GPSC Assistant Engineer 2025: Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) Class-2, Narmada Water Resources, Water Supply and Kalpsar, Concerned Subject
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of the post Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2 Narmada Water Resources ,
Water Supply and Kalpsar Department
Advertisement No. 36/2024-25
Preliminary Test Held On 23-02-2025
Que. No 001-200
Publish Date 27-02-2025
Last Date to Send Suggestion (s) 03-03-2025
THE LINK FOR ONLINE OBJECTION SYSTEM WILL START FROM 28-02-2025; 10:00 AM ONWARDS
Instructions / � ૂચના
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections shall not be considered: -
(1) Candidates have to pay fees of Rs.100/- for each objection. The fees can be paid from the link given herewith.
(2) The Candidate will be able to submit objection only after payment of the fees. The generation of the receipt will only be
considered as final submission.
(3) The Candidate must retain the receipt of the payment of the fees. The fees, once paid, will not be refunded under any
circumstances.
(4) All the objections should be submitted through ONLINE OBJECTION SUBMISSION SYSTEM only. Physical or
submission through any other means will not be considered.
(5) All objections are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper published with provisional answer key,
published herewith on the website / online objection submission system. Objections should be sent referring to the
Question No. & options of the Master Question Paper. Objections regarding question nos. and options other than
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(6) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given by him in his
answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and
submitted objections are differed.
(7) Supportive document to the objection must be uploaded, without which objection will not be considered.
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આયોગને મોકલવામાં આવેલ વાંધા ધ્યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ�, �ની ખાસ ન�ધ લેવી.
(5) ઉમેદવાર� પોતાને પર�ક્ષામાં મળે લ પ્ર��ુ�સ્તકામાં છપાયેલ પ્ર�ક્રમાંક �ુજબ વાંધા-� ૂચનો ર�ૂ ન કરતાં, તમામ વાંધા-� ૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર
પ્રિસધ્ધ થયેલ પ્રોિવઝનલ આન્સર ક� (માસ્ટર પ્ર�પત્ર) ના પ્ર�ક્રમાંક �ુજબ અને તે સંદભર્માં ર�ૂ કરવા. માસ્ટર પ્ર�પત્રમાં િન�દ� ષ્ટ પ્ર� અને
િવકલ્પ િસવાયના વાંધા ધ્યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ�.
(6) ઉમેદવાર� પ્ર�ના િવકલ્પ પર વાંધો ર�ૂ કર� લ છે અને િવકલ્પ �પે � જવાબ � ૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવાર� પોતાની ઉ�રવહ�માં આપેલ હોવો
જોઈએ. ઉમેદવાર� � ૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ�રવહ�નો જવાબ �ભ� હશે તો ઉમેદવાર� ર�ૂ કર� લ વાંધા ધ્યાને લેવાશે નહ�.
(7) વાંધા માટ� સંદભર્ જોડવો આવશ્યક છે , �ના િવના વાંધો ધ્યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ�.
Website link for online objection submission system: https://www.formonline.co.in/GPSC_TRACK/SearchPage.aspx
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1. What is the unit of G from Griffith’s energy criterion?
(A) J – m2 (B) J/m2
(C) J – m (D) J/m
2. Copper is used for making electrical conductors because it
(A) is ductile
(B) resists corrosion
(C) has a low resistance to current flow
(D) is cheap
3. IZOD test measures
(A) hardness (B) ductility
(C) impact energy (D) grain size
4. Brass is an alloy of
(A) copper and zinc (B) tin and zinc
(C) copper and tin (D) copper and Al
5. The tempering process is used in steels to achieve
(A) lower hardness by transforming austenite to pearlite
(B) lower hardness by transforming martensite to iron carbide particles in the matrix of ferrite.
(C) high hardness by transforming austenite to martensite
(D) high hardness by transforming martensite to pearlite
6. The ratio of power output of the centrifugal pump to the power input to the pump is called
___________.
(A) mechanical efficiency (B) overall efficiency
(C) manometric efficiency (D) all of the above
7. Grey cast iron is
(A) iron, where graphite present is in spherical form
(B) iron, where all the carbon is in a combined form
(C) iron, where part of the carbon is in graphite flakes
(D) all of the above
8. The upper moulding flask used in sand casting is called
(A) cope (B) cheek
(C) drag (D) core
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9. The main disadvantage of aluminium as a pattern material for making the master pattern is
(A) high strength (B) low cost
(C) high cost (D) low density
10. Permeability of moulding sand is increased with
(A) increasing the clay content
(B) decreasing the clay content
(C) increasing the compacting pressure
(D) fine grain size
11. The best shape for sprue in sand casting is
(A) straight cylindrical (B) tapered
(C) prismatic (D) shape does not matter
12. Riser for a sand casting can be designed by
(A) Caine’s method
(B) Naval research laboratory method
(C) Modulus method
(D) all of the above
13. The pattern used in precision investment casting is normally made up of
(A) wood (B) metal
(C) plastic (D) wax
14. Which “term” is not associated with the casting process?
(A) Gate (B) Runner
(C) Riser (D) Swaging
15. The forging operation of “upsetting” is
(A) reverse of drawing down process
(B) a bending operation
(C) a drifting operation
(D) none of the above
16. “Blanking” is an expression used in
(A) sheet metal work
(B) casting process
(C) drawing
(D) rolling
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17. Hot working of a metal in metal-forming processes is
(A) working at melting temperature
(B) working below the recrystallization temperature
(C) working above the recrystallization temperature
(D) working at ambient temperature
18. __________ is the vertical height of the centerline of the centrifugal pump above the water surface
in the tank from which water is to be lifted.
(A) delivery head (B) static head
(C) suction head (D) manometric head
19. Which of the following steel section is generally a square cross-section?
(A) Slab (B) Billet
(C) Ingot (D) None of the options
20. Which of the following sheet-metal operation induces only tensile stress in the part?
(A) Stretch forming (B) Coining
(C) Drawing (D) Trimming
21. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is defined as the speed of a geometrically similar pump
when ____________.
(A) the head developed is unity and discharge is one cubic metre
(B) the head developed is unity and shaft horsepower is also unity
(C) the discharge is one cubic metro and shaft horsepower is unity
(D) none of the above
22. For very thick plates, which of the following edge preparation is preferable?
(A) single v (B) single u
(C) double u (D) double v
23. The flame type that is normally used to weld cast iron in oxy-acetylene welding method is
(A) carburizing flame
(B) neutral flame
(C) oxidizing flame
(D) none of the option
24. Filler material is not required in which of the following type of welding process?
(A) Oxy-acetylene welding
(B) Arc welding
(C) Resistance welding
(D) Oxy-hydrogen welding
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25. Arc blow in manual metal arc welding is caused by
(A) the use of AC welding with non-consumable electrodes
(B) the use of DC welding with consumable electrodes
(C) the use of AC welding with consumable electrodes
(D) none of the above
26. Electron-beam welding is used for welding due to
(A) high depth-to-width ratios
(B) low depth-to-width ratios
(C) depth-to-width ratios equal to one
(D) with large heat-affected zone due to large heat generated
27. Thermit mixtures used in thermit welding normally use which of the following metal?
(A) Manganese (B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium (D) Alum
28. A welding process that is preferred to weld ship hulls is
(A) manual metal arc welding
(B) gas metal arc welding
(C) submerged arc welding
(D) flux cored arc welding
29. Powder- metallurgy process involves which of the following operations in sequence?
(A) Powder mixing, sintering, compacting and finishing
(B) Powder mixing, sintering and finishing
(C) Powder mixing, compacting and sintering
(D) Powder mixing, compacting, sintering and finishing
30. Metal powder particle size is reduced during atomization by
(A) decreasing gas velocity
(B) increasing gas velocity
(C) decreasing gas pressure
(D) decreasing metal volume
31. The green density of the powder-metallurgy part will be increased by
(A) increasing the sintering temperature
(B) decreasing the sintering temperature
(C) increasing the compacting pressure
(D) decreasing the compacting pressure
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32. To improve the mechanical properties of a powder metallurgy part, which of the following finishing
operation is used?
(A) Repressing (B) Sizing
(C) Machining (D) None of the options
33. The final strength of a powder-metallurgy part can be increased by
(A) increasing the sintering temperature
(B) decreasing the sintering temperature
(C) increasing the lubricant in the powder-mix
(D) decreasing the compacting pressure
34. The endurance limit of a material refers to
(A) The maximum stress a material can withstand without yielding
(B) The stress below which a material can withstand infinite number of loading cycles
(C) The maximum stress during an impact test
(D) The point of plastic deformation
35. The ratio of tensile strength to the density of a material is known as
(A) Specific strength
(B) Toughness
(C) Elastic modulus
(D) Resilience
36. What is the term for the capacity of a material to store energy when deformed elastically?
(A) Toughness
(B) Resilience
(C) Hardness
(D) Ductility
37. Which of the following is a time-dependent property of materials?
(A) Elasticity
(B) Plasticity
(C) Creep
(D) Toughness
38. What is the property of a material that allows it to be hammered or rolled into thin sheets?
(A) Ductility
(B) Malleability
(C) Plasticity
(D) Elasticity
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39. What measures a material's resistance to volume change under pressure?
(A) Elastic modulus (B) Shear modulus
(C) Bulk modulus (D) Toughness
40. Which type of stress is responsible for the twisting of materials?
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Direct shear stress
(D) Torsional shear stress
41. The dielectric fluid in the electric discharge machining process should
(A) ionize rapidly after the spark discharge has taken place
(B) have a high viscosity
(C) be chemically neutral so as to not attack the electrode
(D) have a low flash point
42. _________ is not a very good electrode in the electric discharge machining process.
(A) Graphite
(B) Copper
(C) Grey cast iron
(D) Tungsten
43. The non-conventional machining process that gives the highest material removal rate is
(A) Electric Discharge Machining
(B) Electrochemical Machining
(C) Ultrasonic Machining
(D) Up-Milling
44. Which of the following process is suitable for machining brittle material?
(A) Electric Discharge Machining
(B) Electrochemical Machining
(C) Ultrasonic Machining
(D) None of the above
45. While increasing the feed rate in abrasive water jet machining, it
(A) improves the surface finish
(B) decreases the drag
(C) deteriorates the surface finish
(D) none of the above
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46. In Abrasive Jet Machining (AJM), the material removal is primarily achieved by
(A) Thermal erosion (B) Electrochemical reaction
(C) Impact erosion (D) Mechanical shearing
47. In Plasma Arc Machining (PAM), the high temperature of the plasma arc is typically achieved by
(A) Combustion of fuel gases
(B) Compression of air
(C) Ionization of gas
(D) Electrical resistance
48. Which of the following is a disadvantage of unconventional machining processes?
(A) High material removal rate
(B) No tool wear
(C) High initial investment
(D) Non-contact machining
49. The accuracy of linear measurement is more with which of these instruments?
(A) Steel rule (B) Vernier calliper
(C) Micrometer (D) Scale
50. The length standard that is most commonly used in the machine shops for high accuracy is
(A) metre rod
(B) slip gauge
(C) precision scale
(D) none of the above
51. Which symbol is used to denote a shaft in fits and tolerances?
(A) h (B) H
(C) s (D) a
52. What is the fundamental difference between a "fit" and a "tolerance"?
(A) Fit is for mating parts whereas tolerance is for individual parts
(B) Fit is for hole size only whereas tolerance is for shaft size
(C) Fit measures maximum variation whereas tolerance measures minimum variation
(D) Fit deals with functional clearance whereas tolerance deals with assembly conditions
53. For an interference fit
(A) the lower limit of the shaft should be greater than the lower limit of the hole
(B) the lower limit of the shaft should be greater than the higher limit of the hole
(C) the higher limit of the shaft should be greater than the higher limit of the hole
(D) the higher limit of the shaft should be greater than the lower limit of the hole
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54. The application for which a point-to-point numerical control system can be used is a
(A) lathe machine
(B) milling machine
(C) punching machine
(D) none of the above
55. While specifying the axes of the CNC machine tool (as per the ISO standards), the spindle axis is
considered as
(A) X-axis (B) Y-axis
(C) Z-axis (D) A-axis
56. Preparatory functions in a CNC program (in word address format) are identified by the letter
(A) F
(B) G
(C) M
(D) A
57. Using word address format, the center of an arc in the XY-plane using circular interpolation is
programmed using the letters
(A) I and J (B) I and K
(C) J and K (D) C and R
58. The disadvantage of numerical control machining is_________
(A) operator skill required is high
(B) higher investment in equipment costs
(C) special training required for maintenance personnel
(D) all of the above
59. Which of the following is NOT a component of a linear programming problem?
(A) Decision variables
(B) Objective function
(C) Constraints
(D) Exponential equations
60. The feasible region in Linear Programming is defined as
(A) The set of all possible solutions
(B) The set of solutions that satisfy all constraints
(C) The set of solutions that maximize the objective function
(D) The region outside the constraints
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61. Graphical method in Linear Programming is used for
(A) solving LP problems with any number of variables
(B) solving LP problems with exactly two decision variables
(C) solving non-linear programming problems
(D) solving problems without constraints
62. In the Simplex Method, slack variables are introduced to
(A) Eliminate redundant constraints
(B) Convert inequalities into equalities
(C) Represent decision variables
(D) Optimize the objective function
63. Which of the following is TRUE about the degeneracy in the Simplex Method?
(A) It occurs when there are no constraints.
(B) It occurs when more than one solution exists.
(C) It occurs when one or more basic variables are zero.
(D) It occurs when the feasible region is unbounded.
64. The Transportation Problem is used to
(A) Minimize the total transportation cost of distributing goods.
(B) Maximize the total profit of production.
(C) Determine the shortest path between two points.
(D) Solve unbalanced demand and supply problems.
65. Which method is commonly used to find the initial feasible solution for the Transportation
Problem?
(A) Simplex Method (B) North-West Corner Rule
(C) Hungarian Method (D) Dual Simplex Method
66. In the Assignment Problem, the number of decision variables is equal to
(A) The total number of jobs minus one.
(B) The total number of jobs multiplied by the number of workers.
(C) The total number of jobs.
(D) The total number of workers.
67. The probability distribution for the number of customers in the system in an M/M/1 system follows
(A) Poisson distribution (B) Exponential distribution
(C) Uniform distribution (D) Binomial distribution
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68. In the notation (a/b/c): (d/e/f) for summarizing the characteristics of the queueing situation, the
letters b and d stand for
(A) service time distribution & queue discipline
(B) number of servers & size of calling source
(C) number of servers & queue discipline
(D) service time distribution and the maximum number allowed in the system
69. The primary difference between PERT and CPM is
(A) PERT is used for projects with well-defined activities, while CPM is used for projects with
uncertain durations.
(B) CPM is used for projects with deterministic durations, while PERT is used for projects with
uncertain durations.
(C) PERT is a project management tool, while CPM is a scheduling technique.
(D) There is no difference; they are same.
70. In the construction of networks, dummy activities are introduced in order to
(A) compute the slack on all events
(B) transfer resources if necessary during monitoring
(C) clearly designates a precedence relationship
(D) simply crash the plan.
71. For a closed system, the difference between the heat added to the system and work done by the
system is equal to the change in
(A) enthalpy (B) entropy
(C) internal energy (D) temperature
72. An isothermal process is governed by
(A) Boyle`s law
(B) Charle`s law
(C) Joule`s law
(D) Gay Lussac`s law
73. Which is the characteristic feature of a quasi-static process?
(A) Infinite slowness (B) Rapidity
(C) Stability (D) Stationary existence
74. Torr is a unit of
(A) temperature (B) pressure
(C) energy (D) power
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75. The integrating factor of the quasistatic displacement work is
(A) 1/T (B) 1/p
(C) 1/V (D) p/V
76. Which of the following does not change during a throttling process?
(A) enthalpy
(B) entropy
(C) volume
(D) pressure
77. Heat transferred to a system at a constant pressure is equal to
(A) Work transfer
(B) Change in internal energy
(C) Change in enthalpy
(D) Change in entropy
78. What is the percentage of oxygen by volume in the atmosphere?
(A) 14% (B) 23%
(C) 20.9% (D) 79%
79. Good fuel is
(A) Readily available
(B) Cheap
(C) Easily Burnt in air
(D) All of the above
80. Incomplete combustion gives
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) Carbon
(D) None of the above
81. In a gas power plant, which of the following is used to produce shaft power?
(A) The pressure and kinetic energy of stored water
(B) Heat energy of water
(C) Heat energy of flue gas
(D) Nuclear energy
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82. The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric pressure is __________ than the
latent heat of steam at atmospheric pressure
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) None of the above
83. Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as
(A) enthalpy
(B) superheating
(C) supersaturating
(D) None of the above
84. Superheating of steam is done at
(A) Constant volume (B) Constant pressure
(C) Constant enthalpy (D) Constant entropy
85. On Mollier chart, the constant pressure lines
(A) Diverge from left to right
(B) Diverge from right to left
(C) First rise up and then fall
(D) None of the above
86. On Mollier diagram, throttling process is represented by
(A) Horizontal straight line
(B) Vertical straight line
(C) Curved line
(D) None of the above
87. The power available at the shaft of an I.C. engine is known as
(A) Brake horsepower
(B) Indicated horsepower
(C) Friction power
(D) None of the above
88. In a two-stroke engine, the number of revolutions of the crankshaft for completion of a working
cycle is
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
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89. Thermal efficiency of two-stroke engine in comparison with four-stroke engine is
(A) More (B) Same
(C) Less (D) None of the above
90. In four-stroke petrol engine,
(A) The intake valve closes after top dead center
(B) The intake valve closes after bottom dead center
(C) The exhaust valve opens after top dead center
(D) The exhaust valve closes after bottom dead center
91. In C.I. engines, the combustion is
(A) homogeneous
(B) heterogeneous
(C) both homogeneous and heterogeneous
(D) none of the above
92. Morse test is conducted on
(A) Vertical engines
(B) Horizontal engines
(C) Single cylinder engines
(D) Multi-cylinder engines
93. Heat transfer takes place as per
(A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Second law of thermodynamics
(D) All of the above
94. The capacity of a refrigerating machine is expressed as
(A) Inside volume of cabinet
(B) Lowest temperature attained
(C) Gross weight of machine in tons
(D) Rate of abstraction of heat from the space being cooled
95. One ton of refrigeration is equivalent to
(A) 1 kW (B) 2.5 kW
(C) 3.5 kW (D) 5 kW
96. The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is
(A) Linear (B) Parabolic
(C) Hyperbolic (D) None of the options
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97. Cavitation will begin when
(A) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapor pressure
of the liquid
(B) the pressure becomes more than the critical pressure
(C) the flow is increased
(D) the pressure is increased
98. Bernoulli`s theorem deals with the conservation of
(A) mass (B) force
(C) momentum (D) energy
99. Specific speed of a turbine depends on
(A) Speed, power and discharge
(B) Discharge and power
(C) Speed and head
(D) Speed, power and head
100. An impulse turbine
(A) Operates submerged
(B) Requires draft tube
(C) Is not exposed to atmosphere
(D) Operates by an initial complete conversion to kinetic energy
101. Impulse turbine is used for
(A) Low head (B) High head
(C) Medium head (D) All of the options
102. To produce a high head by multistage centrifugal pumps, the impellers are connected
(A) both in parallel
(B) in series
(C) both in parallel and series
(D) none of the above
103. The most efficient method to compress the air is
(A) Isothermal compression
(B) Adiabatic compression
(C) Polytropic compression
(D) None of the above
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104. Clearance volume on a reciprocating compressor is required to
(A) Decrease work input
(B) Attain high volumetric efficiency
(C)
Provide a cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of the piston with the
cylinder head
(D) None of the above
105. Volumetric efficiency is
(A) The ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
(B) The ratio of air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
(C) Reciprocal of compression ratio
(D) None of the above
106. As the compression ratio increases, the volumetric efficiency of air compressor
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) None of the above
107. It is not a conserved quantity: _________
(A) mass (B) momentum
(C) energy (D) exergy
108. The exergy of an isolated system in a process
(A) Can never increase
(B) Can never decrease
(C) Always remain constant
(D) None of the above
109. A humidification process means
(A) A decrease in relative humidity
(B) An increase in specific humidity
(C) A decrease in temperature
(D) An increase in temperature
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110. In a refrigerator plant, if the condenser temperature increases, then the power input to the
compressor will
(A) decrease
(B) increase
(C) remain the same
(D) be unpredictable
111. When the air is adiabatically saturated, the temperature attained is
(A) Dew point temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Wet bulb temperature
(D) Triple point temperature
112. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity decreases, the wet bulb temperature
will
(A) decrease
(B) increase
(C) remain the same
(D) depend on other factors
113. The saturation temperature at the partial pressure of water vapour in the air-water vapour
mixture is called
(A) Dry bulb temperature
(B) Wet bulb temperature
(C) Dew point temperature
(D) Saturation temperature
114. Compressibility is the reciprocal of
(A) Bulk modulus of elasticity
(B) Shear modulus of elasticity
(C) Young`s modulus of elasticity
(D) All of the above
115. The Bourdon tubes are generally made of
(A) copper
(B) tin
(C) mild steel
(D) bronze or nickel steel
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 17
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116. Which of the following is the limitation of manometers?
(A) Fragile
(B) Bulky and large in size
(C) Capillary effect is created due to the surface tension of manometric fluid
(D) All of the above
117. The point of application of the force of buoyancy on the body is known as
(A) Centre of gravity
(B) Centre of buoyancy
(C) Metacentre
(D) None of the above
118. A floating body is in stable equilibrium when
(A) The metacentre is below its centre of gravity
(B) The metacentre is above its centre of gravity
(C) The metacentric height is zero
(D) Its centre of gravity is below the centre of buoyancy
119. Curve which gives an instantaneous picture of the location of the fluid particles which have
passed through a given point is
(A) Path line
(B) Streamline
(C) Streak line
(D) None of the above
120. In which of the following measuring devices is Bernoulli`s equation used?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice meter
(C) Pitot tube
(D) All of the above
121. Bingham plastic __________________.
(A) Flows when the shear stress exceeds the yield stress
(B) Flows when the shear stress is of smaller magnitude than the yield stress
(C) Follows Newton`s law of viscosity
(D) Follows power law
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122. For pseudoplastic fluids, increase in shear rate
(A) Increases the apparent viscosity
(B) decreases the apparent viscosity
(C) has no effect on the apparent viscosity
(D) has unspecified effect
123. An increase in the speed of a centrifugal compressor for a given pressure ratio would result in
(A) Increase of flow and increase of efficiency
(B) decrease of flow and increase of efficiency
(C) Increase of flow and decrease of efficiency
(D) decrease of flow and decrease of efficiency
124. For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, which of the following compressor
is well suited?
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Reciprocating
(C) Axial
(D) Screw
125. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is
(A) Capillary tube
(B) Thermostatic expansion valve
(C) Automatic expansion valve
(D) Float valve
126. During the chemical dehumidification process of air
(A) Dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decreases
(B) Dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases
(C) Dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases
(D) Dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase
127. In CI engines, by increasing inlet air pressure, the knocking tendency
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) does not effect
(D) first decreases and then increases
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 19
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128. Knocking takes place in CI engines
(A) at the start of combustion
(B) at the end of combustion
(C) during combustion
(D) none of the above
129. The measurement of frictional power by Willian's line is applicable to
(A) SI engines at a particular speed
(B) CI engines at a particular speed
(C) any engine at a particular speed only
(D) None of the above
130. At constant speed and constant air-fuel ratio for an SI engine, the brake specific fuel consumption
(BSFC) is
(A) Maximum at full load
(B) Minimum at full load
(C) Minimum at no load
(D) Does not depend on load
131. Sankey diagram represents
(A) air consumption vs speed
(B) heat balance of the engine
(C) torque vs speed
(D) None of the above
132. A surface is said to be gray if its properties are independent of
(A) direction
(B) temperature
(C) wavelength
(D) none of the above
133. The Grashof number is defined as the ratio of
(A) Buoyancy to inertial forces
(B) Buoyancy to viscous forces
(C) Inertial to viscous forces
(D) Buoyancy to surface tension forces
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134. Prandtl number is the ratio of
(A) Mass diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
(B) Momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
(C) Thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
(D) Thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
135. The rate of energy emission from the unit surface area through a unit solid angle, along a normal
to the surface is known as
(A) Emissivity
(B) Transmissivity
(C) Reflectivity
(D) Absorptivity
136. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by
(A) Wienʼs Law
(B) Planckʼs Law
(C) Stefanʼs Law
(D) Fourierʼs Law
137. Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
(A) no flow of air
(B) fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
(C) reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
(D) does not occur
138. In Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because
(A) Pressure inside the boiler increases
(B) Heat is added before steam enters the low-pressure turbine
(C) Average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases
(D) Total work delivered by the turbine increases
139. Venturi in the carburetor results in
(A) increase of air velocity
(B) decrease of air velocity
(C) decrease of fuel flow
(D) none of the above
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 21
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140. The desirable characteristics of the combustion chamber for SI engines to avoid knock is
(A) small bore
(B) short ratio of flame path to bore
(C) absence of hot surfaces in the last region of the charge
(D) all of the options
141. Which of the following is found out by calculating the area under the stress strain graph?
(A) Endurance (B) Toughness
(C) Strength (D) Hardness
142. Brinell hardness test is a ___________ type of hardness measurement.
(A) Scratch (B) Indentation
(C) Rebound (D) None of the options
143. __________ is a mechanical measurement that measures how resistant a material is to localized
plastic deformation caused by mechanical indentation
(A) Hardness
(B) Toughness
(C) Resilience
(D) Malleability
144. ___________ hardness number is also called as Diamond Pyramid Hardness number (DPH).
(A) Meyer (B) Rockwell
(C) Brinell (D) Vickers
145. ___________ usually proceeds along characteristic crystallographic planes called cleavage planes
and has rapid crack propagation.
(A) Ductile fracture
(B) Fatigue fracture
(C) Brittle fracture
(D) None of the above
146. The unit for stress intensity factor is _________
(A) N.m (B) MPa
(C) N.√m (D) MPa.√m
147. Fatigue failure occurs due to ____________ loading.
(A) cyclic
(B) tensile
(C) shearing
(D) compressive
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148. Magnitude of the shear stress induced in a solid shaft due to applied torque varies from
(A) Maximum at the center to zero at circumference
(B) Maximum at the center to minimum (non-zero) at circumference
(C) Zero at the center to maximum at circumference
(D) Minimum (non-zero) at center to maximum at circumference
149. Variation of the shear stress over the cross-section of a circular shaft subjected to torsion is
(A) Linear (B) Parabolic
(C) Hyperbolic (D) Uniform
150. For two shafts joined in series, the ____________ in each shaft is the same.
(A) Shear stress
(B) Angle of twist
(C) Torque
(D) None of the above
151. A solid shaft of same cross-sectional area and of same material as that of a hollow shaft can resist
____________.
(A) Less torque (B) More torque
(C) Equal torque (D) None of the options
152. In pure bending, bending stress at neutral axis is _______________.
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) None of the above
153. A beam is said to be in pure bending if ____________.
(A) Shear force and bending moment are uniform throughout
(B) Shear force is zero and bending moment is constant throughout
(C) Shear force can vary but bending moment is uniform throughout
(D) Shear force is uniform and bending moment varies linearly
154. The bending stress (σx) in beam is less if its section modulus is ____________
(A) High
(B) Low
(C) Zero
(D) None of the above
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 23
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155.
In simple bending of beams, the bending stress (σx) over the cross-section of the
beam _____________.
(A) is constant
(B) varies linearly
(C) varies parabolically
(D) varies cubically
In bending, the nature of shear stress (τxy) distribution over the cross-section of a beam
156.
is ________
(A) uniform (B) linear
(C) parabolic (D) elliptic
157.
Principal stresses are the normal stresses acting on the planes on which shear stress
is _____________
(A) maximum
(B) minimum
(C) zero
(D) none of the above
158. In plane stress, the plane of principal stress and the plane of maximum shear stress make an angle
of __________ degrees
(A) 45
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) 270
159. In plane stress, the planes of maximum and minimum principal stresses are at an angle of ________
degrees to each other
(A) 45 (B) 90
(C) 180 (D) 270
160. The bending moment at a section of loaded beam, where shear force is zero, will be _______.
(A) zero
(B) maximum
(C) minimum
(D) none of the above
161. If a member is subjected to an axial tensile load, the plane normal to the axis of loading carries
(A) maximum normal stress (B) minimum normal stress
(C) maximum shear Stress (D) none of the options
24 | [BKQ] [Contd.
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162. Which of the following can be obtained from the Mohr’s Circle?
(A) Moment of inertia
(B) Stiffness
(C) Damping
(D) Principal Stresses
163. The ratio of the crippling load of a column having both the ends fixed to the same column having
both the ends hinged is _______.
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
164. For a simply supported beam of span L with point load W at the centre, the maximum Bending
Moment will be
(A) WL (B)
(C) (D)
165. Which of the following is NOT an assumption in derivation of torsion equation?
(A) circular shaft remains circular after twisting
(B) plane section of the shaft remains plane after twisting
(C) material of the shaft is isotropic
(D) angle of twist is proportional to radius
166. Maximum slope in a cantilever beam with point load at the free end will be
(A) at the free end
(B) at the centre
(C) at the fixed end
(D) none of the above
167. Deflection of a simply supported beam when subjected to central point load is given as ________.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 25
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168. The carbon percentage in AISI 1030 steel is
(A) 30%
(B) 3%
(C) 0.3%
(D) 0.03%
169. Which of the following is a non-destructive testing method?
(A) Metallographic testing
(B) Fatigue testing
(C) Tensile testing
(D) Radiography
170. If compressive yield stress and tensile yield stress are equivalent, then the region of safety from
maximum principal stress theory is of which shape?
(A) Hexagon
(B) Square
(C) Circle
(D) Ellipse
171. Which of the following is the characteristic of force?
(A) Magnitude of force
(B) Point of application of force
(C) Direction of application of force
(D) All of the above
172. A struss structure is perfect, if the number of members are _________ (2j – 3) , where j is the
number of joints.
(A) equal to
(B) less than
(C) greater than
(D) none of the above
173. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is _________.
(A) Newton
(B) Pascal
(C) Watt
(D) Joule
26 | [BKQ] [Contd.
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174. The forces, which meet at one point but their lines of action do not lie in same plane are called
(A) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(B) non-coplanar concurrent forces
(C) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(D) parallel forces
175. In determining forces in trusses by the method of sections, the truss is divided into two parts by
an imaginary section drawn in such a way that it does not cut more than ______________ with
unknown forces.
(A) two members
(B) three members
(C) four members
(D) five members
176. Immediately after the collision, two elastic bodies attempt to regain original shape. This process of
regaining the original shape is called __________.
(A) elasticity
(B) restitution
(C) compression
(D) conservation of momentum
177. According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of an elastic system
before collision is ___________ the total momentum of the system after collision.
(A) greater than
(B) less than
(C) equal to
(D) greater than or less than
178. ____________ is the branch of engineering mechanics which deals with the motion of particles and
bodies without consideration of forces that cause them to move.
(A) Kinematics
(B) Kinetics
(C) Statics
(D) Quantum mechanics
179. If the resultant force on a particle is zero during an interval of time, linear momentum of the
particle _________.
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
(D) increases or decreases
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 27
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180. The principle of virtual work for a rigid body in equilibrium states that the total virtual work of
the external forces acting on the body is ________ for any virtual displacement of the body.
(A) non-zero
(B) zero
(C) unstable
(D) all of the above
181. In a kinematic chain with four lower pairs, if two pairs are sliding pairs and the other two turning
pairs, the mechanism is classified into
(A) four-bar chain
(B) single slider-crank chain
(C) double slider-crank chain.
(D) all of the above
182. The velocity image of a kinematic link is a scaled reproduction of the link's shape in the velocity
diagram from the configuration diagram, rotated through ___________ in the direction of the
angular velocity.
(A) 90°
(B) 180°
(C) 270°
(D) None of the above
183. The axis of spin, the axis of precession and the axis of gyroscopic torque are in
(A) two parallel planes
(B) two perpendicular planes
(C) three perpendicular planes
(D) three parallel planes
184. The governor is said to be ________ when the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above
and below the mean speed.
(A) isochronous
(B) hunting
(C) insensitive
(D) stable
185. In spur gears, the circle on which the involute is generated is called the
(A) pitch circle
(B) clearance circle
(C) base circle
(D) addendum circle
28 | [BKQ] [Contd.
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186. The relative velocity of sliding in the teeth of involute spur gears in mesh is zero at ________.
(A) the point of engagement
(B) the point of disengagement
(C) the pitch point
(D) the point between point of engagement and pitch point
187. For which of the following planar mechanism/s, coriolis acceleration component appears in the
acceleration analysis?
1. Whitworth quick-return mechanism
2. Slider-crank mechanism
3. Scotch-Yoke mechanism
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 only
188. In a radial cam, the follower moves in a direction
(A) parallel to the cam axis
(B) perpendicular to the cam axis
(C) at an angle of 45º to the cam axis
(D) none of the above
189. According to Kennedy’s theorem, the instantaneous centres of three bodies having relative motion
lie on a
(A) curved path
(B) straight line
(C) point
(D) infinite distance
190. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed of the flywheel to the mean speed is called
(A) fluctuation of energy
(B) maximum fluctuation of energy
(C) coefficient of fluctuation of speed
(D) none of the above
191. A reverted gear train is one in which the output shaft and input shaft _________.
(A) rotate in opposite directions
(B) are co-axial
(C) are at right angles to each other
(D) are at an angle of 45° to each other
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 29
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192. D’Alembert’s principle states that the inertia forces and couples and the external forces and
torques on a body together give _____________.
(A) statical equilibrium
(B) dynamic equilibrium
(C) unstable equilibrium
(D) all of the above
193. ____________ is a reference point on the follower to trace the cam profile
(A) pitch point
(B) trace point
(C) base point
(D) prime point
194. In a revolving rotor, the centrifugal force remains balanced as long as the centre of the mass of the
rotor lies ___________
(A) below the axis of shaft
(B) on the axis of shaft
(C) above the axis of shaft
(D) away from the axis of shaft
195. Grashof's Law states that the sum of lengths of the shortest and the longest link should be
_________ to the sum of lengths of the other two links.
(A) less than or equal
(B) greater than or equal
(C) always equal
(D) none of the above
196. A kinematic pair of links having surface or area contact between the members is known as a
__________
(A) higher pair
(B) lower pair
(C) redundant pair
(D) linkage
197. __________ motion is the most ideal program for high-speed follower motion in cam follower
mechanism.
(A) Simple harmonic
(B) Constant velocity
(C) Cycloidal
(D) Constant acceleration and deceleration
30 | [BKQ] [Contd.
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198. A governor with a zero speed range is known as an __________ governor.
(A) isochronous
(B) hunting
(C) centrifugal
(D) Pickering
199. The function of the universal joint is to allow the propeller shaft to ________
(A) change the length
(B) change the inclination
(C) transfer the torque at an angle
(D) none of the above
200. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller of centrifugal pump, the
casing is known as _________
(A) volute casing
(B) casing with guide blades
(C) vortex casing
(D) none of the above
______________________
[BKQ] P.T.O.] | 31
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
32 | [BKQ] [Contd.
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2 Narmada Water Resources , Water Supply and Kalpsar
Department (Advt No. 36/2024-25) Exam Date:23-02-2025 BKQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 26 A 51 A 76 A 101 B 126 B 151 A 176 B
2 C 27 C 52 A 77 C 102 B 127 B 152 C 177 C
3 C 28 C 53 B 78 C 103 A 128 A 153 B 178 A
4 A 29 D 54 C 79 D 104 C 129 B 154 A 179 C
5 B 30 B 55 C 80 B 105 B 130 B 155 B 180 B
6 B 31 C 56 B 81 C 106 B 131 B 156 C 181 C
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 A 107 D 132 C 157 C 182 A
8 A 33 A 58 D 83 B 108 A 133 B 158 A 183 C
9 C 34 B 59 D 84 B 109 B 134 B 159 B 184 B
10 B 35 A 60 B 85 A 110 B 135 A 160 B 185 C
11 B 36 B 61 B 86 A 111 C 136 A 161 A 186 C
12 D 37 C 62 B 87 A 112 A 137 B 162 D 187 D
13 D 38 B 63 C 88 A 113 C 138 C 163 A 188 B
14 D 39 C 64 A 89 C 114 A 139 A 164 C 189 B
15 A 40 D 65 B 90 B 115 D 140 D 165 D 190 C
16 A 41 C 66 B 91 B 116 D 141 B 166 A 191 B
17 C 42 C 67 A 92 D 117 B 142 B 167 C 192 A
18 C 43 B 68 A 93 C 118 B 143 A 168 C 193 B
19 B 44 C 69 B 94 D 119 C 144 D 169 D 194 B
20 A 45 C 70 C 95 C 120 D 145 C 170 B 195 A
21 A 46 C 71 C 96 A 121 A 146 D 171 D 196 B
22 C 47 C 72 A 97 A 122 B 147 A 172 A 197 C
23 * 48 C 73 A 98 D 123 C 148 C 173 D 198 A
24 C 49 C 74 B 99 D 124 B 149 A 174 B 199 C
25 B 50 B 75 B 100 D 125 A 150 C 175 B 200 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-06-2025
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2 Narmada Water Resources , Water Supply and Kalpsar
Department (Advt No. 36/2024-25) Exam Date:23-02-2025 BKQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 26 A 51 B 76 A 101 B 126 B 151 B 176 A
2 C 27 C 52 C 77 A 102 B 127 C 152 B 177 C
3 C 28 C 53 C 78 B 103 A 128 A 153 A 178 B
4 D 29 D 54 A 79 C 104 B 129 C 154 C 179 A
5 B 30 B 55 B 80 C 105 B 130 B 155 B 180 B
6 C 31 C 56 B 81 B 106 B 131 C 156 B 181 C
7 A 32 A 57 C 82 A 107 C 132 A 157 D 182 C
8 A 33 B 58 A 83 D 108 B 133 C 158 A 183 A
9 B 34 B 59 C 84 D 109 B 134 B 159 B 184 B
10 A 35 A 60 B 85 B 110 A 135 C 160 B 185 B
11 B 36 A 61 B 86 B 111 A 136 C 161 C 186 A
12 C 37 A 62 D 87 B 112 B 137 D 162 A 187 D
13 B 38 A 63 D 88 C 113 C 138 B 163 C 188 A
14 C 39 C 64 D 89 A 114 A 139 B 164 A 189 C
15 D 40 B 65 A 90 B 115 D 140 C 165 D 190 D
16 C 41 B 66 A 91 B 116 B 141 B 166 D 191 A
17 C 42 D 67 C 92 A 117 B 142 A 167 B 192 C
18 B 43 C 68 C 93 A 118 A 143 B 168 B 193 C
19 C 44 D 69 B 94 B 119 D 144 B 169 C 194 D
20 C 45 C 70 A 95 C 120 C 145 A 170 D 195 B
21 C 46 A 71 A 96 C 121 D 146 B 171 A 196 D
22 C 47 A 72 C 97 A 122 A 147 C 172 B 197 A
23 C 48 D 73 * 98 A 123 C 148 A 173 C 198 D
24 C 49 D 74 C 99 B 124 A 149 C 174 B 199 B
25 B 50 D 75 B 100 B 125 C 150 C 175 A 200 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-06-2025
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2 Narmada Water Resources , Water Supply and Kalpsar
Department (Advt No. 36/2024-25) Exam Date:23-02-2025 BKQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 26 A 51 A 76 A 101 B 126 A 151 B 176 B
2 C 27 A 52 C 77 C 102 B 127 C 152 B 177 C
3 C 28 B 53 C 78 C 103 A 128 B 153 A 178 A
4 A 29 C 54 D 79 D 104 C 129 A 154 B 179 C
5 B 30 C 55 B 80 B 105 B 130 B 155 B 180 B
6 B 31 B 56 C 81 C 106 B 131 C 156 B 181 C
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 A 107 D 132 C 157 C 182 A
8 A 33 D 58 A 83 B 108 A 133 A 158 B 183 C
9 C 34 D 59 B 84 B 109 B 134 B 159 B 184 B
10 B 35 B 60 A 85 A 110 B 135 B 160 A 185 C
11 B 36 B 61 B 86 A 111 C 136 A 161 A 186 C
12 D 37 B 62 C 87 A 112 A 137 D 162 B 187 D
13 D 38 C 63 B 88 A 113 C 138 A 163 C 188 B
14 D 39 A 64 C 89 C 114 A 139 C 164 A 189 B
15 A 40 B 65 D 90 B 115 D 140 D 165 D 190 C
16 A 41 B 66 C 91 B 116 D 141 A 166 B 191 B
17 C 42 A 67 C 92 D 117 B 142 C 167 B 192 A
18 C 43 A 68 B 93 C 118 B 143 C 168 A 193 B
19 B 44 B 69 C 94 D 119 C 144 D 169 D 194 B
20 A 45 C 70 C 95 C 120 D 145 B 170 C 195 A
21 A 46 C 71 C 96 A 121 A 146 D 171 D 196 B
22 C 47 A 72 C 97 A 122 B 147 A 172 A 197 C
23 * 48 A 73 C 98 D 123 C 148 D 173 C 198 A
24 C 49 B 74 C 99 D 124 B 149 B 174 A 199 C
25 B 50 B 75 B 100 D 125 A 150 B 175 C 200 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-06-2025
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2 Narmada Water Resources , Water Supply and Kalpsar
Department (Advt No. 36/2024-25) Exam Date:23-02-2025 BKQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 26 A 51 A 76 B 101 A 126 B 151 B 176 B
2 A 27 C 52 C 77 C 102 C 127 B 152 C 177 B
3 B 28 C 53 C 78 C 103 B 128 A 153 A 178 A
4 C 29 D 54 D 79 A 104 A 129 B 154 C 179 C
5 C 30 B 55 B 80 B 105 B 130 B 155 B 180 B
6 B 31 C 56 C 81 B 106 C 131 B 156 C 181 B
7 A 32 A 57 A 82 C 107 C 132 C 157 A 182 D
8 D 33 A 58 B 83 A 108 A 133 B 158 C 183 A
9 D 34 B 59 B 84 C 109 B 134 B 159 B 184 B
10 B 35 A 60 A 85 B 110 B 135 A 160 C 185 B
11 B 36 B 61 A 86 B 111 A 136 A 161 C 186 C
12 B 37 C 62 A 87 D 112 D 137 B 162 D 187 A
13 C 38 B 63 A 88 D 113 A 138 C 163 B 188 C
14 A 39 C 64 C 89 D 114 C 139 A 164 B 189 A
15 B 40 D 65 B 90 A 115 D 140 D 165 C 190 D
16 B 41 C 66 B 91 A 116 A 141 B 166 B 191 D
17 A 42 C 67 D 92 C 117 C 142 B 167 A 192 B
18 A 43 B 68 C 93 C 118 C 143 A 168 B 193 B
19 B 44 C 69 D 94 B 119 D 144 D 169 B 194 C
20 C 45 C 70 C 95 A 120 B 145 C 170 A 195 D
21 C 46 C 71 A 96 A 121 D 146 D 171 B 196 A
22 A 47 C 72 A 97 C 122 A 147 A 172 C 197 B
23 A 48 C 73 D 98 * 123 D 148 C 173 A 198 C
24 B 49 C 74 D 99 C 124 B 149 A 174 C 199 B
25 B 50 B 75 D 100 B 125 B 150 C 175 C 200 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-06-2025
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2 Narmada Water Resources , Water Supply and Kalpsar
Department (Advt No. 36/2024-25) Exam Date:23-02-2025 BKQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 26 B 51 A 76 A 101 B 126 B 151 A 176 B
2 C 27 C 52 A 77 C 102 C 127 B 152 C 177 B
3 C 28 C 53 B 78 C 103 A 128 A 153 B 178 A
4 D 29 A 54 C 79 D 104 C 129 C 154 A 179 B
5 B 30 B 55 C 80 B 105 B 130 B 155 B 180 B
6 C 31 B 56 B 81 C 106 C 131 B 156 C 181 B
7 A 32 C 57 A 82 A 107 A 132 D 157 C 182 C
8 B 33 A 58 D 83 A 108 C 133 A 158 A 183 B
9 B 34 C 59 D 84 B 109 B 134 B 159 B 184 B
10 A 35 B 60 B 85 A 110 C 135 B 160 B 185 A
11 A 36 B 61 B 86 B 111 C 136 C 161 A 186 A
12 A 37 D 62 B 87 C 112 D 137 A 162 D 187 B
13 A 38 D 63 C 88 B 113 B 138 C 163 A 188 C
14 C 39 D 64 A 89 C 114 B 139 A 164 C 189 A
15 B 40 A 65 B 90 D 115 C 140 D 165 D 190 D
16 B 41 A 66 B 91 C 116 B 141 D 166 A 191 B
17 D 42 C 67 A 92 C 117 A 142 B 167 C 192 B
18 C 43 C 68 A 93 B 118 B 143 B 168 C 193 A
19 D 44 B 69 B 94 C 119 B 144 C 169 D 194 D
20 C 45 A 70 C 95 C 120 A 145 D 170 B 195 C
21 A 46 A 71 C 96 C 121 B 146 A 171 D 196 D
22 A 47 C 72 A 97 C 122 C 147 B 172 A 197 A
23 D 48 * 73 A 98 C 123 A 148 C 173 D 198 C
24 D 49 C 74 B 99 C 124 C 149 B 174 B 199 A
25 D 50 B 75 B 100 B 125 C 150 A 175 B 200 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-06-2025Page 1 of 32
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.