Machine-translated by Google. Questions are authored in English.
Top

KEAM 2026: KEAM B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3

  • Date: 20 April 2026
  • Paper code: 10/2026/OL
  • Language: English
  • 18 pages
KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 1 of 18
Page 1 of 18
Text of page 1
FINAL ANSWER KEY
                                  Question Paper Code: 10/2026/OL
                                      Exam:BPHARM 2026 -3
                                      Date of Test: 20-04-2026


1.    The percentage composition of carbon in methane is
 A)  20 %
 B ) 25 %
 C ) 75 %
 D ) 80 %
 E ) 33.3 %


      Correct Answer : Option A


2.    Which of the following d-orbital does not have four lobes?
 A)    dxy
 B)    dyz
 C)    dxz
 D)    dx2-y2
 E)    dZ 2

      Correct Answer : Option E


3.    Which of the following statement is incorrect?
      The square of the wave function at a point gives the probability density of the electron at
 A)
     that point.
      For 1s orbital the probability density is maximum at the nucleus and it increases sharply as
 B)
     we move away from it.
      For 2s orbital the probability density first decreases sharply to zero and again starts
 C)
     increasing.
 D ) Node is the region where the probability density function of electron reduces to zero.
 E ) The number of nodes for 3s orbital is 2.


      Correct Answer : Option B

     The set of elements which has exceptional electronic configurations not obeying Aufbau
4.   principle is
 A ) K, Ca, Cr & Cu
 B ) Ca, Cr, Nb & Cu
 C ) Ca, Cr, Ag & Cu
 D ) Cr, Cu, Ag & Ru
 E ) Na, Rh, Cr & Cu


      Correct Answer : Option D

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 2 of 18
Page 2 of 18
Text of page 2
The correct increasing order of the ionic radii of the isoelectronic species O2-, N3-, F-,
5.
      Mg2+, Na+ and Al3+ is
 A)    O2- < N3- < F-< Mg2+ < Na+ < Al3+
 B)    Al3+ < N3-< F- < Mg2+ < Na+ <O2-
 C)    Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- < O2- < N3-
 D)    F- < O2- < N3- < Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+
 E)    O2- < N3- < F- < Mg2+ < Al3+ <Na+

      Correct Answer : Option C


6.    The IUPAC symbol of the element with atomic number 110 is
 A)  Unh
 B ) Uun
 C ) Uue
 D ) Unq
 E ) Uus


      Correct Answer : Option B

      Four elements and their electronegativity values (Pauling Scale) are given below. Match
      the element with its electronegativity value.


      Atom                                Electronegativity value
7.    Rb                               (a) 1.0
      Na                               (b) 0.8
      I                                (c) 3.0
      Cl                                (d) 2.5
                                         (e) 0.9
 A ) (i)-(b), (ii)-(e), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
 B ) (i)-(e), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
 C ) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(e)
 D ) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(b)
 E ) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)


      Correct Answer : Option A

     The number and type of bonds between nitrogen and three oxygen atoms in HNO3 by
8.   Lewis representation is
 A ) one pi (π) and 3 sigma (σ) bonds
 B ) one pi (π) and 2 sigma (σ) bonds
 C ) two pi (π) and 3 sigma (σ) bonds
 D ) one pi (π) and 4 sigma (σ) bonds
 E ) two pi (π) and 2 sigma (σ) bonds


      Correct Answer : Option D

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 3 of 18
Page 3 of 18
Text of page 3
9.    Which of the following set of compounds does not follow octet rule?
 A)    SCl2, PF5 and SF6
 B)    CH4, PF5 and SF6
 C)    PF5, H2SO4 and SF6
 D)    PF5, H2SO4 and SCl2
 E)    SCl2, H2SO4 and SF6

      Correct Answer : Option C


10. Which of the following statement is NOT the postulate of VSEPR theory?
     Where two or more resonance structures can represent a molecule, the VSEPR model is
 A)
    not applicable to any such structure.
     A multiple bond is treated as if it is a single electron pair and the two or three electron
 B)
    pairs of a multiple bond are treated as a single super pair.
     The shape of a molecule depends upon the number of valence shell electron pairs around
 C)
    the central atom.
     Pairs of electrons in the valence shell repel one another since their electron clouds are
 D)
    negatively charged.

 E ) The valence shell is taken as a sphere with the electron pairs localising on the spherical
      surface at maximum distance from one another.

      Correct Answer : Option A

      An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a constant external pressure of
11. 1 bar. The work done is [1 bar = 100 J]
 A)  -9.0 kJ
 B ) -0.9 kJ
 C ) +10.0 kJ
 D ) +0.1 kJ
 E ) -2.0 kJ


      Correct Answer : Option B

    For the equilibrium � ⇋ � what is the value of log10K at 298 K?
12. (Δ H˚ = -54.07 kJ mol-1, Δ S˚ = 10 JK-1 and 2.303 RT = 5705)
         r                        r
 A)  10
 B) 5
 C ) 90
 D ) 95
 E ) 100


      Correct Answer : Option A


13. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
 A)    Melting of a solid is endothermic, so all enthalpies of fusion are positive.

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 4 of 18
Page 4 of 18
Text of page 4
The magnitude of enthalpy change depends on the strength of the intermolecular
 B)
     interactions in the substance undergoing the phase transformations.
 C ) Sublimation is a direct conversion of a solid into its vapour.
      The formation of calcium carbonate from calcium oxide and carbon dioxide is an
 D)
     endothermic reaction.

 E ) The reference state of an element is its most stable state of aggregation at 25˚C and 1 bar
      pressure.

      Correct Answer : Option D


      At equilibrium, [N ] = 1.5 × 10-3M, [O ] = 2 × 10-3M and [NO] = 3 × 10-3M at 800 K in a
                     2                   2
14. closed vessel. The K for the equilibrium N (g) + O (g) ⇌ NO(g) at 800 K is
                            c                    2        2
 A)  1.0
 B ) 0.3
 C ) 2.0
 D ) 4.0
 E ) 3.0


      Correct Answer : Option E

      In which of the following equilibrium reaction, pressure does not influence the equilibrium
15. at constant temperature?
 A)    H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
 B)    N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
 C)    PCl2(g) ⇌     PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
 D)    2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌        2SO3(g)
 E)    2N2O5(g) ⇌      4NO2(g) + O2(g)

      Correct Answer : Option A


16. The oxidation number of oxygen in O2, O2F2 and RbO2 are respectively
 A)  0, +1, +2
 B ) 0, +2, -1/2
 C ) 0, +1, -1/2
 D ) 0, 0, +1/2
 E ) 0,-1, -1/2


      Correct Answer : Option C


17. Using stock notation, match the oxidation number against metal in its compound.
       Compound        Oxidation Number of the metal
       MnO             (a) IV
       MnO2             (b) II
       Fe2O3            (c) I

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 5 of 18
Page 5 of 18
Text of page 5
Tl2O                (d) III
 A)  (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
 B ) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
 C ) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
 D ) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
 E ) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)


      Correct Answer : Option A


    100 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.5 g of the protein. The osmotic
               of such a solution at 300 K is found to be 4.5 × 10-3 bar. The molar mass of the
18. pressure
    protein is
    [R = 0.083 lit atm mol-1 K-1]
 A)    8.3 × 105 g mol-1
 B)    4.15 × 104 g mol-1
 C)    8.3 × 103 g mol-1
 D)    8.3 × 104 g mol-1
 E)    4.15 × 104 g mol-1

      Correct Answer : Option D


19. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
 A)
     Colligative properties are used to determine the molar mass of solutes and solvent.
 B ) Azeotropes arise due to very large deviations from Raoult’s law.
 C ) The colligative properties of solutions are independent of their chemical identity of solute.
 D ) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.
 E ) The colligative properties of solutions depend on the number of solute particles.


      Correct Answer : Option A


20. The salt which has van’t Hoff factor (i) as 1.82 in 0.001 m aqueous solution is
 A)    K2SO4
 B)    MgSO4
 C)  KCl
 D ) NaCl
 E ) HCl


      Correct Answer : Option B

      A first order reaction is completed 99% in 20 minutes at 300 K. What is the half-life period
21. of the reaction at the same temperature?
 A)  2 min
 B ) 1 min
 C ) 3 min

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 6 of 18
Page 6 of 18
Text of page 6
D)  0.5 min
 E ) 0.4 min


      Correct Answer : Option A

      At 300 K a first order reaction is 50 % completed in 10 minutes. What is the rate constant
22. value of the reaction at this temperature? (log 2 = 0.3)
 A)    1.15 × 10-1 s-1
 B)    2.15 × 10-1 s-1
 C)    1.15 × 10-2 s-1
 D)    2.15 × 10-3 s-1

 E)
      1.15 × 10-3 s-1

      Correct Answer : Option E

      For the elementary reaction, M→N, the rate of disappearance of ‘M’ increases by a factor
23. of 8 upon doubling the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M is
 A) 1
 B) 2
 C) 3
 D) 4
 E) 5


      Correct Answer : Option C


24. The pair of elements that has similar atomic radii is
 A)  Mo and W
 B ) Ti and La
 C ) Ag and Ni
 D ) Mn and Os
 E ) V and W


      Correct Answer : Option A


25. Which of the following lanthanide ion is coloured?
 A)    La3+
 B)    Lu3+
 C)    Gd3+
 D)    Sm3+
 E)    Yb2+

      Correct Answer : Option D

      A compound of manganese that has intense colour, diamagnetic and temperature
26. dependent weak paramagnetic. What is the compound?

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 7 of 18
Page 7 of 18
Text of page 7
A)    K2MnO4
 B)    MnO2
 C)    KMnO4
 D)  MnO
 E ) Mn2O3


      Correct Answer : Option C


27. Which one of the statements is not the limitation of valence bond theory of complexes?
 A)  It does not give a quantitative interpretation of the thermodynamic stabilities.
 B ) It does not give quantitative interpretation of magnetic properties..
 C ) It explains the colour exhibited by coordination compounds.
 D ) It does not distinguish between weak and strong ligands.


 E ) It does not make exact predictions regarding the tetrahedral structures of 4-coordinated
      complexes.

      Correct Answer : Option C


28. The IUPAC name of the complex [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 is
 A)  Pentaamminenitritocobalt (III) chloride
 B ) Pentaamminenitritocobalt (II) chloride
 C ) Pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) chloride
 D ) O-Nitritopentaamminecobalt (III) chloride
 E ) Pentaamminemononitritocobalt (III) chloride


      Correct Answer : Option A

     Which of the following method/s is/are used in the estimation of nitrogen in organic
     compounds?
      (i) Carius method
29. (ii) Dumas method
      (iii) Silver salt method
                  (iv) Kjeldhal method
 A ) (i) only
 B ) (ii) and (iii)
 C ) (iii) and (iv)
 D ) (ii) and (iv)
 E ) (i) and (iii)


      Correct Answer : Option D

      On treating the sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside, the blood red colour is
30. formed due to the formation of
 A)  PbS
 B ) NaCN
 C ) SCN

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 8 of 18
Page 8 of 18
Text of page 8
D)    [Fe(SCN)]2+
 E)    [Fe(CN)5NOS]4-

      Correct Answer : Option D


31. Which one of the following reaction is called Kolbe’s method?
 A)  Hydrogenation of propyne with Pt/Pd/Ni
 B ) Chlorination of chloroform.
 C ) Treatment of alkyl halides with sodium metal in dry ethereal solution.
 D ) Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium carboxylates.
 E ) Isomerization of n-hexane to 2-methylpentane in presence of anhy.AlCl3/ HCl.


      Correct Answer : Option D


32. Dodecane, a constituent of kerosene oil on heating to 973 K in the presence of nickel gives
 A)  pentane and hexane
 B ) hexane and butane
 C ) heptane and pentene
 D ) heptene and pentane
 E ) heptane and pentane


      Correct Answer : Option C

      Heating of 2-chloro-1-phenyl butane with EtOK/EtOH gives ‘X’ as the major product. The
33. reaction of ‘X’ with HBr gives ‘Y’ as the major product. The ‘Y’ is
 A)  1-bromo-2-phenyl butane
 B ) 1-bromo-1-phenyl butane
 C ) 3-bromo-1-phenyl butane
 D ) 1-phenyl -1-butene
 E ) 2-phenyl but-1-ene


      Correct Answer : Option B

      The boiling points of organohalogen compounds are comparatively higher than the
34. corresponding hydrocarbons because of
 A)  electrostatic attraction
 B ) covalent bonding
 C ) weak dipole-dipole interaction
 D ) dipole-induced dipole interaction
 E ) strong dipole-dipole interaction and van der Waals forces of attraction


      Correct Answer : Option E


35. The O-H bond length in methanol is
 A)  109 pm
 B ) 136 pm

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 9 of 18
Page 9 of 18
Text of page 9
C)  96 pm
 D ) 141 pm
 E ) 142 pm


      Correct Answer : Option C


36. Which of the following reaction is reversible?
 A)  Acid catalysed esterification of acetic acid with methanol.
 B ) Reaction between phenol and acid chloride in presence of pyridine.
 C ) Acid catalysed reaction between acetic anhydride and salicylic acid.
 D ) Dehydration of tertiary butyl alcohol with 20% H3PO4 at 358 K.

 E)
      Dehydration of ethanol with H2SO4 at 443 K.

      Correct Answer : Option A

      The products A, B & C from the following reactions are respectively


37.


 A)  aspirin, salicylic acid and benzene
 B ) 2-hydroxybezoic acid, salicylaldehyde and quinol
 C ) salicylic acid, quinone and cyclohexanone
 D ) salicylaldehyde, benzene and cyclohexanol

 E)
      2-hydroxybezoic acid, benzene and benzoquinone

      Correct Answer : Option E

      The IUPAC name of the following compound is

38.


 A)  2-Methylpent-2-en-2-one
 B ) 3-Methylpent-2-en-2-one
 C ) 4-Methylpent-2-en-3-one
 D ) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
 E ) 1,1-Dimethylbuten-2-one


      Correct Answer : Option D


39. Match the following:

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 10 of 18
Page 10 of 18
Text of page 10
A)  (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
 B ) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(e)
 C ) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
 D ) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

 E)
      (i)-(c), (ii)-(e), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

      Correct Answer : Option D


40. The HVZ reaction involves the
 A)  conversion of carboxylic acid into primary alcohol
 B ) conversion of carboxylic acid into α-halo acid
 C ) conversion of acetic acid into acetamide
 D ) conversion of acetic acid into methane
 E ) conversion of acetic acid into acetyl chloride


      Correct Answer : Option B


41. Which one of the following compounds is strongly basic in aqueous medium?
 A)  Benzenamine
 B ) N-ethylethanamine
 C ) Phenylmethanamine
 D ) N,N-Dimethylbenzenamine
 E ) Ammonia


      Correct Answer : Option B


42. The correct formula of Hinsberg’s reagent is
 A)    C6H5SO2Cl
 B)    C6H5SOCl
 C)    C6H5SOCl2
 D)    C6H5SO3Cl
 E)    C6H5SO2Cl2

      Correct Answer : Option A


43. Which of the following reaction yieldstarry oxidation products?

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 11 of 18
Page 11 of 18
Text of page 11
A)  Sulphonation of aniline
 B ) Nitration of aniline
 C ) Firedel-Crafts alkylation aniline
 D ) Firedel-Crafts alkylation of aniline
 E ) Bromination of aniline


      Correct Answer : Option B


44. Which of the following is a water insoluble carbohydrate?
 A)  Sucrose
 B ) Maltose
 C ) Amylose
 D ) Amylopectin
 E ) Lactose


      Correct Answer : Option D


45. Which of the following set of amino acids have one letter code as F and Q ?
 A)  Glutamine and Leucine
 B ) Arginine and Leucine
 C ) Phenylalanine and Tryptophan
 D ) Glutamic acid andProline
 E ) Phenylalanine and Glutamine


      Correct Answer : Option E

                                                                �
      The displacement of a particle is given by � = �� + �� �      where t has dimensions, T and
46.                                            �
      a and b are constants. The dimensions of   are:
                                               �
 A)    T -2
 B) T -1
 C) T

 D)    T1/2
 E)    T -1/2

      Correct Answer : Option E


47. The velocity (v) – time (t) graph of a particle cuts the time axis, then the particle
 A)  has maximum displacement at that instant
 B ) reverses its direction of motion at that instant
 C ) has a constant velocity throughoutits motion
 D ) has maximum acceleration at that point

 E)
      has maximum velocity at that instant

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 12 of 18
Page 12 of 18
Text of page 12
Correct Answer : Option B

     Two particles A and B at rest initially, start to move simultaneously along the same straight
48. line, A with constant velocity 5 ms-1 and B with constant acceleration, 2 ms-2 . Then the
     time after which B overtakes A is
 A) 5s
 B ) 10 s
 C ) 15 s
 D ) 20 s
 E ) 25 s


      Correct Answer : Option A

      A particle of mass m tied to a string of length r is whirled in a vertical circle. Its minimum
49. speed at the bottom is
       ���
 A)
        �
 B)  �9��
 C ) �3��

 D)  �2��
 E ) �5��


      Correct Answer : Option E

                                                    −1 and rebounds with 8 ms−1. The impulse
50. 0.2 kg ball strikes a wall with velocity10 ms
    delivered by the ball is
 A)  0.4 Ns
 B ) 3.6 Ns
 C ) 1.4 Ns
 D ) 1.8 Ns
 E ) 16.0 Ns


      Correct Answer : Option B

                                              2
    A particle moves under a force F = 3x N . The work done by the force on the particle in
51. displacing it from x=0 to x=2m is
 A)  12 J
 B) 3J
 C) 6J
 D) 8J
 E ) 15 J


      Correct Answer : Option D

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 13 of 18
Page 13 of 18
Text of page 13
The power of a motor pump delivering water at a constant speed through a hose of radius
52. r is P. If the radius of the hose is doubled, then the power of the pump becomes
 A)  P
 B ) 2P
 C ) 4P
 D ) 8P
 E ) 16P


      Correct Answer : Option C

      Two particles of masses m and 2m kept 1 m apart are attracted to each other by
53. gravitational force. The acceleration of their centre of mass is (G = gravitational constant)
 A)  Gm
 B ) 2Gm
 C ) 3Gm
 D)  Gm2
 E ) zero


      Correct Answer : Option E

      If a thin uniform circular ring and a thin uniform circular disc have the same mass and
54. radius, then the ratio of their moments of inertia about their central axes normal to their
    planes is
 A) 3:2
 B) 2:3
 C) 1:4
 D) 1:2
 E) 2:1


      Correct Answer : Option E


55. The angular speed of a geostationary satellite (in rad h-1) is
        �
 A)
       ���
       �
 B)
       ��
       �
 C)
       ��
       �
 D)
       ��
       �
 E)
       ��

      Correct Answer : Option C


56. The terminal velocity of a small steel ball of radius r falling in a fluid is proportional to
 A) �

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 14 of 18
Page 14 of 18
Text of page 14
B)  ��
 C ) ��
    �
 D)
    �
    �
 E)
    ��

      Correct Answer : Option C


57. Hydrostatic pressure at a depth of a liquid in a container depends on
 A)  shape of container
 B ) total volume of the liquid
 C ) area of base of the container
 D ) density of the liquid and the depth
 E ) total mass of the liquid


      Correct Answer : Option D

      Carnot engine operates between temperatures, 600 K and 300 K. If it absorbs 1200 J of
58. heat from source, the work done by the engine is
 A)  6000 J
 B ) 3600 J
 C ) 2400 J
 D ) 1200 J
 E ) 600 J


      Correct Answer : Option E

      The temperature at which the rms speed of oxygen molecules becomes equal to the rms
59. speed of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is:
 A)  4800 K
 B ) 2400 K
 C ) 1200 K
 D ) 600 K
 E ) 300 K


      Correct Answer : Option A

      A particle executes SHM with a time period T. If its maximum acceleration is doubled
60. keeping the amplitude constant, its new time period is
 A)  �
 B ) 2�
    �
 C)
    �
     �
 D)
    √�
 E)    √2�

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 15 of 18
Page 15 of 18
Text of page 15
Correct Answer : Option D

      A string of length L fixed at both ends vibrates in third harmonic. The distance between
61. consecutive nodes is
 A)    �
    �
 B)
    �
    �
 C)
    �
    ��
 D)
    �
 E)    2�

      Correct Answer : Option C

      If the air-core medium is replaced by a dielectric of dielectric constant 'k' in an air-core
62. parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 'C', its new capacitance becomes
    �
 A)
    �
    �
 B)
    ��
 C)  �
 D ) ��
        �

 E ) ��


      Correct Answer : Option E


63. Electric-flux through a closed surface depends on the
 A)  shape of the surface
 B ) area of the surface
 C ) volume of the surface
 D ) electric field outside the surface
 E ) charge enclosed by the surface


      Correct Answer : Option E

      If a current of 2 A flows through a wire of length 1 m for 1 min, the charge flowing through
64. it during this time is
 A)  1C
 B ) 2C
 C ) 10C
 D ) 60C
 E ) 120C


      Correct Answer : Option E

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 16 of 18
Page 16 of 18
Text of page 16
65. If the length of a uniform metallic wire is halved and its radius is doubled, its resistivity is
 A)  halved
 B ) unchanged
 C ) doubled
 D ) tripled
 E ) quadrupled


      Correct Answer : Option B

      A wire of length 0.5 m carrying current 4 A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of
66. 0.2 T. The force exerted on the wire is
 A)  0.1 N
 B ) 0.2 N
 C ) 0.4 N
 D ) 0.6 N
 E ) 1.0 N


      Correct Answer : Option C

      If a bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to its
67. length then its new magnetic moment is
 A)    �
       �
 B)
       �
 C)    2�
       �
 D)
       �
 E)    4�

      Correct Answer : Option B

                                  2
68. An AC circuit with R= 2π Ω and L=0.02 π H powered with an a.c. source of frequency 50
    Hz has an impedance of
 A)    2π2 Ω
 B)  2√(2 ) π2 Ω
 C) 2Ω
 D ) 2π Ω
 E ) πΩ


      Correct Answer : Option B


      If an EM wave travels in a medium with εr = 4, μr = 1, its speed (in ms-1) in terms of c (c =
69.
      velocity of light in free space) is
 A)  �
 B ) 2�
       �
 C)
       �

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 17 of 18
Page 17 of 18
Text of page 17
�
 D)
    �
    �
 E)
    �

      Correct Answer : Option C

      Light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a single slit of width 0.1 mm. The angular position of
70. the first minimum is
 A)    sin-1(0.05)
 B)    sin-1(0.2)
 C)    sin-1(0.5)
 D)    sin-1(0.005)
 E)    sin-1(0.0025)

      Correct Answer : Option D

      An object is placed at 30 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. If the object is
71. moved towards the lens by 5cm, then the image is shifted by
 A)  1 cm
 B ) 40 cm
 C ) 4 cm
 D ) 10 cm
 E ) 12 cm


      Correct Answer : Option B

    If the stopping potential in a photoelectric experiment is measured to be 1.82 V, the
72. maximum speed of the emitted electrons, in ms-1, is
    (mass of the electron = 9.1×10-31 kg)
 A)    8.0×105
 B)    2.3×105
 C)    3.0×105
 D)    7.3×106
 E)    5.3×1011

      Correct Answer : Option A

      If the binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus is 8.75 MeV and its mass number is 56,
73. then total binding energy is
 A)  8 MeV
 B ) 56 MeV
 C ) 490 MeV
 D ) 64 MeV
 E ) 504 MeV

KEAM 2026 question paper, KEAM 2026 B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3, page 18 of 18
Page 18 of 18
Text of page 18
Correct Answer : Option C


74. Pick out the wrong statement about Bohr atom model:
 A)  Orbit of the electron is circular
 B ) Model is applicable only for single electron systems
 C ) Orbits of the electron are non-radiating
 D ) Angular momentum of electron in an orbit is quantized.


 E ) Model is applicable for many electron systems also



      Correct Answer : Option E


75. In a pure semiconductor at thermal equilibrium:
 A)  Number of electrons > number of holes
 B ) Number of electrons = number of holes
 C ) Number of holes > number of electrons
 D ) Only electrons are charge carriers

 E)
      Only holes are charge carriers

      Correct Answer : Option B

Page 1 of 18

Source: Commissioner for Entrance Examinations. Question paper published by Commissioner for Entrance Examinations.

Other years