GPSC Engineering Services 2023: GWSSB Engineering Service (Civil), Executive Engineer Class-1 and Deputy Executive Engineer Class-2, Paper 1
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post
Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy
Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2, GWSSB
Advertisement No 24/2022-23
Preliminary Test Held On 05-02-2023
Que. No. 001-200
Publish Date 06-02-2023
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 14-02-2023
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet PHYSICALLY
Only.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી (માત્ર Offline માધ્યમથી) રજૂ કરવાના
રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના નમૂનાનો
જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ માત્ર અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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001. Which recent Indian film has ensured India’s official entry to the Best International Feature Film
category at the 95th Academy Awards?
(A) Punjabi film Oye Makhna (B) Tamil film Vikram
(C) Marathi film Habaddi (D) Gujarati film Chhello Show
002. Which newly formed organisation mandated to look at grievances related to digital news as per
IT Act 2021?
(A) Print and Digital Media Association (PADMA)
(B) Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)
(C) AICTE Quality Improvement Scheme (AQIS)
(D) e-Samadhaan
003. The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act 2019 which introduced 10% reservation for Economically
Weaker Sections (EWS) among unreserved categories in admissions to educational institutions
and government jobs amended which Article(s) of the Indian Constitution?
I. Article 14 II. Article 15 III. Article 16
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Only I and II (D) Only II and III
004. Who has won the bid to redevelop the Dharavi Slum Cluster, one of the largest and densest urban
habitations in the world?
(A) The TATA Group (B) The Reliance Group
(C) The Adani Group (D) The Vedanta Group
005. Preparations for the Panchayat Elections should ideally start at least _______ to the tenure
completion date of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
(A) 3 months prior (B) 6 months prior
(C) 3 months after (D) 6 months after
006. Which is/are NOT true regarding India's policy on Cryptocurrency?
I. Reserve Bank defines Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDC) as the legal tender issued by a
central bank in a digital form.
II. CBDC is akin to sovereign paper currency, exchangeable at par with the existing currency and
shall be accepted as a medium of payment and a safe store of value.
III. CBDCs would not appear as liability on a central bank's balance sheet.
(A) Only I is not true (B) Only II is not true
(C) Only III is not true (D) All are not true
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007. Which Article of the Indian Constitution enumerates “Special provision with respect to the States
of Maharashtra and Gujarat”?
(A) 369 (B) 371
(C) 373 (D) 375
008. Which is/are correct regarding the G20 Summit 2023 logo and theme?
I. The theme of India’s G20 Presidency - “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” or “One Earth One Family
One Future” drawn from Maha Upanishad.
II. The G20 Logo draws inspiration from the vibrant colours of India’s national flag – saffron,
white and green, and blue. It juxtaposes planet Earth with the lotus, India’s national flower
that reflects growth amid challenges.
III. The moto of G20 is ‘Recover Together, Recover Stronger’
(A) Only I is correct (B) Only II is correct
(C) Only I and II are correct (D) Only I and III are correct
009. Which day is celebrated as the National Panchayati Raj Day?
(A) 24th April (B) 25th April
(C) 24th May (D) 25th May
010. In India, policy matters relating to Internet, Cyber Laws, administration of the Information
Technology Act and other IT-related laws are main functions of which ministry?
(A) Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology
(B) Ministry of Law & Justice
(C) Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) Ministry of Defence
011. Which sites of Gujarat has been added in the tentative UNESCO world heritage list 2022?
(A) Vadnagar town
(B) The Sun Temple at Modhera
(C) Rock-cut Sculptures and Reliefs of the Unakoti
(D) All of the above
012. Devni Mori near Shamlaji is a _______
(A) Buddhist Monastery (B) Jain Pilgrim site
(C) Shaivite Peetham (D) Devi Peetham
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013. The Palitana temples of Jainism are located on _______
(A) Satpura Hill (B) Shatrunjaya Hill
(C) Lonavala Hill (D) Toranmal Hills
014. During pre-independence era Bhavnagar was known as _______
(A) Gohilwad (B) Chital
(C) Talaja (D) Janjira
015. The biggest ever-excavated Stupa in the world is _______
(A) Sanchi Stupa (B) Loriya Stupa
(C) Etawah Stupa (D) Kesariya Stupa
016. Match I historic monuments with their locations (Districts)
I II
1. Uparkot Fort i. Bharuch
2. Khambhalida Buddhist Caves ii. Rajkot
3. Vadnagar Buddhist Monastery iii. Kutch
4. Siyot Caves iv. Mehsana
5. Kadia Dungar Buddhist Cave v. Junagadh
(A) 1 - i, 2 - ii, 3 - iii, 4 - iv, 5 - v
(B) 1 - ii, 2 - iii, 3 - iv, 4 - v, 5 - i
(C) 1 - iii, 2 - iv, 3 - v, 4 - i, 5 - ii
(D) 1 - v, 2 - ii, 3 - iv, 4 - iii, 5 - i
017. How many National Parks are there in Gujarat?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
018. During whose reign, the first All India Music Conference was held in 1914, in Baroda?
(A) Anand Rao Gaekwad
(B) Pilaji Rao Gaekwad
(C) Sayaji Rao I Gaekwad
(D) Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad
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019. Match I (Dams) with II (River and State)
I II
1. Sardar Sarovar Project i. Krishna river, Telangana
2. Bhakra ii. Yamuna river, Uttar Pradesh
3. Lakhwar iii. Sutlej river, Himachal Pradesh
4. Nagarjunasagar iv. Narmada river, Gujarat
5. Srisailam v. Krishna river, Andhra Pradesh
(A) 1 - iv, 2 - v, 3 - i, 4 - ii, 5 - iii
(B) 1 - iv, 2 - i, 3 - ii, 4 - iii, 5 - v
(C) 1 - iv, 2 - ii, 3 - iii, 4 - v, 5 - i
(D) 1 - iv, 2 - iii, 3 - ii, 4 - i, 5 - v
020. The 14 Ashoka’s Rock Edicts located on the route to the Mount Girnar Hills are carved in which
script?
(A) Brahmi script in Prakrit language
(B) Brahmi script in Pali language
(C) Gandhari Script in Prakrit language
(D) Kharosti script in Pali language
021. Which is/are correct regarding Dholavira?
I. It is one of the world’s earliest water conservation systems ever excavated.
II. It is known locally as Kotada (which means large fort).
III. It is one of the two largest Harappan sites in India, and 5th largest in the subcontinent.
(A) Only I & III are correct
(B) Only II and III are correct
(C) Only I & II are correct
(D) All are correct
022. Which are the sites among the following are part of the Indus Valley civilization in Gujarat?
(A) Surkotada, Lothal, Dholavira
(B) Lothal, Dholavira, Ropar
(C) Dholavira, Ropar, Harappa
(D) Ropar, Mahenjo Daro, Harappa
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023. A special variety of music which can be classified as temple-music was produced in Gujarat
by _______
(A) Vaishnava cult (B) Swetambara cult
(C) Nihang cult (D) Thugees cult
024. What is the name of the place where two rivers, the Sabarmati and the Vatrak meet?
(A) Bhavnath (B) Dhrang
(C) Vautha (D) Shamlaji
025. Match I with II
I II
1. Dry deciduous forests i. Velavadar
2. Moist deciduous forests ii. Dense forests of Dangs
3. Majestic grasslands iii. Gir
4. Wetland habitats iv. Pirotan Islands
5. Marine ecosystems v. Nalsarovar
(A) 1 - i, 2 - ii, 3 - iii, 4 - iv, 5 - v
(B) 1 - ii, 2 - iii, 3 - iv, 4 - v, 5 - i
(C) 1 - iii, 2 - ii, 3 - i, 4 - v, 5 - iv
(D) 1 - iv, 2 - v, 3 - ii, 4 - iii, 5 - i
026. When does a bill become an Act of Parliament?
(A) After it is passed by the Lok Sabha
(B) After it is passed by the Rajya Sabha
(C) After it is passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) After it gets accent from the President of India
027. Which important feature of Indian Constitution is taken from the Irish Constitution?
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Emergency Provisions
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028. Which provision of the Indian Constitution strengthens the idea of Welfare State?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Universal Adult Franchise
029. Identify the five main pillars of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan as outlined by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi.
(A) Supply Chain Reforms, Rational Tax Systems, Simple & Clear Laws, Capable Human
Resource, and Strong Financial System.
(B) Quantum Economic Jump, Modern Infrastructure, Technology Enabled Systems, Vibrant
Demography, and Utilization of the Power of Demand & Supply
(C) Infrastructure, Digital Access, Import Reduction, Grassroot Projects, and Skill Development
(D) Ease of Doing Business, India a Global Manufacturing Hub, Exports Increase, Innovative
Startups, and Enhanced Digital Access
030. In September 2018, the Supreme Court of India gave a verdict relating to LGBTQ community,
ruling that _______ is unconstitutional.
(A) Section 377 of Indian Constitution
(B) Section 370 of Indian Constitution
(C) Section 380 of Indian Constitution
(D) Section 377A of Indian Constitution
031. Which Article of the Indian Constitution enumerates separation of judiciary from executive?
(A) Article 48 (B) Article 49
(C) Article 50 (D) Article 51
032. Which of the following is the correct order of words mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
(A) Democratic, Socialist, Sovereign, Secular, Republic
(B) Socialist, Sovereign, Secular, Republic, Democratic
(C) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
(D) Secular, Democratic, Sovereign, Socialist, Republic
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033. Who is considered as the ‘Primus Inter Pares’ (first among equals) in relation to the Cabinet in a
Parliamentary form of Government?
(A) Prime Minister as the leader of the Cabinet
(B) President as the Head of the nation
(C) Speaker of the House of the People
(D) Leader of Opposition
034. Match I (Features of Indian Constitution) with II (Sources)
I II
1. Union State Relations i. Canada
2. Concurrent List ii. Australia
3. Fundamental Rights iii. USA
4. Cabinet form of Government iv. Britain
(A) 1 - iii, 2 - i, 3 - iv, 4 - ii
(B) 1 - ii, 2 - iii, 3 - iv, 4 - i
(C) 1 - i, 2 - ii, 3 - iii, 4 - iv
(D) 1 - i, 2 - iv, 3 - iii, 4 - ii
035. The 2022 UN Climate Change Conference (COP27) was held in _______
(A) Egypt (B) Indonesia
(C) Brazil (D) UAE
036. Which of the following Article(s) of the Indian Constitution mention(s) about protection of
environment?
I. Article 48-A
II. Article 51-A(g)
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) None of the above
037. Which Article of the Indian Constitution says “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States”?
(A) Article 100 (B) Article 51
(C) Article 1 (D) Article 8
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038. In which famous case the Supreme Court of India gave the verdict that certain basic features of
the Constitution cannot be amended?
(A) Keshavanda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(B) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
039. Which Constitutional Amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as
a fundamental right?
(A) 44th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 40th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 35th Constitutional Amendment
040. What is correct regarding voting rights of NRIs?
I. They can vote through postal ballot or voting at Indian Missions
II. They can enrol to vote in their respective constituency in India by physically be present in the
polling station on the day of election in India.
III. There is no provision of voting by post or online
(A) Only I is correct (B) Only II is correct
(C) Only III is correct (D) Only II and III are correct
041. Which is/are correct regarding 'Pandemic'?
I. A disease that affects a large number of people within a community, population, or region.
II. A disease that belongs to a particular people or country.
III. An epidemic that's spread over multiple countries or continents.
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only I and II are correct
(C) Only II and III are correct
(D) Only III is correct
042. The Indian Constitution derives its authority from _______
(A) The President of India (B) Indian Culture
(C) The People of India (D) Indian Society
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043. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is described as _______
(A) The ‘Soul of the Constitution’
(B) ‘Preface’ of the Constitution
(C) ‘Mother’ of Indian Constitution
(D) ‘Gateway’ of Indian Constitution
044. The joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament to resolve deadlock over an ordinary
legislation is presided by _______
(A) The President of India
(B) The Vice President of India
(C) Chief Justice of Indian Supreme Court
(D) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
045. Organisation of village panchayats is included in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Part III (B) Part IV
(C) Part V (D) Part VI
046. In which year India first conducted nuclear test?
(A) 1971 (B) 1974
(C) 1991 (D) 1998
047. India’s draft nuclear doctrine advocates _______
(A) First-Use (FU) of nuclear weapons
(B) No-First-Use (NFU) of nuclear weapons
(C) Credible deterrence
(D) Minimum deterrence
048. What is India’s official position on Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
(A) India is a signatory of the treaty
(B) India is a non-signatory of the treaty
(C) India has neither signed nor rejected
(D) None of the above
049. The Kudankulam nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu is built in collaboration with which
international partner?
(A) USA (Westinghouse) (B) France (Areva)
(C) Germany (GE Hitachi) (D) Russia (Rosatom)
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050. What is the name of the variant of Nishant (launcher-based tactical UAV) with capability of
conventional takeoff and landing developed by DRDO?
(A) Garuda (B) Eagle
(C) Panchi (D) Bihangam
051. Match I (Exercise name) with II (Participant nations)
I II
1. Vajra Prahar i. India & Bangladesh
2. Sampriti ii. India & US
3. Nomadic Elephant iii. India & Indonesia
4. Garuda Shakti iv. India & Mongolia
(A) 1 - i, 2 - ii, 3 - iii, 4 - iv (B) 1 - ii, 2 - i, 3 - iv, 4 - iii
(C) 1 - iii, 2 - iv, 3 - i, 4 - ii (D) 1 - iv, 2 - iii, 3 - ii, 4 - i
052. Which world-famous tennis player has taken retirement recently?
(A) Andre Agassi (B) Roger Federer
(C) Serena Williams (D) Rafael Nadal
053. Identify the former Chairman of Gita Press Trust and who has been awarded posthumously
nation’s second highest civilian honour Padma Vibhushan.
(A) Radheyshyam Khemka
(B) Jaya Dayal Goyanka
(C) Hanuman Prasad Poddar
(D) Ghanshyam Das Jalan
054. Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is a Government of India initiative to celebrate and commemorate
_______.
(A) 75 years of independence and the glorious history of India’s people, culture and achievements.
(B) 75 years of India’s association with Commonwealth and global leadership
(C) 75 years of Mahatma Gandhi-led Quit India Movement and non-violent freedom struggle
(D) 75 years of Sardar Patel’s effort to unite India after British rule
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055. What is NavIC?
(A) India’s regional navigation satellite system established by ISRO
(B) Russia’s global positioning system that India is a subscriber
(C) China’s global positioning system
(D) Israel’s global positioning system
056. What is the name of UAE’s first Lunar Mission?
(A) Lunokhod 1 (B) Lunokhod 2
(C) Yutu (D) Rashid Rover
057. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India is calculated by which institution?
(A) NITI Aayog (B) Indian Statistical Institute
(C) National Statistical Office (D) Reserve Bank of India
058. Silver Revolution is related to _______
(A) Ghee production (B) Fertilizer production
(C) Gold production (D) Sunflower oil production
059. Balance of Payments relates to _______
(A) All economic transactions of a country with outside world during last five years
(B) All economic transactions of a country with outside world during last one decade
(C) All economic transactions of a country with the outside world in a year.
(D) Foreign Exchange Reserve of a country during one decade.
060. Which is correct regarding Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas?
I. Held every two years to strengthen the engagement of overseas Indian community with India
and reconnect them with their roots.
II. Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Awards (PBSA) is conferred by the President of India on selected
overseas Indians (Non-Resident Indian, Person of Indian Origin or an organization).
(A) Only I is correct (B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct (D) None of them are correct
061. What is the name of evacuation of Indian nationals from Ukraine during beginning of the
Russia-Ukraine War?
(A) Operation Ganga (B) Operation Meghdoot
(C) Operation Cactus (D) Operation Rahat
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062. What is remarkable regarding Cristiano Ronaldo?
(A) The first man to have played five consecutive FIFA World Cups
(B) The first man to have played six consecutive FIFA World Cups
(C) The first player to head the International Olympic Association
(D) The first player who will play his last World Cup in 2026
063. Which country will be the host country of 2023 Women’s FIFA World Cup?
(A) Brazil (B) Australia & New Zealand
(C) Japan (D) Argentina
064. Who is the 1st Indian cricket player to score 8000 runs in T20?
(A) M. S. Dhoni (B) Suresh Raina
(C) Virat Kohli (D) Rohit Sharma
065. Which is/are correct regarding the Nipah Virus disease?
I. It is a Zoonotic virus
II. Can be transmitted through contaminated food or directly between people
III. Cause severe disease in animals
(A) Only I (B) Only I and II
(C) Only II and III (D) All are correct
066. Which is/are correct regarding Zika Virus?
I. Discovered in Uganda in 1947
II. It’s a type of virus called a flavivirus
III. Mainly transmitted to humans through Aedes aegypti mosquitoes
(A) I and II are correct (B) II and III are correct
(C) I and III are correct (D) All are correct
067. The Ramon Magsaysay Award is a premier prize and highest honour, recognising greatness of
spirit shown in selfless service to the people of _______
(A) Africa (B) Asia
(C) Europe (D) Global level
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068. G20 Presidency of India will end on _______
(A) November 30, 2025 (B) November 30, 2024
(C) November 30, 2023 (D) December 30, 2023
069. India’s supply of vaccine to defeat Corona virus to several countries in the world is named
as _______
(A) Vaccine Maitri (B) Vaccine Bandhu
(C) Vaccine Mitra (D) Vaccine Mitrata
070. ISRO celebrated International Moon Day on _______.
(A) 20 July 2022 (B) 20 August 2022
(C) 20 September 2022 (D) 20 November 2022
071. What are the main goals of Union Budget 2022-23 during the Amrit Kaal?
I. Focus on growth and all inclusive welfare
II. Promoting technology-enabled development, energy transition and climate action
III. Virtuous cycle starting from private investment, crowded in by public capital investment
(A) Only I and II are correct
(B) Only II and III are correct
(C) Only I and III are correct
(D) All are correct
072. What position India was ranked out of 132 in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2022 released by
World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO)?
(A) 40th position (B) 38th position
(C) 35th position (D) 32nd position
073. The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed as _______.
(A) Balance of payments (B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Gross Domestic Product (D) None of the above
074. The most distinctive artefact of the Indus Valley Civilisation The Harappan seal was made of a
stone called _______
(A) Steatite (B) Limestone
(C) Travertine (D) Quartzite
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075. Which of the following metals use was known to the Indus Valley Civilization?
I. Gold II. Copper, Silver III. Bronze
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Only III (D) All are correct
076. The Sun temple at Modhera was built by _______
(A) Karandev of Vaghela dynasty
(B) Mihira Bhoja of Pratihara dynasty
(C) Chandragupta Maurya of Maurya dynasty
(D) Bhimdev I of Solanki dynasty
077. Buddhist Circuit is _______
(A) An International project pioneered by China to connect all Buddhist centres of the world
(B) A collaborative project by ASEAN and India
(C) UN-sponsored connectivity project through Buddhist centres
(D) A trail of the sacred footsteps of Lord Buddha and the important places of his life and teachings
across India
078. Mount Abu is the highest peak in the _______ of Rajasthan State.
(A) Aravalli Range (B) Vindhya Range
(C) Malwa Plateau (D) Girnar Range
079. The BRICS grouping comprised _______
(A) Bangladesh, Russia, India, China and Sri Lanka
(B) Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa
(C) Belgium, Romania, Indonesia, Canada, Singapore
(D) Brunei, Rwanda, Italy, Chile, Sudan
080. Which European country is negotiating with India for Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?
(A) EU (B) UK (C) France (D) Germany
081. Who held the G20 Presidency prior to India?
(A) Brazil (B) Indonesia
(C) Italy (D) France
082. Which Indian-origin leader has been recently reelected as Prime Minister of Ireland?
(A) Leo Varadkar
(B) Pushpa Kamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’
(C) Andres Iniesta
(D) None of the above
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083. Who failed to retain their title at the FIFA World Cup 2022 in Qatar?
(A) France (B) Argentina
(C) Australia (D) Brazil
084. India is planning to bid to host _______Olympics.
(A) 2032 (B) 2036
(C) 2040 (D) 2044
085. Joshimath, also known as Jyotirmath recently hit by a geological phenomenon known as land
subsidence, is a city in _______
(A) Shemali District in Himachal Pradesh
(B) Chamoli District in Uttarakhand
(C) Shemali District in Jharkhand
(D) Chamoli District in Uttar Pradesh
086. “Veer Baal Diwas” has been commemorated in memory of martyrdom of Sahibzadas of Tenth
Guru, Guru Gobind Singh on _______
(A) 21 December 2022 (B) 25 December 2022
(C) 26 December 2022 (D) 30 December 2022
087. NITI Aayog replaced the _______
(A) Five Year Planning (FYP) (B) Lok Kalyan Marg
(C) Planning Commission of India (D) Finance Commission of India
088. Patola is one of the finest handwoven _______.
(A) Needlework of Gujarat (B) Sarees from Gujarat
(C) Famous Pottery from Gujarat (D) Beadwork from Gujarat
089. Which institution in India has been named as ‘G20 Science Working Group’s Secretariat’?
(A) IIT Madras (B) IIT Bombay
(C) IISc Bengaluru (D) IIT Delhi
090. Which digital project funded by Google aims to map the language diversity of India?
(A) Project Vaani (B) Project Visharad
(C) Project Prachhad (D) Project Pramanik
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091. The Election Commission of India has developed a prototype of a Remote Electronic Voting
Machine (RVM) for whom?
(A) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
(B) Migrant Voters
(C) Elderly citizens above 80 years
(D) Persons with Disabilities
092. In New Jalpaiguri, where Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently flagged off the Vande
Bharat Express, is located in _______
(A) Assam (B) West Bengal
(C) Mizoram (D) Sikkim
093. Zuari Bridge, the second largest cable-stayed bridge in India, which is recently inaugurated the
first phase by the Union Minister Nitin Gadkari is located in _______
(A) Goa (B) Punjab
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Jammu and Kashmir
094. 8000 e-Grams centres have been established in the state to fulfil the need of the citizens under
which government plan in Gujarat?
(A) Digital Bandhu (B) Digital Seva Setu
(C) Digital Panacea (D) Digital Maitri
095. The Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) app is developed by _______
(A) RBI (B) SEBI
(C) NPCI (D) NASSCOM
096. Which country recently joined the Eurozone as its 20th member?
(A) Romania (B) Slovenia (C) Serbia (D) Croatia
097. President of which country is conferred on the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award 2023?
(A) Ethiopia (B) Guyana
(C) Ukraine (D) UAE
098. The Pokhara Regional International Airport (PRIA) is located in _______
(A) Bangladesh (B) Maldives (C) Nepal (D) Afghanistan
099. Which indigenous organisation manufactured the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Mk‑III
Squadron-840 Sqn (CG)?
(A) DRDO (B) BHEL (C) HAL (D) DRDL
100. Justice Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud is the _______ Chief Justice of India (CJI).
(A) 50th (B) 51st (C) 52nd (D) 53rd
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101. January 1, 2004 was a Thursday. What day of the week lies on Jan 1, 2005?
(A) Thursday (B) Friday
(C) Saturday (D) Sunday
102. At 3:40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of
(A) 120° (B) 125°
(C) 130° (D) 135°
103. In how many ways can the letter of the word ‘APPLE’ be arranged?
(A) 720 (B) 60
(C) 120 (D) 180
104. Six friends A, B, C, D, E, F are sitting along the sides of a hexagonal table for playing a game,
though not necessarily in the same order. F, who is sitting exactly opposite of A, is to the immediate
right of B. D is between A and B and is exactly opposite to C then A is sitting between which of the
following pairs of persons?
(A) D and E (B) B and E
(C) E and C (D) None of the above
105. A is travelling at 72 km per hour on a highway while B is travelling at a speed of 25 metres per
second. What is the difference in their speeds in metres per second?
(A) 1.5 m/sec (B) 2 m/sec
(C) 3 m/sec (D) 5 m/sec
106. Three numbers are in the ratio of 4:5:6 and their average is 25. The largest of these numbers is
(A) 30 (B) 32
(C) 36 (D) 42
107. By selling 12 toffees for a rupee, a man loses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell to get a
gain of 20%?
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 15
108. The suitable method for forecasting population for a young and a rapidly developing city is
(A) Arithmetic Mean Method
(B) Geometric Mean Method
(C) Comparative Graphical Method
(D) None of the above
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109. The Average rainfall of a country is a figure, which is averaged over a period of
(A) 10 years (B) 15 years
(C) 35 years (D) 100 years
110. Water hammer pressures can be reduced by using
(A) Fast closing valves (B) Slow closing valves
(C) Medium closing valves (D) None of the above
111. The true colour of water is measured on
(A) Platinum cobalt scale (B) Silica scale
(C) Nickel scale (D) None of the above
112. The bacteria which survive in the absence of oxygen are called
(A) Anaerobic (B) Aerobic
(C) Facultative (D) E-Coli
113. The most significant primary gaseous pollutant found in vehicular emissions is
(A) CO (B) CO2
(C) SO2 (D) O3
114. The poisonous gas responsible for causing the catastrophic Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 in India
was
(A) Sulphur Dioxide
(B) Methyl Isocyanate
(C) Both Carbon monoxide and methane
(D) laughing gas
115. The permissible Respiratory Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) ambient air quality for
residential areas in India is
(A) 60 µg/m3 (B) 140 µg/m3
(C) 200 µg/m3 (D) 360 µg/m3
116. The ozone layer thickness is measured in
(A) Decibels (db) (B) Dobson units (DU)
(C) Becquerel (Bq) (D) None of the above
117. EIA stands for
(A) Energy Impact Assessment
(B) Ecological Impact Assessment
(C) Environmental Impact Assessment
(D) Emission Impact Assessment
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118. During the EIA process under Indian EIA Notification 2006, no public consultation is required for
(A) All ‘A’ category of projects
(B) All ‘B1’ category of projects
(C) All ‘B2’ category of projects
(D) None of the above
119. The final technical authority of a project is
(A) Assistant Engineer (B) Chief Engineer
(C) Superintending Engineer (D) Executive Engineer
120. Military type of organisation is known as
(A) Line Organisation
(B) Functional Organisation
(C) Line and Staff Organisation
(D) Staff and Functional Organisation
121. A Gantt Chart indicates
(A) Balance of work to be done
(B) Efficiency of project work
(C) Comparison of actual process with the scheduled progress
(D) Progress cost of Project
122. The start or completion of a task is called
(A) an event (B) an activity
(C) a duration (D) a time
123. The early finish time of an activity is the _______ of early start time and duration of activity
(A) Sum (B) Difference
(C) Product (D) Ratio
124. A Critical activity has
(A)Maximum float (B) Zero float
(C) Minimum float (D) Average float
125. Which of these is a dummy activity?
(A) Excavation of foundations
(B) Laying the foundation concrete
(C) Awaiting the arrival of concrete material
(D) Curing the foundation concrete
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126. You are passing by a river and you know swimming. Suddenly, you hear the cry of a drowning
child. You would
(A) Dive into the river to save him
(B) Wait to see if some other person is there to help
(C) Look for professional divers
(D) Console the child’s parents
127. You are driving your car on the road when you hit against a fruit vendor’s cart. You would
(A) Escape from the site by driving away
(B) Abuse the fruit vendor for putting his cart on the way
(C) Pay the fruit vendor for the damage done to him
(D) Insist that it is not your fault
128. In working stress method the stresses used for design purpose are
(A) Yield Stress (B) Ultimate Stress
(C) Permissible Stress (D) Working Stress
129. Why the design of over-reinforced RCC section is undesirable?
(A) It consumes more concrete (B) It undergoes high strains
(C) It fails suddenly (D) It has a heavy section
130. A doubly RCC beam is recommended when
(A) Depth of the beam is restricted
(B) Breadth of the beam is restricted
(C) Both Depth and Breadth are restricted
(D) Shear is very high
131. A T-beam behaves as rectangular beam of width equal to its flange if its Neutral Axis
(A) Coincides with centroid of reinforcement
(B) Coincides with centroid of T-section
(C) Remains within the flange
(D) Remains in the Web
132. Shear span is defined as the zone where
(A) BM is zero (B) SF is zero
(C) SF is constant (D) BM is constant
133. The length of bars beyond theoretical cut-off point shall be
(A) Dowel length (B) Bond length
(C) Developmental length (D) Anchorage length
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134. The crack pattern at failure due to torsion is
(A) Vertical (B) Diagonal at ends
(C) Spiral (D) Circular
135. The axial load carrying capacity of a column of a given material, cross-sectional area and length
is governed by
(A) Strength of its material only
(B) Its flexural rigidity only
(C) Its slenderness ratio only
(D) Both flexural rigidity and slenderness ratio
136. As per IRC: SP: 84, the annual growth rate of commercial vehicles shall be taken to be a minimum
of _______ percent.
(A) 9.5 (B) 10
(C) 7.5 (D) 5
137. The maximum upward deflection of a PSC member is limited to
(A) Span/200 (B) Span/250
(C) Span/300 (D) Span/350
138. For reversal of stress, the most suited bolt is
(A) Black (B) Turned
(C) Friction grip (D) Ordinary
139. Which one of the following is the mode of failure in a fillet weld material?
(A) Tension (B) Shear
(C) Bearing (D) Crushing
140. The initial and final setting time of the Ordinary Portland Cement is
(A) Less than 30 minutes and Less than 600 minutes
(B) More than 30 minutes and More than 600 minutes
(C) More than 30 minutes and Less than 600 minutes
(D) Less than 30 minutes and More than 600 minutes
141. _______ are stones, concrete, brick etc. placed on top of parapet walls to prevent seepage of water
into the walls
(A) Copings (B) Corbels
(C) Jambs (D) Throating
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142. Efflorescence of bricks is due to
(A) Soluble salts present in clay for making bricks
(B) High porosity of bricks
(C) High silt content in bricks
(D) Excessive burning of bricks
143. If P is the standard consistency of cement the amount of water used in conducting the initial
setting time test on cement is
(A) 0.65P (B) 0.85P
(C) 0.6P (D) 0.8P
144. In Brick work on the elevation if it consists of alternate courses of all headers and all stretchers
then this type of bond is called as
(A) Flemish Bond (B) Double Flemish Bond
(C) English Bond (D) Single Flemish Bond
145. The rocks formed from molten magma are called
(A) Sedimentary rocks (B) Igneous rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks (D) Smooth rocks
146. The steel used for manufacture of rails is
(A) Bessemer steel (B) Mild steel
(C) Cast Steel (D) Stainless steel
147. The presence of sand in brick prevents
(A) Cracking of bricks (B) Shrinkage of bricks
(C) Warping of bricks (D) Bulging of bricks
148. The softest rock in the list is
(A) Marble (B) Diamond
(C) Talc (D) Quartz
149. Good quality sand is never obtained from
(A) River (B) Nala
(C) Sea (D) Gravel powder
150. The pigment used in paints for corrosive resistance is
(A) White lead (B) Ferrous oxide
(C) Zinc white (D) red lead
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151. Which of the following are mobile operating system?
(A) Apple iOS (B) Android
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
152. VIRUS is an acronym of
(A) Vital Information Remark Under Siege
(B) Vital Information Resource Under Siege
(C) Vital Information Resource Under Size
(D) Vital Informative Remark Under Siege
153. The e-RAKAM is related to welfare of
(A) Mining Industry (B) Students
(C) Farmers (D) Women
154. ‘Sarathi’ is a web portal of
(A) Ministry of Rural Development
(B) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(C) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(D) Ministry of Civil Aviation
155. Which description is appropriate among the following for e-Governance?
(A) To engage, enable and empower citizens
(B) To provide fair and unbiased to the citizens
(C) To provide technology-driven governance
(D) to ensure faith in people on e-Commerce Applications
156. Using a website to pour one’s grievances is called
(A) Cyber Venting (B) Cyber abuse
(C) Web hate (D) Web Anger
157. The purpose of ICT education is to
(A) Attract students
(B) Make teaching interesting
(C) Optimize learning outcomes
(D) Promote Technology culture in teaching
158. Website is a collection of
(A) Audio files (B) Image files
(C) Video files (D) html files
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159. Which of the following is Doordarshan’s educational television channel?
(A) Gurukul (B) Gyan Bharati
(C) Gyan Darshan (D) Vidya
160. The location of a resource on the internet is given by its
(A) Protocol (B) URL
(C) E-mail address (D) ICQ
161. The term HTTP stands for
(A) Hyper terminal tracing program
(B) Hypertext tracing protocol
(C) Hypertext transfer protocol
(D) Hypertext transfer program
162. Which one of the following is a valid email address?
(A) javat@point.com (B) gmail.com
(C) tpoint@.com (D) javatpoint@books
163. A systematic approach for maintenance is:
(A) Problem – Cause – Diagnosis – Rectification
(B) Problem – Diagnosis – Cause – Rectification
(C) Problem – Measure – Diagnosis – Rectification
(D) Problem – Diagnosis – Measure – Rectification
164. Quality control helps to _______ the risks of overdesign that _______ the overall cost.
(A) Maximize, Increase (B) Minimize, Increase
(C) Maximize, Decrease (D) Minimize, Decrease
165. Which of the following is a principle of Total Quality Management?
(A) Product-centered system
(B) Customer-focus
(C) Intermittent improvement
(D) Decisions made by top executives only
166. What is the percentage accuracy in the six sigma process?
(A) 99.8% (B) 99.1%
(C) 99.05% (D) 99.99966%
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167. In which among the following is the Six Sigma process not applicable?
(A) Healthcare
(B) Business administration
(C) Selecting the best employee of the year
(D) Supply Chain
168. An ability of a machine or equipment to produce products that conform to defined specifications
and are free of defects, thereby achieving customer satisfaction is known as:
(A) Software technology (B) Machine quality
(C) Machine tools (D) Machine spare parts
169. Give full form of P.D.C.A. cycle
(A) Planning, Doing, Checking, Acting
(B) Plan, Do, Check, Act
(C) Plan, Does, Check, Act
(D) Plan, Do, Checks, Acts
170. Removal of props under slabs spanning upto 4.5 m is
(A) 3 days (B) 7 days
(C) 14 days (D) 21 days
171. A _______ is a set of rules that specify the standards for constructed objects such as buildings and
non-building structures.
(A) Building code (B) Building bye-laws
(C) IS code (D) Procedure
172. Combining two or more plots as a single plot is called _______
(A) Amalgamation (B) Frontage
(C) Bifurcation (D) Building setback
173. The engineer recognizes that the greatest merit is the work and exercises his profession committed
to _______
(A) a business (B) work hard
(C) be physically fit (D) serving society
174. Engineers shall perform services only in the areas of their _______.
(A) control (B) calculation
(C) competence (D) creation
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175. Which is not included in Ethics?
(A) Normal Ethics (B) Normative Ethics
(C) Meta Ethics (D) Applied Ethics
176. The word “Ethics” comes from
(A) ethos (B) eternity
(C) elementary (D) essentiality
177. The _______ in engineering practices stresses the necessity of laws and regulations
(A) standardization (B) experimentation
(C) balance outlook on law (D) competition
178. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of professionalism?
(A) Kindness (B) Competency
(C) Morality (D) Complacency
179. Which body or group of person are often referred to as guardians of professional values?
(A) Professional corporations
(B) Professional associations
(C) Hospitality committees
(D) None of the above
180. What is referred to as the value and/or guidelines which a professional needs to follow in order to
remain registered as a member of the professional body?
(A) Organizational obligations (B) Codes of ethics
(C) Moral obligation (D) Professional ethics
181. _______ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.
(A) Study of English (B) Study of Math
(C) Study of ethics (D) Study of sense
182. _______ refers to the principles of right and wrong behaviour.
(A) Moral (B) Oral
(C) Coral (D) Common sense
183. Competence in Professional ethics refers to
(A) Ability to utilize power effectively
(B) Ability to augment universal human order
(C) Ability to make profit
(D) Both (B) and (C)
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184. There are four prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of first three is 1001 and
that of the last three is 2431. Find the first prime no
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 3 (D) 5
185. What is the remainder when 753 is divided by 4?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
186. p is 5 times as large as q. The percent that q is less than p is
(A) 70% (B) 80%
(C) 85% (D) 75%
187. The entry fee for a musical concert was Re 1. Later it was reduced by 20% which increased the net
collection of amount by 40%. The increase in the number of visitors is
(A) 70% (B) 80%
(C) 85% (D) 75%
188. A man sold an article for Rs. 810, losing 10%. The cost price of the article is
(A) Rs. 975 (B) Rs. 910
(C) Rs. 950 (D) Rs. 900
189. The average of first 10 natural numbers is
(A) 4.8 (B) 5.5
(C) 3.6 (D) 6.2
190. A is square matrix and B is skew-symmetric if
(A) B = –B
T
(B) B = B
T
(C) B = B
–1
(D) B = B
–1 T
191. At t = 0, the function f(t) = Sint/t has
(A) a minimum (B) a discontinuity
(C) a point of inflection (D) a maximum
192. At limx→0 Sin2x/x is equal to
(A) 0 (B) Infinity
(C) 1 (D) –1
193. At limx→1 (x2 – 1)/(x – 1) is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) –1
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194. The general solution of d2y/dx2 + y = 0 is
(A) y = Pcosx + Qsinx (B) Y = Pcosx
(C) Y = Psinx (D) Y = Psin2x
195. What is the derivative of f(z) = |x| at x = 0
(A) 1 (B) –1
(C) 0 (D) Does not exist
196. A
_______ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the
goals of a project
(A) Project (B) Process
(C) Project management (D) Project cycle
197. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the _______.
(A) Uniform distribution curve (B) Normal distribution curve
(C) U-shaped distribution curve (D) S-shaped distribution curve
198. The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub process placed
in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources (B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) (D) None of the above
199. The PERT in project management means program evaluation and _______ technique.
(A) resource (B) reconciliation
(C) reconsideration (D) review
200. Which of the following ISO standard series are used for environmental management?
(A) IS 14000 (B) ISO 14000
(C) IS 9000 (D) ISO 9000
___________
[BEF-1]
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 26 D 51 B 76 D 101 C 126 A 151 C 176 A
2 A 27 A 52 B 77 D 102 C 127 C 152 B 177 A
3 D 28 C 53 A 78 A 103 B 128 C 153 C 178 D
4 C 29 B 54 A 79 B 104 A 129 C 154 B 179 B
5 B 30 A 55 A 80 B 105 D 130 C 155 A 180 B
6 C 31 C 56 D 81 B 106 A 131 C 156 A 181 C
7 B 32 C 57 C 82 A 107 B 132 C 157 B 182 A
8 C 33 A 58 B 83 A 108 B 133 D 158 D 183 D
9 A 34 C 59 C 84 B 109 C 134 C 159 C 184 A
10 A 35 A 60 C 85 B 110 B 135 D 160 B 185 A
11 D 36 C 61 A 86 C 111 A 136 D 161 C 186 B
12 A 37 C 62 A 87 C 112 A 137 C 162 A 187 D
13 B 38 A 63 B 88 B 113 A 138 C 163 A 188 D
14 A 39 A 64 B 89 C 114 B 139 B 164 D 189 B
15 D 40 D 65 D 90 A 115 A 140 C 165 B 190 A
16 D 41 D 66 D 91 B 116 B 141 A 166 D 191 D
17 B 42 C 67 B 92 B 117 C 142 A 167 C 192 A
18 D 43 A 68 C 93 A 118 C 143 B 168 B 193 A
19 D 44 D 69 A 94 B 119 B 144 C 169 B 194 A
20 B 45 B 70 A 95 C 120 A 145 B 170 B 195 D
21 D 46 B 71 D 96 D 121 C 146 A 171 A 196 A
22 A 47 B 72 A 97 B 122 A 147 C 172 A 197 B
23 A 48 B 73 B 98 C 123 A 148 C 173 D 198 C
24 C 49 D 74 A 99 C 124 B 149 C 174 C 199 D
25 C 50 C 75 D 100 A 125 C 150 D 175 A 200 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 26 D 51 D 76 C 101 A 126 A 151 C 176 B
2 A 27 C 52 A 77 C 102 A 127 B 152 C 177 D
3 B 28 B 53 D 78 B 103 D 128 D 153 B 178 D
4 A 29 C 54 C 79 C 104 C 129 C 154 A 179 B
5 D 30 C 55 B 80 A 105 A 130 B 155 D 180 A
6 D 31 D 56 C 81 A 106 A 131 A 156 A 181 C
7 D 32 C 57 B 82 A 107 A 132 A 157 B 182 A
8 A 33 A 58 C 83 B 108 D 133 B 158 B 183 A
9 B 34 D 59 A 84 B 109 B 134 C 159 C 184 D
10 B 35 B 60 A 85 D 110 B 135 B 160 B 185 B
11 D 36 B 61 B 86 D 111 C 136 A 161 D 186 D
12 A 37 B 62 B 87 B 112 A 137 C 162 A 187 C
13 A 38 B 63 A 88 C 113 A 138 C 163 A 188 B
14 C 39 D 64 B 89 A 114 B 139 C 164 A 189 B
15 C 40 C 65 C 90 A 115 C 140 D 165 D 190 B
16 D 41 D 66 D 91 C 116 A 141 A 166 A 191 C
17 A 42 A 67 B 92 C 117 C 142 A 167 B 192 C
18 C 43 B 68 C 93 A 118 C 143 A 168 C 193 D
19 B 44 A 69 C 94 C 119 C 144 B 169 D 194 C
20 A 45 D 70 A 95 A 120 C 145 A 170 B 195 D
21 B 46 D 71 B 96 C 121 C 146 B 171 C 196 D
22 B 47 B 72 A 97 C 122 B 147 C 172 A 197 C
23 A 48 D 73 A 98 A 123 C 148 C 173 D 198 C
24 A 49 D 74 B 99 A 124 B 149 B 174 A 199 B
25 A 50 B 75 B 100 D 125 A 150 A 175 A 200 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 26 D 51 A 76 C 101 C 126 B 151 C 176 A
2 C 27 B 52 A 77 B 102 C 127 C 152 A 177 B
3 A 28 D 53 B 78 C 103 D 128 C 153 A 178 B
4 C 29 D 54 B 79 A 104 C 129 B 154 D 179 C
5 A 30 B 55 D 80 A 105 D 130 A 155 B 180 B
6 C 31 B 56 D 81 D 106 D 131 D 156 D 181 A
7 C 32 B 57 B 82 C 107 C 132 A 157 C 182 A
8 A 33 A 58 C 83 A 108 C 133 A 158 B 183 B
9 A 34 B 59 A 84 D 109 B 134 A 159 B 184 C
10 D 35 C 60 A 85 B 110 C 135 D 160 B 185 B
11 B 36 D 61 B 86 B 111 C 136 A 161 C 186 A
12 A 37 B 62 B 87 B 112 A 137 B 162 B 187 C
13 A 38 C 63 A 88 B 113 D 138 C 163 C 188 C
14 B 39 C 64 A 89 D 114 A 139 D 164 B 189 C
15 B 40 A 65 A 90 C 115 A 140 B 165 A 190 D
16 C 41 D 66 D 91 D 116 B 141 C 166 A 191 A
17 C 42 A 67 C 92 A 117 D 142 A 167 B 192 A
18 B 43 A 68 B 93 B 118 D 143 A 168 D 193 D
19 C 44 C 69 C 94 A 119 B 144 B 169 C 194 C
20 A 45 C 70 C 95 D 120 A 145 C 170 B 195 A
21 D 46 D 71 D 96 D 121 A 146 A 171 C 196 A
22 A 47 A 72 A 97 D 122 A 147 C 172 C 197 A
23 B 48 C 73 D 98 A 123 A 148 C 173 B 198 D
24 A 49 B 74 C 99 B 124 B 149 C 174 A 199 B
25 D 50 A 75 B 100 B 125 A 150 C 175 D 200 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 26 D 51 C 76 B 101 A 126 D 151 C 176 A
2 A 27 B 52 C 77 B 102 A 127 C 152 C 177 C
3 B 28 C 53 A 78 B 103 A 128 B 153 D 178 C
4 A 29 A 54 C 79 D 104 B 129 B 154 C 179 C
5 D 30 A 55 A 80 C 105 A 130 B 155 D 180 D
6 D 31 D 56 C 81 B 106 B 131 C 156 D 181 D
7 B 32 A 57 C 82 B 107 C 132 A 157 C 182 A
8 D 33 A 58 A 83 A 108 C 133 A 158 C 183 A
9 D 34 C 59 A 84 B 109 B 134 B 159 B 184 A
10 B 35 C 60 D 85 C 110 A 135 C 160 C 185 D
11 D 36 D 61 B 86 D 111 A 136 A 161 C 186 A
12 A 37 A 62 A 87 B 112 A 137 C 162 A 187 B
13 B 38 C 63 A 88 C 113 D 138 C 163 D 188 C
14 A 39 B 64 B 89 C 114 C 139 C 164 A 189 D
15 D 40 A 65 B 90 A 115 A 140 C 165 A 190 B
16 D 41 D 66 C 91 B 116 A 141 C 166 B 191 C
17 D 42 A 67 C 92 B 117 A 142 C 167 D 192 B
18 A 43 D 68 B 93 A 118 D 143 B 168 D 193 C
19 B 44 C 69 C 94 A 119 B 144 A 169 B 194 B
20 B 45 B 70 A 95 A 120 B 145 D 170 A 195 A
21 A 46 C 71 D 96 D 121 C 146 A 171 A 196 A
22 A 47 B 72 C 97 C 122 A 147 B 172 A 197 B
23 B 48 C 73 A 98 B 123 A 148 B 173 B 198 D
24 B 49 A 74 D 99 C 124 D 149 C 174 C 199 C
25 D 50 A 75 B 100 C 125 B 150 B 175 B 200 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 26 C 51 D 76 D 101 D 126 D 151 A 176 A
2 B 27 C 52 A 77 A 102 A 127 C 152 A 177 C
3 A 28 A 53 B 78 C 103 A 128 C 153 D 178 C
4 B 29 A 54 A 79 B 104 A 129 B 154 C 179 C
5 C 30 D 55 D 80 A 105 D 130 C 155 A 180 C
6 D 31 D 56 D 81 D 106 A 131 C 156 A 181 A
7 B 32 A 57 D 82 A 107 B 132 C 157 A 182 A
8 C 33 D 58 A 83 B 108 C 133 B 158 D 183 A
9 C 34 C 59 B 84 A 109 D 134 A 159 B 184 B
10 A 35 B 60 B 85 D 110 B 135 D 160 B 185 A
11 B 36 C 61 D 86 D 111 C 136 A 161 A 186 B
12 B 37 B 62 C 87 B 112 B 137 B 162 A 187 C
13 A 38 C 63 A 88 D 113 C 138 B 163 B 188 C
14 A 39 A 64 D 89 D 114 B 139 C 164 C 189 B
15 A 40 A 65 B 90 B 115 A 140 B 165 B 190 A
16 D 41 B 66 B 91 A 116 A 141 C 166 A 191 C
17 C 42 A 67 B 92 A 117 B 142 A 167 C 192 A
18 B 43 A 68 B 93 B 118 D 143 D 168 C 193 A
19 C 44 B 69 D 94 B 119 C 144 A 169 C 194 D
20 C 45 B 70 C 95 D 120 B 145 A 170 D 195 B
21 C 46 C 71 D 96 D 121 C 146 B 171 C 196 D
22 C 47 C 72 A 97 B 122 C 147 D 172 A 197 C
23 A 48 B 73 A 98 C 123 D 148 D 173 A 198 B
24 C 49 C 74 C 99 A 124 C 149 B 174 B 199 B
25 A 50 A 75 C 100 A 125 D 150 A 175 C 200 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 6
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:E
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 26 B 51 B 76 D 101 C 126 A 151 D 176 A
2 A 27 B 52 B 77 C 102 A 127 C 152 A 177 B
3 A 28 B 53 A 78 B 103 A 128 C 153 A 178 D
4 C 29 D 54 B 79 C 104 B 129 C 154 A 179 C
5 C 30 C 55 C 80 C 105 C 130 D 155 D 180 B
6 D 31 B 56 D 81 D 106 A 131 C 156 A 181 A
7 A 32 A 57 B 82 A 107 C 132 A 157 B 182 A
8 C 33 A 58 C 83 B 108 C 133 D 158 C 183 D
9 B 34 B 59 C 84 A 109 C 134 A 159 D 184 C
10 A 35 B 60 A 85 D 110 C 135 A 160 B 185 A
11 A 36 C 61 D 86 D 111 C 136 B 161 C 186 A
12 A 37 C 62 A 87 D 112 A 137 D 162 C 187 A
13 B 38 B 63 D 88 A 113 A 138 D 163 B 188 D
14 B 39 C 64 C 89 B 114 D 139 B 164 A 189 B
15 D 40 A 65 B 90 B 115 B 140 A 165 D 190 B
16 D 41 C 66 C 91 D 116 D 141 C 166 A 191 A
17 B 42 C 67 B 92 A 117 C 142 C 167 B 192 A
18 C 43 A 68 C 93 B 118 B 143 D 168 B 193 A
19 A 44 C 69 A 94 A 119 B 144 C 169 C 194 B
20 A 45 A 70 A 95 D 120 B 145 D 170 B 195 A
21 D 46 C 71 B 96 D 121 A 146 D 171 C 196 B
22 C 47 C 72 B 97 B 122 A 147 C 172 B 197 C
23 A 48 A 73 A 98 D 123 B 148 C 173 C 198 C
24 D 49 A 74 A 99 D 124 C 149 B 174 B 199 B
25 B 50 D 75 A 100 B 125 B 150 C 175 A 200 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 7
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:F
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 26 C 51 D 76 D 101 C 126 A 151 A 176 B
2 A 27 B 52 C 77 B 102 A 127 B 152 A 177 C
3 A 28 C 53 A 78 D 103 D 128 B 153 B 178 C
4 B 29 A 54 D 79 D 104 A 129 C 154 C 179 B
5 B 30 A 55 B 80 B 105 A 130 B 155 B 180 A
6 C 31 A 56 B 81 B 106 B 131 C 156 A 181 C
7 C 32 A 57 B 82 B 107 D 132 A 157 C 182 B
8 B 33 B 58 B 83 A 108 D 133 A 158 C 183 C
9 C 34 B 59 D 84 A 109 B 134 D 159 C 184 B
10 A 35 D 60 C 85 A 110 A 135 B 160 D 185 A
11 C 36 D 61 D 86 D 111 C 136 D 161 A 186 A
12 C 37 B 62 A 87 C 112 C 137 C 162 A 187 B
13 A 38 C 63 B 88 B 113 D 138 B 163 D 188 D
14 C 39 A 64 A 89 C 114 C 139 B 164 C 189 C
15 A 40 A 65 D 90 C 115 D 140 B 165 A 190 B
16 C 41 B 66 D 91 D 116 D 141 D 166 A 191 C
17 C 42 B 67 D 92 A 117 C 142 A 167 A 192 A
18 A 43 A 68 A 93 A 118 C 143 A 168 D 193 A
19 A 44 B 69 B 94 C 119 B 144 A 169 B 194 B
20 D 45 C 70 B 95 C 120 C 145 D 170 B 195 C
21 D 46 D 71 D 96 D 121 C 146 A 171 A 196 A
22 A 47 B 72 A 97 A 122 C 147 B 172 A 197 C
23 D 48 C 73 B 98 C 123 B 148 C 173 A 198 C
24 C 49 C 74 A 99 B 124 A 149 D 174 B 199 C
25 B 50 A 75 D 100 A 125 D 150 B 175 A 200 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 8
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:G
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 26 D 51 D 76 D 101 C 126 A 151 A 176 A
2 A 27 D 52 A 77 B 102 A 127 A 152 A 177 B
3 B 28 A 53 B 78 C 103 A 128 D 153 A 178 C
4 B 29 B 54 A 79 C 104 D 129 B 154 B 179 D
5 D 30 B 55 D 80 A 105 B 130 B 155 A 180 B
6 D 31 B 56 D 81 D 106 D 131 C 156 B 181 C
7 B 32 B 57 B 82 A 107 C 132 B 157 C 182 A
8 C 33 A 58 D 83 A 108 B 133 C 158 C 183 A
9 A 34 A 59 D 84 C 109 B 134 B 159 B 184 B
10 A 35 A 60 B 85 C 110 B 135 A 160 A 185 C
11 D 36 D 61 C 86 D 111 C 136 A 161 C 186 A
12 A 37 C 62 C 87 A 112 C 137 B 162 C 187 C
13 D 38 B 63 A 88 C 113 B 138 D 163 D 188 C
14 C 39 C 64 C 89 B 114 A 139 C 164 C 189 C
15 B 40 C 65 A 90 A 115 D 140 B 165 D 190 C
16 C 41 D 66 C 91 B 116 A 141 A 166 D 191 C
17 B 42 C 67 C 92 A 117 B 142 A 167 C 192 A
18 C 43 A 68 A 93 A 118 B 143 B 168 C 193 D
19 A 44 D 69 A 94 B 119 C 144 C 169 B 194 A
20 A 45 B 70 D 95 B 120 B 145 B 170 C 195 A
21 D 46 B 71 B 96 C 121 A 146 A 171 D 196 B
22 A 47 B 72 B 97 C 122 A 147 C 172 A 197 D
23 B 48 B 73 A 98 B 123 D 148 C 173 A 198 D
24 A 49 D 74 B 99 C 124 C 149 C 174 A 199 B
25 D 50 C 75 C 100 A 125 A 150 D 175 D 200 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 9
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1
and Deputy Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 200 is declared as below Series:H
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 26 C 51 D 76 C 101 C 126 B 151 C 176 D
2 B 27 C 52 A 77 C 102 B 127 D 152 A 177 C
3 A 28 B 53 A 78 A 103 C 128 D 153 A 178 C
4 A 29 C 54 C 79 A 104 B 129 B 154 B 179 B
5 A 30 A 55 C 80 D 105 A 130 A 155 C 180 C
6 D 31 D 56 D 81 D 106 A 131 A 156 A 181 C
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 A 107 B 132 A 157 C 182 C
8 B 33 B 58 C 83 D 108 D 133 D 158 C 183 B
9 C 34 A 59 B 84 C 109 C 134 C 159 C 184 A
10 C 35 D 60 A 85 B 110 B 135 A 160 C 185 D
11 B 36 D 61 D 86 C 111 D 136 A 161 A 186 A
12 B 37 D 62 A 87 B 112 A 137 A 162 A 187 B
13 A 38 A 63 B 88 C 113 A 138 D 163 A 188 B
14 B 39 B 64 A 89 A 114 A 139 B 164 B 189 C
15 C 40 B 65 D 90 A 115 D 140 B 165 A 190 B
16 D 41 A 66 D 91 D 116 A 141 C 166 B 191 A
17 B 42 A 67 B 92 C 117 B 142 A 167 C 192 A
18 C 43 B 68 D 93 A 118 C 143 A 168 C 193 B
19 C 44 B 69 D 94 D 119 D 144 D 169 B 194 C
20 A 45 D 70 B 95 B 120 B 145 B 170 A 195 B
21 B 46 D 71 C 96 B 121 C 146 D 171 C 196 A
22 A 47 B 72 C 97 B 122 A 147 C 172 C 197 C
23 A 48 C 73 A 98 B 123 D 148 B 173 D 198 C
24 B 49 A 74 C 99 D 124 A 149 B 174 C 199 C
25 B 50 A 75 A 100 C 125 A 150 B 175 D 200 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 10
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 B 61 B 91 D 121 C 151 A 181 B 211 B 241 B 271 C
2 D 32 B 62 C 92 A 122 C 152 A 182 D 212 D 242 C 272 C
3 C 33 D 63 C 93 B 123 B 153 D 183 D 213 C 243 A 273 A
4 C 34 D 64 D 94 C 124 C 154 D 184 A 214 C 244 A 274 C
5 A 35 A 65 C 95 C 125 B 155 A 185 B 215 B 245 C 275 D
6 B 36 B 66 D 96 C 126 D 156 C 186 B 216 B 246 D 276 B
7 D 37 A 67 D 97 A 127 A 157 D 187 A 217 D 247 B 277 D
8 C 38 B 68 B 98 B 128 B 158 C 188 C 218 A 248 C 278 B
9 B 39 B 69 A 99 A 129 C 159 A 189 C 219 C 249 D 279 B
10 B 40 C 70 C 100 A 130 A 160 D 190 A 220 A 250 C 280 D
11 B 41 A 71 B 101 B 131 C 161 A 191 B 221 B 251 D 281 A
12 B 42 B 72 A 102 B 132 C 162 C 192 A 222 B 252 B 282 A
13 B 43 D 73 B 103 C 133 A 163 C 193 A 223 C 253 A 283 A
14 A 44 A 74 A 104 C 134 B 164 B 194 C 224 B 254 A 284 D
15 A 45 A 75 D 105 B 135 B 165 B 195 D 225 B 255 D 285 B
16 A 46 B 76 C 106 D 136 D 166 D 196 A 226 C 256 C 286 A
17 A 47 C 77 C 107 B 137 A 167 B 197 A 227 B 257 A 287 D
18 D 48 B 78 C 108 D 138 C 168 B 198 B 228 D 258 D 288 D
19 D 49 B 79 B 109 B 139 D 169 B 199 C 229 B 259 B 289 D
20 D 50 D 80 C 110 A 140 C 170 A 200 B 230 A 260 B 290 A
21 C 51 D 81 B 111 C 141 B 171 A 201 A 231 D 261 C 291 A
22 C 52 D 82 C 112 B 142 B 172 A 202 B 232 C 262 A 292 A
23 D 53 D 83 D 113 D 143 D 173 B 203 D 233 C 263 C 293 B
24 C 54 D 84 C 114 A 144 D 174 D 204 C 234 D 264 D 294 D
25 D 55 D 85 D 115 B 145 C 175 C 205 A 235 B 265 C 295 D
26 D 56 B 86 D 116 B 146 B 176 A 206 D 236 B 266 B 296 B
27 D 57 B 87 A 117 A 147 C 177 D 207 A 237 D 267 D 297 C
28 C 58 C 88 A 118 D 148 B 178 D 208 A 238 D 268 D 298 A
29 D 59 C 89 B 119 C 149 B 179 D 209 D 239 A 269 D 299 B
30 B 60 B 90 A 120 B 150 C 180 D 210 C 240 B 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 11
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 D 61 C 91 A 121 B 151 A 181 D 211 A 241 A 271 C
2 A 32 A 62 A 92 A 122 A 152 D 182 C 212 D 242 B 272 A
3 D 33 A 63 C 93 D 123 B 153 D 183 C 213 D 243 D 273 B
4 D 34 D 64 D 94 D 124 A 154 D 184 D 214 D 244 A 274 A
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 D 125 D 155 D 185 B 215 A 245 A 275 A
6 C 36 B 66 B 96 C 126 B 156 B 186 B 216 A 246 B 276 D
7 D 37 D 67 D 97 C 127 B 157 D 187 D 217 A 247 C 277 A
8 C 38 C 68 D 98 D 128 C 158 D 188 D 218 B 248 B 278 B
9 A 39 C 69 D 99 C 129 C 159 A 189 A 219 D 249 B 279 C
10 D 40 B 70 A 100 D 130 B 160 B 190 B 220 D 250 D 280 A
11 A 41 B 71 C 101 D 131 D 161 B 191 B 221 B 251 C 281 C
12 C 42 D 72 C 102 D 132 B 162 A 192 C 222 C 252 C 282 C
13 C 43 A 73 A 103 D 133 D 163 C 193 A 223 A 253 C 283 A
14 B 44 C 74 C 104 D 134 B 164 C 194 A 224 B 254 B 284 B
15 B 45 A 75 D 105 D 135 A 165 A 195 C 225 B 255 C 285 B
16 D 46 B 76 C 106 B 136 C 166 B 196 D 226 D 256 B 286 D
17 B 47 B 77 D 107 B 137 B 167 A 197 B 227 D 257 C 287 A
18 B 48 C 78 C 108 C 138 D 168 A 198 C 228 C 258 D 288 C
19 B 49 B 79 C 109 C 139 A 169 C 199 D 229 D 259 C 289 D
20 A 50 B 80 A 110 B 140 B 170 D 200 C 230 B 260 D 290 C
21 A 51 D 81 B 111 B 141 B 171 A 201 B 231 B 261 D 291 B
22 A 52 B 82 D 112 C 142 A 172 A 202 D 232 B 262 A 292 B
23 B 53 A 83 C 113 C 143 D 173 B 203 B 233 D 263 A 293 D
24 D 54 A 84 B 114 D 144 C 174 C 204 B 234 D 264 B 294 D
25 C 55 D 85 B 115 C 145 B 175 B 205 D 235 A 265 A 295 C
26 A 56 C 86 B 116 D 146 C 176 C 206 A 236 B 266 D 296 B
27 B 57 A 87 B 117 D 147 C 177 B 207 A 237 A 267 A 297 C
28 D 58 D 88 B 118 B 148 B 178 D 208 A 238 B 268 B 298 B
29 C 59 B 89 A 119 A 149 C 179 B 209 D 239 B 269 C 299 B
30 A 60 B 90 A 120 C 150 B 180 A 210 B 240 C 270 C 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 12
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 B 61 D 91 B 121 A 151 B 181 B 211 C 241 D 271 B
2 B 32 D 62 A 92 D 122 A 152 D 182 B 212 B 242 B 272 C
3 A 33 C 63 A 93 A 123 B 153 B 183 D 213 D 243 B 273 B
4 A 34 B 64 B 94 C 124 C 154 B 184 D 214 A 244 B 274 B
5 D 35 B 65 A 95 A 125 B 155 D 185 A 215 B 245 A 275 C
6 C 36 B 66 D 96 B 126 C 156 A 186 B 216 B 246 A 276 D
7 A 37 B 67 A 97 B 127 B 157 A 187 A 217 A 247 A 277 D
8 D 38 B 68 B 98 C 128 D 158 A 188 B 218 D 248 B 278 D
9 B 39 A 69 C 99 B 129 B 159 D 189 B 219 C 249 D 279 D
10 B 40 A 70 C 100 B 130 A 160 B 190 C 220 B 250 C 280 D
11 C 41 A 71 C 101 A 131 D 161 A 191 A 221 C 251 D 281 B
12 A 42 A 72 A 102 D 132 C 162 D 192 B 222 C 252 A 282 B
13 C 43 D 73 B 103 D 133 C 163 D 193 D 223 B 253 B 283 C
14 D 44 D 74 A 104 D 134 D 164 D 194 A 224 C 254 C 284 C
15 C 45 D 75 A 105 D 135 B 165 A 195 A 225 B 255 A 285 B
16 B 46 C 76 A 106 B 136 B 166 A 196 B 226 A 256 C 286 B
17 D 47 C 77 B 107 D 137 D 167 A 197 C 227 A 257 C 287 C
18 D 48 D 78 D 108 D 138 D 168 B 198 B 228 D 258 A 288 C
19 D 49 C 79 C 109 A 139 A 169 D 199 B 229 D 259 B 289 D
20 A 50 D 80 A 110 B 140 B 170 D 200 D 230 A 260 B 290 C
21 C 51 C 81 D 111 B 141 B 171 B 201 B 231 C 261 D 291 D
22 C 52 C 82 A 112 A 142 C 172 C 202 B 232 D 262 A 292 D
23 A 53 C 83 A 113 C 143 A 173 A 203 C 233 C 263 C 293 B
24 C 54 B 84 D 114 C 144 A 174 B 204 C 234 A 264 D 294 A
25 D 55 C 85 C 115 A 145 C 175 B 205 B 235 D 265 C 295 C
26 C 56 B 86 B 116 B 146 D 176 D 206 D 236 A 266 B 296 B
27 D 57 C 87 D 117 A 147 B 177 D 207 B 237 C 267 B 297 A
28 C 58 D 88 C 118 A 148 C 178 C 208 D 238 C 268 D 298 B
29 C 59 C 89 C 119 C 149 D 179 D 209 B 239 B 269 D 299 A
30 A 60 D 90 B 120 D 150 C 180 B 210 A 240 B 270 C 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 13
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 C 61 B 91 B 121 B 151 D 181 D 211 A 241 B 271 B
2 C 32 C 62 A 92 C 122 C 152 D 182 B 212 C 242 D 272 C
3 C 33 A 63 C 93 A 123 A 153 D 183 D 213 C 243 D 273 B
4 B 34 B 64 C 94 A 124 B 154 D 184 B 214 B 244 D 274 B
5 C 35 B 65 A 95 C 125 B 155 D 185 A 215 B 245 A 275 D
6 B 36 D 66 B 96 D 126 C 156 B 186 C 216 D 246 C 276 A
7 C 37 A 67 A 97 B 127 D 157 B 187 B 217 B 247 C 277 B
8 D 38 C 68 A 98 C 128 C 158 C 188 D 218 B 248 A 278 D
9 C 39 D 69 C 99 D 129 C 159 C 189 A 219 B 249 C 279 C
10 D 40 C 70 D 100 C 130 A 160 B 190 B 220 A 250 D 280 A
11 D 41 B 71 A 101 B 131 B 161 B 191 B 221 A 251 D 281 D
12 A 42 B 72 A 102 D 132 D 162 C 192 A 222 A 252 D 282 A
13 A 43 D 73 B 103 B 133 C 163 C 193 D 223 B 253 C 283 A
14 B 44 D 74 C 104 B 134 B 164 D 194 C 224 D 254 D 284 D
15 A 45 C 75 B 105 D 135 B 165 C 195 B 225 C 255 B 285 C
16 D 46 B 76 C 106 A 136 B 166 D 196 C 226 D 256 B 286 B
17 A 47 C 77 B 107 A 137 B 167 D 197 C 227 B 257 B 287 D
18 B 48 B 78 D 108 A 138 B 168 B 198 B 228 A 258 D 288 C
19 C 49 B 79 B 109 D 139 A 169 A 199 C 229 A 259 D 289 C
20 C 50 C 80 A 110 B 140 A 170 C 200 B 230 D 260 A 290 B
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 A 141 A 171 B 201 A 231 C 261 B 291 B
22 A 52 D 82 C 112 D 142 A 172 A 202 A 232 A 262 A 292 D
23 B 53 D 83 C 113 D 143 D 173 B 203 D 233 D 263 B 293 A
24 A 54 D 84 D 114 D 144 D 174 A 204 D 234 B 264 B 294 C
25 A 55 D 85 B 115 A 145 D 175 D 205 A 235 B 265 C 295 A
26 D 56 B 86 B 116 A 146 C 176 B 206 C 236 C 266 A 296 B
27 A 57 D 87 D 117 A 147 C 177 B 207 D 237 A 267 B 297 B
28 B 58 D 88 D 118 B 148 D 178 C 208 C 238 C 268 D 298 C
29 C 59 A 89 A 119 D 149 C 179 C 209 A 239 D 269 A 299 B
30 A 60 B 90 B 120 D 150 D 180 B 210 D 240 C 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 14
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 D 61 A 91 A 121 C 151 D 181 D 211 B 241 B 271 B
2 A 32 C 62 C 92 B 122 A 152 B 182 A 212 C 242 A 272 C
3 B 33 C 63 C 93 D 123 B 153 A 183 A 213 C 243 D 273 A
4 C 34 D 64 B 94 A 124 A 154 A 184 D 214 D 244 C 274 B
5 A 35 B 65 B 95 A 125 A 155 D 185 C 215 C 245 B 275 B
6 C 36 B 66 D 96 B 126 A 156 C 186 B 216 D 246 C 276 C
7 C 37 D 67 B 97 C 127 D 157 A 187 D 217 D 247 C 277 D
8 A 38 D 68 B 98 B 128 D 158 D 188 C 218 B 248 B 278 C
9 B 39 A 69 B 99 B 129 D 159 B 189 C 219 A 249 C 279 C
10 B 40 B 70 A 100 D 130 D 160 B 190 B 220 C 250 B 280 A
11 D 41 B 71 A 101 C 131 B 161 C 191 B 221 B 251 B 281 B
12 A 42 C 72 A 102 C 132 D 162 A 192 D 222 A 252 D 282 D
13 C 43 A 73 B 103 C 133 D 163 C 193 A 223 B 253 B 283 C
14 D 44 A 74 D 104 B 134 A 164 D 194 C 224 A 254 B 284 B
15 C 45 C 75 C 105 C 135 B 165 C 195 A 225 D 255 D 285 B
16 B 46 D 76 D 106 B 136 B 166 B 196 B 226 B 256 A 286 B
17 B 47 B 77 D 107 C 137 A 167 D 197 B 227 B 257 A 287 B
18 D 48 C 78 C 108 D 138 C 168 D 198 C 228 C 258 A 288 B
19 D 49 D 79 D 109 C 139 C 169 D 199 B 229 C 259 D 289 A
20 C 50 C 80 B 110 D 140 A 170 A 200 B 230 B 260 B 290 A
21 B 51 A 81 B 111 D 141 B 171 C 201 D 231 D 261 A 291 A
22 C 52 A 82 B 112 A 142 A 172 C 202 D 232 B 262 D 292 A
23 B 53 D 83 D 113 A 143 A 173 A 203 D 233 D 263 D 293 D
24 B 54 D 84 D 114 B 144 C 174 C 204 D 234 B 264 D 294 D
25 C 55 A 85 A 115 A 145 D 175 D 205 D 235 A 265 A 295 D
26 C 56 C 86 B 116 D 146 A 176 A 206 B 236 C 266 A 296 C
27 B 57 D 87 A 117 A 147 A 177 B 207 B 237 B 267 A 297 C
28 D 58 C 88 B 118 B 148 B 178 D 208 C 238 D 268 B 298 D
29 B 59 A 89 B 119 C 149 C 179 C 209 C 239 A 269 D 299 C
30 A 60 D 90 C 120 C 150 B 180 A 210 B 240 B 270 D 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 15
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:E
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 A 61 C 91 B 121 A 151 A 181 C 211 D 241 A 271 B
2 D 32 A 62 B 92 D 122 A 152 B 182 C 212 A 242 A 272 A
3 D 33 A 63 D 93 D 123 B 153 D 183 A 213 A 243 D 273 B
4 D 34 D 64 A 94 D 124 D 154 C 184 B 214 B 244 D 274 A
5 D 35 B 65 B 95 A 125 C 155 A 185 B 215 A 245 D 275 D
6 B 36 A 66 B 96 C 126 D 156 D 186 D 216 D 246 C 276 C
7 D 37 D 67 A 97 C 127 D 157 A 187 A 217 A 247 C 277 B
8 D 38 D 68 D 98 A 128 C 158 A 188 C 218 B 248 D 278 D
9 A 39 D 69 C 99 C 129 D 159 D 189 D 219 C 249 C 279 B
10 B 40 A 70 B 100 D 130 B 160 C 190 C 220 C 250 D 280 A
11 B 41 A 71 C 101 A 131 B 161 B 191 B 221 C 251 D 281 D
12 A 42 A 72 C 102 A 132 B 162 D 192 B 222 A 252 D 282 C
13 C 43 B 73 B 103 D 133 D 163 C 193 D 223 B 253 D 283 C
14 C 44 D 74 C 104 D 134 D 164 C 194 D 224 A 254 D 284 D
15 A 45 D 75 B 105 A 135 A 165 B 195 C 225 A 255 D 285 B
16 B 46 B 76 D 106 C 136 B 166 B 196 B 226 C 256 B 286 B
17 A 47 C 77 B 107 D 137 A 167 D 197 C 227 D 257 B 287 D
18 A 48 A 78 A 108 C 138 B 168 A 198 B 228 C 258 C 288 D
19 C 49 B 79 A 109 A 139 B 169 C 199 B 229 C 259 C 289 A
20 D 50 B 80 D 110 D 140 C 170 A 200 C 230 A 260 B 290 B
21 A 51 B 81 C 111 A 141 A 171 B 201 C 231 B 261 B 291 B
22 A 52 B 82 A 112 C 142 B 172 B 202 C 232 D 262 C 292 C
23 B 53 C 83 D 113 C 143 D 173 C 203 C 233 C 263 C 293 A
24 C 54 C 84 B 114 B 144 A 174 B 204 B 234 B 264 D 294 A
25 B 55 B 85 B 115 B 145 A 175 B 205 C 235 B 265 C 295 C
26 B 56 D 86 C 116 D 146 B 176 D 206 B 236 B 266 D 296 D
27 D 57 B 87 A 117 B 147 C 177 A 207 C 237 B 267 D 297 B
28 B 58 D 88 C 118 B 148 B 178 B 208 D 238 B 268 B 298 C
29 B 59 B 89 D 119 B 149 B 179 C 209 C 239 A 269 A 299 D
30 D 60 A 90 C 120 A 150 D 180 A 210 D 240 A 270 C 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 16
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:F
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 D 61 B 91 A 121 B 151 D 181 C 211 B 241 D 271 C
2 D 32 B 62 D 92 A 122 B 152 A 182 A 212 A 242 A 272 C
3 C 33 D 63 D 93 B 123 C 153 B 183 D 213 C 243 B 273 D
4 D 34 B 64 A 94 D 124 B 154 C 184 B 214 C 244 C 274 C
5 B 35 A 65 B 95 D 125 B 155 A 185 B 215 A 245 C 275 D
6 B 36 C 66 B 96 B 126 D 156 C 186 C 216 B 246 C 276 A
7 B 37 B 67 C 97 C 127 D 157 C 187 A 217 A 247 A 277 A
8 D 38 D 68 A 98 A 128 D 158 A 188 C 218 A 248 B 278 D
9 D 39 A 69 A 99 B 129 D 159 B 189 D 219 C 249 A 279 D
10 A 40 B 70 C 100 B 130 D 160 B 190 C 220 D 250 A 280 A
11 B 41 B 71 D 101 A 131 B 161 D 191 B 221 A 251 C 281 C
12 A 42 A 72 B 102 B 132 B 162 A 192 D 222 A 252 D 282 D
13 B 43 D 73 C 103 D 133 C 163 C 193 D 223 B 253 C 283 C
14 B 44 C 74 D 104 C 134 C 164 D 194 D 224 C 254 C 284 A
15 C 45 B 75 C 105 A 135 B 165 C 195 A 225 B 255 A 285 D
16 A 46 C 76 B 106 D 136 B 166 B 196 C 226 C 256 B 286 A
17 B 47 C 77 D 107 A 137 C 167 B 197 C 227 C 257 D 287 C
18 D 48 B 78 B 108 A 138 C 168 D 198 A 228 C 258 C 288 C
19 A 49 C 79 B 109 D 139 D 169 D 199 C 229 B 259 B 289 B
20 A 50 B 80 D 110 C 140 C 170 C 200 D 230 C 260 B 290 B
21 B 51 C 81 A 111 B 141 D 171 B 201 A 231 B 261 B 291 D
22 C 52 B 82 A 112 D 142 D 172 C 202 D 232 C 262 B 292 B
23 B 53 D 83 A 113 C 143 B 173 B 203 D 233 D 263 B 293 B
24 B 54 B 84 D 114 C 144 A 174 B 204 D 234 C 264 A 294 B
25 D 55 A 85 B 115 B 145 C 175 C 205 D 235 D 265 A 295 A
26 B 56 D 86 A 116 B 146 B 176 D 206 B 236 D 266 A 296 A
27 B 57 C 87 D 117 D 147 A 177 B 207 D 237 A 267 A 297 A
28 C 58 C 88 D 118 A 148 B 178 A 208 D 238 A 268 D 298 B
29 C 59 D 89 D 119 C 149 A 179 A 209 A 239 B 269 D 299 D
30 B 60 B 90 A 120 A 150 D 180 D 210 B 240 A 270 D 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 17
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:G
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 C 61 D 91 B 121 D 151 D 181 B 211 B 241 B 271 A
2 D 32 D 62 A 92 A 122 B 152 D 182 C 212 B 242 D 272 A
3 D 33 C 63 C 93 D 123 C 153 C 183 D 213 B 243 A 273 B
4 D 34 A 64 D 94 C 124 D 154 D 184 C 214 A 244 C 274 C
5 D 35 D 65 C 95 B 125 C 155 B 185 D 215 A 245 A 275 B
6 B 36 A 66 B 96 C 126 B 156 B 186 D 216 A 246 B 276 D
7 B 37 C 67 B 97 C 127 D 157 B 187 A 217 A 247 B 277 B
8 C 38 C 68 D 98 B 128 B 158 D 188 A 218 D 248 C 278 A
9 C 39 B 69 D 99 C 129 B 159 D 189 B 219 D 249 B 279 A
10 B 40 B 70 C 100 B 130 D 160 A 190 A 220 D 250 B 280 D
11 B 41 D 71 B 101 C 131 A 161 B 191 D 221 C 251 A 281 C
12 C 42 B 72 C 102 B 132 A 162 A 192 A 222 C 252 D 282 A
13 C 43 B 73 B 103 D 133 A 163 B 193 B 223 D 253 D 283 D
14 D 44 B 74 B 104 B 134 D 164 B 194 C 224 C 254 D 284 B
15 C 45 A 75 C 105 A 135 B 165 C 195 C 225 D 255 D 285 B
16 D 46 A 76 B 106 D 136 A 166 A 196 C 226 A 256 B 286 C
17 D 47 A 77 B 107 C 137 D 167 B 197 A 227 B 257 D 287 A
18 B 48 B 78 C 108 C 138 D 168 D 198 B 228 D 258 D 288 C
19 A 49 D 79 C 109 D 139 D 169 A 199 A 229 C 259 A 289 D
20 C 50 C 80 B 110 B 140 A 170 A 200 A 230 A 260 B 290 C
21 B 51 D 81 D 111 B 141 A 171 B 201 C 231 D 261 B 291 B
22 A 52 A 82 B 112 D 142 A 172 C 202 D 232 A 262 A 292 D
23 B 53 B 83 D 113 D 143 B 173 B 203 C 233 A 263 C 293 D
24 A 54 C 84 B 114 A 144 D 174 B 204 C 234 D 264 C 294 D
25 D 55 A 85 A 115 B 145 D 175 D 205 A 235 C 265 A 295 A
26 A 56 C 86 C 116 B 146 B 176 C 206 B 236 B 266 B 296 C
27 A 57 C 87 B 117 C 147 C 177 C 207 D 237 D 267 A 297 C
28 D 58 A 88 D 118 A 148 A 178 C 208 C 238 C 268 A 298 A
29 D 59 B 89 A 119 A 149 B 179 B 209 B 239 C 269 C 299 C
30 A 60 B 90 B 120 C 150 B 180 C 210 B 240 B 270 D 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023
Text of page 18
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engineering Service (Civil)-Executive Engineer (Civil), Class-1 and Deputy Executive
Engineer (Civil), Class-2 (GWSSB)(Advt No. 24/2022-23) Exam Date:05-02-2023 BEF-2
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:H
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 C 61 B 91 D 121 B 151 C 181 A 211 B 241 B 271 A
2 B 32 A 62 B 92 D 122 C 152 B 182 A 212 A 242 A 272 A
3 D 33 D 63 B 93 B 123 B 153 D 183 A 213 B 243 A 273 B
4 C 34 B 64 A 94 A 124 B 154 B 184 D 214 B 244 C 274 D
5 A 35 B 65 A 95 C 125 C 155 A 185 B 215 C 245 D 275 C
6 D 36 C 66 A 96 B 126 C 156 D 186 A 216 A 246 A 276 B
7 A 37 A 67 A 97 A 127 C 157 C 187 D 217 B 247 A 277 B
8 A 38 C 68 D 98 B 128 C 158 C 188 D 218 D 248 B 278 C
9 D 39 D 69 D 99 A 129 B 159 D 189 D 219 A 249 C 279 C
10 C 40 C 70 D 100 D 130 C 160 B 190 A 220 A 250 B 280 B
11 B 41 B 71 C 101 D 131 B 161 B 191 A 221 B 251 A 281 D
12 D 42 D 72 C 102 A 132 C 162 D 192 A 222 C 252 A 282 B
13 C 43 D 73 D 103 B 133 D 163 D 193 B 223 B 253 D 283 D
14 C 44 D 74 C 104 C 134 C 164 A 194 D 224 B 254 D 284 B
15 B 45 A 75 D 105 A 135 D 165 B 195 D 225 D 255 A 285 A
16 B 46 C 76 D 106 C 136 D 166 B 196 B 226 A 256 C 286 C
17 D 47 C 77 D 107 C 137 A 167 C 197 C 227 D 257 D 287 B
18 A 48 A 78 D 108 A 138 A 168 A 198 A 228 D 258 C 288 D
19 C 49 C 79 D 109 B 139 B 169 A 199 B 229 D 259 A 289 A
20 A 50 D 80 D 110 B 140 A 170 C 200 B 230 D 260 D 290 B
21 B 51 C 81 B 111 D 141 D 171 D 201 D 231 B 261 A 291 B
22 B 52 D 82 B 112 A 142 A 172 B 202 D 232 D 262 C 292 A
23 C 53 C 83 C 113 C 143 B 173 C 203 C 233 D 263 C 293 D
24 B 54 C 84 C 114 D 144 C 174 D 204 D 234 A 264 B 294 C
25 B 55 A 85 B 115 C 145 C 175 C 205 B 235 B 265 B 295 B
26 D 56 B 86 B 116 B 146 C 176 B 206 B 236 B 266 D 296 C
27 B 57 D 87 C 117 B 147 A 177 D 207 B 237 A 267 B 297 C
28 A 58 C 88 C 118 D 148 B 178 B 208 D 238 C 268 B 298 B
29 A 59 B 89 D 119 D 149 A 179 B 209 D 239 C 269 B 299 C
30 D 60 B 90 C 120 C 150 A 180 D 210 A 240 A 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:29-04-2023Page 1 of 45
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.