MH SET 2015: 6 September, Paper II, Geography
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Test Booklet No.
F
GEOGRAPHY
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)
(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
AUG - 36215 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 28 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
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Example : where (C) is the correct response.
A B D
(C)
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5.
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any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
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end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
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AUG - 36215/II 2
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AUG - 36215/II
Geography
Paper II
II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This paper contains 50 multiple choice questions, each carrying
Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
50 (2)
1. Which one of the following type of 1.
mountains is formed exclusively by
exogenetic processes ?
(A)
(A) Fold mountain
(B)
(B) Block mountain
(C)
(C) Residual mountain
(D)
(D) Volcanic mountain
2. The slope of plates sliding into 2.
asthenosphere can be inferred from
the analysis of ...................... .
(A) Palaeomagnetic conditions
(A)
(B) Depth of earthquake focii
(B)
(C) Distribution of earthquakes and
volcanoes (C)
(D) Speed of plate movement (D)
3 [P.T.O.
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3. Though the age of oldest rocks on 3.
the earth is estimated to be 3200
million years (myrs), the age of
ocean floor is nowhere older than
....................... myrs. (A) 2000
(A) 2000 (B) 1000
(B) 1000
(C) 500
(C) 500
(D) 200
(D) 200
4. Who among the following scholars 4.
criticized the concept of cycle of
erosion mainly with reference to
‘base level’ ?
(A)
(A) W. Penck
(B)
(B) Hettner
(C)
(C) Passarge
(D) L. C. King (D)
4
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5. Transportation of load in suspension 5.
is not possible for ........... .
(A) River (A)
(B) Sea waves (B)
(C) Glacier (C)
(D) Wind (D)
6. Commercial airliners of temperate 6.
latitudes prefer to fly in the
atmospheric layer namely ............... .
(A) Lower Troposphere (A)
(B) Upper Troposphere (B)
(C) Upper Stratosphere (C)
(D) Lower Stratosphere (D)
5 [P.T.O.
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7. ....................... is predominant in 7.
terrestrial radiation.
(A) Ultraviolet (A)
(B) Infrared (B)
(C) Visible (C)
(D) X-ray (D)
8. When pressure gradient and Coriolis 8.
force are at balance, the resultant
winds are ...................... .
(A) Foehn winds (A)
(B)
(B) Chinook winds
(C)
(C) Geostrophic winds
(D)
(D) Monsoon winds
6
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9. The waves in high velocity winds of 9.
westerlies are called .................. .
(A) Hurricanes (A)
(B) Polar Front (B)
(C) Rossby (C)
(D)
(D) Doldrums
10. Which one of the following criteria 10.
is used to identify Koppen’s ‘A’ type
of climate ?
(A) Mean monthly temperature of
the coldest month is more than (A)
freezing point
(B) High rainfall throughout the
(B)
year
(C) Mean monthly temperature in (C)
all the months is more than
18ºC
18ºC
(D)
(D) Mean monthly temperature in
all the months is below 18ºC 18ºC
7 [P.T.O.
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11. The deepest zone of ocean is known 11.
as ...................... .
(A) hadal zone (A)
(B) hollow zone (B)
(C) halo zone (C)
(D) hidal zone (D)
12. Arrange the following sea salts in 12.
their descending proportion of
occurrence in ocean water :
(i)
(i) Sodium
(ii)
(ii) Sulphate
(iii)
(iii) Chloride
(iv)
(iv) Magnesium
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(B) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
8
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13. In which of the following 13.
zoogeographical regions demarcated
by sclater, countries bordering
Mediterranean are included ?
(A)
(A) Palaearctic region
(B)
(B) Nearctic region
(C)
(C) Neotropical region
(D)
(D) Ethiopean region
14.
14. Which one of the following is most
important element of ecosystem ?
(A) Energy flow (A)
(B) Ecological succession (B)
(C) Food chain (C)
(D) Food web (D)
9 [P.T.O.
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15. The evolution of plants is 15.
scientifically explained by ............... .
(A) Adaptation (A)
(B) Climatic climax (B)
(C) Organic evolution (C)
(D)
(D) Plant succession
16.
16. Which one of the following pairs of
proponent and concept is not
matched correctly ?
Propone nt Concept (A)
(A) Leibnitz — Concept of world
as an organism (B) (inductive)
(B) Aristotle — Inductive reasoning
(C) Yi-Fu-Tuan — Geosophy (C)
(D) Patric Geddes — Place-Work-Folk (D)
Progression
10
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17. Who among the following 17.
geographers was the originator of
‘dualism’ between physical and
human geography ?
(A)
(A) Fredrich Ratzel
(B)
(B) Richthofen
(C)
(C) Carl Ritter
(D)
(D) Oscar Peschel
18.
18. First geographer to initiate change
over from the dominantly liberal
to the Marxist perspective in
geography was .................... .
(A)
(A) David Smith
(B)
(B) David Harvey
(C) D. T. Herbert (C)
(D) William Bunge (D)
11 [P.T.O.
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19. Match the following List I 19. I II
(Proponents) with List II
(Contribution) and select the correct
answer from the codes given I II
below :
List I List II
(a) (i )
(Proponent) (Contribution)
(b) (ii )
(a ) A. J. Herbertson (i) Positivism
(b ) O.H.K. Spate (ii ) Uniformitarianism (c) (iii)
(c) Auguste Comte (iii) Scheme of natural
(d ) (iv)
regions
(d) Hutton (iv) Probabilism
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (iv) (i ) (ii )
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii ) (iii) (iv) (i )
(B) (ii ) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii ) (iv) (iii) (i )
(C) (ii ) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (iii) (i ) (ii ) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i ) (ii) (iv)
12
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20. Who among the following firmly 20.
believed that all History must be
treated geographically and also that
all geography must be studied
historically ? (A)
(A) Anaximander
(B)
(B) Hecataeus
(C)
(C) Herodotus
(D)
(D) Thales
21. Which one of the following is 21.
mismatched ?
Concept Meaning
(A)
(A) Ecumenopolis — Ultimate city with
larger area with
most of its
population (B)
(B) Megalopolis — Integration of large
urban agglomera-
tion into highly
urbanised country
(C)
(C) Metropolis — Capital city with
metro services
(D)
(D) Acropolis — The highest part of
the city usually
with fortification
13 [P.T.O.
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22. As per the Rank-Size-Rule, what 22.
would be the population size of the
third ranking city Nagpur in
Maharashtra when the first ranking
city Mumbai in Maharashtra has
120 lakh population ? (A)
(A) 60 lakh
(B)
(B) 90 lakh
(C)
(C) 80 lakh
(D)
(D) 40 lakh
23.
23. The extensive built-up area formed
by the coalescence of once-separate
and mainly urban settlements is
termed as .................... .
(A) Conurbation (A)
(B) Fringe (B)
(C) Metropolis (C)
(D) Rurban (D)
14
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24. Which statements are true 24.
characteristics of primate city ?
(a) exceptionally expressive of (a)
national capacity and feeling
(b) usually disproportionately (b)
larger than any other in the
system (c)
(c) may arise due to historical and
contemporary effects on size and
distance (d)
(d) U.S.A., Russia, China and India
demonstrate some good
examples of primate city
(A) (a) and (b) only (A) (a) (b)
(B) (a) and (c) only (B) ( a) (c)
(C) (c) and (d) only (C) (c) (d)
(D) (b) and (d) only (D) (b) (d)
15 [P.T.O.
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25. Consider the following statements 25.
and identify the correct statements
from the codes given below :
(a) The agricultural density refers
(a)
to agricultural population to
total cultivated area
(b) The economic density refers to
the ratio between the
(b)
requirements of a population
and the resources made
available to it by production of
the areas it occupies
(c) The arithmetic density is a
(c)
simple ratio between the total
population and residential
area
Codes :
(A) ( a) (c)
(A) (a) and (c) only
(B) ( a) (b)
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) ( b) (c)
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) (b) only (D) (b)
16
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26. Which of the following industry 26.
generally has linear location ?
(A) Tourism (A)
(B) Iron and steel (B)
(C) Cotton textile (C)
(D) Chemical industry (D)
27. The concept of ‘comparative 27.
advantage’ provides an
understanding of ................... .
(A)
(A) Regional specialisation
(B) Locating plants near raw (B)
material sources
(C) Lower wage rates in a
(C)
developed country
(D)
(D) High market demand for
products
17 [P.T.O.
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28. According to Von-Thunen, when 28.
production plus transport costs
equals the value of the commodity
at the market, the farmer is
at ..................... .
(A)
(A) Economic margin of cultivation
(B)
(B) Economic rent
(C)
(C) Locational rent
(D)
(D) Spatial margin of profitability
29.
29. Which of the following tertiary
activities is the world’s largest
industry in terms of jobs and total
value generated ?
(A)
(A) Retail
(B)
(B) Information Technology
(C) Stock Market (C)
(D) Tourism (D)
18
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30. Which of the following is not a type 30.
of shifting cultivation ?
(A) Milpa (A)
(B) Chitemene (B)
(C) Ladang (C)
(D) Maquiladorus (D)
31. According to Mackinder’s Heartland 31.
Theory the ‘Pivot area’ is termed
as .................... .
(A)
(A) Inner crescent
(B)
(B) Outer crescent
(C)
(C) Insular crescent
(D)
(D) Middle crescent
32. Toponym means ..................... . 32. (toponym)
(A) Region (A)
(B) Area (B)
(C) Space (C)
(D) Place
(D)
19 [P.T.O.
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33. ‘Relocation diffusion’ takes 33.
place .................. .
(A) when acceptance of information
(A)
about an information spreads
through society
(B)
(B) geographical transfer of culture
traits by movements of people
across space
(C) when expansion of culture (C)
affects uniformly in areas
outward from source region
(D) cultural development in
(D)
different places
34.
34. A good indicator of social status
is ................... .
(A) commuting to CBD (A) CBD
(B) ethnic composition (B)
(C) number of automobile users (C)
(D) number of persons per room per (D)
housing unit
20
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35. Mixing and adaptation of different 35.
cultures is known as ................... .
(A) Interaction (A)
(B) Assimilation (B)
(C) Aculturation (C)
(D) Amalgamation (D)
36. Activities in the region which 36.
produce goods and services for
export are called as .................... .
(A) Non-basic activities (A)
(B) Basic activities (B)
(C) Local administration (C)
(D) Bakery (D)
37. Which one of the following is not the 37.
part of Dudley Stamp’s scheme of
macro-level regionalization of
India ?
(A)
(A) The mountain rim
(B)
(B) The Gangetic plain
(C)
(C) The peninsula
(D) The coastal plains (D)
21 [P.T.O.
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38. The activity that involves the 38.
acceptance of clearly defined system
of objectives to frame the overall
policies is called .................... .
(A)
(A) Political economy
(B)
(B) Development
(C)
(C) Planning
(D)
(D) Regionalization
39. Production of ..................... is included 39.
in new agricultural policy of 2000,
described as ‘Rainbow Revolution’.
(A) Fruits and Vegetables (A)
(B) Food grains (B)
(C) Commercial crops (C)
(D) Fisheries (D)
22
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40. The optimal development of local 40.
people by the local government by
developing the local resources is
termed as .................. .
(A)
(A) Rural development
(B)
(B) Remote area development
(C)
(C) Eco-development
(D)
(D) Regional development
41. Which one of the following pairs of 41.
Valley National Park and State is
not correctly matched ?
(A) Pin Valley — Himachal
(A)
Pradesh
(B) Neora Valley — Arunachal
(B)
Pradesh
(C) Valley of — Uttarakhand
(C)
Flowers
(D) Wayanad — Kerala (D)
23 [P.T.O.
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42. Which one of the following groups
42.
of state shows correct descending
order of density of population
(per sq. km.) as per 2011 census ?
(A) Kerala, West Bengal, Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar and (A)
Uttar Pradesh
(B)
(C) Bihar, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh
and West Bengal
(C)
(D) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala and
Uttar Pradesh (D)
43. Which of the following two districts
43.
from Maharashtra appear in the list
of top 10 in India recording negative
growth rate of population as per
2011 census ?
(A) Mumbai Suburban and
(A)
Ratnagiri
(B)
(B) Mumbai City and Sindhudurg
(C)
(C) Mumbai City and Ratnagiri
(D) Sindhudurg and Ratnagiri (D)
24
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44. Which of the following states has 44.
recorded second lowest literacy rate
in India as per 2011 census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (A)
(B) Arunachal Pradesh (B)
(C)
(C) Rajasthan
(D)
(D) Bihar
45. Arrange the following hills from 45.
South to North in locational
sequence : (a)
(a) Nallamalai Hills
(b)
(b) Dafla Hills
(c)
(c) Javadi Hills
(d)
(d) Ramgarh Hills
Codes : Choose the correct option
(A) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(A) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(B) (a), (d), (b), (c)
(B) (a), (d), (b), (c)
(C) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(C) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(D) (d), (b), (c), (a) (D) (d), (b), (c), (a)
25 [P.T.O.
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46. Which of the following formulae you 46.
will use to calculate co-efficient of
variation ?
(A) s / n
(A) s / n
(B) /x
(B) /x
x
x (C)
(C) n
n
(x x )2
(x x )2 (D)
(D) n
n
47. In GIS Topology describes ............. . 47.
(A) how objects are connected with
reference to their co-ordinates (A)
(B) how objects are connected to one
another independent of their
(B)
coordinates
(C) how grid cells are set up
adjacent to one another (C)
(D) how grid cells are contained
within a larger raster data (D)
model
26
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48. On a very small scale map, cities 48.
would likely to be shown as .............. .
(A) Points (A)
(B) Polygon (B)
(C) Individual lines (C)
(D) Grid cells (D)
49. If the data are skewed which of the 49.
following measure of central
tendency you will recommend ?
(A) Mean (A)
(B) Median (B)
(C) Average (C)
(D) Mode (D)
50. The information (data) related to sea 50.
surface elevation will be available
from .................... Indian satellite.
(A) SARAL (A) SARAL
(B) GSAT-7 (B) GSAT-7
(C) IRNSS-1A (C) IRNSS-1A
(D) RISAT-1 (D) RISAT-1
27 [P.T.O.
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ROUGH WORK
28Official key not published for this paper.
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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.