HPSC Polytechnic Lecturer 2022: Lecturer (Technical Education) Screening Test, Civil Engineering (Advt. No. 11/2021)

Text of page 1
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
Question Booklet No.
QUESTION BOOKLET
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Booklet Series
A
Roll No.
(Enter your Roll number in the above space)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
QUESTIONS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and
Question Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at
the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the
OMR Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question is printed in English only. Each
question comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to
mark on the OMR Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,
mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each question.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided. See
Instructions at the backside of the OMR Answer Sheet.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR Answer Sheet the response to various questions in the
Question Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the OMR Answer Sheet as per
instructions mentioned on the OMR Answer Sheet.
7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the OMR Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Question Booklet, along with candidate’s
copy of OMR Answer Sheet.
8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end.
9. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE AS UNDER.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, 0.25 mark assigned to that question will
be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
Civil Engineering /4- A
Text of page 2
1. A cantilever beam of span 2 m is 6. The pin-joined cantilever truss is
subjected to a downward load of loaded as shown below. The force
60 kN distributed uniformly over in member E is
the entire span and an upward
point load P at its free end. The
value of P for the net deflection at
the end to be zero shall be
[A] 45 kN
[B] 30 kN
[C] 22·5 kN
[D] 60 kN
2. A trapezium has sides of 20 cm and
10 cm and height of 18 cm. The
centre of gravity of the trapezium
from 20 cm side shall be [A] 40 kN (Compressive)
[A] 12 cm
[B] 80 kN (Tensile)
[B] 10 cm
[C] 8 cm [C] 80 kN (Compressive)
[D] 4·5 cm
[D] 120 kN (Tensile)
3. A seconds pendulum executes
[A] 0·5 beat per second 7. In a prestressed member, it is
[B] 1·0 beat per second advisable to use
[C] 2·0 beat per second
[A] low strength concrete only
[D] 2·5 beat per second
4. The Poisson’s ratio of a material [B] high strength concrete only
which has Young’s modulus of
[C] high strength concrete and
100 GPa and shear modulus of
high tensile steel
40 GPa is
[A] 0·25 [D] low strength concrete but high
[B] 0·1 tensile steel
[C] 0·3
[D] 0·2 8. The maximum shear stress () in a
reinforced cement concrete beam
5. The slenderness ratio of a column
subjected to a shear force of 70 kN
is zero, when
and having width of 250 mm and a
[A] its length is exactly equal to lever arm of 350 mm is
radius of gyration
[B] its length is half of the radius [A] 0·8 N/mm2
of gyration
[B] 1·25 N/mm2
[C] its length is supported on all
sides throughout its length [C] 0·00002 N/mm2
[D] total load carried is less than
half of the dead weight [D] 0·0008 N/mm2
Civil Engineering /4- A 2
Text of page 3
9. An RCC beam, not provided with 13. Bulking of sand is maximum if
shear reinforcement, may develop moisture content is
cracks in its bottom inclined
roughly to the horizontal at [A] 2%
[A] 25° [B] 4%
[B] 35° [C] 6%
[C] 45° [D] 10%
[D] 60°
14. Modulus of rupture of concrete
10. The effective span of a simply determines
supported slab is
[A] tensile strength
[A] distance between the centers
of the bearings [B] compressive strength
[B] clear distance between the [C] modulus of elasticity
inner faces of the walls plus
[D] flexural tensile strength
twice the thickness of the wall
[C] clear span plus effective depth 15. The load carrying capacity of a
of the slab column reinforced with main steel
[D] None of the above and ties is 200 kN. If, keeping the
main steel same, the ties are
replaced by same amount of
11. A steel plate is 300 mm wide and
helical reinforcement satisfying
10 mm thick. If the diameter of the
all requirements as per IS : 456,
bolt hole is 20 mm, the net section
the load carrying capacity shall
area of the plate shall be
become
[A] 2800 mm2
[A] 190 kN
2
[B] 2780 mm
[B] 210 kN
[C] 1800 mm2
[C] 220 kN
[D] 2600 mm2
[D] 180 kN
12. A steel column carries an axial
load of 800 kN. The lacing system 16. Creep strain of a structural
shall be designed for a transverse element is
shear of
[A] independent of load
[A] 60 kN
[B] caused by live load only
[B] 40 kN
[C] 80 kN [C] caused by dead load only
[D] 20 kN [D] caused by dead load + live load
Civil Engineering /4- A 3 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 4
17. The maximum shear stress 21. The liquid limit and plastic limit of
developed inside a concrete cube, a sample are 65% and 29%
submerged deep in still water in respectively. The percentage of the
such a way that pressure exerted soil fraction with grain size finer
on all the faces is p, shall be than 0·002 mm is 24. The activity
ratio of the soil sample is
[A] zero
[A] 0·50
[B] 2p
[B] 1·00
[C] p/2
[C] 1·50
[D] p
[D] 2·00
18. Two soil samples A and B have 22. In a compaction test, each layer is
porosities nA = 40% and nB = 60% to be compacted by
respectively. What is the void ratio,
eA : e B ? [A] 45 blows
[B] 50 blows
[A] 2 : 3
[C] 30 blows
[B] 3 : 2
[D] 25 blows
[C] 4 : 9
[D] 9 : 4 23. The degree of saturation for a
natural state in a soil having water
19. The ultimate bearing capacity of a content 24%, G = 2·5 and void ratio 1,
shallow foundation on sand is shall be
reduced to about ____, when the [A] 76%
water table rises to the ground
[B] 24%
surface.
[C] 100%
[A] 75%
[D] 60%
[B] 50%
[C] 25% 24. At the intersection of any
equipotential line and phreatic
[D] 40% line, the pressure head shall be
[A] one
20. In a plate load test conducted on
cohesionless soil, a 600 mm [B] zero
square test plate settles by 15 mm [C] less than zero
under a load intensity of
[D] between zero and one
0·2 N/mm2. All conditions remaining
the same, settlement of a 1m
25. The maximum permissible limit of
square footing will be
nitrates for public water supply is
[A] 20·50 mm [A] 0 ppm
[B] less than 15 mm [B] 100 ppm
[C] 15·60 mm [C] 150 ppm
[D] greater than 25 mm [D] 200 ppm
Civil Engineering /4- A 4
Text of page 5
26. The average daily water consumption 31. The ruling minimum radius of
of a city is 20000 cum. The peak horizontal curve on a national
hourly demand will be highway having a design speed of
90 kmph with a super-elevation of
[A] 24000 cum/hr
0·10 and coefficient of lateral friction
[B] 22500 cum/hr of 0·15 would be
[C] 27000 cum/hr [A] 255 m
[D] 18000 cum/hr [B] 315 m
[C] 375 m
27. The most hazardous metal to [D] 425 m
human beings is
[A] barium 32. The minimum radius of curve,
beyond which no super-elevation is
[B] iron required for a highway having a
[C] silver design speed of 80 kmph and
camber of 3%, would be
[D] arsenic
[A] 940 m
28. Which of the following compounds [B] 1680 m
is used for algae control? [C] 400 m
[A] Copper sulphate [D] 280 m
[B] Calcium chloride 33. A transport company operates a
[C] Ferric chloride scheduled daily truck service
between two cities, one-way journey
[D] Ferric sulphate takes 85 hours. A minimum
layover of 5 hours is to be provided
29. Two primary air pollutants are in each city. How many trucks are
[A] sulphur oxide and ozone required to provide this service?
[A] 4
[B] nitrogen oxide and
peroxyacetyl nitrate [B] 8
[C] sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon [C] 7
[D] 6
[D] ozone oxide and peroxyacetyl
nitrate
34. Rainfall during three successive
2-hour periods are 5 mm, 28 mm and
30. Two biodegradable components of
16 mm. The surface runoff resulting
municipal solid waste are
from this storm is 32 mm. The
[A] plastics and wood index value for this storm would be
[B] cardboard and glass [A] 3 mm/hr
[C] leather and tin cans [B] 6 mm/hr
[C] 12 mm/hr
[D] food waste and garden
trimmings [D] 20 mm/hr
Civil Engineering /4- A 5 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 6
35. The hydraulic jump height in a 39. The observed magnetic bearing of
stilling pool of 1:20 scale was line OE was measured as 185°. It
observed to be 90 mm. The was later observed that station O
corresponding prototype height of had a local attraction of +1·5°. The
the jump would be true bearing of the line OE
[A] 4·5 mm considering a magnetic declination
of 3·5°E shall be
[B] 3600 mm
[A] 180°
[C] 1·800 mm
[B] 190°
[D] 180 mm
[C] 187°
36. An inert tracer is interjected [D] 193°
continuously from a point in an
unsteady flow field. The locus of 40. During a levelling work along a
locations of all tracer particles at falling gradient using a dumpy
an instance of time represents level and a staff, following
successive readings were taken —
[A] pathline
1·785 m, 2·935 m, 0·360 m and
[B] stream tube 1·320 m. What will be the correct
[C] steamline order of booking these four readings
in a level book?
[D] strikeline
[A] BS, FS, BS, FS
37. Wheat crop requires 55 cm of [B] BS, IS, FS, FS
water during 120 days of base
[C] BS, IS, IS, FS
period. The total rainfall during
this period is 100 mm. Assuming [D] BS, IS, BS, FS
irrigation efficiency to be 60%, the
41. If a +0·8% grade meets a –0·7%
land area in hectares which can
grade and rate of change of grade
be irrigated with a canal flow of
for 30 m distance is 0.05, the
0·01 m3/s, is
length of the vertical curve will be
[A] 18·85
[A] 600 m
[B] 23·04
[B] 1200 m
[C] 230·40
[C] 900 m
[D] 13·82
[D] 1000 m
38. The thickness of laminar boundary 42. The plan of a map was copied to a
layer on a flat plate at a point A is reduced size such that a line
2 cm and at a point B, which is 1 m originally 100 mm, measured
downstream of A, is 3 cm. The 90 mm. If the original scale of the
distance of leading edge of the plan was 1 : 900, the revised scale
plate from A is would be
[A] 1·25 m [A] 1 : 1221
[B] 1·80 m [B] 1 : 1111
[C] 0·90 m [C] 1 : 1000
[D] 0·80 m [D] 1 : 900
Civil Engineering /4- A 6
Text of page 7
43. A rod of length L has a diameter d 46. If a prismatic fixed beam
till L/2 distance from the left end, undergoes settlement (H ) at the
and a diameter 2d for the right support, what type of internal
remaining length. If the rod is forces will be induced in the
subjected to a pull of magnitude P, beam?
the maximum stress in the rod will [A] Shear force only
be
[B] Axial force only
2
[A] 4P/d [C] Bending moment only
[D] Bending moment and shear
[B] 8P/d2
force
[C] 16P/d2 47. Triple constraints in Construction
Management are
[D] P/d2
[A] time, cost and scope
[B] cost, quantity and supply
44. In the simple theory of bending,
the stress in any fibre of a [C] time, supply and cost
prismatic beam subjected to a pure [D] quality, cost and supply
bending moment is directly
proportional to its distance from 48. A typical SCC mix will have slump-
the neutral plane, because flow of around
[A] 500–700 mm
[A] the modulus of elasticity is a
constant [B] 100–200 mm
[C] >1000 mm
[B] the strain diagram is linear
[D] <100 mm
[C] stress at the neutral plane is
zero 49. Depreciation, interest paid on
capital, rent, salary, property taxes,
[D] the neutral plane contains the insurance premium etc. are
centroid of the cross-section of examples of which type of costs?
the beam [A] Fixed
[B] Variable
45. The shear force should be applied [C] Direct
at the shear center of a beam
[D] Indirect
having a channel cross-section in
order to avoid
50. The flange of an inverted simply
supported T-beam subjected to its
[A] bending of the cross-section
self-weight, will be in
[B] shear of the cross-section [A] compression
[B] tension
[C] compression of the cross-section
[C] torsion
[D] twisting of the cross-section [D] shear
Civil Engineering /4- A 7 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 8
51. In a built-up compression member 55. A phenomenon of rise or fall of
made up by two channels back to liquid surface relatives to the
back placed with each other, the adjacent general level of liquid is
two parts are integrated by the use called
of [A] relative rise
[A] batten plates [B] capillarity
[C] surface fall
[B] connecting rods
[D] relative fall
[C] sag rods
56. Consolidation is the gradual
[D] gusset plates reduction in the volume of a partly
or fully saturated soil mainly due
52. The function of the column-base is to the expulsion of water from the
to transmit soil pores. This happens under
[A] variable loading
[A] the structure stresses to the
[B] sustained loading
concrete footing surface
[C] cyclic loading
[B] the axial force to the concrete [D] random loading
footing surface
57. The best method to find out the
[C] the bending moment to the
shear properties of a cohesionless
concrete footing surface
soil sample is
[D] the shear stress to the [A] direct shear test
concrete footing surface [B] unconfined compression test
[C] triaxial shear test
53. The bottom chord of an N-truss,
[D] vane shear test
subjected to gravity loads is always
subjected to 58. The details of the allowable
[A] axial compression bearing capacity for foundation
design can be worked out after
[B] bending moment carrying out
[A] sub-surface surveys
[C] axial tension
[B] geotechnical investigations
[D] shear force [C] groundwater surveys
[D] geological surveys
54. The shape factor for a triangular
cross-section of base B and 59. Standard penetration number of
height H is blows have to be corrected using
which correction?
[A] 2·346
[A] Dilatancy correction
[B] 3·0 [B] Overburden pressure correction
[C] 1·5 [C] Dilatancy correction and
Overburden pressure correction
[D] 2·15 [D] Instrumental error correction
Civil Engineering /4- A 8
Text of page 9
60. The parameters Nc, Nq, N are the 64. When the flow velocity in a channel
dimensionless numbers, known as is equal to the wave velocity
bearing capacity factors in generated by an obstruction, the
Terzaghi’s theory, depend on flow is called
[A] the angle of shearing [A] super-critical flow
resistance of the soil
[B] sub-critical flow
[B] cohesion value c of the soil
[C] Both [A] and [B] [C] critical flow
[D] moisture content of the soil [D] ultra-critical flow
61. The settlement, that results from 65. A direct runoff hydrograph resulting
the time-dependent rearrangement from one unit of constant intensity
of soil particles under constant uniform rainfall occurring over the
effective stress conditions, is entire watershed is called
[A] immediate settlement
[A] hydrological graph
[B] primary consolidation settlement
[B] hydrograph
[C] secondary compression
settlement [C] unit hydrograph
[D] tertiary settlement [D] hydro unit
62. The velocity, pressure and other
flow properties at each point in the 66. MBBR and SBR technologies are
fluid remain constant in which used for what purpose?
type of flows?
[A] Water treatment
[A] Turbulent flow
[B] Sewage treatment
[B] Critical flow
[C] Effluent treatment
[C] Laminar flow
[D] Sub-critical flow [D] Soil treatment
63. When a bluff body is placed in a 67. Water Quality Index is a value
flowing fluid, the resulting wake evaluated by what type of function?
zone is
[A] Aggregate function
[A] large
[B] Exponential function
[B] moderate
[C] small [C] Logarithmic function
[D] Not produced at all [D] Evaluation function
Civil Engineering /4- A 9 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 10
68. The computation of AQI in India is 72. EDM technology uses which type of
based on how many pollutants? waves to measure the distance
between the instrument and a
[A] 10 handheld reflector?
[B] 8 [A] Sound waves
[C] 12 [B] Infra-red waves
[C] Ultra-violet light waves
[D] 6
[D] Electromagnetic waves
69. Energy recovery from waste is the
73. The type of imagery used in remote
conversion of non-recyclable waste
sensing to capture data is
materials by
[A] aerial imagery
[A] anaerobic digestion
[B] satellite imagery
[B] dehumidification [C] thermal imagery
[C] emulsification [D] acoustic imagery
[D] dehydration 74. GIS stores location data in
[A] colored layers
70. Traffic models that describe the
details of traffic flow and the [B] thematic layers
interaction between individual
[C] thermal layers
vehicles taking place within it are
called [D] optical layers
[A] macroscopic traffic models 75. The rate of change of velocity and
the rate of change of momentum of
[B] hybrid traffic models
a moving body respectively are
[C] interactive traffic models [A] acceleration and impulse
[D] microscopic traffic models [B] acceleration and force
[C] displacement and force
71. Permanent, longitudinal surface [D] force and displacement
depression that occurs in the
wheel paths of a flexible pavement
76. For economical spacing of roof
due to the passage of traffic is
truss, if t, p, r are the costs of truss,
called
purlin and roof coverings
[A] rutting respectively, then
[A] t = p + r
[B] shoving
[B] t = 2p + r
[C] bulging
[C] t = p + 3r
[D] pitting [D] t = p + 2r
Civil Engineering /4- A 10
Text of page 11
77. The first-moment of area about the 81. Which one of the following is
axis of bending for a beam cross- categorized as a long-term loss of
section is prestress in a prestressed concrete
[A] section modulus member?
[B] moment of inertia [A] Loss due to elastic shortening
[C] shape factor [B] Loss due to friction
[D] polar moment of inertia [C] Loss due to relaxation of
strands
78. For a given shear force across a
[D] Loss due to anchorage slip
symmetrical I section, the
intensity of shear stress is
82. As per IS 800 : 2007, the cross-
maximum at the
section in which the extreme fiber
[A] extreme fibres can reach the yield stress, but
[B] centroid of the section cannot develop the plastic moment
of resistance due to failure by local
[C] junction of the flange and the
buckling is classified as
web, but on the web
[D] junction of the flange and the [A] plastic section
web, but on the flange [B] compact section
79. The kinematic indeterminacy of [C] semi-compact section
single-bay portal frame fixed at the [D] slender section
base is
[A] 1 83. As per IS 10500 : 2012, for drinking
water, in the absence of alternate
[B] 2 source of water, the permissible
[C] 3 limits for chloride and sulphate, in
mg/L, respectively are
[D] 0
[A] 250 and 200
80. Workability of concrete can be
[B] 200 and 250
measured using slump, compaction
factor and Vebe time. Consider the [C] 1000 and 400
following statements for workability
[D] 500 and 1000
of concrete :
(i) As the slump increases, the 84. A PERT network has 9 activities on
Vebe time increases. its critical path. The standard
(ii) As the slump increases, the deviation of each activity on the
compaction factor increases. critical path is 3. The standard
deviation of the critical path is
Which of the following is true?
[A] Both (i) and (ii) are true [A] 3
[B] Both (i) and (ii) are false [B] 9
[C] (i) is true and (ii) is false [C] 27
[D] (i) is false and (ii) is true [D] 81
Civil Engineering /4- A 11 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 12
85. Consider the following statements : 89. The two criteria for the
P. Walls of one brick thick are determination of allowable bearing
measured in square meters. capacity of a foundation are
Q. Walls of one brick thick are [A] tensile failure and
measured in cubic meters. compression failure
R. No deduction in the brickwork [B] tensile failure and settlement
quantity is made for openings
in walls up to 0·1 m2 area. [C] bond failure and shear failure
S. For the measurement of [D] shear failure and settlement
excavation from the borrow pit in
a fairly uniform ground, deadmen 90. The group efficiency of pile group
are left at suitable intervals. will be
For the above statements, the correct [A] always less than 100%
option is :
[B] always greater than 100%
[A] P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-True
[C] more than 100% for pile groups
[B] P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False
in cohesionless soils and less
[C] P-True; Q-False; R-True; S-False
than 100% for those in cohesive
[D] P-True; Q-False; R-True; S-True soils
86. The void ratio of a soil sample is 1, [D] None of the above
the corresponding porosity of the
sample is 91. For steady incompressible flow
[A] 0·5 through a closed conduit of uniform
[B] 1 cross-section, the direction of flow
[C] 1·5 will always be from higher to lower
[D] 2 [A] elevation
87. A fine-grained soil is found to be [B] pressure
plastic in the water content range
of 26-45 %. As per Indian Standard [C] velocity
Classification System, the soil is [D] piezometric head
classified as
[A] CL 92. As per the Lacey’s method for
[B] CI design of alluvial channels, identify
[C] CH the true statement from the
[D] CL-ML following.
88. In the consolidated undrained triaxial [A] Wetted perimeter increases
test on a saturated soil sample, the with an increase in design
pore water pressure is zero discharge
[A] during shearing stage only [B] Hydraulic radius increases
[B] both at the end of with an increase in silt factor
consolidation and during [C] Wetted perimeter decreases
shearing stages with an increase in design
[C] at the end of consolidation stage discharge
only
[D] Wetted perimeter increases
[D] Under none of the above
conditions with an increase in silt factor
Civil Engineering /4- A 12
Text of page 13
93. Two air pollution control devices 97. An aggregate is said to be
that are usually used to remove exceptionally strong when the
very fine particles from the flue aggregate impact value is
gas are
[A] cyclone and venture scrubber [A] less than 10
[B] cyclone and packed scrubber
[B] 10 to 20
[C] electrostatic precipitator and
fabric filter [C] 20 to 30
[D] settling chamber and tray
scrubber [D] above 35
94. A coastal city produces Municipal
Solid Waste (MSW) with high 98. Correction for temperature in a
moisture content, high organic chain when the temperature at
materials, low calorific value and field is more than the standard
low inorganic materials. The most temperature is
effective and sustainable option for
MSW management in that city is [A] additive
[A] composting
[B] negative
[B] incineration
[C] dumping in sea [C] constant
[D] landfill
[D] Not applicable
95. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)
of a sample is always greater than
99. The difference between the most
Biochemical Oxygen Demand
probable value of a quantity and
(BOD) since it represents
observed value is
[A] biodegradable organic matter
only [A] true error
[B] biodegradable and non-
biodegradable organic matters [B] weighted observation
[C] non-biodegradable organic
matter [C] conditional error
[D] inorganic matter
[D] residual error
96. In the revised CBR design method
recommended by IRC for design of 100. The suitable contour interval for a
flexible pavement, total thickness map with scale 1 : 10000 is
depends upon CBR value of soil
and [A] 2 m
[A] aggregate ratio
[B] magnitude of wheel load [B] 5 m
[C] number of commercial
[C] 10 m
vehicles per day
[D] cumulative standard axle loads [D] 20 m
Civil Engineering /4- A 13 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 14
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Civil Engineering /4- A 14

Text of page 15
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Civil Engineering /4- A 15 [ P.T.O.

Text of page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Civil Engineering /4- A 16 LLL22/4—663×4
Text of page 1
Final Answer Key - Civil Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'A'
Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1 C 26 B 51 A 76 B
2 C 27 D 52 A 77 A
3 A 28 A 53 C 78 B
4 A 29 C 54 A 79 C
5 C 30 D 55 B 80 D
6 X 31 A 56 B 81 C
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 C
8 A 33 B 58 B 83 C
9 C 34 A 59 C 84 B
10 C 35 X 60 A 85 D
11 A 36 D 61 C 86 A
12 D 37 D 62 C 87 B
13 B 38 D 63 A 88 C
14 D 39 C 64 C 89 D
15 B 40 A 65 C 90 C
16 C 41 C 66 B 91 D
17 A 42 C 67 A 92 A
18 C 43 A 68 B 93 C
19 B 44 B 69 A 94 A
20 X 45 D 70 D 95 B
21 C 46 C 71 A 96 D
22 D 47 A 72 D 97 A
23 D 48 A 73 B 98 A
24 B 49 A 74 B 99 D
25 X 50 B 75 B 100 A
Text of page 2
Final Answer Key - Civil Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'B'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 A 26 C 51 D 76 A
2 B 27 A 52 A 77 C
3 C 28 A 53 C 78 A
4 D 29 C 54 D 79 B
5 C 30 X 55 A 80 B
6 C 31 C 56 A 81 A
7 C 32 A 57 B 82 B
8 B 33 C 58 A 83 C
9 D 34 C 59 X 84 A
10 A 35 A 60 D 85 C
11 B 36 D 61 D 86 C
12 C 37 B 62 D 87 A
13 D 38 D 63 C 88 C
14 C 39 B 64 A 89 C
15 D 40 C 65 C 90 B
16 A 41 A 66 C 91 A
17 C 42 C 67 A 92 B
18 A 43 B 68 B 93 A
19 B 44 X 69 D 94 D
20 D 45 C 70 C 95 A
21 A 46 D 71 A 96 D
22 A 47 D 72 A 97 B
23 D 48 B 73 A 98 B
24 A 49 X 74 B 99 B
25 C 50 B 75 A 100 B
Text of page 3
Final Answer Key - Civil Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'C'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 A 26 B 51 C 76 B
2 A 27 A 52 C 77 D
3 C 28 B 53 A 78 A
4 A 29 C 54 A 79 C
5 B 30 D 55 C 80 D
6 B 31 C 56 X 81 A
7 A 32 C 57 C 82 A
8 B 33 C 58 A 83 B
9 C 34 B 59 C 84 A
10 A 35 D 60 C 85 X
11 C 36 A 61 A 86 D
12 C 37 B 62 D 87 D
13 A 38 C 63 B 88 D
14 C 39 D 64 D 89 C
15 C 40 C 65 B 90 A
16 B 41 D 66 C 91 C
17 A 42 A 67 A 92 C
18 B 43 C 68 C 93 A
19 A 44 A 69 B 94 B
20 D 45 B 70 X 95 D
21 A 46 D 71 C 96 C
22 D 47 A 72 D 97 A
23 B 48 A 73 D 98 A
24 B 49 D 74 B 99 A
25 B 50 A 75 X 100 B
Text of page 4
Final Answer Key - Civil Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'D'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 B 26 A 51 B 76 C
2 D 27 A 52 A 77 C
3 A 28 C 53 B 78 A
4 C 29 A 54 C 79 A
5 D 30 B 55 D 80 C
6 A 31 B 56 C 81 X
7 A 32 A 57 C 82 C
8 B 33 B 58 C 83 A
9 A 34 C 59 B 84 C
10 X 35 A 60 D 85 C
11 D 36 C 61 A 86 A
12 D 37 C 62 B 87 D
13 D 38 A 63 C 88 B
14 C 39 C 64 D 89 D
15 A 40 C 65 C 90 B
16 C 41 B 66 D 91 C
17 C 42 A 67 A 92 A
18 A 43 B 68 C 93 C
19 B 44 A 69 A 94 B
20 D 45 D 70 B 95 X
21 C 46 A 71 D 96 C
22 A 47 D 72 A 97 D
23 A 48 B 73 A 98 D
24 A 49 B 74 D 99 B
25 B 50 B 75 A 100 XPage 1 of 16
Source: Haryana Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Haryana Public Service Commission.