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MH SET 2018: 28 January, Paper II, Chemical Sciences

  • Date: 28 January 2018
  • Paper code: JAN33218
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 20 pages
MH SET 2018 question paper, 28 January 2018, Paper II, Chemical Sciences, page 1 of 20
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                    A
                                                  CHEMICAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                                Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                                  (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                    Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                   (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                      OMR Sheet No.

JAN - 33218                                                                                         (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours]                                                                             [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
                     Instructions for the Candidates
1.        Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
          on the top of this page.
2.        This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question
          will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory,     2.
          covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3.        At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
          will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
          requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as            3.
          follows :
          (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                   paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
                                                                                          (i)
                   a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
          (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions
                   in the booklet with the information printed on the                     (ii)
                   cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
                   questions or questions repeated or not in serial
                   order or any other discre pancy should not be
                   accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
                   from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
                   Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
                   replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
                   may please be noted.
          (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                   should be entered on this Test Booklet.                                (iii)
4.        Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
          (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
          the correct response against each item.                                 4.                      (A), (B), (C)   (D)
          Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                             A        B                 D
                                                                                                    (C)
5.        Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
          Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place                                   A         B             D
          other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
                                                                                  5.
6.        Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.        Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8.        If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put                6.
          any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space             7.
          allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your              8.
          identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
          means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.        You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
          end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with          9.
          you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
          to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
          conclusion of examination.
10.       Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.                                     10.
11.       Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.                11.
12.       There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                     12.
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JAN - 33218/II—A




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JAN - 33218/II—A
                             Chemical Science
                                     Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes]                           [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
1.    The number of Metal-Metal bonds in [Re2Cl8]2– is/are :
      (A)   One                               (B)    Two
      (C)   Three                             (D)    Four
2.    The structure of (NH3)3CrO4 is :
      (A)   Trigonal bipyramid                (B)    Pentagonal bipyramid
      (C)   Square Pyramid                    (D)    Pentagonal Pyramid
3.    In gas chromatography, the basis of separation of the components is the
      difference in :
      (A)   Conductivity                      (B)    Molecular Weight
      (C)   Molarity                          (D)    Partition Coefficient
4.    The normality of a solution is determined by four separate titrations, the results
      being 0·2041, 0·2049, 0·2039 and 0·2043. The average deviation for the results
      is :
      (A)   0·0003                            (B)    0·2043
      (C)   0·0006                            (D)    0·0009
5.    In the Kroll process Titanium is extracted by reducing TiCl4 with..............
      metal.
      (A)   Barium                            (B)    Magnesium
      (C)   Aluminum                          (D)    Zinc
6.    The X-band EPR spectra of phenyl radical will exhibit.................lines.
      (A)   3                                 (B)    8
      (C)   18                                (D)    28

                                          3                                     [P.T.O.
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7.    The staggered configuration of ferrocene [Fe( 5-C5H5)2] belong to................
      symmetry group.

      (A)   C 5v                                 (B)     C 5h

      (C)   D5d                                  (D)     D5h

8.    The spin only magnetic moment for a first row transition metal ion with 3F 4
      ground state term is :

      (A)   3·87 B.M.                            (B)     4·90 B.M.

      (C)   2·83 B.M.                            (D)     5·92 B.M.

9.    Crystal Field Stabilization Energy for a d3 ion in tetrahedral geometry is :

      (A)   –1·2                                 (B)     –0·8

      (C)   –0·4                                 (D)     0·0

10.   Which of the following statements is true with respect to 57Fe Mossbauer
      spectra of (i) FeSO4·7H2O, (ii) K4[Fe(CN)6], (iii) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]·2H2O ?

      (A)   singlet in (i), doublet in (ii) and (iii)

      (B)   singlet in (ii), doublet in (i) and (iii)

      (C)   singlet in (i), and (iii), doublet in (ii)

      (D)   doublet in (i), (ii) and (iii)

11.   The geometry of the interhalogen compound BrF 3 is :

      (A)   Square planar                        (B)     Tetrahedral

      (C)   Octahedron                           (D)     Trigonal bipyramid

                                             4
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12.   The IUPAC nomenclature of [Co·Cl·CN·NO2·(NH3)3] is :

      (A)   Triamminechloridocyanidonitrocobalt (III)

      (B)   Chloridocyanidonitrotriamminecobalt (III)

      (C)   Cyanidochloridonitrotriamminecobalt (III)

      (D)   Triamminechloridonitrocyanidocobalt (III)

13.   The cation of dichloro bis(ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) belongs to D3 symmetry
      is an example of :

      (A)   Coordination isomerism           (B)   Optical isomerism

      (C)   Linkage isomerism                (D)   Ionization isomerism

14.   The 1G term of nd2 configuration can be assigned to :

      (A)   45 microstates                   (B)   9 microstates

      (C)   21 microstates                   (D)    15 microstates

15.   The F—N—F bond angle in NF3 is :

      (A)   109° 28                          (B)    107° 48

      (C)   102° 30                          (D)    104° 27

16.   The correct order of First Ionization energy of group 13 elements is :

      (A)   B > Tl > Ga > Al > In            (B)   B > Tl > Al > Ga > In

      (C)   B > Al > Ga > In > Tl            (D)   B > Ga > Tl > In > Al

17.   The ionophore valinomycin is highly selective for :

      (A)   K+                               (B)    Na+

      (C)   Mg2+                             (D)    Ca2+

                                         5                                   [P.T.O.
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18.   Common feature of CO, CN– and NO+ ligands is :

      (A)   They have empty      orbitals

      (B)   They act as    donor ligands

      (C)   They are all weak field ligands

      (D)   They decrease the value of      0

19.   Number of stereoisomers possible for the compound, CH3CH = CH—CH(OH)CH

      = CHCH3 is :

      (A)   4                                   (B)   6

      (C)   7                                   (D)   8

20.   The correct order of acidity for the following compounds is :




      (A)   III > I > II > IV                   (B)   II > III > I > IV

      (C)   IV > II > I > III                   (D)   III > II > I > IV

                                        6
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21.   Number of signals observed in the 1H NMR and proton decoupled 13C NMR
      spectrum of the following compound, respectively, are :




      (A)  4, 4                           (B)  5, 4
      (C)  8, 7                           (D)  8, 4
22.   The major product formed in the following reaction is :




      (A)                                 (B)




      (C)                                 (D)



                                      7                                  [P.T.O.
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23.   Amongst the following, the compound that will show IR absorption band at
      1780 cm–1 is :




      (A)                                  (B)




      (C)                                  (D)


24.   Major product of the following reaction is :




      (A)                                  (B)




      (C)                                  (D)



                                       8
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25.   The correct IUPAC nomenclature of the following compound is :




      (A)   5-Bromo-2-chloroheptane        (B)   2-Chloro-5-bromoheptane

      (C)   3-Bromo-6-chloroheptane        (D)   6-Chloro-3-bromoheptane

26.   Number of signals observed in the 1H NMR spectrum is p-tolualdehyde is :

      (A)   3                              (B)   4

      (C)   5                              (D)   6

27.   The correct absolute configuration for the chiral centers in the following

      compound is :




      (A)   1S, 4S                         (B)   1S, 4R

      (C)   1R, 4R                         (D)   1R, 4S

                                       9                                [P.T.O.
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28.   Major product formed in the following reaction is :




      (A)




      (B)




      (C)




      (D)


                                      10
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29.   Multiplicity of the signal expected in the 1H NMR spectrum of the following
      compound is :




      (A)   singlet                          (B)   doublet

      (C)   triplet                          (D)   AB quartet

30.   The correct IUPAC nomenclature of the following compound is :




      (A)   2-Nitro-5-carbaldehydo anisole

      (B)   2-Methoxy-4-carbaldehydo nitrobenzene

      (C)   4-Nitro-5-methoxy benzaldehyde

      (D)   3-Methoxy-4-nitro benzaldehyde

                                      11                                 [P.T.O.
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31.   The least stable conformation of 2-methylbutane is :




      (A)




      (B)




      (C)




      (D)




                                      12
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32.   The major product formed in the following reactions is :




      (A)




      (B)




      (C)




      (D)



                                      13                              [P.T.O.
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33.   Major product formed in the following reaction is :




      (A)                                  (B)




      (C)                                  (D)



34.   Chiral compound amongst the following is :



      (A)                                  (B)




      (C)                                  (D)




                                      14
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35.   The freezing point of a mixture containing 1·60 g of naphthalene (molar

      mass = 128 g mol–1) and 20 g of benzene (molar mass = 78 g mol–1) is 2·8°C

      and that of pure benzene is 5·5°C. The value of the molal freezing point

      depression constant of benzene is :


      (A)    4·3°C kg mol–1                     (B)    4·3°C g mol–1


      (C)    4·3°C mol kg–1                     (D)    5·1°C mol g–1


36.   T h e vapou r pr essu r e of 0·5 M aqu eou s K N O 3 solution is 749·7 torr at 100°C.

      The activity of water in this solution at 100°C is :


      (A)    0·9218                             (B)    1·0023


      (C)    1·0230                             (D)    0·9864


37.   When an ideal kept in a closed container at constant volume was cooled from

      50°C to 25°C, it will lead to :


      (A)    Increase in the numbers of collisions per unit time


      (B)    Increase in the mean free path of the gas


      (C)    Increase in the average velocity of the gas


      (D)    Decrease in the average velocity of the gas

                                           15                                     [P.T.O.
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38.   For the decomposition reaction
                                 A3     3/2A2
      The following concentration Vs. time profiles were obtained. At time tA,
      percentage of A3 decomposed is :




      (A)   75                              (B)   50
      (C)   25                              (D)   10
39.   In the reaction :
                   Cl 2(g) + 3F2(g)    2ClF3; Hr = – 329 kJ
      When the reaction is in equilibrium, which of the following will increase the
      amount of ClF3 ?
      (I)   Increasing the temperature
      (II)  Increasing the volume of the reactor
      (III) Removing Cl2
      (IV) Adding F2
      (A)   I, II and III                   (B)   IV only
      (C)   I and IV                        (D)   II and IV
40.   In the reaction :
                          ZnO + X + heat       Zn + XO
      Which element represented by X is industrially used to produce Zn metal ?
      (A)   Cu                              (B)   C
      (C)   Hg                              (D)   Pb
                                       16
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41.   Which of the following is not a redox reaction ?

      (A)   CuO + H2 —        Cu + H2O

      (B)   Fe2O3 + 3CO —         2Fe + 3CO2

      (C)   2K + F2 —       2KF

      (D)   BaCl2 + H2SO4 —          BaSO4 + 2HCl


42.




      Which of the following statements best describes the flow of electrons in the
      above electrochemical cell ?

      (A)   From Pb electrode to Zn electrode through the Cu wire

      (B)   From Pb electrode to Zn electrode through the salt bridge

      (C)   From the Zn electrode to Pb electrode through the salt bridge

      (D)   From Zn electrode to Pb electrode through Cu wire

43.   A radioactive substances has half life of 140 days. The fraction of the substance
      that will remain after 2 years and 250 days is :

      (A)   1/7                               (B)    1/14

      (C)   127/128                           (D)    1/128

                                         17                                    [P.T.O.
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44.   To balance the following reaction :
                         2–                   2–
                       SO3(aq.) H2O         SO4(aq.)    2H (aq.)

      one needs to :
      (A)   Add 2H2O to the left side
      (B)   Add 2e– to the right side
      (C)   Add 2e– to the left side
      (D)   Multiply both sides by a factor of 2
45.   When a small amount of copper powder is added to ZnSO 4 solution, what
      would be the observation ?
      (A)   Effervesence                      (B)      Precipitation of a white solid
      (C)   Formation of a blue solution      (D)      No reaction
46.   General acid (A) Base (B) titration curve is represented as follows :




      What should be the equation for estimation of pH at point (L) :
                                                              1       1
      (A)   pH = pKw + log [B]                (B)      pH =     pKa +   pKw
                                                              2       2
                   1       1
      (C)   pH =     pKa –   log [A]initial (D)        pH = pKa
                   2       2

                                        18
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47.   The stoichiometric point of the titration of 25·0 mL, 0·100 M HClO with 0·10 M

      NaOH(aq) occurs when the molar concentration of NaClO is 0·050 M. The

      pH of this solution is about (given pKa of HClO = 7·43; log 0·05 = – 1·301)


      (A)   2·63                             (B)   3·94


      (C)   10·10                            (D)   11·36


48.   Hydride ion (H–) is :


      (A)   Not isoelectric with He          (B)   Bronsted-Lowrry base of H2


      (C)   Bronsted acid of OH–             (D)   A Lewis acid


49.   The pH of 0·2M HCN(aq.) is (pKa of HCN = 9·31; log10 2 = 0·3010 and

      log10 0·2 = – 0·6990) :


      (A)   5·0                              (B)   9·6


      (C)   8·6                              (D)   4·3


50.   Which of the following is the strongest conjugate base ?


      (A)   ClCH2COO–                        (B)   Cl·CH2·CH2COO–


      (C)   CH3COO–                          (D)   Cl2CHCOO–

                                        19                                  [P.T.O.
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ROUGH WORK




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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.