KEAM 2026: KEAM B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 1
Text of page 1
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 6/2026/OL
Exam:BPHARM 2026 -1
Date of Test: 18-04-2026
The molarity of an aqueous solution containing 0.4g of NaOH (molar mass=40g/mol) in
1. 250mL of a solution is
A ) 0.04M
B ) 0.02M
C ) 0.20M
D ) 0.40M
E ) 0.08M
Correct Answer : Option A
The series of spectral lines obtained in the ultraviolet region of hydrogen atomic spectrum
2. constitute
A ) Balmer series
B ) Lyman series
C ) Paschen series
D ) Brackett series
E ) Pfund series
Correct Answer : Option B
3. The wave number of an yellow radiation with wavelength 580 nm is
A) 1.724 × 10 � �� ��
�
B ) 1.724 × 10 ��
�
C ) 1.724 × 10 �� ��
�
D ) 1.724 × 10 ��
�
E ) 1.724 × 10 �� ��
Correct Answer : Option E
The wavelength of a fast moving particle (λ) is related to its momentum (p) and Planck’s
4. constant (h) as
A ) λ = ℎ�
�
B) λ=ℎ /�
C) λ=ℎ/�
D) λ = �� / ℎ
E) λ = ℎ / ��
Text of page 2
Correct Answer : Option C
According to the law of triads, the properties of the middle element were in between those
5. of the other two elements. This law was proposed by
A ) Dobereiner
B ) Dimitri Mendeleev
C ) Lothar Mayer
D ) Newlands
E ) Henry Moseley
Correct Answer : Option A
Mendeleev called the undiscovered element after aluminium at his time as Eka-aluminium.
6. What is the present name of the element after its discovery?
A ) Germanium
B ) Indium
C ) Thallium
D ) Molybdenum
E ) Gallium
Correct Answer : Option E
7. Which one of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?
A) Sodium
B ) Caesium
C ) Fluorine
D ) Iodine
E ) Potassium
Correct Answer : Option B
8. Which one of the following molecules has the lowest bond length (in pm)?
A) F2
B ) Cl2
C ) HF
D ) Br2
E ) O2
Correct Answer : Option C
9. The molecule with expanded octet is
A) ozone
B ) nitric oxide
C ) nitrogen dioxide
D ) water
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E) sulphur hexafluoride
Correct Answer : Option E
10. The hybridization involved in the central atom of PCl5 is
A) dsp3
B) sp3d2
C) sp2d2
D) d2sp3
E) sp3d
Correct Answer : Option E
1 g of graphite is burnt completely in excess oxygen at 298K and 1 atmospheric pressure
in a bomb calorimeter. During the reaction, the temperature raises from 298K to 299K. If
11. the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter is 20.7 kJ mol-1, what is the enthalpy of
combustion of C(gr)? (Atomic mass of carbon is 12 g mol-1)
A) -248 kJ mol-1
B) +236 kJ mol-1
C) -236 kJ mol-1
D) +246 kJ mol-1
E) -268 kJ mol-1
Correct Answer : Option A
12. Which of the following is an intensive property?
A) Mass
B ) Volume
C ) Density
D ) Heat capacity
E ) Enthalpy
Correct Answer : Option C
13. The mathematical statement of the first law of thermodynamics with the usual notation is
A) ΔU = w-q
B ) q = ΔU × w
C ) W = q+ΔU
D ) ΔU = q/w
E ) ΔU = q+w
Correct Answer : Option E
+
The pH of an aqueous solution of weak mono acidic base is 11. What is the [H ] of the
14. solution? [pKw = 14]
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A) 1 × 10-11 M
B) 1 × 10-13 M
C) 1 × 10-14 M
D) 1 × 10-3 M
E) 1 × 10-10 M
Correct Answer : Option A
KC for the reaction A(g) + 2B(g) ⇋ C(g) + 2D(g) is 4.0 at 300 K. What is the value of
15.
K’c for the reaction, 2C(g) + 4D(g) ⇋2A(g) + 4B(g) at 300 K?
A ) 8.0
B ) 1/8
C ) 1/2
D ) 16
E ) 1/16
Correct Answer : Option E
16. In which of the following compound oxygen is in -1 oxidation state?
A) Water
B ) Manganese dioxide
C ) Hydrogen peroxide
D ) Carbon dioxide
E ) Potassium nitrate
Correct Answer : Option C
Which of the following half-cell reaction has the most negative standard electrode
17. potential?
A) Li+ (aq)+ e-→ Li(s)
B) F2(g) +2e- → 2F-(aq)
C) Na+(aq) + e-→ Na(s)
D) I2(aq) + 2e-→2I-(aq)
E) Cu+(aq) + e- → Cu(s)
Correct Answer : Option A
The limiting molar conductance for aqueous solution of CaCl2at 298K is 271.6
18. S cm2 mol-1. If the limiting ionic conductance of Ca2+ ion at the same temperature is 119 S
cm2 mol-1 what is the limiting ionic conductance of Cl- ion?
A) 152.6 S cm2 mol-1
B) 76.3 S cm2 mol-1
C) 135.8 S cm2 mol-1
D) 228.7 S cm2 mol-1
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E) 114.35 S cm2 mol-1
Correct Answer : Option B
Which of the following aqueous non-electrolyte solution will produce the highest freezing
19. point if 20g of the solute is dissolved in 1000g of water?
A) Sucrose
B ) Glycerol
C ) Ethanol
D ) Glucose
E ) Methanol
Correct Answer : Option A
20. Isotonic solutions have identical
A) boiling point
B ) freezing point
C ) vapour pressure
D ) osmotic pressure
E ) lowering of vapour pressure
Correct Answer : Option D
21. Which of the following is a first order reaction?
A) Decomposition of ammonia on Pt surface at high temperature.
B ) Hydrogenation of ethene to ethane.
C ) Decomposition of HI on gold surface.
D ) Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in the presence of NaOH.
E ) Oxidation of KI by peroxy disulphate.
Correct Answer : Option B
The units of rate constants of two reactions I and II are respectively mol-1 L s-1 and mol
22. -1 -1
L s . Then,
A ) reaction I is first order and reaction II is second order.
B ) reaction I is second order and reaction II is first order.
C ) reaction I is first order and reaction II is zero order.
D ) reaction I is zero order and reaction II is first order.
E ) reaction I is second order and reaction II is zero order.
Correct Answer : Option E
A first order reaction is 75% completed in 1000 s at 300 K. What is its half-life period at
23. 300 K?
A) 500 s
B ) 250 s
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C) 750 s
D ) 230 s
E ) 800 s
Correct Answer : Option A
24. The first transition series metal that exhibits only +2,+3,+4 and +6 oxidation states is
A) Cr
B ) Mn
C ) Fe
D ) Co
E ) Ni
Correct Answer : Option C
The calculated magnetic moment of two dipositive ions of 3d series element is 4.9 BM. The
25. ions are
A) Ti2+ and Sc2+
B) Mn2+ and Cr2+
C) V2+ and Ti2+
D) Cr2+ and Fe2+
E)
Fe2+ and Ni2+
Correct Answer : Option D
The substance used to convert sodium chromate to sodium dichromate in one of the
26. stages of preparation of potassium dichromate is
A) H2O2
B) KClO3
C) NaOH
D ) Na2CO3
E) H2SO4
Correct Answer : Option E
27. [Ag(NCS)2]- and [Ag(SCN)2]- are
A) coordination isomers
B)
ionisation isomers
C ) linkage isomers
D ) solvate isomers
E ) optical isomers
Correct Answer : Option C
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28. The type of hybridisation of Co in [CoF6]3- complex ion is
A) dsp2
B) sp3d2
C) d2sp3
D) sp2d
E) sp3
Correct Answer : Option B
The IUPAC name of the following alkane is
29. CH3-CH2-CH(C2H5)-CH2-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3
A) 3-methyl-5-ethylheptane
B ) 3,5-diethylhexane
C ) 4,6-diethylhexane
D ) 3-ethyl-5-methylheptane
E)
3-ethyl-5,6-dimethylhexane
Correct Answer : Option D
An organic compound is heated with Na2O2 then boiled with HNO3. The solution is then
30. treated with ammonium molybdate. The yellow precipitate obtained is due to the presence
of the element
A ) nitrogen
B ) sulphur
C ) phosphorus
D ) carbon
E ) molybdenum
Correct Answer : Option C
CH I cannot be prepared by direct iodination of methane as the reaction is slow and
3
31. reversible. However, it can be prepared by carrying out the reaction in the presence of
A) H2SO4
B) NaOH
C ) HCl
D ) H3PO4
E) HIO3
Correct Answer : Option E
32. One mole of an alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of propanone. What is the alkene?
A) 1,3-Butadiene
B ) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
C ) 2,3-Dimethyl-1-butene
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D) 2-Methyl-1-butene
E ) 2-Methyl-1,3-butadiene
Correct Answer : Option B
33. Choose the Swarts reaction in the following:
A) CH3OH + PCl5→ CH3Cl +POCl3 + HCl
B) 2CH3Cl+ 2Na→ C2H6+ 2NaCl
C) CH3Br + AgF→ CH3F + AgBr
D) CH3Cl + NaI→ CH3I + NaCl
E)
CH3I + CH3ONa → CH3-O-CH3 + NaI
Correct Answer : Option C
34. Which of the following is a gas at 300K?
A) Chloroethane
B ) Bromoethane
C ) Iodoethane
D ) 1-Chloropropane
E)
1-Bromopropane
Correct Answer : Option A
Reimer-Tiemann reaction using CHCl3 and aq.NaOH involves the conversion of phenol
35. into
A) benzene
B ) salicylic acid
C ) anisole
D ) chlorobenzene
E ) salicylaldehyde
Correct Answer : Option E
When a mixture of CO and H is heated at 573 K-673 K under 200-300 atmospheric
36. pressure in the presence of a2catalyst, methanol is produced. The catalyst used is
A) Pt-BaSO4
B) ZnO- Cr2O3
C) Ni-Cr2O3
D) Pd-BaSO4
E) CuO-Cr2O3
Correct Answer : Option B
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37. 2-Methylpropene is obtained when sodium methoxide reacts with
A) n-butyl bromide
B ) n-propyl bromide
C ) sec-butyl bromide
D ) isopropyl bromide
E ) tert-butyl bromide
Correct Answer : Option E
38. Which of the following compound undergoes aldol condensation?
A) Methanal
B ) Phenylmethanal
C ) 2,2-Dimethylpropanal
D ) Ethanal
E ) Acetophenone
Correct Answer : Option D
When benzoyl chloride is treated with H2 in the presence of Pd-BaSO4, benzaldehyde is
39. formed. This reaction is called
A) Clemmensen reduction
B ) Wolff-Kischner reduction
C ) Rosenmund reduction
D ) Cannizaro reaction
E ) Williamson reaction
Correct Answer : Option C
40. The aldehyde that does not respond to Fehling’s test is
A) methanal
B ) ethanal
C ) propanal
D ) butanal
E ) phenylmethanal
Correct Answer : Option E
41. Which of the following amine has the highest boiling point?
A) CH3CH2NH2
B) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2
C) (C2H5)2NH
D) (CH3)2NC2H5
E) CH3CH2CH2NH2
Correct Answer : Option B
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When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with Cu and HBr, bromobenzene, N2 and
42. CuCl are obtained. This reaction is called
A) Hoffmann reaction
B ) Gabriel reaction
C ) Sandmeyer reaction
D ) Gatterman reaction
E ) Hinsberg’s reaction
Correct Answer : Option D
Aniline reacts with acetic anhydride in pyridine to give a product which reacts with Br2 in
43. CH COOH to get
3
A) o-bromoaniline
B ) p-bromoaniline
C ) p-bromoacetanilide
D ) o-bromoacetanilide
E)
m-bromoacetanilide
Correct Answer : Option C
Which among the following proteins are globular proteins?
44. (i) Keratin (ii) Insulin
(iii) Albumin (iv) Myosin
Choose the correct answer from the following choices;
A ) (i), (ii) & (iii)
B ) (i) & (iv)
C ) (ii) & (iii)
D ) (i) & (ii)
E ) (iii) & (iv)
Correct Answer : Option C
45. Which of the following acid is a vitamin?
A) Aspartic acid
B ) Glutamic acid
C ) Saccharic acid
D ) Ascorbic acid
E ) Valine
Correct Answer : Option D
46. Which one of the following physical quantities has dimensions?
A) Strain
B ) Poisson’s ratio
C ) Angle
D ) Gravitational constant
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E) Relative density
Correct Answer : Option D
A bus covers half of the total distance with a speed of 30 kmh-1and other half with a speed
47.
of 60 kmh-1 .The average speed during the total journey is
A) 35 kmh-1
B) 40 kmh-1
C) 45 kmh-1
D) 42 kmh-1
E) 50 kmh-1
Correct Answer : Option B
-2
If a body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of 2 ms , then the distance
48. covered between the time intervals 5 s and 6 s is
A) 8m
B ) 15 m
C ) 11 m
D ) 18 m
E) 6m
Correct Answer : Option C
49. FALSE statement about third law of motion is
A) Forces in nature always occur between pairs of bodies
B)
→ →
If � is a force on body A by body B then - � is the force on B by body A
C ) Action and reaction forces are simultaneous forces
D ) Any of the two mutual forces can be called action and the other reaction
E ) There is cause-effect relation between action and reaction
Correct Answer : Option E
A cyclist speeding at a velocity � on a level road takes a sharp circular turn of radius R. If µ
50. is the static friction between the tyres and road, then the condition for the cyclist not to slip
is
A) �� ≥ μ �
B ) � � ≤ μ ��
C ) � ≤ μ ��
��
D) �=
�
� ��
E) � ≥
�
Correct Answer : Option B
Text of page 12
→ →
51. If � and � represent the applied force and displacement of an object, then the work done
is
A) → →
zero if � and � are in the same direction
B)
→ →
maximum if � and � are at right angles to each other
C)
→ →
the area under the graph between � and �
D)
→ →
positive if the angle � and � is obtuse
E)
→ →
negative if the angle between � and � acute
Correct Answer : Option C
If a body at rest undergoes displacement under the action of force with constant
52. acceleration, then the power delivered by the force at any time t is proportional to
A) �
B) √�
C) ��
�
D)
�
E ) ��
Correct Answer : Option A
If a ring of mass 50 g and radius 2cm is rolling on a smooth horizontal platform with its
53. centre of mass moving with a speed of 50 cms-1, then its total energy is
A) 1.0 × 10 �� �
B ) 1.25 × 10
��
�
C ) 2.5 × 10
��
�
D ) 3.5 × 10
��
�
E ) 1.5 × 10
��
�
Correct Answer : Option B
54. A couple produces a
A) linear motion
B ) translational motion
C ) vibrational motion
D ) rotational motion
E ) both rotational and vibrational motion
Correct Answer : Option D
The ratio of the escape velocities from the surface of two planets having densities and radii
55. in the ratio 2 : 1 and 1 : 2 respectively is
Text of page 13
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 1 : √2
D) 1 :√3
E) 1:4
Correct Answer : Option C
If a cylinder is stretched by two equal forces applied normal to its cross-section, then the
56. restoring force per unit area is called
A) tensile stress
B ) tangential stress
C ) shearing stress
D ) compressive stress
E ) transvers stress
Correct Answer : Option A
If the gauge pressure at a point well inside a liquid of density ρ in a tank is � , then the
57. depth of the point from the surface of the liquid is (atmospheric pressure is P)
���
A)
��
���
B)
��
�
C)
��
�
D)
��
��
E)
��
Correct Answer : Option D
If Cv is the specific heat capacity at constant volume of a gas, then the amount of heat
58. required to increase the temperature of 2 moles of the gas from 27 0C to 127 0C at
constant volume is
A ) 100 Cv
B) 50 Cv
C) 500 Cv
D) 300Cv
E) 200Cv
Correct Answer : Option E
59. The INCORRECT assumption in the kinetic theory of gases is
A) Interactions between molecules is negligible
B ) Collisions between molecules are elastic in nature
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C) Molecules move in straight lines between any two collisions
D ) During collisions total kinetic energy is not conserved
E ) Gas molecules are in incessant random motion
Correct Answer : Option D
When a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz is sounded together with unknown tuning fork, 4
60. beats are heard in one second. The frequency of the unknown tuning fork can be
A) 260 Hz or 252 Hz
B ) 258 Hz or 256 Hz
C ) 250 Hz or 256 Hz
D ) 248 Hz or 255 Hz
E ) 257 Hz or 215 Hz
Correct Answer : Option A
61. The magnitude and direction of acceleration change in the case of an object
A) executing simple harmonic motion
B ) in circular motion at constant speed
C ) falling under gravity from lower altitudes
D ) falling under gravity from higher altitudes
E ) falling in a viscous liquid medium
Correct Answer : Option A
If � electrons from a neutral solid sphere are transferred to another solid sphere having �
62. electrons(� >� ), then the charges on the respective spheres are (� = charge of an
electron)
A ) +ne and -(m-n)e
B ) -ne and +(m-n)e
C ) +ne and +(m-n)e
D ) +ne and -(m+n)e
E ) -ne and -(m+n)e
Correct Answer : Option D
An isolated capacitor of capacitance 100 µF is charged to 32 C. If 16 C of charge is
63. discharged from it, then its capacitance value is
A) 50 µF
B ) 100 µF
C ) 5 µF
D ) 200 µF
E ) 32 µF
Correct Answer : Option B
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In an electric circuit, if 2A , 5 A and 4 A are the currents entering a junction and Ix , 2A
64. and 3A are the currents leaving the junction, then the current value I is
x
A) 2A
B ) 3A
C ) 4A
D ) 5A
E ) 6A
Correct Answer : Option E
If three tube lights with power 10 W, 25 W and 50 W are connected in parallel to a source
65. voltage V, then the effective power of the combination is
A) 8W
B ) 85 W
C ) 28.3 W
D ) 50 W
E ) 6.25 W
Correct Answer : Option B
The current that has to pass through a single circular loop of radius 10 cm to produce a
66. magnetic field of µ0 tesla at its centre is
A) 1A
B ) 0.2 A
C ) 0.4A
D ) 0. 5A
E ) 0.3A
Correct Answer : Option B
67. As temperature increases, at Curie temperature
A) paramagnet becomes ferromagnet
B ) diamagnet becomes ferromagnet
C ) diamagnet becomes paramagnet
D ) ferromagnet becomes paramagnet
E ) ferromagnet becomes diamagnet
Correct Answer : Option D
68. In a transformer circuit it is possible to
A) increase ac current
B ) increase ac power
C ) increase ac voltage
D ) decrease ac current
E)
decrease ac voltage
Text of page 16
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Identify the two electromagnetic waves A and B having respective wavelengths 2 cm and
69. 580 nm
A ) A is microwave and B is visible light
B ) A is infrared and B is ultraviolet ray
C ) A is radio wave and B is visible light
D ) A is infrared and B is visible light
E ) A is radio wave and B ultraviolet ray
Correct Answer : Option A
If a thin lens of focal length 20 cm is in contact with another lens of power 4 D, then the
70. effective power of the combination is
A) 9D
B) 6D
C) 5D
D ) 10 D
E ) 11 D
Correct Answer : Option A
The optical elements are matched with their optical phenomenon. The FALSE match is
71.
A) Optical fibre : Total internal reflection
B ) Thin plastic sheets : Polarization
C ) Glass prism : Dispersion
D ) Concave mirror : Interference
E)
Glass slab : Refraction
Correct Answer : Option D
72. If the de Broglie wavelengths of proton p and alpha particle α are same, then
A) both have same momentum
B ) both have same energy
C ) momentum of p is twice that of α
D)
momentum of α is twice that of p
E ) energy of p is twice that of α
Correct Answer : Option A
73. Nucleons in nucleus are bound by
A) electromagnetic forces
B ) electrostatic forces
C ) long-range nuclear forces
D ) short-range nuclear forces
Text of page 17
E) gravitational forces
Correct Answer : Option D
The angular momentum and the energy of the electron in the second Bohr’s orbit are
74. respectively
�
A) and -13.6 eV
�
��
B) and -1.5 eV
�
�
C) and -3.4eV
�
�
D) and - 3.4 eV
��
��
E) and -3.4 Ev
�
Correct Answer : Option C
75. The INCORRECT statement is
A) The lattice structure of Ge is called diamond like structure
B ) The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of Si is 4
C ) The energy band gap of semiconductors is less than 3 eV
D ) The number of free electrons is equal to number of holes in Ge
E ) The energy band gap of Ge is greater than 4 eV
Correct Answer : Option E
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Source: Commissioner for Entrance Examinations. Question paper published by Commissioner for Entrance Examinations.