GPSC Engineering Services 2017: Gujarat Engineering Service Class-1 and Class-2, Preliminary, Paper 1
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ESP-1
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
NAME OF THE POST GUJARAT ENGINEERING SERVICE (CIVIL) CLASS I &II
Advertisement No. 39/2017-18
Preliminary Test held on 24-12-2017
Que No. 001– 200
Publish Date 26‐12‐2017
Last Date to send
suggestion(s) 3‐1‐2018
Note:‐
(1) All Suggestions are to be sent with reference to website published Question paper
with Provisional Answer Key Only.
(2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only.
(3) Candidate must ensure the above compliance.
(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન ૂનાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(2) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર ામાં મળે લ સીર ઝની ુ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક ુ બ વાંધા-
જ
ૂચનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા- ૂચનો વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક ના
માંક ુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં ર ૂ કરવા
(3) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉ ત ૂચના ંુ અ ૂક પાલન કર ંુ અ યથા વાંધા- ૂચનો ગે કરલ ર ૂઆતો યાને
લેવાશે નહ .
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001. Which of the following is the ancient Buddhist University of Gujarat?
(A) Vikramsila (B) Nalanda
(C) Vallabhi (D) Morbi
002. CALICO Museum is famous for?
(A) Textile (B) Glass
(C) Paintings (D) Tribal Objects
003. Which is the tribal festival clubbed with tourism in Gujarat?
(A) Dangs Festival (B) Modhera Festival
(C) Kutch Utsav (D) Kite Festival
004. What is ‘Pithora’?
(A) Tribal Dance (B) Folk Music
(C) Tribal Painting (D) Folk Dance
005. Gurbani hymns are parts of which of the following holy book?
(A) Avesta (B) Shrimad Bhagvadgita
(C) Guru Granth Sahib (D) Bible
006. Which of the following is a pilgrim’s place of Parsis?
(A) Pandarvada (B) Delmal
(C) Udvada (D) Mumbai
007. Match the following:
List I List II
1. Porbandar a. Harsiddhi Mata
2. Siddhapur b. Saraswati
3. Mahudi c. Ghantakarna
4. Pavagadh d. Bhadrakali
(A) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c (B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
(C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (D) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
008. Which among the following temples of India is known as Black pagoda?
(A) Sun Temple, Konark (B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjore
(C) Lord Jagannath Temple, Puri (D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
009. Which of the following is a dance form of Gujarat?
(A) Phag (B) Gomph
(C) Jatra (D) Tippani
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010. At which place was Gandhiji arrested for the first time by the British
Government for sedition?
(A) Bombay (B) Pune
(C) Calcutta (D) Ahmedabad
011. Which of the following festivals is not celebrated almost simultaneously
in the month of January every year?
(A) Makar Sankrati (B) Pongal
(C) Gudi Padwa (D) Lohri
012. Temple Vimal Vasahi and Luna Vasahi at Mount Abu were designed
by
(A) Vastupal and Tejpal (B) Kumarpal
(C) Mahavir (D) Udaymati
013. Maha Gurjara is a style of
(A) Temple architecture (B) Express rail transportation
(C) A political movement (D) None
014. Which of the following Gujarati poet received Jnanapith award in 2016?
(A) Chandravadan Mehta (B) Raghuveer Chaudhari
(C) Bharat Patel (D) Mahesh Champaklal
015. Where is National Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL) Located?
(A) Tirupati (B) Bengaluru
(C) Thiruvanathapuram (D) New Delhi
016. Which of the following countries has never been a signatory to the
nuclear non proliferation treaty?
(A) India (B) Pakistan
(C) Israel (D) All of the above
017. Under Indo-US civil nuclear Agreement:
(A) India’s right to conduct nuclear test in future does not get
affected.
(B) India’s indigenous three stage nuclear programme does not get
affected.
(C) India does not have to give up its nuclear weapons programme.
(D) All of the above.
018. Which Indian reactor is the only reactor in the world where all the
three fissile isotopes viz., U-235, Pu-239 & U-233 are used as fuel?
(A) Kamini (B) Kakrapar
(C) Kudankulam (D) Kalpakam
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019. Which government company under the DAE is entrusted the construction
and commissioning of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBR) in India?
(A) Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL)
(B) Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
(C) Bhabha Atomic Energy Research Centre (BARC)
(D) Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI)
020. Which of the following net-banking services are available all the time?
(A) NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer)
(B) IMPS (Immediate Payment Service)
(C) RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement)
(D) All of the above
021. Which one of the following Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) developed
by DRDO is not a target drone:
(A) Abhyas (B) Ulka
(C) Lakshya (D) Nishant
022. Which instrument is not a part of on-board payloads of Mars Orbiters
Mission (MOM) of India:
(A) Lyman Alpha Photometer
(B) Mars Color Camera
(C) Hyper Spectral Images
(D) Thermal Infrared Imaging Spectrometer
023. Itai-itai disease is caused by the poisoning of which one of the following?
(A) Mercury (B) Nitrate
(C) Cadmium (D) Arsenic
024. Maximum number of natural disasters, are generally reported from which
of the following continents?
(A) Asia (B) Africa
(C) Europe (D) North America
025. The Keoladeo National Park at Bharatpur is famous for the conservation
of:
(A) Tiger (B) Black Buck
(C) Gharial (D) Birds
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026. Which country has not demonstrated anti-satellite weapons?
(A) China (B) India
(C) USA (D) Russia
027. Which one of the following pair is incorrectly matched?
National Park State
(A) Kaziranga – Assam
(B) Mollem – Goa
(C) Kanha – Madhya Pradesh
(D) Bandhipur – Rajasthan
028. Pine trees are generally found in type of forests.
(A) Himalayan broad leaved forest (B) Himalayan coniferous forest
(C) Deciduous Moist forest (D) Deciduous dry forest
029. Economic Survey 2016-17 has three section. Which one is the correct
sequence?
(A) The Perspective, The Proximate, The Persistent
(B) The Perspective, The Proximate, The Prospective
(C) The Proximate, The Perspective, The Persistent
(D) The Persistent, The Perspective, The Proximate
030. What is the rank of India amongst 155 countries as per World Happiness
Report 2017?
(A) 122 (B) 119
(C) 118 (D) 124
031. Match the following:
List I List II
a. Corporate Tax 1. Sale of Property
b. Excise Duty 2. Income of a Company
c. Custom Duty 3. Exports & Imports
d. Capital Gain Tax 4. Good produced within a country
(A) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4 (B) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
(C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (D) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
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032. Which of the following is not a port of Gujarat?
(A) Salaya (B) Jafrabad
(C) Pipavav (D) Dhamra
033. What is secondary agriculture?
(A) Development of rural sector
(B) Development of infrastructure
(C) Practices & processes in rural industries
(D) Practices and processes that add value to primary agriculture
commodities
034. What is unique in the idiosyncratic pattern of development in India?
(A) Shift of labour from agriculture to industrial sector directly
(B) Shift of labour from industrial to service sector directly
(C) Shift of labour from agriculture to service sector directly
(D) Stagnation of labour in the service sector
035. The GST Suvidha provider (GSPs), a newly developed application, is
used by:
(A) State Government to understand GST
(B) Central Government to understand GST
(C) Taxpayers for interacting with GSTN
(D) Political parties to comply with GST
036. What is the predominant type of Indian agriculture?
(A) Commercial agriculture (B) Extensive agriculture
(C) Plantation agriculture (D) Subsistence agriculture
037. Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if
(A) Prices of domestic goods remain constant
(B) Prices of import remains constant
(C) Prices of export remains constant
(D) Prices of export rise proportionately
038. Which of the following are the basic characteristics of underdeveloped
countries?
i. Dependence on agriculture
ii. Low human development index
iii. Poor standard of living and mass poverty
iv. Exploitation of natural resources and the development of industrial
sector
(A) i, ii & iii only (B) ii, iii & iv only
(C) i, iii & iv only (D) i, ii & iv only
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039. Which one of the following conducts periodical sample survey for
estimating the poverty line in India?
(A) Central Statistical Organization
(B) Indian Statistical Institute
(C) Indian National Income Estimates Committee
(D) National Sample Survey Organization
040. Which of the following are the major indicators of underdevelopment?
i. Underutilized human and natural resources
ii. More dependence on service sector
iii. More dependence on labour intensive techniques
iv. Poverty, low levels of income and unemployment
(A) i, iii only (B) ii, iv only
(C) i, ii, iii and iv (D) i, iii and iv only
041. Which of the following are the internal planets?
i. Earth
ii. Mercury
iii. Venus
iv. Jupiter
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
042. Which one of the following is the most important influencing factor
for the distribution of temperature on the earth?
(A) Latitude (B) Longitude
(C) Terrestrial (D) Distance from the sea
043. According to 2011 Census of India data, population density of Gujarat
is
(A) 397 (B) 365
(C) 319 (D) 308
044. According to State Forest Report 2011, percentage of total area under
forest of Gujarat is
(A) 7.46% (B) 3.64%
(C) 10.14% (D) 16.86%
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045. Dharwar system of rocks is famous for :
(A) Manganese reserves (B) Iron ore reserves
(C) Bauxite (D) Limestone
046. ‘Karewa Deposits’ are found in
(A) Kashmir Valley (B) Assam Valley
(C) Himalayan foothills (D) Delta region
047. The most prominent state in ‘bauxite’ reserves is :
(A) Jharkhand (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat (D) Orissa
048. Among the following which group of states are famous for pulses crop
prouction?
(A) Assam, West Bengal and Sikkim
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan
(C) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Haryana, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh
049. The average rainfall in Narmada Basin is almost .
(A) 1178 Millimeter (B) 904 Millimeter
(C) 1415 Millimeter (D) 1300 Millimeter
050. Which one of the following theories regarding the origin of the universe
are correctly matched :
1. Big Bang Theory ; By E George Lamaitre
2. Steady State Theory : By Thomas Gold and Herman Bondy
3. Pulsating Universe Theory : By Allen Sundes
(A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 1 and 3 are correct (D) All are correct
051. Which one of the following rocks is not correctly matched?
(A) Igneous Rocks-Basalt (B) Sedimentary Rocks-Shale
(C) Metamorphic Rocks-Regur (D) All the above
052. The hot and dry wind blowing in the northern India from the
north-west and west-east are called :
(A) Garam (B) Samoon
(C) Loo (D) Boo
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053. In the terms of Area, in India Gujarat is ranked at no.
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 6
054. Which of the following is the correct sequence of mountains from east
to west
(A) Khasi, Garo, Jaintia, Nagahills
(B) Nagahills, Jaintia, Khasi, Garo
(C) Jaintia, Garo, Khasi, Nagahills
(D) Nagahills, Khasi, Garo, Jaintia
055. Rainbow revolution in India is related with :
(A) Development with film industry
(B) Space research development
(C) Child health programme
(D) Development of various sectors of Agriculture
056. Which one of the following countries has the highest density of population?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan
(C) Srilanka (D) India
057. According to 2011 Census the percentage of aged population (60+) to
total population in India lies between
(A) 2-5 (B) 5-10
(C) 10-12 (D) 12-15
058. Who among the following is not considered as a Tirthankar in the Jain
tradition?
(A) Rishabhnath (B) Adinatha
(C) Priyadarshana (D) Parsvanatha
059. Ilbert Bill was introduced in the Central Assembly during the time of .
(A) Lord Northbrook (B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Ripon (D) Lord Dufferin
060. Sayyajirao Gaekwad III gave financial help to to complete
Higher education
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Vithal Ramaji Shinde
(C) Shivaram J. Kamble (D) Kisan Fauji Bansod
061. Who is stated to have given a definite form, content and style to Urdu?
(A) Wali Dakkhani (B) Naziri
(C) Utbi (D) Abdus Samad
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062. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Deoband School?
(A) It reduced its original programme of study from 10 years to 5 years
(B) It prepared its students to assume the role of Ulemas
(C) It focused on the Islamic texts
(D) It did not introduce English or Western learning.
063. Which in the following is a romantic play written by Harsha, the
Pushyabhuti ruler?
(A) Ratnavalli (B) Nagananda
(C) Lilavati (D) Kritya Kalpataru
064. The venue of the Second Buddhist Council was held at
(A) Vaisali (B) Rajagriha
(C) Patliputra (D) Kashmir
065. The last powerful sultan of Gujarat Sultanate, Bahadur Shah, was killed
by .
(A) Sher Shah Suri (B) Humayun
(C) Bairam Khan (D) Portuguese
066. Who was the Viceroy of India during the time of Dandi Satyagrah launched by
Gandhi?
(A) Lord Irwin (B) Earl of Willington
(C) Marquess of Linlithgow (D) Earl of Reading
067. Which metal was chosen by the Gupta Emperor Chandragupta II for
his coinage in Western India?
(A) Tin (B) Bronze
(C) Silver (D) Lead
068. Who was Akbar’s Governor of Gujarat?
(A) Itimad Khan (B) Mirza Aziz Koka
(C) Bairam Khan (D) Muhammad Husain Mirza
069. Which British Viceroy esatablished the Rajkot College in Gujarat?
(A) Lord Canning (B) Lord John Lawrence
(C) Lord Mayo (D) Lord Ripon
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070. Read the following statements:
1. The Kushanas issued a large number of gold coins
2. They also issued copper coins
(A) Both statements are true (B) Both statements are wrong
(C) 1 is true, but 2 is false (D) 1 is false, but 2 is true
071. Arrange the following satyagrahas in a chronological order :
1. Borsad Satyagrah
2. Kheda Satyagrah
3. Champaran Satyagrah
4. Mill-worker’s Satyagrah
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1
072. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India can be called as
‘Restorative Amendment’?
(A) 42nd Amendment (B) 44th Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment (D) 73rd Amendment
073. When can the speaker of the Lok Sabha exercise his right to vote in
the house?
(A) On his own desire
(B) When the Lok Sabha wants him to vote
(C) When the President wants him to vote
(D) In the event of equality of votes
074. According to China, Arunachal Pradesh is a part of which region
(A) Aksai Chin region (B) China
(C) South Tibet (D) Bhutan
075. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) has not been a success
because of
1. Narrow export base of countries
2. Lack of bilateral free trade agreements
3. Lack of Political will
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
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076. India wants to join a proposed Free Trade Agreement with ASEAN
and 5 other countries. The name of this proposed economic deal is :
(A) Asian Economic Cooperation Partnership
(B) Asian Comprehensive Economic Agreement
(C) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
(D) Regional Economic Cooperation Agreement
077. In which of the following state it is constitutionally obligatory for the
Governor to appoint a minister of tribal affairs?
(A) Bihar (B) Karnataka
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Andhra Pradesh
078. Which of the following day is celebrated as ‘Civil Service Day’ by
Government of India?
(A) 12th January (B) 15th March
(C) 21st April (D) 24th April
079. R.A.W. (Research and Analysis Wing) is a part of which of the following?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs (B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) P.M.O. (D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
080. External Publicity and Public Diplomacy (XPD) Division is part of
which Ministry of India
(A) Ministry of External Affairs
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of Defence
(D) Ministry of Human Resources and Development
081. Who defined Public Policy as “Whatever governments choose to do or
not to do”?
(A) B Guy Peters (B) EF Malone
(C) Thomas R Dye (D) Clarke E Cochran
082. Which one of the following is not there in the Eleventh Schedule of
the Constitution?
(A) Rural housing
(B) Drinking water
(C) Maintenance of community assets
(D) Securing communal harmony
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083. The percentage of Reservation of women seats in panchayats and Urban
local bodies in Gujarat is
(A) 30% (B) 33%
(C) 40% (D) 50%
084. To which of the following state, the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 does
not apply?
(A) Assam (B) Manipur
(C) Mizoram (D) Arunachal Pradesh
085. Who recommended the establishment of policy units within each Ministry?
(A) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) The Education Commission
(D) The M.C. Chagla Commission
086. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Wetland Rules 2017,
which are notified by the Union Environment Ministry.
(A) The new rules replaced the Wetland rules of 2005
(B) the new rules insist setting up of a State Wetland Authority in
every state and union territory.
(C) The new rules replaced the Wetland rules of 2010
(D) None of the above
087. The Union defence minister inaugurated the Pratham-Shyok Bridge
at
(A) Doklaham (B) Nathula Pass
(C) Leh (D) Jojila Pass
088. Which of the following company got order of 10,000 electrical vehicles
from government of India?
(A) Mahindra and Mahindra (B) ISUZU
(C) Nissan (D) Tata Motors
089. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched regarding Pro
Kabaddi?
(A) Ride Machine - Rahul Chaudhary
(B) Dubki King - Sandeep Narwal
(C) Bonus ka Badshah - Anoop Kumar
(D) One man Army - Manjeeth Chillar
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090. From which of the following countries, the UN soldiers left after finishing
their 13 year military peacekeeping mission?
(A) Djibouti (B) Haiti
(C) Somalia (D) Slovakia
091. Which of the following statement is incorrect about ICAN (International
Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons)
(A) ICAN head quarter is located at Geneva
(B) It was established in the year 2007
(C) It was established in Melbourne, Australia
(D) None of the above
092. “Paryatan Parv” is a tourism festival is launched by central government
in 2017, which of the following is not a part of this festival.
(A) Dekho Apana Desh (B) Tourism for All
(C) Tourism and Governance (D) Indigenous India
093. With which of the following countries India opened two new border
crossing points recently?
1. Pakistan
2. Bangladesh
3. Myanmar
4. Bhutan
(A) Only 2 (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
094. “Good for women, Good for India, Good for you,” is the theme
of
(A) Women of India Organic Festival 2017
(B) Women of India Suraksha Festival 2017
(C) Women of India International Festival 2017
(D) Women of World and India Festival 2017
095. Which of the following state passed the rule “No Helmet No Petrol”
recently?
(A) Gujarat (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Goa
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096. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched
(A) Mera Houchongba - Manipur
(B) Batukamma - Telangana
(C) Bonderam festival - Rajasthan
(D) Chitra Vichitra Fair - Gujarat
097. On which river the department of Bio-technology announced ‘Lab on
Boat’ project for biological analysis?
(A) Ganga (B) Yamuna
(C) Brahmaputra (D) Sarayu
098. Which country has signed ‘Letter of Intent’ with India to extend health
co-operation?
(A) Norway (B) Sweden
(C) Britain (D) USA
099. Which of the following country has joined with India and US to conduct
a joint trade and investment show for the first time, in Delhi?
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Pakistan
(C) Afghanistan (D) Bangladesh
100. India’s first International Financial Services Centre GIFT-IFSC has got
place in the latest Global Financial Centers Index 22 (GFCI).
(A) 7 th (B) 8th
(C) 9th (D) 10th
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101. Following figures show the population forecasting of some city.
Year 2011 2021 2031 2041
Population 100000 150000 225000 337500
The growth pattern of forecast values follows which of the following
method.
(A) Arithmetical increase method (B) Geometrical increase method
(C) Incremental increase method (D) Logistic curve method
102. Choose the appropriate word at (?) which bears the same relationship
with the given forth word as the first two bears.
Scale : Length :: ?: Pressure
(A) Pascal (B) Atmosphere
(C) Barometer (D) Water
103. Choose the odd pair of the word.
(A) Augur : Bore (B) Microscope : Magnify
(C) Filter : Purify (D) Brick : Frog
104. Read the following two statements
All framed structures are commercial buildings. Some framed structures
have pile foundation.
Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the
above two statements?
(A) All framed structures have pile foundation.
(B) All buildings having pile foundation are commercial buildings.
(C) All commercial buildings are framed structure.
(D) Some commercial buildings have pile foundation.
105. If 30 men can build a wall 40 meters long in 5 days, what length of
a similar wall can be built by 25 men in 3 days?
(A) 20 (B) 80
(C) 11.25 (D) 29
106. If 36 workers can complete a work in 18 days, how many days are
required to complete the same work by 27 workers?
(A) 12.5 (B) 22
(C) 26 (D) 24
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107. A tank has inlet pipe which can fill it in 4 minutes. There is also a
waste pipe in the tank. When both inlet and waste pipes are opened,
the empty tank takes 20 minutes to fill. How long will the waste pipe
take to empty the full tank when inlet pipe is closed?
(A) 10 minutes (B) 5 minutes
(C) 16 minutes (D) 24 minutes
108. A rectangular park 50 m long and 40 m wide is surrounded by 5 m
wide continuous concrete road. The area of the road is
(A) 1000 sq. m (B) 180 sq. m
(C) 900 sq. m (D) 100 sq. m
109. A tank of 5 m long, 3 m wide and 2 m deep is dug in a field of 31.5
m long and 10 m wide. If the earth dug out is evenly spread out over
the area of a field excluding tank area, the rise in the level of field is
(A) 1 m (B) 0.5 m
(C) 0.1 m (D) 0.3 m
110. A rectangular garden has length twice the width. Posts are placed on
all sides at equal interval including all corners. If 10 posts are placed
along one short side, find how many posts are there in all the four
sides.
(A) 60 (B) 58
(C) 56 (D) 54
111. Find the differentiation of x4 + y4 = 0
(A) – x3/y3 (B) – x3/y4
(C) – x4/y3 (D) x3/y3
112. f (x, y, z) = x2 + xyz + z
Find: fx at (1, 1, 1)
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) –1
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113. f (x, y) = x2 + y3; x = t2 + t3; y = 1 + t3
Find df at t = 1
dt
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 19 (D) 56
114. If 0 < x < 1, which of the following terms increases as x increases?
(i) 1 – x3
(ii) x – 1
(iii) 1/x2
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only
(C) (iii) only (D) (i) and (iii)
115. In the matrix equation Px = q, which of the following is a necessary
condition for existence of at least one solution for unknown vector x?
(A) Matrix P must be singular.
(B) Matrix P must be square.
(C) Augmented matrix [Pq] must have the same rank as matrix P.
(D) Vector q must have only non-zero elements.
250
116. Consider the function y = x 2 +
x
At x = 5, the function attains.
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum
(C) 0 (D) 1
117. The mean of set of observations is x . If each observation is divided
by k and then increased by 5, then the mean value of new set is.
x x+5
(A) (B)
k k
xk x + 5k
(C) (D)
5 k
ESP-1-A ] [ 32 ] [ Contd...
Text of page 33
118. f (x) = x2 + 1
If xi is very close to the root then according to Newton Raphson iterative
procedure, xi+1 is
2
x -1 2xi
(A) i (B)
2xi 2
x -1
i
2
2xi x +1
(C) (D) i
2
xi + 1 2xi
119. The function f ( x) is evaluated at four values of x at regular interval
as follows.
x 0 1 2 3
f ( x) 1 0.5 0.2 0.1
3
Evaluate w f (x) dx using Trapezoidal rule.
0
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.8
(C) 1.25 (D) 2.5
dy
120. A gradually varied flow profile can be governed by equation= f (x , y )
dx
where x is distance and y is the depth of water above the bed level.
Which of the following methods can be used for solution?
(A) Linear regression method (B) Simplex method
(C) Gauss elimination method (D) Runge-Kutta Method
121. Maximum effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive
loads resulting from dead loads and imposed loads should not
exceed
(A) 180 (B) 250
(C) 300 (D) 350
122. According to IS 800:2007 the maximum bearing pressure between the
base plate and the concrete bedding should not exceed.
(A) 0.4 fck (B) 0.6 fck
(C) 0.45 fck (D) 0.7 fck
ESP-1-A ] [ 33 ] [ P.T.O.
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123. According to IS 456:2000 the concrete in sea-water shall be of the
minimum grade of in case of reinforced concrete.
(A) M10 (B) M25
(C) M20 (D) M30
124. As per IS:456-2000 the lateral sway at the top of the building shall
not exceed for transient wind loads, where H is total height
of the building.
(A) H/500 (B) H/100
(C) H/5000 (D) H/50
125. In limit state design, partial safety factors are applied to
(A) Loads
(B) Material stresses
(C) Both loads and material stresses
(D) Size of structural member
126. What is the minimum number of longitudinal bars provided in a reinforced
concrete column of circular section?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
127. In steel structure design, check for lateral torsional buckling is required
for
(A) Axial column (B) Laterally unsupported beam
(C) Tension member (D) Column bases
128. Effective length of column, having length L and both ends hinged, is
(A) L (B) 2L
(C) 0.5L (D) 0.7L
129. ISMB 200 is a hot rolled Standard Indian Steel Section in which 200
indicates.
(A) Depth (B) Width
(C) Weight (D) Thickness
ESP-1-A ] [ 34 ] [ Contd...
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130. Crack width restriction of concrete is of prime importance during design
of
(A) Multi storeyed structures (B) Earthquake resisting structures
(C) Industrial structures (D) Water retaining structures
131. Under reamed piles are adopted as foundation when the soil strata
consists of
(A) Non expansive soil (B) Soft soil with filled up ground
(C) Sandy soil (D) Hard rock
132. Match the lists
Type of Survey Recommended Scale
(p) Building survey (i) 1:25000
(q) Topographical survey (ii) 1:10000
(r) Route Survey (iii) 1:1000
(A) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iii) (B) p-(iii), q-(i), r-(ii)
(C) p-(iii), q-(ii), r-(i) (D) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iii)
133. As per IS:13920, ductile detailing is not mandatory for lateral load
resisting systems of RC structures in seismic zone .
(A) Four (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Five
134. For normal M20 reinforced concrete, the minimum time of removing
the props of form work for slabs with spans less than 4.5m is
(A) 21 days (B) 3 days
(C) 7 days (D) 28 days
135. For normal M20 reinforced concrete, the time of removing the vertical
form work for columns as per IS 456 is
(A) 1 day (B) 3 days
(C) 14 days (D) 28 days
ESP-1-A ] [ 35 ] [ P.T.O.
Text of page 36
136. 53 grade OPC cement lying in bag storage at local vendor should be
tested before it’s use, if the period of storage is more than
(A) 9 months (B) 3 months
(C) 1 year (D) 2 year
137. A cement bag stored for two years is likely to result in
(A) Change in the colour of cement
(B) Increase in the strength of cement
(C) Loss of strength of cement
(D) Increase in fineness of cement
138. Compaction of soil is measured in terms of
(A) Dry density (B) Moisture content
(C) Compressibility (D) Permeability
139. The main observation of the plate load test is .
(A) Settlement of the test plate (B) Rotation of test plate
(C) Bending of the test plate (D) Settlement of soil
140. For verifying characteristics compressive strength the M25 grade of
concrete, which is the test done in the laboratory as per IS 456?
(A) Compression test on 15 cm cubes at 28 days
(B) Compression test on 10cm cubes at 28 days
(C) Split test on 15 cm dia cylinder on 28 days
(D) Compression test on 15 cm cubes at 7 days
141. Which of the following is not a mode of failure of a single riveted
joint?
(A) Tearing of Plate (B) Shearing of Plate
(C) Shearing of Rivet (D) Crushing of Rivet
142. Creep of concrete is
(A) Deformation due to sudden load
(B) Deformation due to seismic load
(C) Shrinkage due to temperature
(D) Deformation due to sustained load
ESP-1-A ] [ 36 ] [ Contd...
Text of page 37
143. Shrinkage crack in RCC slab can appear due to
(A) Improper curing (B) Improper loading
(C) Improper formwork (D) Improper mixing of concrete
144. According to IS 1641, The fire resistance of an RCC structural element
is expressed in terms of
(A) Strength in N/mm2 (B) Temperature in deg. Celsius
(C) Time in hours (D) Deformation in mm
145. Acidity in natural water in surface water bodies is mainly due to
(A) Oxygen (B) BOD
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Sulfuric and nitric acids
146. EIS is acronym of
(A) Efficient Import Strategy
(B) Environmentally Important Strategy
(C) Energy Impact Statement
(D) Environmental Impact Statement
147. SO2 and CO as air pollutants adversely affect
(A) Oxygen carrying capacity of blood and functioning of lungs
respectively
(B) Functioning of the respiratory system and oxygen carrying capacity
of blood respectively
(C) Functioning of the respiratory system and brain respectively
(D) Functioning of air passages and chest respectively
148. Column I lists various impurities in drinking water and Column II lists
effects/ diseases caused by these impurities.
Column I Column II
P. Nitrate > 45 ppm 1. Minamata disease
Q. Mercury > 0.001 ppm 2. Discoloration of teeth
R. Fluoride < 1.0 ppm 3. Cavities in teeth
S Fluoride > 1.5 ppm 4. Methemoglobenemia
5. Pneumoconiosis
The correct match of the column I with column II is
(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2
ESP-1-A ] [ 37 ] [ P.T.O.
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149. The ozone layer thickness is measured in
(A) Dobson units (B) Decibels
(C) Becquerel (D) Hazen units
150. Among the following which one has the highest Global warming potential?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane
(C) Nitrous oxide (D) Chloroflorocarbons
151. Thermal Pollution refers to
(A) Discharge of hot flue gases from chimney
(B) Discharge of high temperature liquid effluents in water bodies
(C) Discharge of hot exhaust gases from vehicles
(D) Release of foul gases from solid waste dumps during summer
152. Identify from the following, energy source/s which is / are not renewable
(i) Biomass energy (ii) Geo-thermal energy
(iii) Wind energy (iv) Tidal and wave energy
(v) Natural gas
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (v) only
(C) (v) only (D) (i) and (iv)
153. One of the following is not the effect of climate change
(A) Increase in global temperature
(B) Change in rainfall pattern leading to heavy floods and draughts
(C) Ozone layer depletion
(D) Loss of biodiversity
154. The chemical compounds responsible for production of photochemical
smog are
(A) Oxides of nitrogen only
(B) Hydrocarbons only
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Oxides of nitrogen and Hydrocarbons
ESP-1-A ] [ 38 ] [ Contd...
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155. Anthropogenic emission of chlorofluorcarbons (CFCs) is likely to deplete
the ozone layer in troposphere leading to increase on earth
surface
(A) Radioactivity (B) Air temperature
(C) Ultraviolate radiation (D) Acid rain
156. Ganga water pollution is mainly due to discharge of
(A) Agricultural runoff
(B) Wastes from forests
(C) Industrial and domestic wastewater
(D) Spillages from mines
157. The nature of tasks assigned to construction project management consultant
generally includes
(A) Promoting and financing the project
(B) Preparing architectural and structural drawings
(C) Tendering, supervising works and controlling of project time, cost
and quality.
(D) Supplying key equipments.
158. Which of the following parameters is not a part of typical construction
project lifecycle till commissioning?
(A) Mobilization stage (B) Operation and maintenance stage
(C) Construction stage (D) Formulation stage
159. Which of the following represent the construction management functions?
(i) Planning (ii) Marketing
(iii) Controlling (iv) Organizing
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
160. Negative value of cost variance (CV) of construction project indicates
that project is
(A) Behind schedule (B) Over budget
(C) Under budget (D) On schedule
ESP-1-A ] [ 39 ] [ P.T.O.
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161. BOT in infrastructure projects delivery model means
(A) Buy, own and transport (B) Bridge overload test
(C) Bill of transfer (D) Build, operate and transfer
162. In project network analysis, which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) All critical activities must join two critical events
(B) All activities joining two critical events are necessarily critical
(C) Some activities having non zero floats can be critical
(D) Dummy activities can never become critical
163. In PERT, how much probability is considered for expected activity
duration?
(A) 33% (B) 50%
(C) 67% (D) 99%
164. In PERT, If To and Tp are optimistic time and pessimistic time which
an activity takes for its performance, then assumed standard deviation
to measure uncertainty is taken as
(A) (To + Tp)/6 (B) (4To + 2Tp)/6
(C) (2To + 4Tp)/6 (D) (Tp – To)/6
165. To prepare the feasibility report of the fly over project for MDR at
railway crossing, which of the following points are examined?
(i) The basic model of the fly over with respect to width, length of
the approach road, etc.
(ii) Approximate cost of construction and source of fund.
(iii) Detail drawings
(iv) Specifications of each items with complete description
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
ESP-1-A ] [ 40 ] [ Contd...
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166. Quality assurance in construction project refers to
(A) Identification of relevant quality standards and determining how to
satisfy them.
(B) Monitoring of project results related to the compliance to quality
standards
(C) Identification of means to eliminate non-conformity of quality standard
(D) Consistent evaluation of project performance to provide confidence
that the project satisfies the relevant standards.
167. Which of the following is not the tool in Total Quality Management
Process.
(A) Histograms (B) Cause and effect diagrams
(C) Pareto diagram (D) Chromatogram
168. As a part of safety management in construction projects, which of the
following actions is taken?
(A) Management of disposal of waste from construction site
(B) Periodic review of performance of workers
(C) Regular and stipulated inspection of works and machinery/equipments
for enforcement of mandatory regulations.
(D) Control and monitoring cost changes
169. Gypsum is added to Portland cement during its manufacturing to
(A) Accelerate the setting time
(B) Retard the setting time
(C) Decrease the burning temperature
(D) Improve grinding
170. White cement is white in colour due to
(A) Use of limestone and china clay free from metal oxides
(B) Its modified manufacturing process
(C) Specific chemical treatment given to ordinary cement
(D) Marble powder
ESP-1-A ] [ 41 ] [ P.T.O.
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171. Which one of the following is relatively purest form of iron?
(A) Cast iron (B) Low carbon steel
(C) Wrought iron (D) Pig iron
172. Seasoning of timber is done
(A) To make it water proof
(B) To remove knots and twisted fibers
(C) To reduce moisture content
(D) To harden its outer surface
173. The property of materials by which they can be drawn into wires is
known as
(A) Ductility (B) Melleability
(C) Creep (D) Hardness
174. Brass cannot be used as reinforcement in concrete because
(A) Its density is greater than concrete
(B) It density is smaller than iron
(C) It is very expensive
(D) Its coefficient of thermal expansion is higher than concrete
175. A relatively high water absorption of a common burnt clay brick indicates
(A) High bond strength with mortar
(B) High shrinkage of brick
(C) High strength of brick
(D) Need for more mortar for plastering
176. A brass tube fits tightly into a steel tube. To loosen the brass tube
from steel tube.
(A) The assembly should be cooled
(B) The assembly should be heated
(C) Only steel tube should be cooled
(D) Only brass tube should be heated
ESP-1-A ] [ 42 ] [ Contd...
Text of page 43
177. Which of the following properties of an electromagnetic wave will
change when it passes through a piece of glass?
(i) Speed
(ii) Frequency
(iii) Wave length
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iii) only
178. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from 80°C to
70°C in time T1 minutes and from 70°C to 60°C in time T2 minutes.
The relationship between T1 and T2 is
(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 > T2
(C) T1 < T2 (D) T1 = T2 + 10
179. A tensile strength of concrete is determined by
(A) Cube test (B) Flexural test
(C) Box shear test (D) Axial tensile test
180. In stress-strain curve, the area up to elastic limit stress indicates which
mechanical property?
(A) Ductility (B) Strength
(C) Resilience (D) Hardness
181. List - 1 and List - 2 shows functions and web portals.
Match the list
List - I List - II
(p) computerization of land records (i) n-procure
across the state
(q) process of property registration (ii) e-Dhara
in Gujarat
(r) To monitor both budgeted and non (iii) swagat
budgeted works of R & B department
(iv) gARVi
(v) rnbwms
(A) p-i, q-iii, r-v (B) p-ii, q-iv, r-v
(C) p-ii, q-i, r-iv (D) p-iii, q-ii, r-i
ESP-1-A ] [ 43 ] [ P.T.O.
Text of page 44
182. Select the correct purposes.
By government departments the e-tendering process is carried out on
n-procure portal
(i) to save processing time
(ii) to release the cashless payment toward work done
(iii) to bring transparency in the procurement process
(A) only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) only (ii) (D) (i) and (iii)
183. Which of the following is a web service application that provides a
mapping interface with detailed imagery and embedded map data by
ISRO?
(A) 2D Bhuvan (B) E-Dhara
(C) E-Jamin (D) INSAT2D
184. The automation in operation of public utility services such as bulk water
supply and distribution system can be achieved by implementation of
(A) EPANET (B) CCTV
(C) SCADA (D) Automatic Weather Stations
185. To provide a support to all academic levels, a framework of virtual
repository of learning resources with a single - window search facility
is provided by
(A) IITK Library (B) NDL of India
(C) RUSA (D) Google Classroom
186. SWAYAM is indigenously developed IT platform, that facilitates
(A) Hosting of the courses, taught in classrooms to be accessed by
anyone at free of cost.
(B) Online job applications in government departments
(C) Hosting national talent search competitions
(D) Grievances redress
ESP-1-A ] [ 44 ] [ Contd...
Text of page 45
187. The backbone of Government of Gujarat providing advanced
communication infrastructure for exchange of Data, Voice and Video
to support for e-Governance for State Government other Government
bodies is
(A) SANCHARNET (B) GUJNET
(C) GTPL (D) GSWAN
188. Which of the following is not a smart solution for urban mobility of
smart cities?
(A) Video crime monitoring
(B) Smart Parking
(C) Intelligent Traffic Management
(D) Integrated Multi Modal Transport
189. Which project provides ‘Single Window Solution’ for all water resources
data and information in a standardized national GIS framework?
(A) Sujalam (B) QGIS
(C) National Water Grid (D) India-WRIS
190. In construction stage of the projects, the information reflecting status
of project are actual execution time for each activity, cost incurred,
resources used, quality control, material management and bills. A tool
to integrate the information flow within and among various agencies is
known as
(A) MIS (B) HRM
(C) GIS (D) SCADA
191. Ethical Values are associated with?
(A) Social system (B) Rule making
(C) Compassionate living (D) Devotional living
192. What is the main aim of Human Rights?
(A) To teach morals and ethics
(B) To develop friendly relations
(C) To establish peace and security
(D) To make people sensible
ESP-1-A ] [ 45 ] [ P.T.O.
Text of page 46
193. Engineers shall not reveal facts, data, or information without the prior
consent of the employer. This is observed to follow
(A) Trade secret agreement (B) Copy right act
(C) Code of ethics (D) Patent act
194. Which of the following statements may not be considered as a code of
ethics for professional engineers?
(A) Engineers shall hold paramount the safety, health, and welfare of
the public
(B) Engineers shall extend help to poor workers
(C) Engineers shall perform services only in areas of their
competence
(D) Engineers shall issue public statements only in an objective and
truthful manner.
195. An engineer supervising a concreting work observes major defect in some
portion after opening formwork. What step is required to be performed
first?
(A) Impose penalty to the contractor
(B) Change the contractor’s manpower
(C) Consult the designer to investigate the consequences and perform
corrective measures
(D) Recommend patch up work to hide the defected portion.
196. Codes of ethics state the engineer’s duties to various stack holders.
However, when these duties conflict, which group should take precedence?
(A) Colleagues and subordinates (B) Employers and clients
(C) Society (the public) (D) Investors
197. Which of the following unacceptable actions of an engineer is clearly
a conflict of interest in professional practice?
(A) Accepting a part time remunerative work from a supplier
(B) Making public statements that are not based on firm knowledge
and conviction
(C) Permitting for their names to be used in commercial advertisements
published by contractors
(D) Failing to correct or report a situation that may endanger the public.
ESP-1-A ] [ 46 ] [ Contd...
Text of page 47
198. A structural engineer used a newly developed software for analysis
and design. Later he found that the design is not safe due to software
bug. It could cause the supporting columns to buckle. What should the
engineer do?
(A) Destroy all evidence of the analysis.
(B) Tell the client to sue the software developer.
(C) Hire a good defense lawyer to defend action in case of failure or
damage to structure.
(D) Disclose the problem to client and try to negotiate a way to reinforce
the columns.
199. An industry is consistently polluting air due to its hazardous gas emission.
The product has high export value and the industry provides employment
to hundreds of workers. What action is required by pollution control
authority first?
(A) Order immediate shutdown
(B) Allow production with heavy penalty
(C) Distribute free mask to nearby area
(D) Appoint expert committee for solution to reduce emission
200. Which of the following are the social responsibility to uphold ethical
values of the society?
(i) Public safety
(ii) Environmental protection
(iii) Compliance with social order
(iv) Honesty and integrity
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (iv) only
ESP-1-A ] [ 47 ]
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -A
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 C 26 B 51 C 76 C 101 B 126 C 151 B 176 A
2 A 27 D 52 C 77 C 102 C 127 B 152 C 177 D
3 A 28 B 53 D 78 C 103 D 128 A 153 C 178 C
4 C 29 A 54 B 79 B 104 D 129 A 154 D 179 B
5 C 30 A 55 D 80 A 105 A 130 D 155 C 180 C
6 C 31 D 56 A 81 C 106 D 131 B 156 C 181 B
7 C 32 D 57 B 82 D 107 B 132 B 157 C 182 D
8 A 33 D 58 C 83 D 108 A 133 B 158 B 183 A
9 D 34 C 59 C 84 C 109 C 134 C 159 D 184 C
10 D 35 C 60 A 85 A 110 D 135 A 160 B 185 B
11 C 36 D 61 A 86 A 111 A 136 B 161 D 186 A
12 A 37 C 62 A 87 C 112 B 137 C 162 A 187 D
13 A 38 A 63 A 88 D 113 D 138 A 163 B 188 A
14 B 39 D 64 A 89 B 114 B 139 A 164 D 189 D
15 A 40 D 65 D 90 B 115 C 140 A 165 B 190 A
16 D 41 B 66 A 91 D 116 B 141 B 166 D 191 A
17 D 42 A 67 C 92 D 117 D 142 D 167 D 192 C
18 D 43 D 68 B 93 B 118 A 143 A 168 C 193 C
19 D 44 A 69 C 94 A 119 C 144 C 169 B 194 B
20 B 45 B 70 A 95 C 120 D 145 C 170 A 195 C
21 D 46 A 71 D 96 C 121 A 146 D 171 C 196 C
22 C 47 D 72 B 97 C 122 B 147 B 172 C 197 A
23 C 48 B 73 D 98 A 123 D 148 B 173 A 198 D
24 A 49 A 74 C 99 C 124 A 149 A 174 D 199 A
25 D 50 D 75 B 100 D 125 C 150 D 175 B 200 C
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -B
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 B 26 B 51 D 76 D 101 C 126 C 151 A 176 A
2 C 27 A 52 D 77 A 102 B 127 B 152 C 177 C
3 A 28 C 53 B 78 B 103 A 128 C 153 D 178 C
4 D 29 C 54 D 79 A 104 C 129 C 154 A 179 D
5 B 30 C 55 C 80 D 105 C 130 A 155 B 180 B
6 D 31 A 56 C 81 B 106 A 131 D 156 D 181 B
7 C 32 C 57 A 82 A 107 D 132 A 157 A 182 A
8 B 33 D 58 D 83 D 108 B 133 C 158 C 183 D
9 C 34 C 59 B 84 C 109 A 134 B 159 C 184 B
10 C 35 A 60 D 85 C 110 D 135 C 160 B 185 C
11 C 36 A 61 B 86 D 111 C 136 D 161 A 186 C
12 B 37 C 62 A 87 B 112 B 137 D 162 A 187 D
13 A 38 C 63 A 88 D 113 C 138 A 163 D 188 C
14 C 39 C 64 D 89 A 114 B 139 D 164 B 189 C
15 D 40 C 65 D 90 B 115 D 140 B 165 B 190 C
16 D 41 A 66 D 91 C 116 A 141 A 166 B 191 B
17 C 42 D 67 C 92 C 117 C 142 C 167 C 192 D
18 A 43 D 68 C 93 A 118 B 143 D 168 A 193 B
19 A 44 C 69 D 94 A 119 A 144 A 169 B 194 D
20 C 45 A 70 C 95 A 120 D 145 B 170 C 195 A
21 D 46 A 71 A 96 A 121 A 146 D 171 A 196 B
22 B 47 B 72 D 97 A 122 D 147 B 172 A 197 D
23 B 48 A 73 D 98 D 123 A 148 C 173 A 198 B
24 D 49 D 74 B 99 A 124 A 149 B 174 B 199 D
25 D 50 D 75 A 100 C 125 C 150 D 175 D 200 D
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -C
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 A 26 B 51 B 76 C 101 C 126 A 151 D 176 B
2 A 27 D 52 A 77 C 102 A 127 B 152 A 177 D
3 D 28 A 53 C 78 C 103 A 128 D 153 D 178 B
4 D 29 B 54 D 79 C 104 A 129 B 154 A 179 C
5 D 30 C 55 D 80 A 105 B 130 D 155 A 180 B
6 C 31 C 56 C 81 D 106 D 131 D 156 C 181 D
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 D 107 A 132 C 157 C 182 A
8 D 33 A 58 A 83 C 108 C 133 B 158 B 183 C
9 C 34 A 59 C 84 A 109 C 134 A 159 C 184 D
10 A 35 A 60 D 85 A 110 D 135 C 160 C 185 A
11 D 36 A 61 B 86 B 111 B 136 C 161 A 186 B
12 D 37 D 62 B 87 A 112 B 137 A 162 D 187 D
13 B 38 A 63 D 88 D 113 A 138 D 163 A 188 A
14 A 39 C 64 D 89 D 114 D 139 B 164 C 189 C
15 D 40 B 65 B 90 D 115 B 140 A 165 B 190 C
16 A 41 C 66 A 91 D 116 C 141 D 166 C 191 B
17 B 42 A 67 C 92 B 117 C 142 C 167 D 192 A
18 A 43 D 68 C 93 D 118 D 143 B 168 D 193 A
19 D 44 B 69 C 94 C 119 C 144 C 169 A 194 D
20 B 45 D 70 A 95 C 120 C 145 B 170 D 195 B
21 A 46 C 71 C 96 A 121 C 146 D 171 B 196 B
22 D 47 B 72 D 97 D 122 B 147 A 172 A 197 B
23 C 48 C 73 C 98 B 123 D 148 C 173 C 198 C
24 C 49 C 74 A 99 D 124 B 149 B 174 D 199 A
25 D 50 C 75 A 100 B 125 D 150 A 175 A 200 B
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -D
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 D 26 B 51 D 76 D 101 D 126 B 151 D 176 A
2 C 27 C 52 C 77 B 102 C 127 C 152 A 177 D
3 C 28 C 53 A 78 D 103 C 128 B 153 D 178 B
4 D 29 C 54 A 79 B 104 C 129 D 154 B 179 B
5 B 30 B 55 C 80 A 105 B 130 A 155 A 180 B
6 D 31 A 56 C 81 A 106 D 131 C 156 C 181 C
7 A 32 C 57 C 82 D 107 B 132 B 157 D 182 A
8 B 33 D 58 C 83 D 108 D 133 A 158 A 183 B
9 C 34 D 59 A 84 D 109 A 134 D 159 B 184 C
10 C 35 C 60 D 85 C 110 B 135 A 160 D 185 A
11 A 36 A 61 D 86 C 111 D 136 D 161 B 186 A
12 A 37 A 62 C 87 D 112 B 137 A 162 C 187 A
13 A 38 C 63 A 88 C 113 D 138 A 163 B 188 B
14 A 39 D 64 A 89 A 114 D 139 C 164 D 189 D
15 A 40 B 65 B 90 D 115 C 140 C 165 A 190 A
16 D 41 B 66 A 91 D 116 B 141 B 166 C 191 C
17 A 42 D 67 D 92 B 117 A 142 C 167 D 192 C
18 C 43 D 68 D 93 A 118 C 143 C 168 A 193 D
19 B 44 B 69 D 94 D 119 C 144 A 169 B 194 B
20 C 45 A 70 D 95 A 120 A 145 D 170 D 195 B
21 A 46 C 71 B 96 B 121 D 146 A 171 A 196 A
22 D 47 C 72 D 97 A 122 B 147 C 172 C 197 D
23 B 48 C 73 C 98 D 123 A 148 B 173 C 198 B
24 D 49 A 74 C 99 B 124 D 149 C 174 B 199 C
25 C 50 C 75 A 100 A 125 C 150 D 175 A 200 C
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -E
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 C 26 A 51 C 76 A 101 A 126 A 151 B 176 B
2 D 27 A 52 A 77 A 102 C 127 C 152 C 177 D
3 B 28 B 53 D 78 A 103 B 128 D 153 A 178 B
4 B 29 A 54 D 79 D 104 A 129 A 154 B 179 D
5 D 30 D 55 B 80 A 105 D 130 B 155 C 180 A
6 D 31 D 56 A 81 C 106 A 131 D 156 A 181 B
7 B 32 D 57 D 82 B 107 D 132 B 157 A 182 D
8 A 33 D 58 A 83 C 108 A 133 C 158 A 183 B
9 C 34 B 59 B 84 A 109 A 134 B 159 B 184 D
10 C 35 D 60 A 85 D 110 C 135 D 160 D 185 D
11 C 36 C 61 D 86 B 111 C 136 A 161 A 186 C
12 A 37 C 62 B 87 D 112 B 137 C 162 C 187 B
13 C 38 A 63 A 88 C 113 C 138 D 163 C 188 A
14 D 39 D 64 D 89 B 114 C 139 A 164 D 189 C
15 C 40 B 65 C 90 C 115 A 140 B 165 B 190 C
16 A 41 D 66 C 91 C 116 D 141 D 166 B 191 A
17 A 42 B 67 D 92 C 117 A 142 A 167 A 192 D
18 C 43 A 68 B 93 B 118 C 143 C 168 D 193 B
19 C 44 A 69 D 94 A 119 B 144 C 169 B 194 A
20 C 45 D 70 A 95 C 120 C 145 B 170 C 195 D
21 C 46 D 71 B 96 D 121 D 146 A 171 C 196 C
22 A 47 D 72 C 97 D 122 D 147 A 172 D 197 B
23 D 48 C 73 C 98 C 123 A 148 D 173 C 198 C
24 D 49 C 74 A 99 A 124 D 149 B 174 C 199 B
25 C 50 D 75 A 100 A 125 B 150 B 175 C 200 D
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018
Text of page 6
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -F
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 D 26 A 51 C 76 A 101 B 126 B 151 C 176 A
2 B 27 B 52 A 77 C 102 D 127 B 152 A 177 D
3 D 28 A 53 D 78 C 103 A 128 A 153 D 178 A
4 C 29 D 54 B 79 C 104 C 129 D 154 B 179 C
5 C 30 B 55 D 80 A 105 C 130 B 155 A 180 B
6 A 31 A 56 C 81 C 106 B 131 C 156 D 181 C
7 D 32 D 57 B 82 D 107 A 132 C 157 C 182 D
8 B 33 C 58 C 83 C 108 A 133 D 158 B 183 D
9 D 34 C 59 C 84 A 109 D 134 C 159 C 184 A
10 B 35 D 60 C 85 A 110 B 135 C 160 B 185 D
11 A 36 B 61 B 86 C 111 B 136 C 161 D 186 B
12 A 37 D 62 A 87 C 112 B 137 B 162 A 187 A
13 D 38 A 63 C 88 C 113 C 138 D 163 C 188 C
14 D 39 B 64 D 89 C 114 A 139 B 164 B 189 D
15 D 40 C 65 D 90 A 115 B 140 D 165 A 190 A
16 C 41 C 66 C 91 D 116 C 141 A 166 D 191 B
17 C 42 A 67 A 92 D 117 A 142 B 167 A 192 D
18 D 43 A 68 A 93 C 118 A 143 D 168 D 193 B
19 C 44 A 69 C 94 A 119 A 144 B 169 A 194 C
20 A 45 A 70 D 95 A 120 B 145 D 170 A 195 B
21 D 46 A 71 B 96 B 121 D 146 D 171 C 196 D
22 D 47 D 72 B 97 A 122 A 147 C 172 C 197 A
23 B 48 A 73 D 98 D 123 C 148 B 173 B 198 C
24 A 49 C 74 D 99 D 124 C 149 A 174 C 199 D
25 D 50 B 75 B 100 D 125 D 150 C 175 C 200 A
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018
Text of page 7
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -G
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 B 26 D 51 D 76 B 101 A 126 B 151 B 176 D
2 A 27 D 52 A 77 C 102 C 127 D 152 D 177 D
3 C 28 B 53 B 78 A 103 C 128 A 153 A 178 C
4 C 29 D 54 A 79 D 104 B 129 C 154 C 179 B
5 C 30 C 55 D 80 B 105 C 130 D 155 C 180 A
6 A 31 C 56 B 81 D 106 C 131 A 156 D 181 C
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 C 107 A 132 B 157 B 182 C
8 D 33 D 58 D 83 B 108 D 133 D 158 B 183 A
9 C 34 B 59 C 84 C 109 A 134 A 159 A 184 D
10 A 35 D 60 C 85 C 110 C 135 C 160 D 185 B
11 A 36 B 61 D 86 C 111 B 136 C 161 B 186 A
12 C 37 A 62 B 87 B 112 C 137 B 162 C 187 D
13 C 38 A 63 D 88 A 113 D 138 A 163 C 188 C
14 C 39 D 64 A 89 C 114 D 139 A 164 D 189 B
15 C 40 D 65 B 90 D 115 A 140 D 165 C 190 C
16 A 41 D 66 C 91 D 116 D 141 B 166 C 191 B
17 D 42 C 67 C 92 C 117 B 142 B 167 C 192 D
18 D 43 C 68 A 93 A 118 A 143 B 168 B 193 A
19 C 44 D 69 A 94 A 119 C 144 C 169 D 194 C
20 A 45 C 70 A 95 C 120 D 145 A 170 B 195 B
21 A 46 A 71 A 96 D 121 A 146 B 171 D 196 A
22 B 47 D 72 A 97 B 122 B 147 C 172 A 197 D
23 A 48 D 73 D 98 B 123 D 148 A 173 B 198 A
24 D 49 B 74 A 99 D 124 B 149 A 174 D 199 D
25 D 50 A 75 C 100 D 125 C 150 A 175 B 200 A
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018
Text of page 8
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-I & II,Advt. No. :39/2017-18 P.T. Date :24-12-2017
FINAL ANSWER K E Y, Question No. 001 -200 (ESP-01) SET -H
Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS Q. No. ANS
1 C 26 C 51 C 76 D 101 B 126 C 151 A 176 B
2 C 27 A 52 A 77 D 102 B 127 A 152 D 177 D
3 D 28 A 53 A 78 C 103 A 128 D 153 A 178 A
4 C 29 A 54 C 79 A 104 D 129 B 154 C 179 C
5 A 30 A 55 D 80 A 105 B 130 A 155 B 180 C
6 D 31 A 56 B 81 B 106 C 131 D 156 C 181 B
7 D 32 D 57 B 82 A 107 C 132 C 157 D 182 A
8 B 33 A 58 D 83 D 108 D 133 B 158 D 183 A
9 A 34 C 59 D 84 D 109 C 134 C 159 A 184 D
10 D 35 B 60 B 85 D 110 C 135 B 160 D 185 B
11 A 36 C 61 A 86 D 111 C 136 D 161 B 186 B
12 B 37 A 62 C 87 B 112 B 137 A 162 A 187 B
13 A 38 D 63 C 88 D 113 D 138 C 163 C 188 C
14 D 39 B 64 C 89 C 114 B 139 B 164 D 189 A
15 B 40 D 65 A 90 C 115 D 140 A 165 A 190 B
16 A 41 C 66 C 91 A 116 A 141 D 166 B 191 C
17 D 42 B 67 D 92 D 117 B 142 A 167 D 192 A
18 C 43 C 68 C 93 B 118 D 143 D 168 B 193 A
19 C 44 C 69 A 94 D 119 B 144 A 169 C 194 A
20 D 45 C 70 A 95 B 120 D 145 A 170 B 195 B
21 B 46 B 71 C 96 A 121 D 146 C 171 D 196 D
22 D 47 A 72 C 97 A 122 C 147 C 172 A 197 A
23 A 48 C 73 C 98 D 123 B 148 B 173 C 198 C
24 B 49 D 74 C 99 D 124 A 149 C 174 D 199 C
25 C 50 D 75 A 100 D 125 C 150 C 175 A 200 D
Answer Keys ( Provisional) of the above examination is declared FINAL as above.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 31-01-2018Page 1 of 47
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.