MH SET 2013: 17 February, Paper III, Life Sciences
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Life Sciences
Paper III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions, each
question carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
1. Thar desert stretches to Indian 3. Dendrocronology deals with
states like : determination of age of a tree
(A) Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, with :
Madhya Pradesh (1) Diffused porous wood
(B) Rajasthan, Haryana, NCR
(2) Ring porous wood
(C) Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh,
(3) Heart ring porous wood
Jharkhand
(4) Sap wood
(D) Rajasthan, Punjab, Gujrat
(A) 1 and 3
2. Which of the following sequences
indicates trend in the evolution of (B) 2 and 3
thallus in algae ? (C) 1 and 4
(A) Unicellular → Heterotrichous (D) 2 and 4
→ Colonial → Filamentous
4. The immediate products of meiosis
(B) Unicellular → Filamentous →
in megaspore mother cell are :
Heterotrichous → Colonial
(A) Eggs
(C) Unicellular → Colonial →
(B) Megaspores
Filamentous → Heterotrichous
(D) Unicellular → Filamentous → (C) Embryo sacs
Colonial → Heterotrichous (D) Female gametophytes
1 [P.T.O.
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5. ‘Reserpine’ a therapeutically active 7. Lolium is a long day plant, which
compound used for hypertension and
of the following light treatments will
epilepsy is obtained from :
result in flowering in this plant ?
(A) Roots of Rauwolfia serpentina
(A) Red—Far Red
(B) Roots of Glycyrrhiza glabra
(B) Far Red—Red—Far Red
(C) Leaves of Podophyllum
emodi (C) Far Red
(D) Rhizome of Dryopteris
(D) Red—Far Red—Red
filixmas
8. Allopolyploids eventually give rise to
6. In plants first step in the synthesis
amphidiploids. These can be easily
of sulfur containing organic
compounds is reduction of sulfate. recognised by looking at
Which of the following amino acids their :
is synthesized in this process ?
(A) Morphological characters
(A) Methionine
(B) Karyotype
(B) Cysteine
(C) Fertility characters
(C) Glutamine
(D) Meiotic analysis
(D) Glycine
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9. In animal kingdom, there are 11. If gonadotropin releasing hormone
animals who show true and false was to be secreted in large amounts
body segmentation. Animals and at a constant rate rather than
in a pulsatile manner, one of the
characterized by the presence of
following would happen :
coelom and segmentation of the body
(A) Secretion of luteinising
belong to the phylum :
hormone would increase at first
(A) Rotifera
and then decrease
(B) Annelida (B) Secretion of luteinising
(C) Platyhelminthes hormone would increase
indefinitely
(D) Echinodermata
(C) Testosterone secretion in a
10. During last few centuries, our earth
male would be continuously
has seen considerable extinction of
high
fauna and flora. However, scientists
(D) Ostradiol secretion in a female
came across some species, thought
would be continuously high
to have been extinct by chance. The
12. Prevention of polyspermy of an egg
living fossil Latimeria chalumnae is
predominantly contributed by a
an example of :
process is called :
(A) Lung fish (A) Acrosome reaction
(B) Placoderm (B) Cortical granule breakdown
(C) Lobe-finned fish (C) Membrane receptor activation
(D) Xiphosuran (D) Inactivation of sperm
3 [P.T.O.
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13. In amphibians, the embryonic gene 16. Completion of the life cycle of the
expression does not begin during
malarial parasite Plasmodium
cleavage in early embryos. The
maternal mRNAs are translated. requires two hosts because :
Whereas at later stages, there is
(A) After passing through the pre-
induction of embryonic gene
expression. This phenomenon is erythrocytic and erythrocytic
called : cycles in its human host, the
(A) Maternal-paternal transition parasite requires low ambient
(B) Midblastula transition temperature for further
(C) Late embryonic switch development. Therefore it
(D) Embryonic reprogramming enters the second host, the
14. .........................mimicry is exhibited by mosquito.
harmless colubrid snakes which
(B) There are too many parasites in
resemble the poisonous snakes of the
genus Elaps in having beautiful the human blood. Therefore, a
body colouration of alternating red transfer to the second host
and black bands. becomes necessary.
(A) Protective
(C) The infected person starts
(B) Müllerian
taking medicines which
(C) Warning
prevents further development.
(D) Batesian
Hence a transfer to a second
15. A period of arrested development in host becomes necessary.
the life cycle of some insect pests is
known as : (D) The person develops resistance
(A) Ecdysis to the parasite by the time the
(B) Diastasis erythrocytic cycle starts.
(C) Diapause Therefore another host is
(D) Pupa required.
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18. Exposure of an organism to
17. Ability to taste phenylthiocarbamide
carcinogens often results in
(PTC) in human beings is controlled mutagenesis. This leads to
alterations in important growth
by a single gene, the tasters being regulatory genes. Carcinogens are
therefore identified by :
either TT or Tt and non-tasters
(A) Ame’s test
being tt. Suppose in a population of
(B) Commet assay
human beings, different genotypes (C) Complementation test
are represented by ratio 0.50 TT : (D) Fluctuation test
19. State which of the following
0.20 Tt : 0.30 tt (The gene
statements is correct in case of
frequencies will be T = 0.60, t = 0.40). population analysis
(A) The rare allele is represented
If population attains equilibrium,
predominantly in heterozygotes
particularly as it becomes rarer
one would expect the genotypic
(B) The rare allele is always under
ratios as :
selection
(C) Equilibrium values in any
(A) 0.50 TT : 0.20 Tt : 0.30 tt
population cannot be reached in
(B) 0.36 TT : 0.48 Tt : 0.16 tt a single generation of random
mating
(C) 0.30 TT : 0.40 Tt : 0.30 tt (D) The maximum frequency of
heterozygotes cannot exceed
(D) 0.40 TT : 0.40 Tt : 0.20 tt 0.75
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20. The frequency with which 22. In mammals, sex is determined by
spontaneous mutations arise in a
presence or absence of y
normal diploid population is :
chromosome. The search for sex
(A) 10–8
determining genes has led to
(B) 10–2
identification of Hy, bkm, zfy as
(C) 10–12
testes determining gene. Recently
(D) 10–3
identified Sry gene, a putative sex
21. Activation of formation of different
determining gene has one of the
kinds of microfilament like actin
following properties assigned :
network and actin bundles (stress
fibers) are caused by cell signalling (A) DNA binding protein expressed
mediated by a particular protein in genital ridge at 8.5 pc
family member. Which of the
(B) Zn finger protein expressed in
following is involved in formation of
testes
stress fibers ?
(A) cdc 42 (C) Homeo-domain protein in
(B) Rac genital ridge
(C) Rho (D) Leads to sex transformation
(D) Both Rho and Rac from males to females
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23. During G2 phase of cell cycle, cyclin 24. Lampbrush chromosomes in frog
B is synthesized and it forms a
oocytes exhibit an index of
complex with CDK. This complex,
called MPF, is crucial for the cells amplification of :
to enter mitosis. However, there is
an extensive regulation of activity (A) rRNA
of MPF. There are kinases and
(B) mRNA
phosphatases which take part in it.
For conversion of an inactive MPF (C) tRNA
to an active MPF that initiates
(D) snoRNA
mitosis, there are the following
possibilities :
25. Principle of holocoenotic
(1) Phosphorylation of CDK by
environment means :
Weel kinase
(2) Phosphorylation of CDK by (A) Every factor affects every other
CAK
factor in an ecosystem
(3) Dephosphorylation of CDK
inhibitory site by CDC 25 (B) Only one factor affects every
(4) Dephosphorylation by PTEN other factor in an ecosystem
Which of the following is correct ?
(C) Only one factor affects only one
(A) 1 and 2
other factor in an ecosystem
(B) 1 and 3
(D) All the factors affect only one
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4 factor in an ecosystem
7 [P.T.O.
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26. Last few years humans have seen 28. A student examined two different
rapid degradation of ecosystems. groups of cells and made the
This has led global pressure on
following observations :
conservation of fauna and flora. In
Trait Cell I Cell II
this direction the trees and shrubs
are planted on all unused and fallow Cell wall Present Present
land to provide fuelwood, fodder etc.
Ribosomes Present Present
thereby reducing pressure on
Nucleus Absent Present
existing forests. For example,
unused farmlands, community land, Ability to do Present Absent
road and rail sides etc. are planted
photosynthesis
with suitable indigenous and/or
exotic tree species. This is known as : Respiration Present Present
(A) Forest plantations These observations support which of
(B) Social forestry the following conclusions :
(C) Topiary (A) Cell I is more complex in its
(D) Conservation forestry organisation than cell II
27. Typha angustata grows abundantly (B) Cell I is a prokaryote
in/on : (C) The ancestors of cell type II
(A) Mountain plateaus appeared earlier in the fossil
(B) Wetlands record than the ancestor of
(C) Grasslands cell I
(D) Arid deserts (D) Both cell I and II are plant cells
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31. The stimulation of microbial
29. Viruses generally infect only one or
decomposition of recalcitrant
a few particular species. This is
compounds by the addition of
called : microorganisms specific for its
degradation is termed as :
(A) Host restriction
(A) Biostimulation
(B) Host range
(B) Bioaugmentation
(C) Cell specificity (C) Biotransformation
(D) Viral range (D) Bioconversion
32. Two statements I and II are given
30. E.coli is used as a faecal pollution
below :
indicator. The water giving positive
Statement I : Some vaccines when
results for the presence of E.coli is
administered protect the recepient
declared non-potable or unfit for from the specific infection for long
drinking. Which of the following is periods.
the most correct explanation for the Statement II : Antibodies induced by
some antigens are stable enough to
above strategy ?
persist in body for long periods.
(A) Faecal E.coli is extremely Which of the following options is
correct ?
pathogenic
(A) Both the statements are
(B) Presence of E.coli also means incorrect
the presence of pathogens
(B) Both the statements are correct
(C) E.coli and enteropathogens both and statement II is the cause
of statement I
enter water through faecal
(C) Statement I is correct, but the
matter
statement II is incorrect
(D) E.coli grows much faster than (D) Statement II is correct, but
most enteropathogens statement I is incorrect
9 [P.T.O.
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33. In a single substrate reaction, 34. Although pancreas is the site of
competitive inhibitor was added to storage of proteolytic enzymes, these
examine the effect on Km and Vmax. enzymes do not act on pancreatic
tissues because :
Which of the following equations
will be correct ? (A) They are inactivated
1 1 [I] (B) They are not released from
(A) V = V 1 +
K ESI
max
pancreas
K ES [I] 1
+ 1 + + (C) They are in the form of
Vmax K EI [S]
proenzymes
1 1 K
(B) = + ES
V Vmax Vmax (D) Their substrate is absent in
[I] 1 pancreas
1 +
K EI [S]
35. A sigmoidal plot of substrate
1 1 [I]
(C) = 1 + concentration verses velocity
V Vmax K EI
indicates :
K ES [I] 1
+ 1 + +
Vmax K EI [S] (A) Michaelis-Menten kinetics
1 1 [I] (B) Competitive inhibition
(D) = 1 +
V Vmax K ESI
(C) Non-competitive inhibition
K ES 1
+ .
Vmax [S] (D) Co-operative binding
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36. The disaccharide that does not react
38. Which of the following sugar pucker
with Benedict’s reagent is :
favours Z-conformation of DNA ?
(A) Sucrose
(A) 2'–0 H steric hindrance
(B) Lactose
(C) Maltose (B) Anti–G and C 2'–endosugar
(D) Isomaltose (C) Syn G and C 3'–endosugar
37. An amino acid contains no ionizable
(D) G 4 – DNA quartet
groups in its side chain (R). It is
titrated from pH 0 to 14. Which of 39. The sequence in which the following
the following ionizable state is not
electron carriers are organised in
observed during the entire titration
electron transport chain is :
in the pH range 0 to 14 ?
(A)
+
NH3 − CH − COO− (A) Ubiquinone, cytochrome a + a3,
|
R NADH dehydrogenase
+ (B) Cytochrome a + a3, ubiquinone,
(B) NH3 − CH − COOH
|
NADH dehydrogenase
R
(C) NADH dehydrogenase,
(C) NH2 − CH − COO−
|
ubiquinone, cytochrome a + a3
R
(D) NADH dehydrogenase,
(D) NH2 − CH − COOH
|
R cytochrome a + a3, ubiquinone
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42. The tertiary structure of proteins is
40. Maple syrup disease is a result of
stabilized by various interactions.
genetic defect in metabolism of : Which is the weakest interaction of
the following ?
(A) Sulphur containing amino acids
(A) Hydrogen bond
(B) Branched chain amino acids (B) Hydrophobic interactions
(C) Aromatic amino acids (C) van der Waals interactions
(D) Covalent bond
(D) Dicarboxylic amino acids
43. Hibernating animals can maintain
41. Which of the following tissues utilize their body temperature during
hybernation period. This is made
ketone body acetoacetate as a source
possible by :
of energy during prolonged (A) Maintaining the BMR at low
level
starvation ?
(B) Coupling oxidative
(A) Brain phosphorylation to ATP
synthesis
(B) Liver
(C) Uncoupling oxidative
(C) Skeletal muscle phosphorylation from ATP
synthesis
(D) Lung
(D) Catabolising muscle proteins
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44. There are many compounds that are 46. Gene density in eukaryotic
organisms is consistently lower and
known to be inhibitors of
more variable than in prokaryotes.
mitochondrial electron transport
Compared to lower eukaryotes like
chain (ETC). Which of the following
the yeast S. cerevisiae ( 500 genes/
is not an inhibitor of ETC ? Mb), the human genome has 50 fold
(A) Rotenone lower gene density. The eukaryotic
genes are also much larger in size.
(B) Antimycin A
This is because :
(C) Sodium azide
(A) eukaryotic genome has high
(D) Dinitrophenol proportion of repeats and
satellite DNAs and genes have
45. Coding strand in ds-DNA is :
introns
(A) identical in sequence to
(B) eukaryotic genome is diploid
transcribed RNA and has to cross over; also genes
are polycistronic
(B) complementary in sequence to
transcribed RNA (C) Prokaryotic genome has more
non-coding DNA and interrupted
(C) identical to sense strand of
genes
DNA
(D) eukaryotic genome has
(D) identical in sequence to ORF telomeres and centromeres and
alone genes are clustered as familites
13 [P.T.O.
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47. Non-homologous nucleotide 49. In an experiment to determine
genetic code, synthetic RNA
sequences in two DNA molecules
molecules with different composition
could be visualised using : of A and C nucleotide were used,
viz. (A) poly (AC) (5 : 1) and (B) poly
(A) Heteroduplex technique (AC) (1 : 5). Lysine was incorporated
in case of A with very high
(B) Fluorescent in-situ hybridisation
frequency and proline in case of B.
Lysine incorporation was least in B.
(C) Immunoblotting technique
The codon assignment could be
(D) Southern blotting and concluded as :
(A) AAA lysine; CCC proline
hybridisation
(B) AAC lysine; CCA proline
48. RNA type C tumor viruses are
(C) ACA lysine; CAC proline
negative strand viruses and amplify (D) CAA lysine; ACC proline
copy number of their genome by 50. Eukaryotic RNAs (transcripts)
are much longer than the final
using an enzyme encoded by them,
mRNAs. Splicing is a characteristic
which is : feature of eukaryotic processing.
This process involves :
(A) RNA replicase
(A) ribozymes and lariat
formation
(B) RNA polymerase
(B) heteroduplex formation
(C) RNA dependent DNA
(C) end joining complexes and
polymerase rRNA
(D) adaptor RNA and micro
(D) RNA helicase
RNA
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51. In an ipozya situation of a lac 52. Which of the following is not a
operon, where β-galactosidase is feature of transcription factors ?
generally inducible by lactose,
(A) glycosylation domain
diploids were created in a
(B) zinc finger motif
transduction experiment. In an
/ situation which of (C) helix-turn-helix
the following statements is valid ? (D) leucine zipper
(A) beta galactosidase will be 53. For precise quantification of
ipozya
ozya
constitutively expressed
differential gene expression at
(B) beta galactosidase will not be mRNA level for a gene ‘X’ which of
constitutively expressed
the following methods will be used ?
(C) beta galactosidase will not be
(A) Western blot
expressed
(B) Real time PCR
(D) beta galactosidase will not be
(C) RT-PCR
synthesised due to catabolite
repression (D) Northern blot
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55. Cancer is said to be a multistep
54. Modified nucleotides provide
process. Oncogenes and
additional level of information over antioncogenes are involved in the
process of carcinogenesis. The
and above genetic code. They
reason for cancer phenotype is :
influence genotype-phenotype
(A) Oncogenes acquire a dominant
correlation. This is due to the ability activating mutation while
antioncogenes get inactivated
of such modified nucleotides to
(B) Oncogenes are activated and
influence : duplicated and translocated
(C) Oncogene is inactivated and
(A) DNA protein interactions and
antioncogene is activated
DNA conformations (D) Loss of heterozygosity for
oncogenes
(B) DNA bending, promoter
56. If a woman desires to conceive after
stability and rate of the age of 35, she needs genetic
counselling. This is particularly
transcription required because of incidence
of...........................in the babies born
(C) RNA splicing and termination
to such mothers.
of transcription (A) Klinefelters syndrome
(B) Still birth
(D) RNA editing, transcription and
(C) Down’s syndrome
protein folding
(D) Abortion
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57. CI 857 is a mutation in lambda 58. Chromosome walking technique
phage wherein the repressor protein relies on :
is temperature sensitive and gets in-
(A) Genomic libraries
activated at 45ºC. Which of the
(B) cDNA libraries
following is true for this mutant of
λ phage ? (C) RFLP
(A) This mutant will not produce (D) Real time PCR
plaques in plate assay on E.coli 59. During natural transformation in
host at 37ºC or 45ºC
bacteria, a fragment of single strand
(B) Mutant will produce plaques at enters recipient cell. Upon its
37ºC but not at 45ºC interaction with recipient, a
(C) Mutant will produce turbid structure that results is termed as :
plaques at 37ºC and clear
(A) Merozygote
plaques at 45ºC
(B) Exogenote
(D) Mutant will produce clear
(C) Endogenote
plaques at 37ºC and turbid
plaques at 45ºC (D) Zygote
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60. Given genome size of an organism 62. Transgenic animals can be
utilised to produce recombinant
is 4 × 105 bP and its G + C content
therapeutic proteins such as
is 50%. Complete digestion of insulin and growth hormones. In
order to produce genetically
this genomic DNA by Bam H1 identical individuals which can
(GG AT CC) will yield an average be used for generation of animal
farms for biopharming the
fragment size of : following strategies can be
utilised.
(A) 1.5 kb
(A) embryo transfer
(B) 4 kb (B) artificial insemination
(C) in-vitro fertilisation
(C) 2 kb
(D) Cloning of animals
(D) 10 kb 63. In barley plants cross was carried
out between Hordeum vulgare and
61. DNA foot-printing technique is
H. bulbosum. Immature embryos
useful in : were cultured in-vitro on M. S.
medium to overcome natural
(A) Detection of genomic variations abortion. 35% of the embryos grown
in-vitro showed development of
(B) Detection of predisposition of haploid plants with Vulgare genome.
This phenomenon has occurred due
genetic diseases
to :
(C) Detection of protein-DNA (A) distant hybridization
interactions (B) genotypic variation
(C) somaclonal variation
(D) Prenatal sex determination
(D) phenotypic variation
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64. For cloning hybridomas, the cells 66. Suppose the Na + concentration
need to be distributed through serial
outside a cell is 100 mM and inside
dilutions to the extent of a single cell
it is 10 mM. The lactose
deposited in a well in the 96-well cell
culture plates. To ensure that such concentration on both sides of the
a cell grows and propagates the membrane is 10 mM. If there is an
following is required :
integral membrane protein for the
(A) grow them with addition of
symport of Na+ and lactose, which
growth factors
of the following results would you
(B) grow them in the presence of
high serum concentration expect ?
(C) plate them on a feeder-layer of (A) No change, as ATP hydrolysis
uv-irradiated fibroblast cells
would be necessary to transport
(D) grow them along with myeloma
lactose
cells
65. Release of Ca++ from the ER in a (B) Na + will enter but lactose
fertilised egg is triggered by : concentration will not change
(A) Map kinase pathway because it is at equilibrium
(B) Innositol triphosphate (IP 3)
(C) Na+ will enter and lactose will
pathway
leave the cell
(C) Wnt signalling pathway
(D) Both lactose and Na+ will enter
(D) C-AMP-dependent signalling
pathway the cell
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67. The most suitable ligand for 70. DNA sequence determination
purification of glycoproteins from a
classically involves sequencing by
given mixture of proteins is :
synthesis or degradation which is
(A) Heparin
used in Sanger or Maxam Gibert
(B) Concanavalin A
method. In the NGS (next
(C) Avidin
generation sequencing) which of the
(D) 5'-AMP
following methods is used ?
68. Which of the following microscopic
techniques is useful to observe three- (A) Radioactivity
dimensional structure of the cell ?
(B) Fluorescence
(A) SEM
(C) Luminiscence
(B) Light microscopy
(D) Electrical conductance
(C) Fluorescence microscopy
(D) TEM 71. Which of the following molecules
69. You have been asked to measure has the highest molar extinction
DNA synthesis, which radioisotope coefficient ?
is of better choice ?
(A) GFP
(A) 3H Thymidine
(B) Fluorescein
(B) 32 P
(C) Rhodamine
(C) 14C ATP
(D) 15N cytosine (D) Chlorophyll
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72. Leukemia or blood cancer is 74. Which of the following enzymatic
uncontrolled proliferation of an
reaction produces chromatogenic
abnormal clone of hematopoietic
cells. The diagnosis is generally product ?
based on detection of abnormal cells
(A) Phosphatase using para-
in blood and bone marrow. One of
the most powerful confirmatory nitrophenyl phosphate
approach is immunophenotyping of
the cells. The immunophenotyping (B) β-galactosidase using X-gal
analysis can be carried out by :
(C) Cytochrome oxidase with
(A) Enzyme linked immunosorbant
cytochrome C
assay
(B) Radioimmunoassay (D) Alcohol dehydrogenase with
(C) Flow cytometry ethanol
(D) Immunoprecipitation
75. The resemblance between groups
73. In a HPLC separation of a sample,
and within groups of relatives can
it is suspected that two known
molecules could be present in a be determined by applying which
single peak. How can you verify
test ?
this ?
(A) Changing the elution gradient (A) Correlation
(B) Increasing the run time
(B) Covariances
(C) Spiking with suspected
molecules (C) ANOVA
(D) Changing the mobile phase (D) Regression
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ROUGH WORK
22Official key not published for this paper.
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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.