 157 D 187 B 217 C 247 D 277 C
8 C 38 D 68 D 98 C 128 A 158 B 188 D 218 B 248 B 278 D
9 D 39 C 69 B 99 * 129 C 159 A 189 A 219 B 249 C 279 B
10 A 40 D 70 C 100 D 130 C 160 A 190 B 220 D 250 A 280 B
11 A 41 C 71 C 101 B 131 B 161 D 191 B 221 C 251 D 281 B
12 A 42 D 72 A 102 C 132 C 162 A 192 B 222 B 252 A 282 B
13 C 43 C 73 B 103 B 133 D 163 B 193 B 223 B 253 C 283 B
14 B 44 D 74 B 104 B 134 A 164 * 194 B 224 C 254 A 284 B
15 * 45 B 75 B 105 B 135 * 165 C 195 * 225 B 255 C 285 A
16 C 46 A 76 * 106 C 136 C 166 A 196 B 226 B 256 A 286 C
17 B 47 A 77 D 107 A 137 B 167 D 197 A 227 D 257 D 287 A
18 D 48 D 78 A 108 B 138 C 168 D 198 D 228 A 258 B 288 D
19 * 49 C 79 B 109 A 139 D 169 A 199 A 229 C 259 C 289 B
20 B 50 D 80 C 110 C 140 D 170 B 200 B 230 C 260 A 290 A
21 B 51 B 81 D 111 A 141 B 171 D 201 B 231 A 261 C 291 C
22 C 52 B 82 B 112 B 142 B 172 C 202 C 232 C 262 A 292 B
23 C 53 A 83 C 113 D 143 C 173 * 203 C 233 D 263 A 293 C
24 D 54 A 84 D 114 B 144 B 174 C 204 B 234 A 264 B 294 B
25 C 55 C 85 B 115 B 145 C 175 A 205 B 235 C 265 C 295 B
26 A 56 D 86 B 116 C 146 A 176 A 206 B 236 D 266 C 296 C
27 D 57 B 87 C 117 D 147 A 177 C 207 C 237 C 267 D 297 C
28 C 58 D 88 A 118 A 148 C 178 D 208 C 238 A 268 C 298 D
29 * 59 D 89 B 119 D 149 C 179 D 209 D 239 A 269 D 299 B
30 A 60 A 90 A 120 C 150 A 180 C 210 B 240 C 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023Page 1 of 47
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.