KPSC Assistant Engineer 2018: Group A and B posts (RTB-2/2017), General Paper I (Degree Standard)
Text of page 1
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A
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Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.
349-A
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1. (ಪ -I) ಶಗಳ (ಪ -II) 3. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ .
ಜಲ ತಗ ಂ ಂ . A. ಎಂ ಪ ತ ದ
ಪ –I ಪ – II
ಎತ ರದ ಸ ದ ಅ ಗ
( ಶ) (ಜಲ ತಗ )
A. ಅ I. ಏಂ ಪಗ ಂದ ಉತ ದ
ಕ ನ B. ಅ ಗ 100
B. ಂ II. ಚ
. ೕ. ಂತ ಗ
C. III. ೕ
D. ನ IV. ೕ ಚ ತ .
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ C. ಅ ಗಳ ಎತ ರ 30 ೕ.
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
A B C D ವ ಇ .
(1) II III IV I D. ಸ ದ ದ ಉಚ ಅ ಗ ಜ
(2) III IV I II
(3) IV I II III ನ ಪ ಂದ
(4) III I II IV ಉ ತ ದ .
2. ಪ -I ರ ನ ಗರ ದಕ [ಕಡಲ ೕ ವ ಗಳ
] ಗ ಡ ಪ -II ರ ನ / ಸ ? ಳ
ಗರಗಳ ಂ . ೕ ವ ಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
ಪ –I ಪ – II ( ಗರ)
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
( ಗರ ದಕ)
A. ಆ / I. [ದ ಣ] ತಗ :
ಂ ದಕ ಇಂ ಯ (1) A, B, C ತ
ಗರ
(2) A, C, D ತ
B. ಅ ಯ II. [ದ ಣ]
ದಕ ಗರ (3) B, C, D ತ
C. / III. [ಉತ ರ] (4) A, B, C ಮ D
ದಕ ಗರ
D. ಂ IV. ಅ ಂ
4. ೕ ೕಯ ಉ ನ ಈ
ಗರ
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ ಳ ನ ವ ಜದ ?
ಉತ ರ ತವ . (1)
A B C D
(1) II I III IV (2) ಜ
(2) II III IV I (3) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ
(3) I III II IV
(4) I IV III II (4) ಮ ಷ
349 (2 - A)
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1. Match the Countries (List-I) with 3. Consider the following statements :
the waterfalls (List-II).
A. The high sea waves generated
List – I List – II
by the earthquakes are known
(Countries) (Waterfalls)
A. USA i. Angel as tsunami.
B. Zimbabwe ii. Churchill B. The tsunami waves travel
C. Venezuela iii. Yosemite at a speed of more than
D. Canada iv. Victoria 100 km/hour.
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below : C. The height of the tsunami
A B C D waves may be upto 30 m.
(1) ii iii iv i D. The highest sea waves were
(2) iii iv i ii generated by the Tohoku
(3) iv i ii iii
earthquake of Japan.
(4) iii i ii iv
Which of the statement/s given
2. Match the Ocean Trenches (List-I) above is/are correct ?
with Oceans (List-II).
List – I List – II Select the code for the correct
(Ocean Trench) (Ocean) answer from the options given
A. Aldrich/ I. South Indian below :
Tonga Ocean
Codes :
Trench
B. Aleutian II. South Pacific (1) A, B, C only
Trench Ocean (2) A, C, D only
C. Puerto-rico/ III. North Pacific
Narer Ocean (3) B, C, D only
Trench (4) A, B, C and D
D. Sunda IV. Atlantic
Ocean
Select the code for the correct answer 4. Tadoba National Park is located in
from the options given below : which of the following states ?
A B C D
(1) Bihar
(1) II I III IV
(2) II III IV I (2) Gujarat
(3) I III II IV (3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) I IV III II
(4) Maharashtra
349 (3 - A)
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5. ಒಂ ಆಕರ ರಣವ 9. ದರಸದ ೕಧ 4.22 K
ೕ ಕನತ ಉತ ದ , ಆ ಆಕರ ಂದ ಪದ ಇದ ದಂ ನ
ಉತ ತ ದ ರಣದ
ತ . ಇದ ದ
ಆವ ಂಕ
ಗಮ ದ ಂದ
(1) ನ ತ
(2) ಕ ತ (1) ಟ
(3) ತ (2) ಐ ೖ
(4) ಬದ ಗ ಉ ತ (3) ಂ ಒ
(4) ರ
6. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ನ ವಅ ಗ
ಧವ ಳ ?
(1) N2 10. ಂ ೕಯ ೕ ತ
(2) H2 ಹಲ ಪ ಶಗ , ಇ
(3) O2 ಒಳ
(4) Cl2
A. ೕಚ ವ
B. ರಣ
7. ಒಂ ತದ ಚ ವ ಒಂ
ಕಣ , ಸಮಯದ ಸ ನ ಅಂತರಗಳ C. ಆವ ಂ
ಸ ನ ೕನಗಳ ವ ದ D. ಅ ಗ
ಸ ಶ ಗ
E. ೕಅ ಗ
(1) ರ ಉ ತ
(2) ಪ ಣದ ಬದ ತ F. ರ ೕತ ಮ
(3) ನ ಬದ ತ G. X- ರಣಗ
(4) ಪ ಣ ಮ ಇ ಗಳ ದ ಕ ತ ಗ
ಗ ರಡರ ಬದ ತ
ರ ಂ ವ
ತ ಗ ರದ ಕ ಮದ ೕ .
8. mಮ 4m ಗಳ ಎರ ಯಗ
ಸ ನ ೕಯ ಆ ಗ ಂದ ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
ಚ . ಅ ಗಳ ಚಲನ ಶ ಯ ಉತ ರ ತವ .
ಅ ತ (1) GBDAFCE
(1) 1:4
(2) BGFADCE
(2) 4:1
(3) 1:1 (3) GBAFCDE
(4) 1:2 (4) BGFACDE
349 (4 - A)
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5. If a source emitting radiation is 9. The electrical resistance of
moving towards an observer, the mercury suddenly drops to zero at
frequency of the radiation emitted
temperature 4.22 K. It was first
by the source
observed by the scientist
(1) will become zero
(2) decreases (1) Newton
(3) increases (2) Einstein
(4) remains unchanged (3) Kumar Lingh ones
(4) Faraday
6. Which of the following molecules
contains a double bond ?
(1) N2 10. There are many different regions to
(2) H2 the electromagnetic spectrum,
(3) O2 these include
(4) Cl2 A. Visible
B. Gamma ray
7. If a particle moves in a circle C. Infrared
describing equal angles in equal D. Microwaves
intervals of time, the velocity
vector E. Radiowaves
(1) remains constant F. Ultra Violet and
(2) changes in magnitude G. X-rays
(3) changes in direction
Put them in order of increasing
(4) changes in both magnitude
wavelength, starting with the
and direction
shortest wavelength first.
8. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m Select the code for the correct
are moving with equal linear answer from the options given
momentum. The ratio of their below :
kinetic energies is
(1) 1 : 4 (1) GBDAFCE
(2) 4 : 1 (2) BGFADCE
(3) 1 : 1 (3) GBAFCDE
(4) 1 : 2 (4) BGFACDE
349 (5 - A)
Text of page 6
11. ಸಲಕರ ಗಳ ವ 14. ಪ –I ರ ನ ೕಗಗಳ ಪ –II
ಕ ಣ ಬಳಸ ರ ನ ಅ ಗ ತ ದ
ಏ ಂದ ಅ ಒಂ
ರಣಕತ ರಕವ ಂ .
(1) ಉಷ ದ ಉತ ಮ ಹಕ ಆದ
ಪ ೕಗ) ಪ
ನ ಒಂ ಟ ಹಕ
–I( – II
ರಣಕತ ರಕ)
(2) ಉಷ ದ ಟ ಹಕ ಆದ (
ನ ಒಂ ಉತ ಮ ಹಕ A. ಂ I. ೕ
(3) ಉಷ ನ ಟ ಲ
ಹಕ B. ಮ II. ರ
(4) ಉಷ ನ ಉತ ಮ
ವ
ಹಕ
C. ಲ III. ಏ ಈ
12. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ
ರಕ [ ೕ ಂ ] ? D. IV.
(1) CaSO4 ( ಸ ೕ ) ಅ
(2) CaCO3 ( )
(3) CaF2 ( ೕ ) ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
(4) Ca(OCl)2 ( ಉತ ರ ತವ .
) ತಗ .
13. ಪ -I (ಔಷ ಗ / ಯ ಕ) A B C D
ಗಳ ಪ -II ರ ನ ಅ ಗಳ (1) IV III I II
ಉಪ ೕಗ ಂ ಸ ಂ . (2) IV II III I
ಪ –I ಪ – II (3) IV I III II
(ಔಷ / ಯ ಕಗ ) (ಬಳ )
A. ಅ ೕ ಕ
I. (4) III IV I II
ಅನ ೕ
B. ಈಥ II. ದಯದ 15. ಒಬ ವ ೕಘ ಉಪ ಸ
ಂದ ಸ ಗಹ ಮ ವಲ
C. ೕ ಸ ೕ III. ( )
ೕರ ೕಕ ದ ಂದ ತ
ಕ ೕ ಯ
ಸರ ಉ ವವ
D. ೕ IV. (1) ಆತನ/ಆ ಯ ತದ ಕ
ತಣ ಅ ಆಮ ಗ ತ .
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
(2) ಆತನ/ಆ ಯ ರಕದ
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
ತಗ . ೕ ಇ ತ
A B C D (3) ಆತನ/ಆ ಯ ತದ ಕ
(1) I III II IV
ಇ ತ
(2) I III IV II
(3) III I IV II (4) ಆತನ/ಆ ಯ ತದ ಅ ಕ
(4) III I II IV ೕ ಇ ತ
349 (6 - A)
Text of page 7
11. Mica is used in electrical 14. Match the Disease in the List-I
appliances such as electric iron
because it is a with the corresponding causative
(1) good conductor of heat but a agent in List-II :
bad conductor of electricity
(2) bad conductor of heat but a List – I List – II
good conductor of electricity (Disease) (Causative Agent)
(3) bad conductor of heat as well
as electricity A. Dengue I. Vibrio
(4) good conductor of heat as cholerae
well as electricity
B. Malaria II. Virus varicella
12. Among the following which is the
bleaching powder ? C. Cholera III. Aedes egyptii
(1) CaSO4 (Calcium Sulphate) D. Chickenpox IV. Female
(2) CaCO3 (Calcium Carbonate) Anopheles
(3) CaF2 (Calcium Fluoride) Mosquito
(4) Ca(OCl)2 (Calcium
Select the code for the correct
Hypochlorite)
answer from the options given
13. Match List-I (Drugs/Chemicals) below :
with List-II (their use).
List – I List – II Code :
(Drugs/Chemicals) (Usage) A B C D
A. Atrophine I. Local
anaesthesia (1) IV III I II
B. Ether II. Heart (2) IV II III I
trouble (3) IV I III II
C.Nitroglycerine III. Dilation of
pupil (4) III IV I II
D. Pyrethrin IV. Mosquito
control 15. A person who is on a long hunger
Select the code for the correct
answer from the options given strike and is surviving only on
below : water, will have
Code : (1) less amino acids in his/her
A B C D urine
(1) I III II IV
(2) I III IV II (2) more glucose in his/her blood
(3) III I IV II (3) less urea in his/her urine
(4) III I II IV
(4) more sodium in his/her urine
349 (7 - A)
Text of page 8
16. ಒಂ ರಕದ ಎ ಯ ಅ 18. ರತದ ಹ ಯ ಈ ಳ ನ
ರಳ ಂದ ಕ ಷ ರಳದವ ನ ವಮ ಅತ ಂತ ಕ ?
ಸ ದ ಕಮ (1) ಂ ಮ
(1) ೕ ಗ , - (2) ಮ
ಗ , ಈ ಗ , (3) ಕ ಮ
ಗ , ಂ -
(4) ೕಗ ಮ
ಗ
(2) ೕ ಗ , 19. ಕ ರ ೕಜ ಈ ನ ಯ
ಗ ,
ನ ೕ ವ ೕಜ
ಂ ಗ , ಈ -
(1)
ಗ , ಗ ,
(2) ತಪ
(3) ೕ ಗ ,
(3) ನಮ
ಂ ಗ ,
(4) ೕ ವ
ಗ ,
ಈ ಗ ,
ಗ 20. ರತದ ಈ ಳ ನ ವಕ ವ
ೕರ ಈ ನ ಂದ
(4) ೕ ಗ , ಂ -
ಗ , ಈ ಗ , ಮ ಯ ಪ ತ ?
ಗ , (1) ಂಕ ೕರ
ಗ (2) ಮಲ ೕರ
(3) ೕ ಡ ೕರ
17. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಉ ಮ (4) ಜ ೕರ
ಂಸದ ರ ಅ ಪ ದ-
ದ ಶಗಳ ಂ ?
21. ವ ಶವ ಪ ಚದ ಸಕ ಯ
(1) ಆ ೕ , ೕ , ಬಟ ಎಂ ಕ ಯ ?
ಇಂ ೕ
(1)
(2) ಅ ಂ , ,
(2)
(3) ಂ , ಅ ಂ ,
(3) U.S.A. [ಅ ಕ
ಇಟ
ನ]
(4) ಆ ೕ , ಅ ಂ ,
(4) ಇಂ ೕ
ಂ
349 (8 - A)
Text of page 9
16. In a blood count the correct order 18. Which of the following soils is
from most abundant to least most suitable for the cultivation of
cotton in India ?
abundant are
(1) Red soil
(1) Neutrophils, basophils,
(2) Laterite soil
eosinophils, monocytes,
(3) Alluvial soil
lymphocytes (4) Regur soil
(2) Neutrophils, monocytes,
lymphocytes, eosinophils, 19. Kakrapara Project is an irrigation
basophils project on the river of
(1) Mahi
(3) Neutrophils, lymphocytes,
(2) Tapti
monocytes, eosinophils,
(3) Narmada
basophils
(4) Godavari
(4) Neutrophils, lymphocytes,
eosinophils, monocytes,
20. In India, which of the following
basophils coast receives rainfall from North-
East monsoon ?
(1) Konkan Coast
17. Which of the following group of
(2) Malabar Coast
countries is most famous for
(3) Coromandal Coast
exporting wool and meat ?
(4) Gujarat Coast
(1) Australia, Sri Lanka,
Indonesia
21. Which country is called the Sugar
(2) Argentina, France, Chile Bowl of the world ?
(3) New Zealand, Argentina, (1) Brazil
Italy (2) Cuba
(3) U.S.A.
(4) Australia, Argentina, New
Zealand (4) Indonesia
349 (9 - A)
Text of page 10
22. ೕ ಇ ಗಳ 26. ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ನರ ದ
ತ ಎದ ?
(1) ಟ ಯ ಮ ಕ (1) ಬಲ
(2) ರ
ಸ ದ
(3) ಅ ೕ
(2) ಮ ಅ ಂ ಗರ (4) ಇಲ
(3) ಟ ಯ ಮ ಂ
27.ಪ -I ರ ನ ಂತಕರ ಪ -II
ಸ ದ
ರ ನ ಅವ ದ ಂತ
(4) ಉತ ರ ಸ ದ ಮ ಗ ಂ ಂ
.
ಸ ದ ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ಂತಕ ) ( ಂತ )
A. ೕ I. ಓ ಟ
23. ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಗಳ
ಹರಪ ರವರ ವ ಆ ರ ಲ ? B. K.P. ಜಯ II. ೕಯ-
(1) ವ ದದ
C. ಆಂ ೕ III. ಸ ಲ
(2) ವ
(3) ಅಶ ತ D. ೕ IV. ಆ ಕ
(4) ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
24. ಅ ೕ ಕ ಥವ ದವ ತಗ .
A B C D
? (1) I IV III II
(1) ಮ ೕರ (2) II III I IV
(3) I III II IV
(2) ಶ ಥ (4) III IV II I
(3) ೕ ಮಸ ತ
28. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ
(4) ಷಭ ವ
ಸ ದ ಕಮ ?
(1) ಗ ಕದನ ಕದನ
25. ೕ ಶದ ಆ ರ
ಕದನ ಕದನ
(1) ಕ ಕ (2) ಕದನ ಗ ಕದನ
(2) ಕ ಕದನ ಕದನ
(3) ಕ ಅಫ ನ (3) ಗ ಕದನ ಕದನ
ಕದನ ಕದನ
(4) ಅ ನದ ದ
(4) ಕದನ ಗ ಕದನ
ಕ ಕದನ ಕದನ
349 (10 - A)
Text of page 11
22. The Kiel canal links 26. Haji Mullah revolted against which
one of the following sultans?
(1) Mediterranean and Black sea (1) Balban
(2) Pacific and Atlantic Ocean (2) Raziya
(3) Alauddin Khilji
(3) Mediterranean and Red Sea (4) Iltutmish
(4) North Sea and Baltic Sea 27. Match the thinkers (List-I) with the
Schools of thought (List-II) they
are are associated with
23. Which of the following was not a List-I List-II
(Thinkers) (Schools of Thought)
deity of the Harappans ? A. William I. Orientalist
John’s School
(1) Mother Goddess
B. K. P. II. Nationalist
(2) Shiva Jayswal School
C. Antonio III. Subaltern School
(3) Peepal Tree Gramsci
(4) Vishnu D. Pukold IV. Modern School
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
Code :
24. Who founded the Ajivika Pantha ? A B C D
(1) I IV III II
(1) Mahaveera (2) II III I IV
(3) I III II IV
(2) Parshwanatha (4) III IV II I
(3) Gosali Maskariputra 28. Which one of the following is the
(4) Rishabadeva correct chronological sequence ?
(1) Battle of Ghagra Battle of
Chanderi Battle of Chousa
Battle of Dourah
25. The rulers of the Lodi dynasty
(2) Battle of Chanderi Battle
were of Ghagra Battle of
(1) Pure Turks Dourah Battle of Chousa
(3) Battle of Ghagra Battle of
(2) Taimuri Turks Chanderi Battle of Dourah
(3) Pure Afghans Battle of Chousa
(4) Battle of Chanderi Battle
(4) Turks settled in Afghanistan of Ghagra Battle of
Chousa Battle of Dourah
349 (11 - A)
Text of page 12
29. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಸ ದ 33. ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಸ ಳಗಳ ರತದ
ಕಮ ಯ . ಪ ನ ಮದ ೕಪಗ ?
A. ಮ ಆ ೕಗ (1) ನ ಹ ಮ
B. ೕಗದ ೕಜ
ಂ ಂ
C. ಂ ಟ ೕಜ
D. ೕಗದ ೕಜ (2) ಜ ನದ ಮ ದ
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ ೕತ ಗ
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
(3) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶದ ನ ಅ ತ ರ
(1) A, D, B, C
(2) B, C, A, D (4) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶದ
(3) C, B, D, A
(4) A, B, C, D
34. ಈ ಳ ನ ರತದ ವ ಜಗ
30. ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ವಷ ದ ,
ೕ ಂ ಒಂ ಸವ ನ
ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ಚ- ಕ
ಸರಹದ ಂ ಲ ?
ೕಜ ಯ ಆ ಸ ?
(1) 1948 (1) ಜ ಮ ೕರ
(2) 1956
(3) 1951 (2) ಅ ಚಲ ಪ ಶ
(4) 1966 (3)
31. ಅ ನ ಯ ೕಕಸ (4) ಂ
ವ ೕತ ಗಳ ಂ ವ
ರತದ ಜ ?
35. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ನ ವ ಗಣ
(1)
ಸ ದ ದ ಗಳ ಪ ತ ?
(2) ಮಧ ಪ ಶ
(3) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ (1) ಗಡ , ಟ ಂ, ,
(4) ಕ ಟಕ ೖ
32. ಈ ಳ ನ ರ “ ರತದ (2) , ಟ ಂ, ,
ಸ ೕಯ ಸ ಸ ರದ ಜನಕ” ಎಂ ೖ
ಕ ? (3) ಂ ಸ , ೕ ,
(1) ಪ
ೕಂ, ಡ
(2) ಮ ತ ಂ ೕ
(3) ಂ (4) ಗಡ , ೕಂ, ಟ
(4) ಂ, ಡ
349 (12 - A)
Text of page 13
29. Identify the correct chronological 33. The principal copper deposits of
order of the following : India lie in which of the following
A. Simon Commission places ?
B. Cabinet Mission Plan
C. Mountbatten Plan (1) Hazaribag and Singhbum of
D. Cripps Mission Plan Bihar
Select the code for the correct (2) Khetri and Daribo areas of
answer from the options given Rajasthan
below :
(1) A, D, B, C (3) Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh
(2) B, C, A, D (4) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh
(3) C, B, D, A
(4) A, B, C, D
34. Which of the following states of
30. The first five year plan was India does not have a common
introduced in India in which of the frontier with China ?
following year ?
(1) 1948 (1) Jammu and Kashmir
(2) 1956 (2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 1951
(3) Bihar
(4) 1966
(4) Sikkim
31. Which state of India has highest
number of Lok Sabha constituencies ?
35. Which one of the following sets
(1) Bihar
(2) Madhya Pradesh represents seaports ?
(3) Uttar Pradesh (1) Gdansk, Rotterdam, Brussels,
(4) Karnataka Trieste
(2) Warsaw, Rotterdam,
32. Who among the following is Brussels, Trieste
known as “The Father of Local
Self Government” in India ? (3) Manchester, Geneva,
(1) Lord Ripon Stockholm, London
(2) Mahatma Gandhiji (4) Gdansk, Stockholm,
(3) Lord Canning Rotterdam, London
(4) Lord Wellesley
349 (13 - A)
Text of page 14
36. ಈ ಳ ನ ರತದ ಜ ಗಳ ಚ 39. A, B, C, D, E ಮ F ಎಂಬ 6 ೕ ತ
ಉ ದ ಯಇ ಕ ಮದ ೕ . ಷ ೕ ೕಯ ನ ತ ಪ
A. ಅ ಂ
ಬ ಷ ೕ ೕಯದ
B. ಕ ಟಕ
ಂದ ಅ ಖ .A
C. ರಳ
D. ಪ ಮ ಳ F ನ ಎಡ ಎರಡ ಯವ, B C
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ ಮ D ಗಳ ಯವ, E D ಯ
ಉತ ರ ತವ . ಎಡ ಗ ಎರಡ ಯವ, B ಯ
(1) A, B, C, D
ಎಡ ವ ಲ ಯವ ?
(2) A, D, B, C
(3) A, D, C, B (1) A
(4) A, C, D, B (2) F
37. ಕ ೕ (3) C
(1) ಂ ಂ (4) ಕ ಲ
(2) ೕನಗರವ ಂ
(3) ಚಲ ಪ ಶವ 40. ಒಬ ಕ ಸ ರ , ಯ
ಂ
ಂ ಂ 1 . ೕ. 3
(4) ಚಲ ಪ ಶವ
ಷಗಳ ಚ . ಅ
ಂ
ಯ ಂ ಯ
38. ಈ ಳ ನ ತವ ಅಭ ಮ ದ 4 ಷಗಳ
ಳ ೕ ವಪ ಗ ಉತ ರವ ಚ . ಒಂ , ಕ
ೕ . ಸ ರ ಸ ಡ ಗಳ ರ
ಬಲವ ಂ ದ ,
ಇಲ ಗ 1 ೕ. ಚ ಸ
ಅವ ಎ ಸಮಯ ತ ?
7
(1) 3 ಷ
ತರ ದ ಯ
24
ತ ಜನ (2) ಷ
7
ಆಸ ಯ ನ ಯ
17
ವ ಂದ ತ ಆದ (3) 7 ಷ
ಆಸ ಯ ನ ತರ ಲದ
43
ಯರ ಪ ಸಬ ? (4) 12 ಷ
(1) 14 (2) 16
(3) 17 (4) 15
349 (14 - A)
Text of page 15
36. Arrange the tea production of the 39. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are
following Indian states in a sitting around the hexagonal table
descending order :
A. Assam each at one corner and are facing
B. Karnataka the centre of the hexagon. A is
C. Kerala
second to the left of F, B is the
D. West Bengal
Select the code for the correct neighbour of C and D, E is the
answer from the options given second to the left of D. Who is the
below :
fourth person to the left of B ?
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, D, B, C (1) A
(3) A, D, C, B
(2) F
(4) A, C, D, B
(3) C
37. The Pensi La Pass connects :
(1) Sikkim with Tibet (4) Data insufficient
(2) Srinagar with Leh
(3) Himachal Pradesh with Tibet
(4) Himachal Pradesh with 40. A cyclist drove 1 kilometre, with
Kargil
the wind in his back in 3 minutes.
38. Study the following figure and He drove the same way back
answer the questions given below : against the wind in 4 minutes. If we
assume that the cyclist always puts
constant force on the pedals, how
much time would it take him to
drive 1 kilometre without wind ?
Trained nurses
7
Married population (1) 3 min.
Nurses in hospital
By which number married but 24
(2) 7 min.
untrained nurses in the hospital are
represented ?
17
(1) 14 (3) 7 min.
(2) 16
(3) 17 43
(4) 15 (4) 12 min.
349 (15 - A)
Text of page 16
41. ಒಂ ಂ ಒಂ 15 44. ಒಂ ಲಸವ ಒಬ ಹ
ಗಳ ಂ . ತಳದ ನ ನಗಳ ಡಬಲ . ಅದ ೪
ೕ ಯ ರಣ ಂದ, ಅ 20
ನಗಳ ಲಸವ ದ ಮ B
ಗಳ ಂ . ಒಂ
ಂ ಭ ದ , ಆ 9 ನಗಳ ಅದ ದ .
ಂಕ ಡ ಎ Aಮ Bಗ ಬ ಒ ಲಸವ
ಸಮಯ ತ ? ಎ ನಗಳ ಸಬಲ ?
(1) 30 ಗ
(2) 50 ಗ (1) 6 ನಗ
(3) 40 ಗ (2) 8 ನಗ
(4) 60 ಗ
(3) 8½ ನಗ
42. ಆ ದ ಗ ತದ (4) 7½ ನಗ
ಉತ ಮ . ಅವನ ದಲ
ನ 57 ಂ ಗಳ ಗ ದ.
ತರ ಆತನ ಂ ನ ಎರ 45. ಒಂ ಶಣ ಅ ೕ ಮ
ಗಳ 61 ಮ 65 ಂ ಗಳ ೕರ 4 : 3 ರ ಅ ತದ
ಗ ದ . ಆತ ಗ ವ ಂ ಉಳ , ಒಂ ಶಣ 5
ಗ ಅ ದರದ ಂ ವ ದ ,
ೕ.ಗಳ ೕರ ದ
ಆತನ 9 ನ ಆತನ
ಅಂಕಗ ತ ? ಅ ತ 4 : 5ಆ ತ . ೕ ವ
(1) 89 (2) 93 ಶ ಣದ ಆ ೕ ನ
(3) 85 (4) 98
ಪ ಣವ .
43. ರ ಉತ ರದತ 20 ೕ.ಗ (1) 20 ೕಟ
ನ . ತರ ಆತ ಬಲ (2) 5 ೕಟ
ಮ 30 ೕ.ಗ
ನ . ತರ ಬಲ (3) 10 ೕಟ
ಮ 35 ೕ.ಗ (4) 2.5 ೕಟ
ನ . ತರ ಎಡ
ಮ 15 ೕ. ಗ
ನ . ಅಂ ಮ ಎಡ 46. ಹಸ ತನ ಬಹಮ
ಮ 15 ೕ. ಗ ಜವ ಭ ಗ ವ
ನ . ಅವ ದ
ಗ ಅದ ಂದ ರ ?
ನ ಂದ ವ ನ ಮ
ಎ ೕಟ ಗಳ ರದ ಇ ? (1) ಲ
(1) 15 ೕ. ಪ ಮ (2) ೕ
(2) 30 ೕ. ವ
(3) 30 ೕ. ಪ ಮ (3) ಲ
(4) 45 ೕ. ವ (4) ಅಹಮ ನಗರ
349 (16 - A)
Text of page 17
41. A pipe can fill a tank in 15 hours. 44. A can do a piece of work in
Due to leak in the bottom, it is 10 days. He works at it for 4 days
filled in 20 hours. If the tank is full,
how much time will it take to and then B finishes it in 9 days. In
empty the tank ? how many days can A and B
(1) 30 hours together finish the work ?
(2) 50 hours
(1) 6 days
(3) 40 hours
(4) 60 hours (2) 8 days
(3) 8½ days
42. Anand is getting better at Maths.
On his first quiz he scored 57 (4) 7½ days
points, then he scores 61 and 65 on
his next two quizzes. If his scores
continued to increase at the same 45. A mixture contains alcohol and
rate, what will his score be on his water in the ratio 4 : 3. If 5 litre of
9th quiz ? water is added to the mixture, ratio
(1) 89
becomes 4:5. Find quantity of
(2) 93
(3) 85 alcohol in the given mixture.
(4) 98 (1) 20 litre
(2) 5 litre
43. Ravi walked 20 metre towards
north. Then he turned right and (3) 10 litre
walks 30 metre. Then he turns right (4) 2.5 litre
and walks 35 metre. Then he turns
left and walks 15 metre. Finally he
turns left and walks 15 metres. In 46. Which part was excluded when
which direction and how many Hasangangu partitioned his
metres is he from the starting Bahamani Kingdom ?
position ?
(1) Daulatabad
(1) 15 metre West
(2) 30 metre East (2) Berar
(3) 30 metre West (3) Gulbarga
(4) 45 metre East (4) Ahamadnagar
349 (17 - A)
Text of page 18
47. ನ ಒ ಯ ಗಳ 51. “ಅ ಂ ” ಸ ಶ (2005) ಎ
ನ ದ ನದ ನ ?
ಣ ಗಳ ಪ ಚ ದವ ?
(1) ಂಗ
(1) ಯ ಯ
(2) ಳ
(2) II ಜಒ ಯ
(3) ಬ
(3) VI ಮ ಜ
(4)
(4) ೕರವ ನರಸ ಜ
52. ಂದ ಸ ರದ V.P. ಂ ರ
48. ಕನ ಡದ ದಲ ತ ‘ಸ
ಅವ ಯ ಡ ವರ ಯ
ೕಚ ’ ಣ ಂ
ಅ ನ ವ ಆ ೕಗ
ಇ
ವರ ದ ?
(1) ಂ
(1) ಂಕಟ ಆ ೕಗದ ವರ
(2) ಮ
(3) ರ (2) L.G. ವ ವರ
(4) ಂಗ (3) ಗನ ಡಸ ವರ
(4) ನಪ ವರ
49. ೕಮನ ಬ ಯ
ರ ದವ 53. ಕ ಟಕದ ಇಂ ಯ ೕ
(1) R. ವ ಮ ತ (ITI) ಇಂಡ ಎ ತ ?
(2) ಂ ಯವ (1) ೕ ರ
(3) ಂಕ ಅಯ ಂ
(2) ರ ರ
(4) U. R. ಅ ತ
(3) ಂಗ
(4) ಭ ವ
50. ಈ ಳ ನವರ 1957 ರ
ಮ
54. 2011 ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ
ಸ ಯ ಅಧ ದವ ?
ಕ ಟಕದ ರ ಪ ಣ
(1) C. ಂಕಟ
(1) 90%
(2) S. ಜ ಂಗಪ
(2) 66.50%
(3) Dr. ಗನ ಡ (3) 70%
(4) B.D. ಜ (4) 75.60%
349 (18 - A)
Text of page 19
47. Among the Mysore Wodeyars, 51. Where was “Ahinda” Conference
who introduced first gold coins in (2005) held ?
Mysore ? (1) Bengaluru
(1) Yaduraya (2) Belgaum
(2) Raja Odeyar II (3) Hubli
(3) Chamaraja VI (4) Mysore
(4) Kantirva Narasaraja
52. Which commission report was the
Model for the implementation of
48. The first Kannada talkie cinema
Mandal Report during the period of
‘Sati Sulochana’ was filmed at
V. P. Singh in Central Government ?
(1) Bombay (1) Venkatswamy Commission
(2) Madras Report
(3) Kolhapur (2) L. G. Havanoor Report
(4) Bengaluru (3) Nagangouda Committee Report
(4) Chinnappa Reddy Report
49. Chomanadudi (Chomangudi)
Novel composed by 53. Indian Telephone Industries (ITI)
(1) R. Shivaram Karanth in Karnataka is located in
(2) Bendre (1) Kolar
(3) Masti Venkatesh Ayengar (2) Karwar
(4) U. R. Ananta Murty (3) Bengaluru
(4) Bhadravati
50. Who among the following was the
President of Mysore tenancy and
54. As per 2011 census the literacy rate
agriculture land committee of 1957 ? of Karnataka is
(1) C. Venkataswamy
(1) 90%
(2) Nijalingappa S.
(2) 66.50%
(3) Dr. Nagangouda
(3) 70%
(4) B. D. Jatti
(4) 75.60%
349 (19 - A)
Text of page 20
55. ಅತ ಕ ಭದ ಗ LED 58. (A) : ೕರ ಪ ಶಗಳ ನ
ಯ ಬಳ , ಅ ಈ ಳ ನ ೖ ೕ ೕವ ಕ ತ-
ಯ ನ ರಣವ ತ .
ಉತ ತ ರಣ (R) : ೕರ ಪ ಶಗ
ಸ ೕಪ ವ ೖ ೕ ನ [ಅ
(1) ಎ -
ೕ ದ ಬಳ ಯ ರ ]
(2) ೕತ ಗ
ಓವ , ೕ ನ
(3) IR ತ ಗ ಜ ಂಶಗ ಉ ೕ ನ
(4) ೕಚ ಯ ಅ ೕ
ದ ಂದ ೖ ೕ -
56. ಪ ಮ ಘಟ ಗಳ ಪ ಸರ ತಜ ರ ಡದ ಯ ಕ ತ .
ಖಸ (WGEEP) (1) (A) ಮ (R) ಎರ ಸ ಮ
(R), (A) ನ ಸ ದ
(1) R. K. ಪ
ರಣ .
(2) ಧ
(2) (A) ಮ (R) ಎರ ಸ ಆದ
(3) ಮ ಂ (R), (A) ನ ಸ ದ
(4) ಟ ವರ ಯಲ .
(3) (A) ಸ ಮ (R) ತ
(4) (A) ತ ಮ (R)
57. ಕ ಟಕ ನ ತಣ
ಸ
ಡ ಂ ದ ಂಕ 15/6/16 ರ
ಅ ಚ ಯ ಂ
ಸ ೕ 59. ಕ ಟಕ ಜ ದ ಏ ೕಕರಣದ , ಈ
ಕ ಂ ಇಂಡ ಳ ನ ವ ಂತ ಂದ ಅತ ಕ
ಇದ ಪ ಶವ ಗ ಸ ?
(1) ಂ ಪ ವಗ (1) ಂ ಂತ
(2) ತ ಪ ವಗ (2) ಹ ಯ ಜ
(3) ಹ ಪ ವಗ (3) ಮ
(4) ೕತ ಪ ವಗ (4) ದ ಂತ
349 (20 - A)
Text of page 21
55. Most of the security cameras uses 58. Assertion (A) : Ground water may
LED, which emit radiation in the get seriously contaminated in
range coastal areas.
(1) X-ray range Reason (R) : Ground water
(2) Microwave range overdrafts near coastal areas can
(3) IR wave range contaminate ground water supplies
by allowing salt water to intrude
(4) Visible range
into fresh water aquifers.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and
56. The Western Ghats Ecology
(R) is the reason for (A).
Expert Panel (WGEEP) was
headed by (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(1) R. K. Pachauri (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(2) Madhav Gadgil
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(3) Maneka Gandhi
(4) Medha Patkar (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
59. In the unification of Karnataka
57. As per Notification (Dated
state, the highest area was gained
15/6/16) from Karnataka Pollution
from which of the following
Control Board, printed circuit board
province ?
manufacturing industry belongs to
(1) Bombay Province
(1) Red Category
(2) Old Mysore State
(2) Orange Category
(3) Madras Presidency
(3) Green Category
(4) Hyderabad Province
(4) White Category
349 (21 - A)
Text of page 22
60. ಕ ಟಕದ ಪ ಮ ಹ ವ 62. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ .
ನ ಗಳ ಈ ಳ ನ A. ಇಂ
ಗಳ / B. ರಷ
ಸ ?
C. ಂಡ
A. ಪ ಮ ಹ ವ ನ ಗ
D.
ಫಲವ ದ ಕ ಪ ಶ
ಇ ಗಳ ಜಗ ನ ಅತ ಕ ಜನ
ಅಥ ಪಸ ಯ
ಲ. ಆ ವ 4 ಗಳ ಅವ ೕಹಣ
B. ಕ ಟಕದ ಈ ನ ಗ ಕ ಮದ ೕ .
ಒಳ ಜಲ ಗ ಗ ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
ಉಪ ಕ ಏ ಂದ ಅ ಉತ ರ ತವ .
ಆಳ ದ, ದ ಕ ಗಳ (1) A, B, C, D
ಹ ತ . (2) C, A, B, D
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ (3) A, D, B, C
ಉತ ರ ತವ . (4) D, C, B, A
(1) A ತ
(2) B ತ
63. ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಶದ
(3) A ಮ B ಎರ
ೕ ಂ ಗ ಅಲ ತ
(4) A ಆಗ ೕ B ಆಗ ೕ ಅಲ
ಜ ಂ ೕಯ ಂ ಗ ?
61. ಪ – I ರ ನ ಡಗ ಂ (1) ಂ ಶ
ಪ – II ರ ನ ನ ಗಳ ಂ (2)
ಬ . (3) ಇಂ ೕ
ಪ -I ಪ -II (4) ಳ
( ಡಗ ) (ನ ಗ )
A. ಏ I.
64. ನ ಂಬ 14 , ಶ ಯ
B. ದ ಣ II. ಅಮ
ಅ ರ ೕಯ ಮಕ ಳ ( )
C. ೕ III. ಗ ( ರತ- )
D. ಆ IV. ಪ ನ ರ ೕಯ ಪ ಥಮ ವ
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ ಯ ವ ರ ೕಯ
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
ೕ ಪ ವ ಮಕ ?
ತಗ .
A B C D (1) ೕ
(1) I II III IV (2) ಬಜ
(2) II IV I III (3) ಅ ಂ ಲ
(3) III I II IV
(4) ಪ
(4) IV I II III
349 (22 - A)
Text of page 23
60. Which of the following statements 62. Consider the following languages :
is/are true regarding west flowing A. English
rivers of Karnataka ? B. Russian
A. The west flowing rivers are C. Mandarin
not able to produce fertile D. Spanish
alluvial plains or deltas. Arrange the above languages in the
B. These rivers of Karnataka are
descending order of the four largest
useful for inland waterways
spoken languages of the world.
as they flow through deep and
Select the code for the correct
narrow valleys.
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given
answer from the options given below :
below : (1) A, B, C, D
(1) A only (2) C, A, B, D
(2) B only (3) A, D, B, C
(3) Both A and B (4) D, C, B, A
(4) Neither A nor B
63. Rohingya is a minority ethnic
61. Match the Continents (List – I) group in which of the following
with the Rivers (List – II) : country ?
List-I List-II (1) Bangladesh
(Continents) (Rivers) (2) Myanmar
A. Asia I. Denube (3) Indonesia
B. South II. Amar
(4) Nepal
America
C. Europe III. Nigar
64. On November 14, the United
D. Africa IV. Paraa
Select the code for the correct Nations Children’s Fund of India
answer from the options given (UNICEF-India) has appointed
below : which Indian sportsperson as
Code : UNICEF India’s first ever Youth
A B C D Ambassador ?
(1) I II III IV (1) Hima Das
(2) II IV I III (2) Bajrang Punia
(3) III I II IV (3) Arjun Tendulkar
(4) IV I II III (4) Priya Prakash
349 (23 - A)
Text of page 24
65. 2019 ರ ಗಣ ೕತ ವ ನದ 68. a ಮ b ಗ ರ ಒಂ
ರವ ಯ ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಧ ತಕ ದ , b ಯ ಎ
ಅಂ ೕಯ ತನ ಖ ಕ a ?
7 b
ಅ ಆ ವ ? A. a = 18 B. a = 10
(1) ಪ ಉತ ಸ ನ ಗಳ
ಕ ದ ಂಶವ
(2) ನ ೕ
ಂ ?
(3) ಅಷ ಘ ಳ ೕ ವ ಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
(4) ೕ ರ
(1) ಪ ಉತ ಸ ವಲ A
ಯ ನ ದ ಂಶ ಂ
66. 38 ರ ೕಯ ಅಂ ೕಯ .
ಳ- IITF – 2018 ಇ ೕ (2) ಪ ಉತ ಸ ವಲ B
ನವ ಹ ಯ ಪನ . ಈ ಯ ನ ದ ಂಶ ಂ
ಳ ನ ವ ಶಗ 38 IITF – .
(3) ಪ ಗ ಉತ ಸ -
2018 ರ ರ ಷ ?
ಗ ದ A ಮ B ಗ ರಡರ
(1) ಅ ನ ೕಡ ದ ಒ
(2) ಲ.
(3) ಳ (4) ಪ ಗ ಉತ ಸ -
ಗ ದ A ಮ B ಗ ರಡರ
(4) ಇ
ೕಡ ದ ಒ
ಅವಶ ಕ .
67. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ G-20 ರ
ಸದಸ ಲ ? 69. ಈ ಳ ನಪ ಯ ೕ ವ ತ ಗಳ
A. B. ೖ ಸರ ಯ ವ ತ 6 ಯ
ತ ಗಬ ?
C. ಜಮ D. ರತ
1 2 3 4 5
ಳ ೕ ವ ಆ ಗ ಂದ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರ
ತವ . ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
(1) B ತ ಉತ ರ ತವ .
(2) Bಮ C ತ
(3) Aಮ D ತ
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(4) Cಮ D ತ
349 (24 - A)
Text of page 25
65. Which of the following 68. If a and b are both positive, what
international personalities will be percent of b is a ?
Chief Guest at the 2019 Republic 7 b
A. a = 18 B. a = 10
Day Parade of India ?
Which of the above statements
(1) Mauricio Macri
contain sufficient data to answer
(2) Cyril Ranaphosa the question ?
(3) Ashraf Ghani Select the code for the correct
answer from the options given
(4) Burhanuddin Rafsanjani
below :
(1) The data in Statement A alone
66. 38th Indian International Trade Fair is sufficient to answer the
(IITF) recently concluded in New question.
Delhi. Which of the following (2) The data in Statement B alone
countries was partner country at is sufficient to answer the
the 38th IITF – 2018 ? question.
(1) Afghanistan (3) The data given in both
statements A and B together
(2) Bhutan
is not sufficient to answer the
(3) Nepal question.
(4) Iran (4) The data in both Statements A
and B together is necessary to
answer the question.
67. Which of the following is not a
member of G-20 ?
69. In the question below, which one
A. France B. Spain will be the 6th figure of the given
C. Germany D. India sequence of figures ?
1 2 3 4 5
Select the code for the correct
answer from the options given
below :
(1) B only Select the correct answer from the
options given below :
(2) B and C only
(3) A and D only
(4) C and D only (1) (2) (3) (4)
349 (25 - A)
Text of page 26
70. ಈ ಳ ನ ತದ ವ ಕಗಳ 72. ಈ ಳ ನ ಪ ಯ , ಒಂ -
ಎ ? ಯ ಮ ಎಂಬ ಎರ ಊಹ -
ಗ ಅ ಸ ತ . ೕ -
ಯ ಮ ಅದ ಅ ಸ ವ
ಊಹ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ ಸ ಮ
ವ ಊಹ /ಗ ಯ
ಧ ತ / ಎಂ ದ ಧ .
(1) 24
– ಸ ಮ ತ
(2) 25 ಧದ ೕಜಗಳ ಪ ಚಯದ
ತರ ಹ
(3) 26
ಬಡ ಗ ಡ .
(4) 27
ಊಹ ಗ –
A. ಸ ತ ಧದ
71. ಒಂ ಏಕ ಳದ ನಗಳ ತ ೕಜಗಳ ಪ ಚಯದ ತರ
ಈ ಳ ೕ 4 ಅಂ ಇ ವ ಹ ಯ ಇ ವ
ಅ ಕ ಎಂ
ಖದ ದ ಖದ ಅಂ ಯ
ೕ ಸ .
.
B. ಸ ತ ಧದ
ೕಜಗಳ ಪ ಚಯ ಂ
ಹ ಯಇ ವ ಕ .
I II III IV (1) A ಊಹ ತಧ ತ
(1) 1 (2) B ಊಹ ತಧ ತ
(3) A ಮ B ಊಹ ಗ ರ
(2) 2
ಧ ತ .
(3) 5
(4) A ಊಹ ಗ ೕ B
(4) 6 ಊಹ ಗ ೕಧ ಲ
349 (26 - A)
Text of page 27
70. How many squares are there in the 72. In the question, a statement is
following figure ? followed by two assumptions A
and B. You have to consider the
statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of
the assumptions is/are implicit in
the statement :
(1) 24 Statement – The cotton crop
continues to be poor even after the
(2) 25
introduction of new and improved
(3) 26 variety of seeds.
(4) 27 Assumptions –
A. The yield of cotton was
71. From the given four positions of a expected to increase after the
introduction of new and
single dice, find the digit at the face
improved variety seeds.
opposite to the face having digit 4 ?
B. The yield of cotton was
adequate before the
introduction of new and
improved variety seeds.
I II III IV
(1) Only Assumption A is implicit.
(1) 1
(2) Only Assumption B is implicit.
(2) 2 (3) Both Assumptions A and B
(3) 5 are implicit.
(4) Neither Assumption A nor B
(4) 6
is implicit.
349 (27 - A)
Text of page 28
73. ಳ ನ ಪ ಯ , ೕ ವ ಎರ 74. ಈ ಗಳ ಗಮ .
ಗ ಎರ ೕ ನಗಳ
A. ಆ ೕ ದ ೕಯ
ಅ ಸ ತ . ಒಂ ಅ
ಡ 2018 ರ ICC ಮ ಶ
ನ ವ ಗ -
ಗ ಂದ ವತಯ ಎ ದ ಇಪ -20 ಪ ಶ ಯ ಗ .
ೕ ವ ಎರ ಗಳ ೕ B. ಆ ೕ ದ ಡ ICC
ಸತ ಂ ಳ ತ
ಮ ಶ ಇಪ -20 ಪ ಶ -
ಮ ೕ ವ ಎರ ಗ ಂದ,
ಯ ಲ .
ಳ ನ ವ ೕ ನ (ಗ )
ಕ ಅ ಸ ತ ಂ ದ ೕ ವ ಗಳ
ಧ . / ಸ ?
– A : ಎ ಆಟ ರ
(1) A ತ
ದ .
(2) B ತ
–B: ಲ ದ ನಟ .
ೕ ನ – A : ಲ ದ (3) Aಮ B ಎರ
ಆಟ ರ ಅಂ ನಟ . (4) A ಆಗ ೕ ಅಥ B ಆಗ ೕ ಅಲ
ೕ ನ – B : ಎ ನಟ
ದ .
75. ಎಂ. . ೕ ನವ ಹ ಯ ನ
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
ಉತ ರ ತವ . 2018 ರ ಶ ಂ ಂ ಯ
(1) A ೕ ನ ತ ನ ನದ ಪದಕವ
ಅ ಸ ತ . ಗ . ಇ ಆ ಯ ಆರ ಯ
(2) B ೕ ನ ತ ನದ ಪದಕ. ದಲ ನದ
ಅ ಸ ತ . ಪದಕವ ಅವ ಗ ದ ?
(3) A ೕ ನಮ B ೕ ನ- (1) 2002
ಗ ರ ಅ ಸ ತ .
(2) 2003
(4) A ೕ ನ ಗ ೕ ಅಥ
(3) 2004
B ೕ ನ ಗ ೕ
ಅ ಸ ಲ. (4) 2006
349 (28 - A)
Text of page 29
73. In the question below, two 74. Consider the following statements :
statements are given followed by A. National Cricket team of
two conclusions. You have to take Australia has won the 2018
the two given statements to be true ICC Women’s World
even if they seem to be at variance Twenty-20 title.
from commonly known facts and B. Australian team has won the
decide which of the conclusion(s) ICC Women’s World
logically follows from the two Twenty-20 title for the fourth
given statements : time.
Statement – A : All players are Which of the above statement(s)
doctors. is/are correct ?
Statement – B : Some doctors are (1) A only
actors. (2) B only
Conclusion – A : Some doctors are (3) Both A and B
players as well as actors.
(4) Neither A nor B
Conclusion – B : All actors are
doctors.
75. MC Mary Kom has won the Gold
Select the correct answer from the Medal at the 2018’s World Boxing
options given below : Championship in New Delhi. It is
(1) Only Conclusion A follows her sixth Gold Medal. When did
she win the first Gold Medal ?
(2) Only Conclusion B follows
(1) 2002
(3) Both Conclusion A and
Conclusion B follow. (2) 2003
(4) Neither Conclusion A nor (3) 2004
Conclusion B follows. (4) 2006
349 (29 - A)
Text of page 30
76. ಈ ಳ ನ ಪ ಯ ರದ 79. 1949 ರ ನ ಂಬ 26
ಯ ಸ ಳದ ವ ಯ ಅಂ ೕಕ ಸಲ ಟ ರತದ
ನದ ೕ ಯ ಈ ಳ ನ
ಇಟ ಳ ೕ ವ ಸ
ವ ಪದ ಲ ?
ಣ ?
A. ಸ ಜ
B. ೕತ
C. ಸಮಗ
(1) 28
D. ಗಣ ಜ /ಗಣ ತ
(2) 35
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
(3) 40
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
(4) 48
(1) A, B, C ತ
(2) B, C, D ತ
77. ಈ ಳ ನ ಷ ಗಳ (3) A, B, D ತ
ಮ ಯ ಮತ ನ ಹ ೕ ದ (4) Cಮ D ತ
ದಲ ಶ?
(1) ಐ ಂ 80. ರ ೕಯ ನದ ಸ ನ ಯ
ಹಕ ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಅ ೕದ-
(2) ರತ ಗ ಂದ ೕಡಲ ?
(3) ಂ (1) ಅ ೕದ 12 ಂದ ಅ ೕದ 16
ಅ ೕದ 13 ಂದ ಅ ೕದ 17
(4) ಅ ಕ ನ (2)
(3) ಅ ೕದ 14 ಂದ ಅ ೕದ 18
(4) ಅ ೕದ 15 ಂದ ಅ ೕದ 19
78. ಖ ವ ಆ ಕರ
ಂದ ಇವ ಸ ನ ವ 81. ವ ರ ೕಯ ಜ ಪ ಥಮ
ೕ ಯ ಕಬ ಮ ಖ ಯ
(1) ಉ ಧ ಂ ?
(1) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ
(2) ೕಕ
(2)
(3) ಜ ಲ
(3) ಹ
(4) ಸ ೕ ಚ ಲಯದ (4) ತ
ೕಶ
349 (30 - A)
Text of page 31
76. In the following question, which 79. The Preamble of the Constitution
number when placed at the sign of of India adopted on 26th November
interrogation shall complete the 1949 did not include which of the
following terms ?
given pattern ?
A. Socialist
B. Secular
C. Integrity
(1) 28
D. Republic
(2) 35
Select the code for the correct
(3) 40 answer from the options given
(4) 48 below :
(1) A, B, C only
77. Which among the following (2) B, C, D only
countries was the earliest to give (3) A, B, D only
women the right to vote ? (4) C and D only
(1) Iceland
80. In the Indian Constitution, the
(2) India Right to Equality is granted by
(3) New Zealand which of the following articles ?
(4) U.S.A. (1) Article 12 to Article 16
(2) Article 13 to Article 17
(3) Article 14 to Article 18
78. The Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Article 15 to Article 19
can be removed from office in a
manner similar to that of
81. Which Indian state had the first
(1) the Vice President Woman Chief Minister ?
(2) the Speaker (1) U.P.
(3) the Governor (2) Bihar
(4) the Judge of the Supreme (3) Delhi
Court (4) Tamil Nadu
349 (31 - A)
Text of page 32
82. ರತದ ನ ಜ ಂದರ 86. ಡಲ ಈ ಳ ನ ವ
ಖ ಬ ಷ ಪ ಸದಸ ರ ಬ ಮತ ಂದ ರ ದ
ವ ಯ ಮತ ನ ಡ ಒಂ ಅ ಸ ಣ ಯದ
ಅನಹ ಈ ದಭ ದ ೕ ೕಡ ?
(1) ಅವ ಒಬ ಅಭ ಆ ದ (1) ೕಕ ಸ
(2) ಜ ಸ ಂಗದ ಳಮ ಯ (2) ಜ ಸ
ಬ ಮತವ (3) ಎರ ಸದನಗ ಪ ೕಕ
ೕ ಪ ಸ ಗ (4) ಎರ ಸದನಗ
(3) ಜ ಸ ಂಗದ ಲ ಯ ಗ
ಸದಸ ಗ
(4) ಅವ ಒಬ ಹ ಲ 87. “ ೕ ಇಂ 2019 ( 19)” ಎಂಬ
ಖ ಆ ಗ 12 ನಗಳ ಕ ನ
ರತ ಂ ಇತರ ವ ಶದ
83. ರತದ ನ ಈ ಪ ಯ ಘಟಕ
ಳ ನವರ ವ ಗವ ?
ಉಪ ಧವ ಂ ಲ (1)
(1) ರತದ ಷ ಪ (2) ೕ
(2) ರತದ ಉಪ- ಷ ಪ (3) ಜ
(3) ರತದ ಖ ೕಶ (4) ೕ
(4) ಒಂ ಜದ ಜ ಲ
84. ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಸ 88. ರಣ ೕ ನ 11,000 ರ
ರತದ ಗಳ ಗ ದ ದಲ ಆಟ ರ
ಧ ಂ ಲ ? ?
(1) ಸ ಅ ಸ (1) ಅ ೕ ಮ ಂ
(2) ೕ ಸ (2) ಂ ಫ
(3) L.M. ಂ ಸ (3) ಮ ೕ ಂ
(4) P.K. ಂಗ ಸ (4)
85. ರತದ ಉಪ ಪ ನ - 89. 2018 ರ ವ ಕ ಮಕ ಳ ಚರ -
ಯವರ ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಯ ಶ ದ ಂತ ಪ ವಷ
ಸ ? 20 ರ ನ ಂಬ ಆಚ ದರ
(1) ಇ ಲ ನದ ಆಶಯ ?
. (1) ಮಕ ಳ ಹ ಗ
(2) ಇ ಂ ಕ ಳವ ಯ (2) ಮಕ ಒ ತನ ವ ವ
ವ Wಮ ಶವ ೕ
(3) ಇ 44 ಂ ಕ ವ
ಪ ಂದ ಸಲ (3) ಗ ಮ
(4) ಇ 85 ಂ ಕ ೕ
ಪ ಂದ ಸಲ (4) ಗ ಬ
349 (32 - A)
Text of page 33
82. The Chief Minister of a state in 86. The Council of Ministers has to
India is not eligible to vote in the resign if a no-confidence motion is
Presidential Election if passed by a majority of members
(1) he is a candidate himself. of which of the following ?
(2) he is yet to prove his majority (1) Lok Sabha
in the floor of the lower house (2) Rajya Sabha
of State Legislature.
(3) Both the houses separately
(3) he is the member of the upper
house of the State Legislature. (4) Both the houses in joint
(4) he is a caretaker Chief sitting
Minister.
87. The air force unit of which other
83. The Constitution of India does not country has participated with India
contain any provision for the in a 12 day joint exercise “Cope
removal of India 2019 (C19)” ?
(1) The President of India (1) France
(2) The Vice-President of India
(2) United States
(3) The Chief-Justice of India
(4) The Governor of a State (3) Japan
(4) China
84. Which one of the following
committee is not associated with 88. Who has become the first player to
Panchayati Raj in India ? score 11,000 runs in Ranji Trophy
(1) Sadia Ali Committee Cricket ?
(2) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(3) L.M. Singhvi Committee (1) Anmol Mazumadar
(4) P.K. Thungan Committee (2) Wasim Jaffer
(3) Manish Pandey
85. Which of the following statement (4) Virat Kohli
is correct with respect to the office
of the Deputy Prime Minister of 89. What is the theme of the 2018
India ? Universal Children’s Day which is
(1) It was created under the observed every year on 20th of
original constitution. November across the world ?
(2) It is an extra-constitutional
growth. (1) Child Rights
(3) It was created by 44th (2) Children are taking over and
Constitutional Amendment. turning the World Blue
(4) It was created by 85th (3) Love You Kids
Constitutional Amendment. (4) Come on Kids !
349 (33 - A)
Text of page 34
90. FAME [ ] ಇಂ 93. ರತದ ಒ ಹ ಲದ ಈ
ೕಜ ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಳ ನ ವ ಕ ಗ ಷ
ಹಣ ಂಬಲವ ಲ ಂ ?
(1) ಕ ನದ ಲ
ೕ ತ ?
(2) ರ ೕಯ
(1) ರಸ ಬರ
(3) ೕ ಲ
(2) ಮ ( ಶ) (4) ಜ ೕಯ
ಹನಗಳ
(3) [ಅ ಸಣ 94. “ ಮ ” ಎಂಬ ಯ
] ಕ ?
(1) ಅಮತ (2) ಆ
(4) ನ
(3) (4) J.M.
91. ರತದ ಕ ದಣ ಗ ಈ 95. ರತದ ಆಯವ ಯ ಪ ಯ
ಳ ನ ವ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಪ ಸ ಯಲ ದ ವ ಯ ಆ
? .
A. (1) ಬ : ಬರ ವ
B. ಹಣ ವಷ ೕ
ಮ ಚ ದ ಅಂ ಗಳ ದ
C. ದ
(2) ಬ ಅ ಯ ( ):
D. ಔ ಪ ತ ಆಯವ ಯದ
E. ಅ ೕದ ಯ
ಳ ೕ ವಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ ಸ ಂಗ ಹಣ ಮ
ಉತ ರ ತವ . ಮ ೕಗ ಮ ಯ
(1) A, B ಮ D ತ ಅ ಯಮ ಯ
( ಯ) ಲಕ
(2) A, B, C ಮ D ತ
(3) A, B, C ಮ E ತ
(3) ಬ : ಹಣ
(4) A, B, C, D ಮ E ಮ ೕಗ ಯ ನ
ಉಪ ಧಗಳ ಸ ರ ಂದ
92. 92 ವಷ ಗಳ ಇ ಸದ ಹ ಯ - ೕ ಗಳ
ಬ ರ ಮ ಅದ ಗಹ ಮ ಸ ಂಗದ
ನ ಬ ಂ ೕನ- ಅ ೕದ
ದ ಂಕ ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಗ ತರ /ಬಟ -
ಯ
?
(4) ಆಯವ ಯ ಅ ನದ ಕ
(1) ವ 1, 2017
ನ ಪ ೕಲ : ಸ ರದ
(2) ವ 1, 2018 ಹಣ ಚರ ಯ
(3) ವ 1, 2015 ಸ ಂಗದ ಪರ ಕ
(4) ವ 1, 2016 ಪ ೕಧ ಒಳಪ
349 (34 - A)
Text of page 35
90. FAME India scheme provides 93. Maximum share in India’s total
financial support to external debt is of which currency
among the following ?
(1) Fertilizer Industry
(1) US Dollar
(2) Electric & Hybrid Vehicles (2) Indian Rupee
Industry (3) Euro Dollar
(3) Micro Industry (4) Japanese Yen
(4) Electronic Industry
94. Who wrote the book “How to pay
for Money” ?
91. Indian currency printing (1) Amartya Sen
institutions are located in which of (2) Adam Smith
the following places ? (3) Karl Marx
(4) J.M. Keynes
A. Nasik
B. Hoshangabad 95. Select the incorrect phase of
C. Hyderabad budget process in India :
(1) Budget formulation : the
D. Aurangabad
preparation of estimates of
E. Dewas expenditure and receipts for
Select the code for the correct the ensuing financial year.
answer from the options given (2) Budget enactment : approval
below : of the proposed Budget by the
Legislature through the
(1) A, B & D only enactment of Finance Bill and
(2) A, B, C & D only Appropriation Bill.
(3) A, B, C & E only (3) Budget execution :
enforcement of the provisions
(4) A, B, C, D & E
in the Finance Act and
Appropriation Act by the
92. The historical 92 year old railway government – collection of
budget was discontinued and receipts and making
merged into general budget on disbursements for various
services as approved by the
which of the following dates ?
Legislature.
(1) 1st February, 2017 (4) Judicial review of budget
(2) 1st February, 2018 implementation : audits of
(3) 1st February, 2015 government’s financial
operations on behalf of the
(4) 1st February, 2016 Legislature.
349 (35 - A)
Text of page 36
96. ೕಜ ದ ಈ 98. ರತ ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ವಷ ದ
ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ : ಂ ೕ ಆಪ ಷ
A. ಇದ ಭದ ಸಣ ಆಗ ಷ ಂ ?
ಅ ಂ ಆ (1) 2011
ಇಂ ದ (SIDBI) ಣ (2) 2013
ಒ ತನದ ಸ ಯಕ . 100 (3) 2015
(4) 2017
ರ ಅದರ ಡ ಳದ
ಂದ ಸ .
99. ಈ ಳ ನ ಗಳ
B. ಈ ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ರ, ಲ-
ಕ ಟಕ ಪ ಶದ ಬ ವ ಗಳ
ವ ಲ ನ
ಸ ದ ಂಪ .
ಲಕ ವ ತ
(1) ೕದ , ಜಯ ರ, ದ ,
ಲ ಯ ಮ ಗ ಷ
ಗದಗ, ವಣ , ಯ
ೕ [ ವ ] ಅವ ಯ
(2) ಪ ಳ, ೕದ ,ಬ ,
7 ವಷ ೕ .
ಕ , ದ , ಯ
ೕ ವ ಗಳ
(3) ೕದ , ದ , ವಣ ,
/ ಸ ? ಳ
ಕ , ಗಲ ೕ ,
ೕ ವ ಆ ಗ ಂದ ಸ ದ
ಯ
ಉತ ರ ತವ .
(4) ೕದ ,ಕ , ಯ ,
(1) A ತ
ವಣ , ದ ,
(2) B ತ
ಜಯ ರ
(3) Aಮ B ಎರ
(4) A ಆಗ ೕ B ಆಗ ೕ ಅಲ
100. ರತದ ಈ ಳ ನ ವ ಕ
97. ಆ ಕ ತ ಚ ಂಕ 2018 ರ ಪ ಶ ಯ -
ರತದ [ ೕ ] ನಎ ? ಚ ವ ಂದ ತ ?
(1) 120 (1) ಲಯ ಪವ ತ
(2) 125 (2) ಅ ವ ಪವ ತ
(3) 130 (3) ದಖ ಪಸ
(4) 135 (4) ವ ಮ ಪ ಮ ಘಟ ಗ
349 (36 - A)
Text of page 37
96. Consider the following statements 98. India joined the Shanghai
related to the MUDRA Yojna : Co-operation Organization (SCO)
A. It has been initially formed as in which of the following year ?
a wholly owned subsidiary of (1) 2011
Small Industries Development (2) 2013
Bank of India (SIDBI) with (3) 2015
100% capital being
(4) 2017
contributed by it.
B. According to this Yojna, loan
is issued through Mudra 99. Find the right group of districts
credit card with a pre- which comes under Hyderabad
assigned credit limit and the Karnataka region.
repayment tenure is as high as (1) Bidar, Vijayapura, Yadgiri,
7 years. Gadag, Davangere, Raichuru
Which of the statement/s given
(2) Koppal, Bidar, Ballari,
above is/are correct ?
Kalburgi, Yadgiri, Raichuru
Select the code for the correct
(3) Bidar, Yadgiri, Davangere,
answer from the options given
Kalburgi, Bagalkote,
below :
Raichuru
(1) A only
(4) Bidar, Kalburgi, Raichuru,
(2) B only
Davangere, Yadgiri,
(3) Both A and B Vijayapura
(4) Neither A nor B
100. Which one of the following
97. What is the rank of India in the physical regions of India formed
2018 Index of Economic Freedom ?
due to volcanic activity ?
(1) 120th
(1) Himalayan Mountain
(2) 125 th
(2) Aravalli Mountain
(3) 130 th
(3) Deccan Plateau
(4) 135 th
(4) Eastern and Western Ghats
349 (37 - A)
Text of page 38
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 349 (38 - A)
Text of page 39
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(39 - A) 349
Text of page 40
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
2018 Question Paper Version Code
QUESTION BOOKLET
GENERAL PAPER
PAPER-I
A
Time Allowed : 11/2 Hours SUBJECT CODE : 349 Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination, you should check that this Qustion Booklet
does NOT have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or questions etc. If so, get it replaced by a
complete ‘Question Booklet’ of the same Question Paper Version Code as printed in your OMR An-
swer Sheet.
2. Candidate has to ensure that Question Paper Version Code of the Question Booklet given is
same as the Question Paper Version Code printed on OMR Answer Sheet. Discrepancy, if
any, should be reported to the Invigilator and a new Question Booklet should be taken whose
Question paper Version Code tallies with the Question Paper Version Code printed on the
OMR Answer Sheet.
3. You have to enter your Register Number in the Register Number
Question Booklet in the box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Question Booklet.
4. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four responses (answers).
Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the most appropriate. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question.
5. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided and ONLY in
Black or Blue Ball Point Pen. See detailed instructions in the OMR Answer Sheet.
6. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt all questions. Every question for which wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, 1/4th (0.25) of the marks assigned for that question will be deducted.
7. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end. You should not make any
marking on any other part of the Question Booklet.
8. Immediately after the final bell, indicating the conclusion of the examination, stop making any further
markings in the OMR Answer Sheet. Be seated till the OMR Answer Sheets are collected and
accounted for by the Invigilator.
9. Questions are printed both in English and Kannada. If any confusion arises in the Kannada
Version, please refer to the English Version of the questions. Please Note that in case of any
confusion the English Version of the Question Booklet is final.
Possession of Mobile Phones, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication
gadgets of any kind is prohibited inside the Examination venue.
WÜ ÊÜá¯Ô : ÓÜ ãaÜ®æW ÜÙ Ü PÜ ®Ü°vÜ BÊÜ꣤¿áá D ±ÜÅÍæ °±Ü£ÅPæ¿á ÊÜ ááí»ÝWÜ¨Ü ÈÉ ÊÜáá©ÅÓÜƳqr¨æ.
349 (40 - A)
Text of page 1
GENERAL PAPER - I
TECHNICAL GROUP 'A' & 'B' (Degree Std.)
Examination held on 16-12-2018 Subject Code: 349 Total marks: 200
(10:00AM TO 11:30AM) Two marks for each question
KEY CHART
Question Booklet Series - 'A'
Question Key Question Key Question Key Question Key
Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer
1 2 26 3 51 3 76 2
2 2 27 1 52 2 77 3
3 1 28 2 53 3 78 4
4 4 29 1 54 4 79 1
5 3 30 3 55 3 80 3
6 3 31 3 56 2 81 1
7 3 32 1 57 1 82 3
8 2 33 1 58 1 83 4
9 3 34 3 59 2 84 2
10 4 35 4 60 4 85 2
11 1 36 2 61 2 86 1
12 4 37 4 62 2 87 2
13 4 38 3 63 2 88 2
14 4 39 1 64 1 89 2
15 3 40 2 65 2 90 2
16 3 41 4 66 1 91 3
17 4 42 1 67 1 92 1
18 4 43 4 68 2 93 1
19 2 44 1 69 2 94 4
20 3 45 3 70 Grace 95 4
21 2 46 4 71 Grace 96 3
22 4 47 4 72 1 97 3
23 4 48 3 73 4 98 4
24 3 49 1 74 3 99 2
25 3 50 4 75 1 100 3
Text of page 2
GENERAL PAPER - I
TECHNICAL GROUP 'A' & 'B' (Degree Std.)
Examination held on 16-12-2018 Subject Code: 349 Total marks: 200
(10:00AM TO 11:30AM) Two marks for each question
KEY CHART
Question Booklet Series - 'B'
Question Key Question Key Question Key Question Key
Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer
1 4 26 3 51 1 76 3
2 3 27 1 52 4 77 2
3 3 28 4 53 1 78 3
4 4 29 4 54 3 79 4
5 1 30 2 55 3 80 2
6 2 31 3 56 4 81 2
7 3 32 4 57 2 82 4
8 3 33 3 58 3 83 1
9 3 34 2 59 1 84 3
10 1 35 1 60 1 85 3
11 1 36 3 61 4 86 2
12 3 37 2 62 2 87 3
13 4 38 1 63 2 88 4
14 1 39 2 64 3 89 3
15 4 40 4 65 2 90 4
16 3 41 2 66 2 91 4
17 2 42 1 67 2 92 1
18 2 43 2 68 1 93 3
19 1 44 1 69 3 94 4
20 1 45 1 70 1 95 4
21 4 46 2 71 2 96 3
22 4 47 2 72 4 97 2
23 3 48 2 73 4 98 3
24 4 49 Grace 74 1 99 2
25 1 50 Grace 75 3 100 4
Text of page 3
GENERAL PAPER - I
TECHNICAL GROUP 'A' & 'B' (Degree Std.)
Examination held on 16-12-2018 Subject Code: 349 Total marks: 200
(10:00AM TO 11:30AM) Two marks for each question
KEY CHART
Question Booklet Series - 'C'
Question Key Question Key Question Key Question Key
Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer
1 1 26 1 51 3 76 1
2 3 27 3 52 2 77 1
3 2 28 2 53 3 78 3
4 1 29 2 54 3 79 4
5 2 30 3 55 3 80 1
6 4 31 4 56 4 81 3
7 2 32 2 57 4 82 3
8 1 33 2 58 1 83 2
9 2 34 1 59 4 84 4
10 2 35 2 60 4 85 1
11 1 36 1 61 3 86 2
12 2 37 2 62 3 87 4
13 1 38 3 63 4 88 4
14 2 39 4 64 3 89 1
15 2 40 1 65 2 90 4
16 Grace 41 4 66 4 91 1
17 Grace 42 3 67 2 92 3
18 1 43 3 68 3 93 1
19 4 44 3 69 3 94 4
20 3 45 4 70 4 95 4
21 1 46 2 71 4 96 3
22 4 47 2 72 2 97 3
23 2 48 2 73 3 98 4
24 3 49 1 74 1 99 3
25 1 50 4 75 3 100 2
Text of page 4
GENERAL PAPER - I
TECHNICAL GROUP 'A' & 'B' (Degree Std.)
Examination held on 16-12-2018 Subject Code: 349 Total marks: 200
(10:00AM TO 11:30AM) Two marks for each question
KEY CHART
Question Booklet Series - 'D'
Question Key Question Key Question Key Question Key
Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer
1 2 26 2 51 3 76 4
2 3 27 2 52 1 77 3
3 4 28 4 53 2 78 2
4 1 29 1 54 1 79 3
5 3 30 2 55 1 80 3
6 1 31 3 56 3 81 2
7 2 32 3 57 3 82 1
8 3 33 3 58 1 83 2
9 4 34 4 59 3 84 1
10 2 35 3 60 4 85 2
11 2 36 1 61 2 86 4
12 1 37 4 62 4 87 2
13 2 38 4 63 3 88 2
14 2 39 3 64 2 89 1
15 2 40 4 65 1 90 2
16 3 41 4 66 4 91 1
17 1 42 3 67 1 92 1
18 1 43 2 68 4 93 2
19 4 44 4 69 1 94 2
20 4 45 2 70 3 95 Grace
21 3 46 3 71 4 96 Grace
22 3 47 3 72 4 97 1
23 4 48 4 73 4 98 4
24 2 49 4 74 3 99 1
25 3 50 3 75 1 100 3
Controller of Examinations
Karnataka Public Service Commission
Bengaluru.Page 1 of 40
Source: Karnataka Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Karnataka Public Service Commission.