GPSC Engineering Services 2025: Gujarat Engineering Service (Civil) Class-1 and 2 and GWSSB Engineering Service (Civil), Preliminary, Engineering Aptitude
Text of page 1
60 60
M
100 100
100 100
24
BMV-1
M
Text of page 2
M
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding considering the Noise Pollution
(Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000?
(i) The State Government shall categorize the areas into industrial, commercial, residential or
silence areas/zones for the purpose of implementation of noise standards for different areas
(ii) An area comprising not less than 1000 meters around hospitals, educational institutions and
courts may be declared as silence area/zone for the purpose of these rules
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
2. According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, during which hours
may the State Government permit the use of loud speakers or public address systems on festive
occasions?
(A) 8:00 p.m. to 10:00 p.m.
(B) 10:00 p.m. to 12:00 midnight
(C) 12:00 midnight to 2:00 a.m.
(D) 9:00 p.m. to 11:00 p.m.
3. Which of the following restriction(s) on the use of horns, sound emitting construction equipments
and bursting of crackers is/are correct for controlling the noise pollution?
(i) No horn shall be used in silence zones or during night time in residential areas except during a
public emergency
(ii) Sound emitting construction equipments shall not be used or operated during night time in
industrial areas
(iii) Sound emitting fire crackers shall not be burst in residential areas
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(i) Under the plan scheme “Metropolitan Advisories for Cities for Sports, Tourism (Metropolitan
Air Quality and Weather Services)ˮ Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt. of India, has
introduced a major national initiative, "System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and
Research" known as "SAFAR" for greater metropolitan cities of India
(ii) It mandates to provide location, specific information on air quality in near real time and
forecast 1-3 days in advance
(iii) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorological, Pune is the nodal agency for SAFAR
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
2 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 3
M
5. If the Air Quality Index (AQI) is in the range of 201-300, then it is categorized as
(A) Satisfactory (B) Moderate
(C) Poor (D) Very poor
6. Electrostatic precipitators are suitable for removing
(i) Fly ash from coal combustion
(ii) Cement dust
(iii) Sulfur dioxide gas
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
7. Out of the seven oxides of Nitrogen (N2O, NO, NO2, NO3, N2O3, N2O4, N2O5) which are associated
with combustion and are classified as pollutants?
(A) NO, NO2
(B) N2O, NO, NO2, NO3
(C) N2O3, N2O4, N2O5
(D) NO3, N2O3, N2O4
8.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding Terms of Reference (ToR) in
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) study?
(i) ToR is a document produced by the authority conducting the EIA study.
(ii) It is formed during Scoping, the second stage in the EIA process.
(iii) All the stakeholders are invited to submit their concerns regarding the project during a public
hearing organized by the EIA committee, which is followed by discussions and deliberations.
(iv) The finalized list of this stage of EIA is submitted to the Ministry in the form of ToR.
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
9. In which of the cases, Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) clearance is required?
(i) Building construction projects (≥ 15,000 m2)
(ii) Township and area development projects (≥ 50 ha)
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 3
Text of page 4
M
10. In Terms of Reference (ToR) for Environmental Impact Assessment of building construction and
township and area development projects, which of the following is/are the theme(s) of assessing
the impact on ‘Water Environment’?
(i) Impact of water withdrawal on surface water
(ii) Impact on ground water potential
(iii) Wastewater generation
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
11. According to India's Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2016, non-recyclable waste with a
calorific value of ______ kcal/kg or higher should be used to generate energy through Waste to
Energy (WTE) processes.
(A) 500 (B) 1500
(C) 2500 (D) 3500
12. What is the primary purpose of biomining in the closure of old dumps?
(A) To use the stabilized matter as organic manure
(B) To reduce the volume of waste before capping
(C) To prevent groundwater contamination by removing the toxic material
(D) To extract valuable material from the waste
13. Which of the following parameters are used to categorize the river stretches as critically polluted,
severely polluted, moderately polluted, less polluted or good?
(i) Biological Oxygen Demand
(ii) Fecal Coliform
(iii) Chemical Oxygen Demand
(iv) Turbidity
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 5
M
14. Under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), producers are responsible for
(i) Designing products for easier recycling
(ii) Collecting and disposing of post-consumer waste
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
15. Which principle is closely aligned with Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)?
(A) "Polluter Pays" Principle
(B) "Precautionary" Principle
(C) "Common but Differentiated Responsibilities"
(D) "Absolute Liability" Principle
16. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(i) Flame photometry is good only for elements that are easily excited and do not require very
high temperatures
(ii) Na, K, Li and Ca are the most widely determined atoms by this technique
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
17. Which of the following is/are the correct permissible limit(s) for organic compost?
(i) Arsenic : 10 mg/kg
(ii) Copper : 300 mg/kg
(iii) Zinc : 1000 mg/kg
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
18. What is the theme of World Meteorological Day, 2025?
(A) Early Warnings for All
(B) Closing the Early Warning Gap Together
(C) Climate Action Now
(D) At the Frontline of Climate Action
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 5
Text of page 6
M
19. In climate science, what is ‘tipping point’?
(A) It is a critical threshold that when crossed leads to large, accelerating and often irreversible
changes in the climate system
(B) It is the moment when the emission reach their peak
(C) It is a temporary pause in global warming due to natural variability
(D) It is the peak of the planet's inherent temperature fluctuations, beyond which a gradual cooling
phase ensues as part of its cyclical climatic rhythm
20. What is the primary cause of ocean acidification?
(A) Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) emissions from industrial factories cause acid rain over the oceans
(B) Agricultural runoff release nitric acid into oceans
(C) Increased carbon dioxide (CO₂) is absorbed by seawater
(D) Plastic waste in the oceans breaks down into microplastics
21. A cylindrical rod is subjected to an uniaxial tensile load. Which of the following statements
regarding the rod's material behavior is correct if it is made of a linearly elastic, isotropic material?
(A) The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain depends only on the applied stress.
(B) The Poisson's ratio is independent of the material properties.
(C) The modulus of elasticity and shear modulus are related by the Poisson's ratio.
(D) The strain energy density depends only on the longitudinal strain.
22.
A material exhibits both time-dependent and temperature-dependent deformation under a
constant load. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of this behavior?
(A) Plastic deformation
(B) Elastic deformation
(C) Creep
(D) Fatigue
23. Which of the following materials has a negative coefficient of thermal expansion over a certain
temperature range?
(A) Polymers
(B) Quartz
(C) Invar alloy
(D) Zirconium tungstate
6 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 7
M
24. In a metallic bond, the free electrons that are responsible for electrical conductivity originate from
(A) The innermost electron shells.
(B) The valence electron cloud.
(C) The interstitial spaces between atoms.
(D) The covalent bond formation.
25. The Hall-Petch relationship is used to describe the dependence of yield strength on
(A) Grain size.
(B) Temperature.
(C) Dislocation density.
(D) Applied stress.
26. For a reinforced concrete structure, subjected to freezing and thawing cycles, the most critical
property of the aggregate is
(A) Specific gravity
(B) Water absorption
(C) Thermal conductivity
(D) Bulk density
27. The fatigue strength of a material is most significantly affected by
(A) Chemical composition of the material.
(B) Surface roughness and residual stresses.
(C) Young's modulus.
(D) Thermal conductivity.
28. The hardness of a material is least influenced by
(A) Grain size of the material.
(B) Type of heat treatment performed.
(C) Amount of alloying elements present.
(D) Density of the material.
29. In the case of hot-rolled steel, residual stresses are primarily caused by
(A) High strain rate deformation.
(B) Inhomogeneous cooling.
(C) Chemical segregation during casting.
(D) Poor surface finish.
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 7
Text of page 8
M
30. For a soil sample tested under uniaxial compression, the failure occurs at an angle of 45° + φ/2,
where φ is the internal angle of friction. This failure corresponds to
(A) Von Mises criterion.
(B) Tresca criterion.
(C) Mohr-Coulomb failure criterion.
(D) Drucker-Prager criterion.
31. Which technology is used for ICT-based real-time monitoring of engineering projects?
(A) Supervisory control and data acquisition
(B) Blockchain
(C) Artificial intelligence
(D) None of the above
32. Which protocol is widely used for secure communication in e-governance applications?
(A) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
(B) Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
(C) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
(D) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
33. Which consensus algorithm is commonly used in blockchain networks like bitcoin?
(A) Proof of Work (PoW)
(B) Proof of Stake (PoS)
(C) Proof of Authority (PoA)
(D) Proof of Concept (PoC)
34. What is the primary function of Big Data Analytics in ICT-based education for engineering?
(A) Personalizing learning experiences based on student data
(B) Tracking student attendance in real time
(C) Automating content creation for courses
(D) Simplifying administrative tasks in educational institutions
35. What is the primary advantage of using BIM (Building Information Modelling) in engineering?
(A) Reduced use of Computer-Aided Design tools
(B) Enhanced collaboration across project stakeholders
(C) Exclusive application for architectural design
(D) Replacement of manual construction techniques
8 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 9
M
36. Which protocol is commonly used for machine-to-machine communication in IoT-based
engineering projects?
(A) MQTT (Message Queuing Telemetry Transport)
(B) FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
(C) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
(D) HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol)
37. What is the primary advantage of using blockchain in e-governance systems for engineering
projects?
(A) It accelerates project execution by reducing all processes of manual intervention
(B) It eliminates the need for real-time monitoring technologies
(C) It provides secure, immutable and transparent records of transactions and decisions
(D) It replaces traditional engineering methodologies with automated systems
38. In an e-governance system for infrastructure development, which of the following tools can best
address delays caused by inaccurate resource planning?
(A) Cloud-based project documentation tools
(B) Big data Analytics platforms integrated with AI algorithms
(C) GPS-based tracking systems
(D) Traditional accounting software for resource allocation
39. What is the role of IoT in predictive maintenance for industrial machinery?
(A) Replacing traditional tools with automation
(B) Monitoring equipment performance in real time to predict failures
(C) Eliminating the need for regular maintenance schedules
(D) Storing physical records of equipment use
40. What does the term “distributed ledger” imply in blockchain?
(A) Data is stored offline
(B) Data is copied and synchronized across multiple locations
(C) Data is stored in a central server
(D) Data can be edited by any participant
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 9
Text of page 10
M
1 2 3
41. Find the rank of a matrix A = 2 4 7
3 6 10
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
42. The Laplace Transform of t2 e–4t is
2 2
(A) 2 (B)
s +4 (s + 4)2
2
2 2
(C) (D)
(s2 + 4) 3 (s + 4)4
2
43. If f(x) is an odd function, its Fourier series in the interval (–c, c) will contain
(A) only cosine terms (B) only sine terms
(C) both sine and cosine terms (D) none of the above
x–y ∂u ∂u
44. If u = cos–1 , then the value of x +y is
x+y ∂x ∂y
(A) 1 (B) u
(C) – u (D) 0
1
45. The value of sin(ax) is given by
D2 + a2
x x
(A) sin(ax) (B) cos(ax)
2a 2a
x x
(C) – cos(ax) (D) – sin(ax)
2a 2a
x3 y3 ∂v ∂v
46. If V = 3 , then the value of x +y is equal to
x + y3 ∂x ∂y
v
(A) (B) 2V
3
(C) 3V (D) –V
10 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 11
M
47. The partial differential equation obtained by eliminating the functions f and F from the function
z = f(x + iy) + F(x – iy)
∂ 2x ∂ 2y ∂2z ∂2z
(A) + = 0 (B) + =0
∂ 2y ∂ 2x ∂2y ∂2x
∂2z ∂2y ∂2z ∂2x
(C) + = 0 (D) + =0
∂2y ∂2x ∂2y ∂2y
π π π
48. The maximum value of sin x + + cos x + in the interval 0, is obtained at
6 6 2
(A) π (B) π
12 6
(C) π (D) π
3 2
49. The function f(z) = Re(z) = x. Then
(A) the function satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann differential equations
(B) the function is analytic
(C) the function is not analytic
(D) none of the above
50. The equation (D2 – 3D + 2)y = ex has a particular integral
(A) xex (B) – xex
(C) x2ex (D) None of the above
51. My brother and I played carrom for chocolates, where the loser of each game gave the winner
a chocolate. After the final game, I had 20 more chocolates than I initially held, even though my
brother won 7 games. Assuming no draws occurred, how many total games did we play?
(A) 27 (B) 34
(C) 37 (D) 41
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 11
Text of page 12
M
52. Ram has to buy at least 15 chairs with a budgetary ceiling of Rs 2000. If the chair with arms cost
Rs 160 while that of without arms cost Rs 100, then what is the maximum number of chairs with
arms Ram can buy?
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
53. If the average monthly income of Ram and Shyam is Rs 6000, Shyam and Ganesh is Rs 5250 and
that of Ram and Ganesh is Rs 5,500, then what is the monthly income of Ram?
(A) Rs 6,500 (B) Rs 6,250
(C) Rs 5,750 (D) Rs 4,850
54. A classroom of 10 students initially has an average weight of 50 kg. Later, when one student left
the class, the average weight of the remaining students decreased to 49 kg. Subsequently, a new
student joined, increasing the class's average weight to 52 kg. What is the numerical difference
between the weight of the student who left and the one who joined?
(A) 15 kg (B) 20 kg
(C) 25 kg (D) 27 kg
55. If the ratio of a man’s age and his son’s age is 7:3 and the product of their ages is 756, then what
will be the ratio of their ages after 6 years?
(A) 2:1 (B) 3:1
(C) 3:2 (D) 4:3
56. If log2 [log3(log2 x)] = 1, then what will be the value of x?
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) 27
57. The logarithm of 0.00001 to the base 0.01 is equal to
(A) 5/2 (B) -2/5
(C) 5 (D) 3
12 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 13
M
58. Rohan allocates a portion of his monthly income to financial planning. He deposits 10% of his
salary into a Provident Fund (PF). From the remaining amount, he saves 30%. The rest of his
income is dedicated to essential expenses, with the ratio of his grocery spending to medical expenses
being 4:3. If Rohan’s expenditure on medicines last month totalled Rs 2,700, then determine his
monthly income.
(A) Rs 10,000 (B) Rs 12,000
(C) Rs 15,000 (D) Rs 18,000
59. In an examination, 35% of total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% failed in
both. Find the percentage of those who passed in both the subjects.
(A) 80% (B) 60%
(C) 40% (D) 20%
60. Sita purchased a smartphone but had to sell it for Rs 1,950, incurring a 25% loss on her investment.
Determined to recover her finances, she now aims to sell a similar device at a 30% profit. What
should be the new selling price to achieve her profit goal?
(A) 3580 (B) 3380
(C) 3180 (D) 2980
61. Which of the following is not a SI unit?
(A) Liter (B) Kelvin
(C) Meter (D) Second
62. Komal purchased an instrument with an additional 10% discount on the reduced price after
deducting 20% on the MRP. If the MRP was Rs 1400, then at what price did she purchase the
instrument?
(A) Rs 988 (B) Rs 1008
(C) Rs 1118 (D) Rs 1218
63. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in a school of 640 students is 5:3. If 30 more
girls are admitted in the school, then how many more boys should be admitted so that the ratio of
boys to that of the girls become 14:9?
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 13
Text of page 14
M
64. Sita works in her office for 6 hours, while Kajal works for 7 hours and 30 minutes. Calculate the
ratio of their working hours.
(A) 3:5 (B) 5:4
(C) 4:5 (D) 6:7.5
65. Manish, Jay and Tejas form a partnership with varying investment amounts and durations:
• Manish invests a certain amount at the beginning of the year.
• Jay invests double that amount after 6 months.
• Tejas invests three times Manish's initial investment after 8 months.
If at the end of the year, the partnership earns a profit of Rs 45,000, then Tejas's share of the profit
will be
(A) Rs 10,000 (B) Rs 15,000
(C) Rs 18,000 (D) None of the above
66. A man travels from point A to point B at a speed of 4 km/h and returns from point B to point A at
6 km/h. Determine the ratio of the time taken for the journey from A to B compared to the return
journey from B to A.
(A) 2:3 (B) 3:2
(C) 4:9 (D) 9:4
67. Garima's father picks her up from college every day after classes conclude at 4 PM. One day,
classes end an hour earlier, at 3 PM. Unaware of this change, her father departs at his usual time.
Meanwhile, Garima begins walking home immediately after classes end. Her father meets her
en route, picks her up, and they arrive home 15 minutes earlier than usual. Determine the ratio of
her father's driving speed to Garima's walking speed.
(A) 6:1 (B) 7:1
(C) 10:1 (D) 12:1
68. A rower moves at 3 km/hr in still water. He takes twice the time to cover 50 km upstream as he
does to cover the same distance downstream. Determine the speed of the stream.
(A) 0.5 km/hr (B) 1.0 km/hr
(C) 2.0 km/hr (D) 3.0 km/hr
14 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 15
M
69. A train is travelling at a speed of 132 km/h. If the train is 110 meters long, then how much time will
it take to pass a platform that is 165 meters long?
(A) 5.0 seconds (B) 6.0 seconds
(C) 7.5 seconds (D) 9.0 seconds
70. Vessels A and B contain mixtures of milk and water in ratios 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what
proportion should the contents of these two vessels be combined to create a new mixture in vessel
C that consists of equal parts of milk and water?
(A) 2:3 (B) 3:4
(C) 5:4 (D) 7:5
71. A square has a perimeter of 56 cm. Two semicircles are inscribed within the square, each having
its diameter equal to the side length of the square. Determine the combined area of these two
semicircles.
(A) 98π (B) 49π
(C) 49(π/2) (D) 49(π/4)
72. Find the number of bricks, each measuring 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm with 1 cm thick mortar all
around, required constructing a wall of 20 m long, 8 m high and 60 cm thick.
(A) 12,000 (B) 24,000
(C) 36,000 (D) 48,000
73. The calendar for the year 2009 will be the same as that of the year
(A) 2013 (B) 2014
(C) 2015 (D) 2016
74. If second Saturday and Sunday of every month is a holiday, then the total number of working days
in a month of 31 days beginning with Wednesday will be
(A) 23 (B) 24
(C) 25 (D) 26
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 15
Text of page 16
M
75. In how many ways can 6 players be seated in a circular order?
(A) 720 (B) 120
(C) 60 (D) 30
76. Match the following quality dimensions with their correct descriptions:
1. Performance a. Expected product life
2. Aesthetics b. Consistency of performance, probability
product will operate over time
3. Reliability c. Basic characteristics of product/service
4. Durability d. Appearance, feel, sound, smell, taste
(A) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a
(B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b
(C) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - c
(D) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 – d
77. Which tool is commonly used in Kaizen to identify and eliminate waste?
(A) SWOT Analysis
(B) 5S Framework
(C) Pareto Chart
(D) Gantt Chart
78. Fishbone diagrams are basically used for
(A) Problem identification
(B) Problem analysis
(C) Quality engineering
(D) Quality assurance
16 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 17
M
79. Robustness of a product means
(A) Life of the product
(B) Mean time to failure
(C) Intended performance of a product or service
(D) Design that can resist failure or reduction in performance in the face of variations
80. Internal audits are used to verify whether
(i) Products conform to the technical specifications
(ii) Quality management systems are effectively implemented
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
81. In India, which of the following sectors have well-defined Occupational Safety and Health (OSH)
regulations?
(A) Mining, Factories, Ports and Agriculture
(B) Factories, Mining, Agriculture and Construction
(C) Mining, Factories, Ports and Construction
(D) Factories, Ports, Agriculture and Construction
82. What is the objective of ISO 9000 family of quality management?
(A) Customer satisfaction
(B) Employee satisfaction
(C) Skill enhancement
(D) Environmental issues
83. Six sigma gives a precision of
(A) 95.34% (B) 99.73%
(C) 99.99% (D) 68.27%
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 17
Text of page 18
M
84. Match the DMAIC phases with their corresponding steps/definitions in six sigma methodology:
1. Define a. Identify the root causes of defects using statistical
analysis
2. Measure b. Establish the problem statement, goals and
customer requirements
3. Analyze c. Implement solutions and optimize the process for
better performance
4. Improve d. Monitor and sustain improvements using control
plans and documents
5. Control e. Collect data and quantify the current
performance of the process
(A) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - c, 5 - e
(B) 1 - b, 2 - e, 3 - a, 4 - c, 5 - d
(C) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b, 5 - e
(D) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - e, 5 - d
85. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
1. Fineness of cement a. Le-Chatelier apparatus
2. Setting time b. Vicat’s needle
3. Soundness c. Air permeability apparatus
4. Workability d. Slump cone
(A) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a
(B) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
(D) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d
86. According to the Indian Standards Specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of
(A) 90% (B) 80%
(C) 70% (D) 60%
87. The most significant period of reliability prediction by exponential distribution in the bathtub
curve is
(A) Infant mortality (B) Useful life
(C) Wear–out life (D) Maintenance period
18 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 19
M
88. Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity method in non-destructive testing for concrete is used to determine:
(i) Compressive strength
(ii) Existence voids
(iii) Dynamic modulus of concrete
(iv) Tensile strength
(v) Static modulus of concrete
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iv) and (v)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
89. The time elapsed between the placing of an order and its arrival is called
(A) Cycle time
(B) Lead time
(C) Work station time
(D) Transition time
90. Match the 5S phases with their correct description
5S Phase Description
1. Seiri (Sorting) a. Keeping the work area clean and restoring
everything to its place at the end of the each
shift.
2. Seiton (Set in order) b. Maintaining and reviewing standards.
3. Seiso (Shining) c. Going through tools and materials, keeping
only essential items.
4. Seiketsu d. Ensuring tools and parts are arranged
(Standardizing) efficiently for workflow.
e. Defining responsibilities to maintain the first
5. Shitsuke (Sustaining)
three steps.
(A) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - e, 5 - b
(B) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b, 5 - e
(C) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b, 5 - e
(D) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - e, 5 - b
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 19
Text of page 20
M
91. The two recommended systems of placing the dimensions are
(A) unidirectional and aligned systems
(B) upright and inclined systems
(C) linear and oblique systems
(D) linear and inclined systems
92. The object we see in our surroundings usually without drawing come under which projection?
(A) Perspective projection
(B) Isometric projection
(C) Oblique projection
(D) Orthogonal projection
93. Which of the following method(s) is/are used for determining weightage factors (Weights assigned
to criteria in decision-making)?
(i) Analytic Hierarchy Process (AHP)
(ii) Delphi Technique
(iii) Entropy Method
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
94. Which of the following pencil lead is the hardest?
(A) H (B) HB
(C) B (D) F
95. When dimensions are specified from a common origin and spaced parallel to one another, it is
called as ____
(A) Progressive dimensioning
(B) Chain dimensioning
(C) Superimposed running dimensioning
(D) Coordinate dimensioning
96. As a project manager, you are calculating the timeline for a critical construction activity. Your
team has provided three duration estimates: Optimistic duration: 12 days, Pessimistic duration:
22 days and most likely duration: 14 days. What is the expected duration for this activity?
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18
20 | [BMV-1] [Contd.
Text of page 21
M
97. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(i) The duration along the critical path defines the shortest possible time required to complete a
project
(ii) The critical path is the longest sequence of dependent tasks in a project, and its total duration
determines the project's minimum completion time
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
98. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(i) Slack denotes the flexibility range within which an event can occur.
(ii) In the critical path, the slack must be zero
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
99. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for resource levelling?
(i) The project completion time is not extended even though there is a constraint in the availability
of resources
(ii) Start of the non-critical activities is delayed
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
100. At 9:30, the hour hand and minute hand of the clock will form an angle of
(A) 90° (B) 105°
(C) 115° (D) 120°
____________
[BMV-1] P.T.O.] | 21
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Engineering Aptitude(Advt No. 51/2024-25)
BMT-1
Exam Date:27-04-2025
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared
as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 21 C 41 B 61 A 81 C
2 B 22 C 42 C 62 B 82 A
3 A 23 D 43 B 63 B 83 C
4 D 24 B 44 D 64 C 84 B
5 C 25 A 45 C 65 B 85 D
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 B 86 A
7 A 27 B 47 B 67 B 87 B
8 D 28 D 48 A 68 B 88 B
9 B 29 B 49 C 69 C 89 B
10 D 30 C 50 B 70 D 90 A
11 B 31 A 51 B 71 B 91 A
12 B 32 B 52 B 72 D 92 A
13 A 33 A 53 B 73 C 93 D
14 C 34 A 54 B 74 D 94 A
15 A 35 B 55 A 75 B 95 A
16 C 36 A 56 C 76 A 96 A
17 D 37 C 57 A 77 B 97 C
18 B 38 B 58 A 78 B 98 A
19 A 39 B 59 C 79 D 99 B
20 C 40 B 60 B 80 C 100 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-08-2025
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Engineering Aptitude(Advt No. 51/2024-25)
BMT-1
Exam Date:27-04-2025
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared
as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 21 B 41 A 61 C 81 C
2 B 22 C 42 B 62 C 82 A
3 B 23 B 43 A 63 D 83 C
4 C 24 D 44 D 64 B 84 B
5 B 25 C 45 C 65 A 85 D
6 B 26 C 46 B 66 B 86 A
7 B 27 B 47 A 67 B 87 B
8 B 28 A 48 D 68 D 88 B
9 C 29 C 49 B 69 B 89 B
10 D 30 B 50 D 70 C 90 A
11 B 31 B 51 B 71 A 91 A
12 D 32 B 52 B 72 B 92 A
13 C 33 B 53 A 73 A 93 D
14 D 34 B 54 C 74 A 94 A
15 B 35 A 55 A 75 B 95 A
16 A 36 C 56 C 76 A 96 A
17 B 37 A 57 D 77 C 97 C
18 B 38 A 58 B 78 B 98 A
19 D 39 C 59 A 79 B 99 B
20 C 40 B 60 C 80 B 100 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-08-2025
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Engineering Aptitude(Advt No. 51/2024-25)
BMT-1
Exam Date:27-04-2025
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared
as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 21 A 41 B 61 C 81 A
2 C 22 B 42 C 62 A 82 B
3 D 23 B 43 B 63 C 83 A
4 B 24 C 44 D 64 B 84 D
5 A 25 B 45 C 65 D 85 C
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 A 86 B
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 B 87 A
8 D 28 B 48 A 68 B 88 D
9 B 29 C 49 C 69 B 89 B
10 C 30 D 50 B 70 A 90 D
11 A 31 B 51 B 71 A 91 B
12 B 32 D 52 B 72 A 92 B
13 A 33 C 53 B 73 D 93 A
14 A 34 D 54 B 74 A 94 C
15 B 35 B 55 A 75 A 95 A
16 A 36 A 56 C 76 A 96 C
17 C 37 B 57 A 77 C 97 D
18 B 38 B 58 A 78 A 98 B
19 B 39 D 59 C 79 B 99 A
20 B 40 C 60 B 80 B 100 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-08-2025
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Engineering Aptitude(Advt No. 51/2024-25)
BMT-1
Exam Date:27-04-2025
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared
as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 21 A 41 C 61 A 81 C
2 C 22 B 42 A 62 B 82 C
3 B 23 A 43 C 63 B 83 D
4 D 24 D 44 B 64 C 84 B
5 C 25 C 45 D 65 B 85 A
6 C 26 B 46 A 66 B 86 B
7 B 27 A 47 B 67 B 87 B
8 A 28 D 48 B 68 B 88 D
9 C 29 B 49 B 69 C 89 B
10 B 30 D 50 A 70 D 90 C
11 B 31 B 51 A 71 B 91 A
12 B 32 B 52 A 72 D 92 B
13 B 33 A 53 D 73 C 93 A
14 B 34 C 54 A 74 D 94 A
15 A 35 A 55 A 75 B 95 B
16 C 36 C 56 A 76 A 96 A
17 A 37 D 57 C 77 B 97 C
18 A 38 B 58 A 78 B 98 B
19 C 39 A 59 B 79 D 99 B
20 B 40 C 60 B 80 C 100 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-08-2025
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Engineering Aptitude(Advt No. 51/2024-25)
BMT-1
Exam Date:27-04-2025
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared
as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 21 C 41 A 61 A 81 B
2 A 22 C 42 B 62 B 82 C
3 C 23 D 43 B 63 A 83 B
4 B 24 B 44 C 64 D 84 D
5 D 25 A 45 B 65 C 85 C
6 A 26 B 46 B 66 B 86 C
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 A 87 B
8 B 28 D 48 B 68 D 88 A
9 B 29 B 49 C 69 B 89 C
10 A 30 C 50 D 70 D 90 B
11 A 31 A 51 B 71 B 91 B
12 A 32 B 52 D 72 B 92 B
13 D 33 A 53 C 73 A 93 B
14 A 34 A 54 D 74 C 94 B
15 A 35 B 55 B 75 A 95 A
16 A 36 A 56 A 76 C 96 C
17 C 37 C 57 B 77 D 97 A
18 A 38 B 58 B 78 B 98 A
19 B 39 B 59 D 79 A 99 C
20 B 40 B 60 C 80 C 100 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-08-2025Page 1 of 21
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.