GPSC Assistant Engineer 2023: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Civil) Class-2, Road and Building Department
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Assistant Engineer(Civil),Class-2, Road & Building Department
Advertisement No 15/2022-23
Preliminary Test Held On 02-04-2023
Que. No. 001-300
Publish Date 03-04-2023
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 13-04 -2023
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet
PHYSICALLY.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા- સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા- સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા- સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા- સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા- સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા- સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા- સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા- સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા- સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા- સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા- સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા- સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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101. Indirect ranging is done when
(i) the stations are far apart
(ii) the stations are not intervisible
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
102. Which of the following statements are true when the chain is not pulled correctly and straightened
before measurements?
(i) The measured length will always be more
(ii) The measured length will always be less
(iii) The error is cumulative
(iv) The error is compensative
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
103. The magnetic bearing of a line is 177°30’. If the declination is 2°30’ E, the true bearing would be
(A) 0° (B) 2°30’ (C) 175° (D) 180°
104. Which of the following statements is true for Quadrantal bearings?
(A) They are always measured from North or South Direction as acute angles
(B) They are always measured from North or South Direction as obtuse angles
(C) They are always measured from East or West Direction as acute angles
(D) They are always measured from East or West Direction as obtuse angles
105. In compassing, the error due to local attraction is a/an
(A) personal error (B) instrumental error
(C) cumulative error (D) systematic error
106. Centering the theodolite means
(A) setting the theodolite exactly over the station mark
(B) rotating the telescope about the horizontal axis through 180°
(C) rotating the telescope about the vertical axis
(D) bisecting the ranging rod
107. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false for plane table surveying?
(i) Two-point problem is a special case of resection method of plane table surveying
(ii) Three-point problem is a special case of radiation method of plane table surveying
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
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108. While balancing a Traverse, Bowditch’s rule is applied when
(A) the angular and linear measurements are deemed to have equal precision
(B) angles measured to greater precision than the lengths
(C) angles are measured very precisely
(D) local attraction is 0°
109. An automatic level address to
(i) an improper line of sight
(ii) improper bisection of the object
(iii) faulty centering
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) (i) and (ii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
110. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true while taking a change point during levelling?
(i) Foresight is taken before shifting the instrument
(ii) Foresight is taken after shifting the instrument
(iii) Backsight is taken after shifting the instrument
(iv) Backsight is taken before shifting the instrument
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
111. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for igneous rocks?
(i) Extrusive igneous rocks have formed by rapid cooling of magma at the surface
(ii) Plutonic igneous rocks have formed by the slow cooling of great volumes of magma, typically
at depths of a few kilometres within the Earth
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
112. Granite is an example of which type of rocks?
(A) Intrusive igneous rock (B) Extrusive igneous rock
(C) Sedimentary rock (D) Metamorphic rock
113. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(i) The parallel arrangement of certain mineral grains that gives the rock a striped appearance is
called Foliation
(ii) All sedimentary rocks are foliated
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
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114. Surface overflow rate can be said to be representing the settling velocity of the
(A) slowest settling particles which are 100% removed
(B) fastest settling particles which are 100% removed
(C) slowest settling particles which are 50% removed
(D) fastest settling particles which are 50% removed
115. 6 million litres of water is passing through a sedimentation tank daily. If the detention time of the
tank is 4 hours, then the volume of the tank would be
(A) 24 Million Litres (B) 1.5 Million Litres
(C) 1.0 Million Litres (D) None of the above
116. For a sedimentation tank, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(i) Settling efficiency is primarily dependent upon the surface area of the tank and is independent
of the depth
(ii) Settling efficiency is primarily dependent upon the depth and is independent of the surface
area
(iii) Increasing the surface overflow rate would lead to the increase in the settling efficiency
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iii)
117. Alum when added to raw water reacts with bicarbonate alkalinities so as to form a gelatinous
precipitate of
(A) Aluminium hydroxide (B) Aluminium sulphate
(C) Calcium sulphate (D) Magnesium sulphate
118. While comparing the Alum and Iron salts to be used as coagulants, which of the following
statements are true?
(i) Iron salts produce heavy floc and can therefore remove much more suspended matter than the
alum
(ii) Iron salts being good oxidising agents, can remove hydrogen sulphide and its corresponding
tastes and odour from water
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
119. What is the role of gravel in a slow sand filter?
(i) It supports the sand
(ii) It distributes the wash water
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
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120. Residual chlorine can be experimentally determined by which of the following tests?
(i) Orthotolidine test
(ii) Starch-iodide test
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
121. For which of these elements, the permissible concentration in drinking water is less than
1.0 mg / lit?
(i) Copper (ii) Selenium (iii) Iron (iv) Zinc
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
122. For which of these elements, there is some relaxation in the permissible limits in drinking water
quality in the absence of an alternate source?
(i) Sulphate (ii) Nitrate (iii) Sulphide
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
123. Which of the following compounds has the least solubility in water at room temperature?
(A) CaCl2 (B) Ca(OH)2
(C) CaCO3 (D) Ca(HCO3)2
124. The current Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) permissible exposure limit
(PEL) for carbon monoxide is _______ as an 8-hour time-weighted average
(A) 5 ppm (B) 50 ppm
(C) 100 ppm (D) 500 ppm
125. Under the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP), which of the following pollutants
are identified for regular monitoring at all the locations?
(i) PM2.5 (ii) NOx (iii) O3 (iv) CO
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
126. The minimum number of observations which are needed to be taken on a site for estimating the
annually averaged concentration of an air pollutant is
(A) 12 (B) 52
(C) 104 (D) 208
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127. Central Pollution Control Board evolved Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI)
for monitoring
(A) commercial areas (B) industrial areas
(C) ecologically sensitive zones (D) educational areas
128. Under the Rule No. 9 of the Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary
Movement) Rules, 2008
(A) the occupier generating the hazardous may sell it to a recycler having a valid registration from
CPCB for recycling or recovery
(B) the recycler shall maintain records of the hazardous waste purchased
(C) the occupier shall be responsible for safe and environmentally sound handling of the hazardous
waste generated in his establishment
(D) the hazardous waste generated in the establishment of an occupier shall be disposed of in an
authorized disposal facility.
129. The daily cover of a Municipal Solid Waste landfill consists of which one of the following?
(A) Compacted Soil (B) Fly ash
(C) Compost (D) Geo-membrane
130. In the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, ‘night time’ means the period between
(A) 10.00 pm and 6.00 am (B) 8.00 pm and 6.00 am
(C) 12.00 am and 6.00 am (D) 12.00 am and 8.00 am
131. The clay deposit thickness of 10 cm and void ratio of 0.5 undergoes settlement, and its final void
ratio is 0.2 after the settlement. What is the thickness of the settled layer?
(A) 1.0 cm (B) 1.5 cm
(C) 2.0 cm (D) 2.5 cm
132. An isobar is a curve connecting all points of _______ below the ground.
(A) equal vertical pressure (B) equal horizontal pressure
(C) equal pore pressure (D) equal hydrostatic pressure
133. Westergaard’s formula for vertical stress gives the greater value of stress than that by Boussinesq’s
formula when r/z exceeds
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.5
(C) 3.5 (D) 4.5
134. The active earth pressure of a soil is proportional to ______ (where “f” is the angle of friction of
the soil)
(A) tan (45o – f) (B) tan2 (45o + f/2)
(C) tan2 (45o – f/2) (D) tan (45o + f)
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135. A failure wedge develops if a retaining wall
(A) Moves towards the backfill
(B) Sinks downwards
(C) Stresses equally by vertical and horizontal forces.
(D) Moves away from the backfill
136. The failure plane in a direct shear test is
(A) Vertical (B) Horizontal
(C) Inclined (D) Depends upon the soil
137. Relative compaction is
(A) similar to the relative density
(B) a ratio of dry density of the sample to its bulk density
(C) a ratio of dry density obtained in the field to the dry density obtained in the lab
(D) the amount of compaction energy absorbed by the sample
138. Time factor (Tv) in consolidation is
(i) A non-dimensional parameter
(ii) A function of the degree of consolidation
(iii) Directly proportional to the permeability of soil
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
139. In consolidation testing, curve fitting method is used to determine
(i) Coefficient of consolidation
(ii) Compression Index
(iii) Swelling Index
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
140. The coefficient of passive earth pressure for cohesionless granular soil is represented by
(A) (1 + sinq) / (1 – sinq)
(B) (1 + cosq) / (1 – cosq)
(C) (1 – sinq) / (1 + sinq)
(D) None of the mentioned above
141. For a very loose soil, the SPT N value is
(A) < 4 (B) 5 to 10
(C) < 10 (D) 10 to 30
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142. The under-reamed piles are connected by a beam known as
(A) Capping beam and grade beam
(B) Reamed beam
(C) Cantilever beam
(D) Support beam
143. The bearing capacity of a pile group is
(A) Equal to the sum of bearing capacities of individual piles in case of friction piles
(B) Equal to the sum of bearing capacities of individual piles in case of end bearing piles
(C) Less than the sum of bearing capacities of individual piles in case of end bearing piles
(D) Greater than the sum of bearing capacities of individual piles in case of friction or end bearing
piles.
144. Black cotton soil is not suitable for foundation because of its
(A) Low bearing capacity (B) Cohesive particles
(C) Swelling and shrinkage (D) Higher friction angle
145. The contact pressure for a rigid footing on a cohesionless soil is
(A) Uniform throughout
(B) Greater at the centre and decreases towards the edges
(C) Smallest at the centre and increases towards the outer edge
(D) Zero at the centre and maximum at the outer edge
146. The raft footing is useful where the
(i) Foundation has low bearing capacity
(ii) Heavy loads are transferred through columns
(iii) Super structure is sensitive to the differential settlements
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
147. A foundation with width is greater than the depth is called
(A) Shallow foundation (B) Moderate foundation
(C) Deep foundation (D) Floating foundation
148. Two criteria for the determination of allowable bearing capacity of a foundation are
(A) Tensile failure and compression failure
(B) Tensile failure and settlement
(C) Bond failure and shear failure
(D) Shear failure and settlement
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149. If geotextiles are used as a reinforcement, then they should have
(A) Lower modulus of deformation
(B) Higher modulus of deformation
(C) Lower coefficient of friction
(D) Lower breaking strength
150. The total blow count required for the second and third 15 cm of penetration in standard penetration
test is taken as
(A) Seating drive (B) Penetration resistance
(C) Overburden pressure (D) Dilatancy/submergence
151. In sewerage system drop manholes are provided when there is a
(A) change in the alignment of sewer line
(B) change in the elevation of the ground
(C) change in size of sewers
(D) change from gravity system to pressure system
152. In the design consideration of sewerage system, the sewers must have which one of the following ?
(A) Maximum velocity not less than the self cleaning velocity
(B) Maximum velocity not less than the scouring velocity
(C) Minimum velocity not less than the self cleaning velocity
(D) Minimum velocity not less than the scouring velocity.
153. In conventional activated sludge process, MLSS is generally kept in which range ?
(A) < 100 mg/l (B) 1000-2000 mg/l
(C) 2000-3000 mg/l (D) 3000-5000 mg/l
154. A municipal sewage has BOD5 of 200 mg/l. It is proposed to treat it and dispose of into a marine
environment. For what minimum efficiency should the sewage treatment plant be designed?
(A) 85% (B) 60%
(C) 50% (D) 33.67%
155. High COD to BOD ratio of an organic pollutant represents
(A) high biodegradability of the pollutant
(B) low biodegradability of the pollutant
(C) sufficient presence of free oxygen for aerobic decomposition
(D) sufficient presence of chemicals for natural degradation
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156. In a city drainage system, having drainage to sewage ratio as 20, the peak dry weather flow would
amount to
(A) 20% of the design discharge
(B) 10% of the design discharge
(C) slightly less than 5% of the design discharge
(D) None of the above
157. The flow velocity in a sewer does not depend on its
(A) grade (B) length
(C) hydraulic mean depth (D) roughness
158. At a sewage treatment plant for a flow of 3 m3/s, the cross-sectional area of grit chamber will be
about
(A) 3 m2 (B) 10 m2
(C) 25 m2 (D) 30 m2
159. An industry manufacturing urea produces wastewater, which largely contains urea and ammonia.
The treatment plant consists of the following units for effective control of nitrogen
1. Nitrification followed by denitrification
2. Hydrolysis
3. Ammonia stripping by air
4. Lime dosing and mixing
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of above unit operations in the treatment
plant?
(A) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 (B) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4
(C) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (D) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1
160. For the combined sewerage system, egg-shaped sewers are preferred because :
(A) their construction is economical
(B) they are structurally more stable
(C) they offer good flow velocity during the dry weather flow condition
(D) their maintenance is easier
161. What is RDF in Solid Waste Management?
(A) waste and rejects from the solid waste processing facilities which are not suitable for recycling
or further processing
(B) waste that cannot be degraded by microorganisms
(C) fuel derived from combustible waste fraction of solid waste
(D) waste other than bio-degradable waste and inert waste
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162. Co-processing of solid waste is applicable for:
(i) non-biodegradable waste
(ii) non-recyclable waste
(iii) waste having high calorific value
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
163. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 mandates buffer zone for processing facilities exceeding:
(A) One ton per day (B) Two tons per day
(C) Five tons per day (D) Ten tons per day
164. The used needles and syringes and contaminated gauge generated at the household level are
categorised as:
(A) Biomedical waste (B) Sanitary waste
(C) Non-biodegradable waste (D) Domestic hazardous waste
165. As per the principle of ‘waste Hierarchy’, what is the correct order in which the solid waste should
be managed?
(A) prevention, reduction, reuse, recycling, recovery, disposal
(B) reduction, recycling, prevention, reuse, recovery, disposal
(C) reuse, disposal, reduction, recycling, recovery, prevention
(D) disposal, recovery, prevention, reduction, reuse, recycling
166. The maximum lateral friction co-efficient considered as per IRC standards is:
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.35
(C) 0.30 (D) 0.15
167. For general cases, the maximum super elevation considered in roadways as per IRC standards is:
(A) 0.07 (B) 0.15
(C) 0.35 (D) 0.50
168. If V = design speed in kmph, ‘R’ is the radius of the curve (m), and the lateral friction ‘f’ is
neglected for safe conditions, then the design super elevation calculation in mixed traffic flow
conditions, ‘e’ is expressed as
(A) e = V / 127R (B) e = V2 / 127R
(C) e = V / 225R (D) e = V2 / 225R
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169. According to IRC, at horizontal curves, the super-elevation balances the centrifugal force
corresponding to
(A) full design speed (B) half of design speed
(C) three-fourth of design speed (D) One-third of design speed
170. The traffic “warning sign boards” next to the roadways are always in
(A) Circle (B) Hexagon
(C) Square (D) Triangle
171. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The centrifugal ratio decreases along the length of the transition curve
(ii) The super elevation increases along the length of the transition curve
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
172. If the super-elevation is not provided on a horizontal curve of a highway, then on which portion of
the road, are potholes likely to develop?
(A) outer edge of the road (B) inner edge of the road
(C) centre of road (D) shoulder of road
173. What will be the length of the vertical curve if a 5% downgrade curve is followed by 2% upgrade
curve and the rate of change of grade is 0.1% per 25 m length?
(A) 1750 m (B) 1250 m
(C) 1000 m (D) 750 m
174. Stripping test is done for testing which property of a highway material?
(A) Bitumen adhesion (B) toughness
(C) hardness (D) strength
175. Which of the following are a part of Bridge substructure?
(i) Pier (ii) Abutment (iii) Wing wall (iv) Girder
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
176. The frictional resistance for turbulent flow in pipe
(A) varies directly with pressure
(B) varies inversely to the area of surface in contact
(C) varies inversely to density of fluid
(D) varies approximately power two of the velocity
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177. If Reynolds number is 108 for turbulent flow in a smooth pipe, then what would be the approximate
value of friction factor for the pipe?
(A) 0.015 (B) 0.025
(C) 0.030 (D) None of the above
178. In a laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates, the flow velocity is
(A) constant across the passage
(B) maximum at the centre and zero at the boundary
(C) zero all through the passage
(D) maximum at the boundary and zero at the centre
179. The term fully developed laminar flow means that
(A) the Reynolds number of the flow is critical
(B) the pressure drop in the direction of flow is zero
(C) the velocity profile across the flow has become uniform
(D) the velocity profile does not change in the direction of flow
180. The transition from laminar to turbulent flow around spherical bodies occurs when Reynolds
number (Re) is
(A) Re = 500 (B) Re = 2000
(C) Re = 1 (D) Re > 1
181. Change in boundary layer from laminar to turbulent is directly affected by
1. Pressure gradient
2. Intensity of turbulence
3. Velocity of flow
In view of the above, which of the following is correct?
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
182. At a hydraulic jump, the depths at the two sides are 3 m and 5 m. The head loss due to jump would
be
(A) 189.9 cm (B) 78.6 mm
(C) 133.3 mm (D) 39.3 mm
183. Many empirical formulae are being used for estimating Manning’s coefficient ‘N’ in natural
channels. If the particle size d50 is 0.002 m, then as per Strickler formula, ‘N’ varies with
(A) [0.002]1/3 (B) [0.002]1/4
(C) [0.002]1/6 (D) [0.002]1/2
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184. In pipe flow, Froude number is predominant when
(A) the pipe is running partially full
(B) the pipe is running full
(C) there is no flow in the pipe
(D) both (A) and (C)
185. The depth of flow for maximum velocity in a circular channel section with diameter equal to
2.0 m is
(A) 1.620 m (B) 2.430 m
(C) 1.804 m (D) None of the above
186. What is the frequency of a 10 pole 300 rpm alternator?
(A) 15 Hz (B) 50 Hz
(C) 35 Hz (D) None of the above
187. Water is supplied from a height of 3 m at the rate of 54 liters per second to a hydraulic ram which
delivers 3 liters per second to a height of 30 m above the ram. What would be the Rankine’s
efficiency?
(A) 65% (B) 84%
(C) 35% (D) None of the above
188. In reference to the figure shown below, what is the value of L1 and L2 for detailing of a floor slab?
(Note: L = Length of the slab and Ld = Development Length)
(A) 0.10 L and Ld
(B) 0.15 L and Ld/3
(C) 0.10 L and Ld/3
(D) 0.15 L and Ld
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189. The figure below shows a typical reinforcement detailing pattern with U-bars, identify the purpose
of providing such reinforcement
(A) Yield reinforcement
(B) Simply supported slab reinforcement
(C) Two-way slab reinforcement
(D) Torsional Reinforcement
190. What is the purpose for providing additional diagonal bars at re-entrant corners?
(A) Prevent Shrinkage (B) Support for reinforcement mesh
(C) Prevent Corner bending (D) Prevent cracking
191. In case of Cantilever Slab, what is the purpose for providing bottom steel, as shown in the figure?
(A) To resist overloading (B) To resist point load at corner
(C) To resist reversal of bending moment (D) None of the above
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192. Identify the supporting system from the detailing of Staircase given below:
(A) Stairs supported at end beams in landing zone
(B) Stairs supported at intermediate beams
(C) Stairs supported at landing
(D) None of the above
193. _________ flooring is made of small pieces of broken tiles of china glazed or of cement or marble,
arranged in different pattern
(A) Terrazzo (B) Mosaic
(C) Flag stone (D) Tiled
194. In order to prevent sagging of doors, which of the following measure is more appropriate?
(A) To provide three hinges at equal distance from top and bottom of the door
(B) To provide four hinges at equal distance from top and bottom of the door
(C) To provide four hinges at unequal distance with more hinges in upper half
(D) To provide four hinges at unequal distance with more hinges in lower half
195. In cold climate conditions, which of the following parameter becomes most important in buildings
where window opening to wall is more than 40%?
(A) Thickness of window glass
(B) Material of Window frame
(C) Shape of the window
(D) Window glazing (u-value)
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196. What is the combination of plaster thickness adopted for exterior and interior plastering in case
of brick work in buildings ?
(A) 20 mm and 12 mm (B) 25 mm and 15 mm
(C) 15 mm and 25 mm (D) 12 mm and 20 mm
197. What is an ideal curing time for cement and lime plaster finish, where the coat is required to be
damp for a certain period of time ?
(A) 3 days (B) 4 days
(C) 6 days (D) 7 days
198. Which of the formwork gives excellent exposed concrete surface requiring no additional finishing
work?
(A) Plyboard (B) Teak wood
(C) Steel (D) Fibre glass
199. Match the appropriate time lines for stripping of form work for various building components.
1. Vertical formwork for columns a. 3 days
2. Soffit formwork for slab b. 1 day
3. Soffit formwork for beams c. 7 days
4. Vertical formwork for walls d. 16 hours
(A) 1 - a; 2 - b; 3 - d; 4 - c (B) 1 - b; 2 - a; 3 - c; 4 - d
(C) 1 - c; 2 - d; 3 - b; 4 - a (D) 1 - d; 2 - c; 3 - a; 4 - b
200. Which of the following is/are method(s) to control groundwater in excavations?
(i) Chemical Consolidation
(ii) Compressed air method
(iii) Freezing method
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
201. Which of the following is provided to efficiently restrict groundwater in underground constructions?
(A) Sheet piles (B) Continuous water pumping
(C) Diaphragm walls (D) None of the above
202. Which of the following is a temporary structure built to remove water and soil from an area and
make it possible to create dry conditions?
(A) Foundation (B) Spillway
(C) Coffer dam (D) Cassion
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203. The projecting course at ground level is known as
(A) Weathering (B) Throating
(C) Plinth (D) Coping
204. Reinforced brick work is used for which of the following purpose?
(A) For carrying light loads
(B) For carrying shear stresses
(C) For resisting wind loads
(D) None of the above
205. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for ventilation in a building?
(i) The rate at which indoor air replaces outdoor air is described as the air exchange rate
(ii) The minimum ventilation rate in residential buildings is 0.35 air changes per hour but not less
than 15 cubic feet of air per minute per person
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
206. Which of the following statements are true for Radon Gas?
(i) It is a radioactive gas that has a pungent smell
(ii) It is produced from the natural radioactive decay of uranium, which is found in rocks and soils
(iii) Its high concentration in indoor air is one of the major causes of lung cancer
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
207. What is a Cleat?
(A) It is a short section of wood or steel which is fixed on the principal rafter of truss to support
the purlins
(B) It is a horizontal wooden or steel member used to support common rafter of a roof when the
span is large
(C) It is a thin strip of wood which is nailed to the rafter for laying roof materials above.
(D) It is a long wooden member which is provided on the top of stone or brick wall for the purpose
of fixing the feet of the common rafter
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208. Match the various joints in water tanks to their respective diagrams:
1. Contraction Joint (a)
2. Expansion Joint (b)
3. Sliding joint (c)
4. Temporary Open Joint (d)
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (D) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
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209. Match the various types of retaining walls with their respective diagrams:
1. Banded Dry Stone/Masonry Retaining wall (a)
2. Cement Masonry Retaining wall (b)
3. Reinforced Soil Retaining wall (c)
4. Gabion Retaining wall (d)
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (D) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
210. In a counterfort retaining wall for backfill soils, where is the counterfort provided and what type
of forces does it encounter?
(A) Outer face; Compressive forces (B) Inner face; Compressive forces
(C) Outer face; Tensile forces (D) Inner face; Tensile forces
211. A two-storey building made up of _______ will experience lesser earthquake forces
(A) RCC buildings with brick walls (B) Brick Masonry building
(C) Steel frame building with precast walls (D) Bamboo building
212. For earthquake design and detailing, IS 13920 is used for ductile detailing. The code restricts the
use of steel grade greater than
(A) Fe 250 (B) Fe 415
(C) Fe 500 (D) Fe 550
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213. In case of earthquake resistant design of structures, the permissible dimension of hook of a stirrup,
as shown in the figure, is
(A) 4d (B) 6d
(C) 8d (D) 10d
214. The response spectrum curve for design of earthquake resistant structures is shown below, identify
the type of soil with the response spectrum curve
(A) Type I: Rock/ Hard Soil; Type II: Medium Soil; Type III: Soft Soil
(B) Type I: Rock/ Hard Soil; Type II: Soft Soil; Type III: Medium Soil
(C) Type I: Soft Soil; Type II: Medium Soil; Type III: Rock/ Hard Soil
(D) Type I: Medium Soil; Type II: Soft Soil; Type III: Rock/ Hard Soil
215. Stirrups in RCC beams are provided for
(i) Resisting bulging of concrete
(ii) Resisting shear
(iii) Resisting buckling of longitudinal bars
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
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216. Which of the structural element is used as a diaphragm in buildings for considering earthquake
effects?
(A) Beam (B) Column (C) Beam & Slab (D) Shear wall
217. Use of silica fumes in concrete results in which of the following?
(i) Increase in strength and durability
(ii) Decrease in slump and porosity
(iii) High early age strength
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
218. As per IS 3370 (part 2), which method(s) can be used for designing water tanks?
(A) Working stress method (B) Limit State method
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
219. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Micropiles?
(i) A micropile is a small diameter pile, applied to resist axial load
(ii) It is applied in ground conditions like debris fill, natural boulders
(iii) Its installation causes low disturbance to adjacent structures
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
220. Which is a correct equation for calculating tensile strength of concrete?
(A) 0.5 Sqrt (Fck) (B) 0.6 Sqrt (Fck)
(C) 0.7 Sqrt (Fck) (D) 0.8 Sqrt (Fck)
221. In limit state design, the failure criteria for concrete is when the strain in bending reaches a
value of
(A) 0.0020 (B) 0.0035 (C) 0.0045 (D) None of the above
222. The prestressing of concrete members is carried out to reduce which of the following?
(A) Tensile stresses (B) Bending stresses
(C) Compressive stresses (D) Shear stresses
223. Which of the following stones is the most suitable for roof covering, floorings, damp proofing and
partitions?
(A) Marble (B) Granite (C) Basalt (D) Slate
224. The process in which freshly fired bricks are dipped in water to prevent lime blowing is known as
(A) Docking (B) Flashing
(C) Soaking (D) Pugging
225. Which of the following timber defects is not evaluated quantitatively for units of defects?
(A) Rot (B) Spiral Grain (C) Pitch Pocket (D) Curvature
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226. As per IS code specifications for methods of sampling and analysis of concrete, the minimum
volume of the composite sample of the fresh concrete, truly representing the batch, to be collected
from the field for investigation is
(A) 0.005 m3 (B) 0.010 m3 (C) 0.015 m3 (D) 0.020 m3
227. Match the following lists of type of Concrete Aggregates and their Surface Textures: (based upon
a visual examination of hand specimens)
Type of Concrete Aggregates Surface Textures
(a) Black Flint 1. Granular
(b) Sandstone 2. Glassy
(c) Chert 3. Smooth
(d) Basalt 4. Crystalline
(A) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 (B) a - 2, b - 1, c - 3, d - 4
(C) a - 1, b - 2, c - 4, d - 3 (D) a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3
228. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to masonry mortars?
(i) Ordinary Portland cement may preferably be used instead of Portland Pozzolana cement where
serious sulphate attack is expected
(ii) The rate of hardening of cement mortars is slower than that of lime mortars.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) & (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
229. Which of the following factors does not result in increase of water demand in concrete mix design?
(A) Increased temperature
(B) Increased cement content
(C) Increased slump
(D) Increased proportion of the coarse aggregate to fine aggregate
230. With reference to paints, Barium Sulphate is the best
(A) vehicle (B) pigment (C) drier (D) adultrant
231. Which of the following heat treatment methods for steel is carried out to refine the grain structure
resulting from rolling, forging and other manufacturing processes?
(A) Hardening (B) Tempering (C) Annealing (D) Normalizing
232. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the effects of Fly Ash on cement
concrete?
(i) It reduces the heat of hydration.
(ii) It slightly improves the resistance to sulphate attack.
(iii) It increases the permeability.
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
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233. For the purpose of checking the nominal mass of high strength deformed steel bars, the density of
steel shall be taken as
(A) 785 kg/mm2 of the cross-sectional area per metre
(B) 7.85 kg/mm2 of the cross-sectional area per metre
(C) 0.785 kg/mm2 of the cross-sectional area per metre
(D) 0.00785 kg/mm2 of the cross-sectional area per metre
234. What are the functions of silica sand in the manufacturing of ceramic tiles?
(i) it increases shrinkage of fired body
(ii) it decreases unfired strength and plasticity
(iii) it facilitates the escape of gases during firing and drying
(iv) it gives plasticity to the mix
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
235. Which of the following is a function of lime in brick manufacturing?
(A) it helps silica in clay to melt in the furnace
(B) it absorbs water and renders the clay plastic
(C) it gives colour to the brick
(D) it improves the brick’s impermeability
236. As per IS Method of Determination of Fineness of Hydraulic Cement by Dry Sieving, fineness is
represented by the mass of residue left on a standard IS sieve of size
(A) 50 µm (B) 90 µm (C) 150 µm (D) 190 µm
237. Gypsum consists of
(i) CaSO4 (ii) CaO (iii) H2O (iv) CO2
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
238. Which of the following Rolled Steel Tee Bars has the minimum weight per metre?
(A) ISNT 100 (B) ISHT 100 (C) ISLT 100 (D) ISJT 100
239. Additional tensile force developed in a bolt as a result of the flexing of a connection component
such as a beam end plate or leg of an angle is known as
(A) squash force (B) prying force (C) shear lag (D) torsional force
240. In cross-section classification of steel sections, the elements which exceed semi-compact limits are
classified as
(A) Slender (B) Plastic (C) Semi-plastic (D) Compact
241. Partial Safety Factor for materials does not account for
(A) Possibility of unfavourable variation of member sizes
(B) Possibility of unfavourable reduction in member strength due to fabrication and tolerances
(C) Uncertainty in the calculation of strength of the members
(D) Uncertainty in the assessment of effects of the load
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242. As per the conventions used in IS:800-2007, match the following lists of member axes and respective
directions for ISA 100×75×8:
Member Axe Directions
(a) x-x axis 1. parallel to 100 mm leg
(b) y-y axis 2. along the length of the angle
(c) z-z axis 3. parallel to 75 mm leg
(A) a - 1, b - 3, c - 2 (B) a - 3, b - 1, c - 2
(C) a - 2, b - 1, c - 3 (D) a - 2, b - 3, c - 1
243. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to steel structures?
(i) Permissible effective slenderness ratio for the bracing member in ordinary concentrically
braced frame designed for earthquake is 180.
(ii) Permissible effective slenderness ratio for the member pre-tensioned to avoid sag is 400.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
244. Which of the following arrangements of Imposed Loads is considered for the analysis of steel
structure when the imposed load is variable and not greater than three-quarters of the dead load?
(A) Imposed load on all the spans
(B) Imposed load on alternate spans
(C) Imposed load on two adjacent spans
(D) Imposed load on longest span only
245. In plastic method of analysis for steel structures, the ratio of tensile strength to yield stress specified
for the grade of steel shall not be less than
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.20 (C) 1.33 (D) 1.50
246. Column Buckling Curves adopted in IS:800-2007 are based on
(A) Maximum Strength Theory (B) Perry-Robertson Theory
(C) Tangent Modulus Theory (D) Merchant-Rankine Theory
247. Nominal bearing strength of a bolt is calculated by 2.5kbdtfu. Here ‘t’ means
(A) Thickness of the thicker plate experiencing bearing stress
(B) Thickness of the thinner plate experiencing bearing stress
(C) Summation of thickness of all the connected plates experiencing bearing stress
(D) Summation of thickness of the connected plates experiencing bearing stress in the same
direction
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248. As per IS:800-2007, Ordinary Moment Frames shall not be used for construction of Cinema
Hall in
(i) Seismic Zone V (ii) Seismic Zone IV (iii) Seismic Zone III (iv) Seismic Zone II
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) & (ii) (C) (i), (ii) & (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
249. Where the fillet weld is applied to the rounded toe of a rolled section, the specified size of the weld
should generally not exceed
1 2
(A) of the thickness of the section at the toe (B) of the thickness of the section at the toe
2 3
3 4
(C) of the thickness of the section at the toe (D)
of the thickness of the section at the toe
4 5
250. A steel column of uniform section for the entire length with the gantry girder supported by column
brackets is to be designed as a
(A) compression member (B) tension member
(C) beam (D) beam-column
251. Which of the following stiffeners of plate girder has the primary function of preventing local
crushing of the web due to concentrated loading?
(A) Bearing stiffener (B) Torsion stiffener
(C) Diagonal stiffener (D) Tension stiffener
252. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding a beam-column?
(i) member subjected to axial force
(ii) member is subjected to bending moment
(iii) net end moments are zero
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
253. What is the loading rate used to determine the brick’s compressive strength?
(A) 14 N/mm2 per hour (B) 14 N/mm2 per minute
(C) 20 N/mm2 per hour (D) 20 N/mm2 per minute
254. The indenter used in the Brinell hardness test is a
(A) Steel ball (B) Diamond
(C) Steel Pyramid (D) Either Steel Ball or Prism
255. The impact test is done to test _____ of a material
(A) Strength (B) Ductility (C) Toughness (D) Hardness
256. The specimen used in the Izod test has a _____.
(A) U notch and is kept as a cantilever (B) V notch and is kept as a cantilever
(C) U notch and is kept as a simply supported (D) V notch and is kept as a simply supported
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257. If a rectangular beam of uniform strength subjected to a bending moment ‘M’ has a constant
width, then the variation in depth will be proportional to
(A) (B) M2 (C) (D) M3
258. A simply supported beam of span 6 m is carrying a uniformly distributed load of 3 kN / m. The
shear force at the mid-span will be
(A) 18 kN (B) 9 kN (C) 3 kN (D) 0 kN
259. The maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam of span L carrying a uniformly
varying load of zero intensity at one end and w per unit length at the other would be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
260. For the cantilever beam with a uniformly varying load, the shear force varies _______.
(A) Linearly (B) Parabolically
(C) Cubically (D) None of the above
261. A simply supported beam is subjected to a couple somewhere in the span. It would produce
_______
(i) a rectangular SF diagram
(ii) both +ve and –ve BM, which are maximum at the point of application of the couple
(iii) parabolic BM diagrams
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
262. The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to a moment at the free end is given by a
(A) Triangle (B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola (D) None of the above
263. Shear stresses in a beam of rectangular cross-section, subjected to transverse loading, will be:
(A) Zero at the neutral axis
(B) Minimum at the neutral axis
(C) Maximum at the neutral axis
(D) Maximum at the extreme layer from the neutral axis
264. The ratio of length to depth of a simply supported rectangular beam which experiences maximum
bending stress equal to tensile stress due to the same load at its mid-span, is
(A) 1/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/4
265. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
(i) Shear stress on principal planes is zero
(ii) Normal stress on the plane of maximum shear is zero
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
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266. Which of the following beam is likely to have a point of contraflexure if it is loaded with uniformly
distributed load over the entire span?
(A) Cantilever beam (B) Simply supported beam
(C) Beam with overhangs (D) All of these
267. The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium in a space structure is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
268. Which of the following methods is not a force method?
(A) Slope deflection method
(B) Virtual Work method
(C) Three-moment theorems
(D) Clapeyron theorem of the three-moment method
269. The horizontal thrust of a two-hinged parabolic arch of span L and rise H carrying a UDL of w per
unit run over the entire span is _______.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
270. If the general expression for the bending moment at any distance x of a simply supported beam of
length L is , then the beam carries a
(A) uniformly distributed load ‘w’ per unit length over the entire span
(B) varying load from zero at one end and ‘w’ per unit length at the other end
(C) uniformly distributed load ‘w’ per unit length over the half span
(D) triangular load of zero intensity at ends and ‘w’ per unit length at the mid-span
271. How many constraints are there in a fixed support in a three-dimensional system?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
272. A beam curved in the plan is designed for
(A) Bending moment and shear (B) Bending moment and torsion
(C) Shear and torsion (D) Bending moment, shear and torsion
273. Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem is valid for
(A) all statically determinate structures
(B) all structures
(C) all elastic structures
(D) all structures with linear force-displacement relation.
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274. What does the influence line diagram for the bending moment indicate?
(i) Bending moment at any section on the structure for a given load position.
(ii) Bending moment at a given section for any position of a point load.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
275. A simply supported beam carries a uniformly varying load of zero intensity at one end and w per
unit length at the other. If the length of the beam is L., then at what distance the shear force will
be zero from the least loaded end?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
276. A hinge support in a real beam becomes a/an _______ in the respective conjugate beam.
(A) roller support (B) fixed support
(C) free end (D) internal roller
277. Generally, the degree of internal indeterminacy of beams is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
278. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress (τ) is (where E = Modulus
of rigidity for the shaft material)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
279. The equivalent stiffness Se of two springs of stiffness S1 and S2 joined in series is given by
(A) S1 × S2 / (S1 + S2 ) (B) (S1 / S2 )(S1 + S2 )
(C) S1 + S2 (D) S1 × S2
280. A propped cantilever beam with propped roller support is indeterminate externally of
(A) first degree (B) second degree
(C) third degree (D) fourth degree
281. A truss containing ‘J’ joints and ‘M’ members will be a simple or perfect truss if
(A) M = 2J – 3 (B) M = 2J + 3
(C) J = 2M + 3 (D) J = 2M – 3
282. A simply supported beam of span L and flexural rigidity EI carries a point load P at the mid of the
span. The strain energy in the beam due to bending is _______
(A) P2L3/48EI (B) PL3/48EI (C) P2L3/96EI (D) PL3/48EI
283. Arrange the following beam sections in ascending economic order if all have the same cross-sectional
area.
i. Square ii. Rectangular iii. I-section
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (iii), (ii), (i) (C) (i), (iii), (ii) (D) (iii), (i), (ii)
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284. At a joint, several members meet. If any external moment is applied at that joint, then it will be
distributed among the members
(A) equally
(B) in proportion to their flexural rigidity
(C) equally among such members whose far ends are same
(D) in proportion to their stiffness
285. The ratio of flexural rigidity of a beam (b × d) to another one (b × 2d) of similar material will be
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/8 (D) 1/16
286. The elastic section modulus of the diamond section of area a2 would be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
287. The slope and deflection method is mainly used for
(A) finding slope and deflections of determinate beams
(B) finding slope and deflections of indeterminate beams
(C) analyzing determinate frame structures
(D) analyzing indeterminate frame structures
288. Which of the statements are true for the Atal Bhujal Yojana ?
(i) It is proposed by the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga
Rejuvenation (DoWR, RD & GR), Ministry of Jal Shakti.
(ii) It is designed to manage groundwater resources in a holistic manner
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
289. Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana outlined by Government of Gujarat is for
(i) the economic, social and overall development of tribal people of the state
(ii) improving the forest cover of the state
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
290. Government of Gujarat launched ‘Sauni Yojana’ to divert the excess overflowing flood water of
which river?
(A) Daman Ganga (B) Narmada (C) Tapi (D) Mahi
291. Which of the statement(s) is/are true for the Sardar Sarovar Project?
(i) It comprises 30 Major Dams, 135 Medium Dams and about 3,000 Minor Dams
(ii) The length of its canal network is around 7,500 km within Gujarat
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
46 [BEJ] [Contd.
Text of page 47
M
292. It is estimated that an activity can be assigned an optimistic duration of 16 days, a pessimistic
duration of 30 days and a most likely duration of 20 days. The expected duration for this activity
would be ____ days.
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
293. Slack time is associated with which of the following?
(i) an event (ii) a real activity (iii) a dummy activity
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (i) and (iii)
294. The amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any
successor or violating a schedule constraint is called
(A) Free Float (B) Interfering float (C) Total Float (D) Independent float
295. For a given load rating, the operating radius of crane can be increased by
(i) increasing the length of arm
(ii) increasing the horse power
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
296. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Hydraulic Crane?
(i) It has the unique advantage that the boom length and the angle can be changed during the
operation
(ii) It has cantilever arms on both sides
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
297. _______ is used to dig a hole for an oil well, then to push the drill pipe deep into the earth.
(A) Derrick (B) Power Showel (C) Dump truck (D) Drag line
298. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Sir Abel’s process?
i. It is a process employed to make timber fire resistant
ii. Dilute solution of sodium silicate is used
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
299. _______ is used for making railway sleepers
(A) Deodar wood (B) Teak wood (C) Maple wood (D) Bamboo wood
300. Which of the statements are true about Foam Glass?
(i) It is extensively used in air-conditioning units
(ii) It is termite proof
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
______________
[BEJ] [P.T.O. 47
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Road and Building Department(Advt No. 15/2022-23) Exam Date:02-04-2023
BEJ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 C 61 A 91 C 121 C 151 B 181 C 211 D 241 D 271 D
2 D 32 B 62 B 92 A 122 A 152 C 182 C 212 B 242 C 272 D
3 D 33 C 63 C 93 C 123 C 153 C 183 C 213 B 243 D 273 D
4 B 34 D 64 C 94 D 124 B 154 C 184 A 214 A 244 A 274 B
5 C 35 C 65 C 95 D 125 B 155 B 185 A 215 D 245 B 275 D
6 C 36 A 66 C 96 B 126 C 156 C 186 D 216 C 246 B 276 A
7 C 37 B 67 A 97 D 127 B 157 B 187 D 217 D 247 D 277 A
8 B 38 B 68 B 98 C 128 A 158 B 188 C 218 C 248 C 278 A
9 C 39 A 69 C 99 C 129 A 159 D 189 D 219 D 249 C 279 A
10 C 40 C 70 B 100 B 130 A 160 C 190 D 220 C 250 D 280 A
11 C 41 D 71 B 101 C 131 C 161 C 191 C 221 B 251 A 281 A
12 C 42 A 72 D 102 A 132 A 162 D 192 C 222 C 252 B 282 C
13 * 43 C 73 D 103 D 133 B 163 C 193 B 223 D 253 B 283 A
14 B 44 D 74 B 104 A 134 C 164 D 194 C 224 A 254 A 284 D
15 C 45 D 75 B 105 D 135 D 165 A 195 D 225 C 255 C 285 C
16 D 46 D 76 C 106 A 136 B 166 D 196 A 226 D 256 B 286 B
17 C 47 D 77 D 107 B 137 C 167 A 197 D 227 B 257 C 287 D
18 A 48 A 78 C 108 A 138 D 168 D 198 D 228 D 258 D 288 C
19 B 49 B 79 C 109 A 139 A 169 C 199 B 229 D 259 * 289 A
20 A 50 A 80 A 110 C 140 A 170 D 200 D 230 D 260 B 290 B
21 C 51 B 81 A 111 C 141 A 171 B 201 C 231 D 261 B 291 A
22 B 52 C 82 A 112 A 142 A 172 A 202 C 232 B 262 D 292 A
23 D 53 B 83 B 113 A 143 B 173 A 203 C 233 D 263 C 293 A
24 B 54 D 84 C 114 A 144 C 174 A 204 B 234 B 264 B 294 A
25 D 55 * 85 C 115 C 145 B 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 B 295 A
26 C 56 C 86 A 116 A 146 D 176 D 206 B 236 B 266 C 296 A
27 B 57 D 87 B 117 A 147 A 177 D 207 A 237 A 267 D 297 A
28 D 58 D 88 A 118 C 148 D 178 B 208 A 238 D 268 A 298 C
29 * 59 B 89 D 119 A 149 B 179 D 209 B 239 B 269 B 299 A
30 C 60 B 90 C 120 C 150 B 180 C 210 D 240 A 270 A 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Road and Building Department(Advt No. 15/2022-23) Exam Date:02-04-2023
BEJ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 C 61 A 91 D 121 A 151 B 181 C 211 B 241 C 271 D
2 C 32 B 62 B 92 C 122 D 152 C 182 A 212 D 242 D 272 D
3 B 33 C 63 A 93 A 123 D 153 C 183 B 213 C 243 C 273 D
4 D 34 D 64 D 94 B 124 B 154 C 184 C 214 A 244 D 274 B
5 * 35 C 65 C 95 A 125 D 155 B 185 D 215 B 245 C 275 D
6 C 36 A 66 C 96 C 126 C 156 C 186 B 216 A 246 B 276 D
7 D 37 B 67 A 97 B 127 A 157 B 187 C 217 A 247 C 277 B
8 D 38 B 68 C 98 D 128 D 158 B 188 D 218 A 248 D 278 D
9 B 39 A 69 D 99 B 129 A 159 D 189 A 219 A 249 A 279 D
10 B 40 C 70 D 100 D 130 D 160 C 190 A 220 A 250 C 280 D
11 A 41 D 71 B 101 D 131 A 161 C 191 A 221 A 251 A 281 D
12 B 42 A 72 D 102 D 132 B 162 D 192 A 222 A 252 B 282 B
13 C 43 C 73 C 103 B 133 A 163 C 193 B 223 C 253 B 283 D
14 C 44 D 74 C 104 D 134 A 164 D 194 C 224 A 254 A 284 B
15 C 45 D 75 B 105 C 135 C 165 A 195 B 225 C 255 C 285 A
16 C 46 D 76 C 106 C 136 C 166 D 196 D 226 C 256 B 286 B
17 A 47 D 77 D 107 C 137 A 167 A 197 A 227 C 257 C 287 A
18 B 48 A 78 D 108 C 138 A 168 D 198 D 228 C 258 D 288 D
19 C 49 B 79 B 109 A 139 A 169 C 199 B 229 B 259 * 289 B
20 B 50 A 80 C 110 A 140 C 170 D 200 B 230 B 260 B 290 A
21 B 51 C 81 C 111 D 141 A 171 B 201 A 231 B 261 B 291 D
22 D 52 D 82 C 112 D 142 A 172 A 202 A 232 A 262 D 292 C
23 D 53 C 83 B 113 C 143 C 173 A 203 A 233 A 263 C 293 D
24 B 54 C 84 C 114 D 144 A 174 A 204 A 234 B 264 B 294 A
25 B 55 A 85 C 115 D 145 C 175 C 205 A 235 D 265 B 295 B
26 C 56 A 86 C 116 C 146 C 176 C 206 A 236 D 266 C 296 B
27 B 57 A 87 C 117 C 147 A 177 B 207 C 237 B 267 D 297 D
28 D 58 B 88 * 118 B 148 C 178 A 208 A 238 B 268 A 298 C
29 * 59 C 89 B 119 C 149 B 179 A 209 D 239 A 269 B 299 C
30 C 60 C 90 C 120 D 150 B 180 A 210 C 240 D 270 A 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Road and Building Department(Advt No. 15/2022-23) Exam Date:02-04-2023
BEJ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 A 61 C 91 C 121 D 151 C 181 C 211 B 241 A 271 B
2 B 32 A 62 C 92 A 122 A 152 A 182 B 212 A 242 A 272 C
3 D 33 B 63 * 93 B 123 D 153 D 183 B 213 D 243 A 273 D
4 * 34 C 64 B 94 C 124 B 154 A 184 D 214 B 244 A 274 A
5 C 35 C 65 C 95 B 125 B 155 D 185 C 215 A 245 A 275 C
6 C 36 A 66 D 96 B 126 D 156 A 186 C 216 D 246 A 276 A
7 B 37 B 67 C 97 D 127 D 157 B 187 D 217 C 247 A 277 B
8 C 38 A 68 A 98 D 128 B 158 A 188 C 218 D 248 C 278 B
9 D 39 D 69 B 99 B 129 D 159 A 189 D 219 A 249 A 279 A
10 C 40 C 70 A 100 B 130 C 160 C 190 A 220 B 250 C 280 C
11 A 41 C 71 C 101 C 131 C 161 C 191 D 221 B 251 C 281 B
12 B 42 A 72 B 102 B 132 C 162 A 192 A 222 D 252 C 282 C
13 B 43 C 73 D 103 A 133 C 163 A 193 D 223 C 253 C 283 D
14 A 44 D 74 B 104 A 134 A 164 A 194 C 224 C 254 B 284 *
15 C 45 D 75 D 105 A 135 A 165 C 195 D 225 D 255 B 285 B
16 D 46 B 76 B 106 C 136 D 166 A 196 B 226 A 256 B 286 B
17 A 47 D 77 C 107 A 137 D 167 A 197 A 227 A 257 A 287 D
18 C 48 C 78 B 108 B 138 C 168 C 198 A 228 A 258 A 288 C
19 D 49 C 79 D 109 C 139 D 169 A 199 A 229 A 259 B 289 B
20 D 50 B 80 * 110 D 140 D 170 C 200 C 230 A 260 D 290 B
21 D 51 C 81 C 111 B 141 C 171 C 201 D 231 A 261 D 291 C
22 D 52 D 82 D 112 C 142 C 172 A 202 B 232 C 262 B 292 D
23 A 53 D 83 D 113 D 143 B 173 C 203 D 233 A 263 B 293 A
24 B 54 B 84 B 114 A 144 C 174 B 204 D 234 D 264 A 294 B
25 A 55 C 85 B 115 A 145 D 175 B 205 D 235 C 265 D 295 A
26 C 56 C 86 A 116 A 146 A 176 B 206 D 236 B 266 C 296 D
27 D 57 C 87 B 117 A 147 D 177 C 207 B 237 D 267 D 297 D
28 C 58 B 88 C 118 B 148 D 178 C 208 D 238 C 268 C 298 D
29 C 59 C 89 C 119 C 149 B 179 C 209 B 239 A 269 D 299 B
30 A 60 C 90 C 120 B 150 D 180 B 210 A 240 B 270 C 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Road and Building Department(Advt No. 15/2022-23) Exam Date:02-04-2023
BEJ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 C 61 A 91 D 121 B 151 D 181 A 211 B 241 D 271 A
2 D 32 C 62 B 92 A 122 A 152 D 182 B 212 D 242 C 272 A
3 C 33 B 63 C 93 C 123 A 153 B 183 A 213 C 243 D 273 C
4 C 34 C 64 C 94 D 124 A 154 D 184 A 214 B 244 A 274 A
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 D 125 C 155 C 185 C 215 B 245 B 275 C
6 A 36 C 66 C 96 D 126 C 156 C 186 C 216 C 246 B 276 C
7 A 37 C 67 A 97 D 127 B 157 C 187 A 217 D 247 D 277 C
8 B 38 * 68 B 98 A 128 A 158 C 188 A 218 A 248 C 278 C
9 C 39 B 69 C 99 B 129 A 159 A 189 A 219 B 249 C 279 B
10 C 40 C 70 B 100 A 130 A 160 A 190 C 220 A 250 D 280 B
11 A 41 D 71 B 101 B 131 C 161 D 191 A 221 D 251 A 281 B
12 B 42 C 72 D 102 C 132 A 162 D 192 A 222 D 252 A 282 A
13 A 43 A 73 D 103 C 133 B 163 C 193 C 223 D 253 A 283 A
14 D 44 B 74 B 104 C 134 C 164 D 194 A 224 B 254 A 284 B
15 C 45 A 75 B 105 B 135 D 165 D 195 C 225 D 255 A 285 D
16 C 46 C 76 C 106 C 136 B 166 C 196 C 226 D 256 A 286 D
17 A 47 B 77 B 107 B 137 C 167 C 197 A 227 B 257 C 287 B
18 C 48 D 78 D 108 B 138 D 168 B 198 C 228 D 258 A 288 B
19 D 49 B 79 * 109 D 139 A 169 C 199 B 229 D 259 D 289 A
20 D 50 D 80 C 110 C 140 A 170 D 200 B 230 D 260 C 290 D
21 B 51 B 81 C 111 C 141 A 171 A 201 A 231 D 261 B 291 C
22 D 52 C 82 B 112 D 142 A 172 D 202 B 232 B 262 D 292 D
23 C 53 B 83 C 113 C 143 B 173 D 203 B 233 D 263 C 293 C
24 C 54 D 84 D 114 D 144 C 174 B 204 A 234 B 264 A 294 D
25 B 55 * 85 C 115 A 145 B 175 D 205 C 235 A 265 B 295 C
26 C 56 C 86 A 116 D 146 D 176 C 206 B 236 B 266 A 296 B
27 D 57 D 87 B 117 A 147 A 177 A 207 C 237 A 267 A 297 C
28 D 58 D 88 B 118 D 148 D 178 D 208 D 238 D 268 A 298 D
29 B 59 B 89 A 119 C 149 B 179 A 209 * 239 B 269 A 299 A
30 C 60 B 90 C 120 D 150 B 180 D 210 B 240 A 270 A 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Road and Building Department(Advt No. 15/2022-23) Exam Date:02-04-2023
BEJ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 C 61 A 91 C 121 C 151 C 181 B 211 D 241 C 271 B
2 D 32 D 62 B 92 A 122 A 152 B 182 A 212 D 242 D 272 D
3 D 33 D 63 B 93 C 123 C 153 A 183 A 213 C 243 A 273 C
4 B 34 B 64 A 94 D 124 B 154 A 184 B 214 D 244 B 274 C
5 C 35 B 65 C 95 D 125 B 155 A 185 D 215 D 245 A 275 D
6 C 36 A 66 D 96 B 126 B 156 C 186 D 216 C 246 D 276 A
7 C 37 B 67 A 97 D 127 C 157 A 187 B 217 C 247 D 277 A
8 B 38 C 68 C 98 C 128 C 158 B 188 B 218 B 248 D 278 A
9 C 39 C 69 D 99 C 129 C 159 C 189 A 219 C 249 B 279 A
10 C 40 C 70 D 100 B 130 B 160 D 190 D 220 D 250 D 280 A
11 C 41 C 71 D 101 C 131 C 161 B 191 C 221 A 251 D 281 A
12 C 42 A 72 D 102 A 132 B 162 C 192 D 222 D 252 B 282 C
13 * 43 B 73 A 103 D 133 B 163 D 193 C 223 D 253 D 283 A
14 B 44 C 74 B 104 A 134 D 164 A 194 D 224 B 254 D 284 D
15 C 45 B 75 A 105 D 135 C 165 A 195 C 225 D 255 D 285 C
16 D 46 B 76 C 106 A 136 C 166 A 196 B 226 A 256 D 286 B
17 C 47 D 77 D 107 B 137 D 167 A 197 C 227 B 257 B 287 D
18 A 48 D 78 C 108 A 138 C 168 B 198 D 228 B 258 D 288 C
19 B 49 B 79 C 109 A 139 D 169 C 199 A 229 A 259 B 289 A
20 A 50 B 80 A 110 C 140 A 170 B 200 C 230 C 260 A 290 B
21 C 51 C 81 A 111 C 141 D 171 D 201 D 231 B 261 B 291 A
22 B 52 B 82 A 112 A 142 A 172 A 202 D 232 C 262 A 292 A
23 D 53 D 83 B 113 A 143 D 173 D 203 B 233 D 263 D 293 A
24 B 54 * 84 C 114 A 144 C 174 B 204 D 234 * 264 B 294 A
25 D 55 C 85 C 115 C 145 D 175 B 205 C 235 B 265 A 295 A
26 B 56 C 86 A 116 A 146 B 176 C 206 C 236 B 266 D 296 A
27 C 57 B 87 B 117 A 147 A 177 C 207 C 237 D 267 C 297 A
28 B 58 C 88 A 118 C 148 A 178 C 208 C 238 C 268 D 298 C
29 D 59 D 89 D 119 A 149 A 179 B 209 A 239 B 269 A 299 A
30 * 60 C 90 C 120 C 150 C 180 B 210 A 240 B 270 B 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:08-09-2023Page 1 of 47
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.