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MH SET 2020: 27 December, Paper II, Chemical Sciences

  • Date: 27 December 2020
  • Paper code: JUN33220
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 36 pages
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                      A
                                                   CHEMICAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                                  Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                                    (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                     Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                    (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                       OMR Sheet No.

JUN - 33220                                                                                           (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 36                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.     2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are           3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept                (i)
                    a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
           (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
                    the booklet with the information printed on the cover                   (ii)
                    page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                    or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                    other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
                    booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
                    the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                    Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
                    given. The same may please be noted.
           (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                                                                                            (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on        4.                       (A), (B), (C)   (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                            (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                       A        B              D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
           other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.    5.
6.         Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.         Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                    6.
8.         If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put                7.
           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                   8.
           allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
           identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with          9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
           conclusion of examination.
                                                                                   10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                   11.
11.        Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                     12.
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JUN - 33220/II—A




2
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JUN - 33220/II—A
                               Chemical Science
                                      Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                          [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   The bond length of the tetrachlorides for the following Group IV elements
     follows the order :
     (A) SiCl4 > CCl4 > GeCl4                  (B) SiCl4 > GeCl4 > CCl4
     (C) GeCl4 > SiCl4 > CCl4                  (D) GeCl4 > CCl4 > SiCl4
2.   In the reactions

     (i)   nH2O + Cl–          Cl H2O n
                                           2
     (ii) 6H2O + Mg2+           Mg H2O 6
     water acts as :
     (A) an acid in both (i) and (ii)          (B) an acid in (i) and base in (ii)
     (C) base in (i) and acid in (ii)          (D) base in both (i) and (ii)
3.   Carbon monoxide (CO) is isoelectronic with :
     (A) N2                                    (B) O2
     (C) NO                                    (D) CN–
4.   Which of the following statements regarding solubility of LiF and LiI in water
     at room temperature is correct ?
     (A) Both are equally soluble              (B) Both are insoluble
     (C) LiF is more soluble than LiI          (D) LiI is more soluble than LiF
5.   The hydrogen bond strength in
     (i) O—H.....O
     (ii) O—H.....Cl
     (iii) O—H.....N
     will follow the order :
     (A) (i) > (iii) > (ii)                    (B) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
     (C) (i) = (ii) > (iii)                    (D) (i) > (ii) > (iii)

                                           3                                   [P.T.O.
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                                                                   2
6.   The type of hybridization in the diamagnetic        Ni CN 4       and paramagnetic
               2
      NiCl4        is :
     (A) sp3d2 and sp3                        (B) dsp2 and sp3
     (C) sp3d and dsp2                        (D) dsp2 and sp2
7.   The IUPAC nomenclature for the complex           PtBr CH 3NH 2 Cl NH 3      is :
     (A) methylamine ammine bromido chlorido platinum (II)
     (B) bromido methylamine chlorido ammine platinum (II)
     (C) chlorido ammine methylamine bromido platinum (II)
     (D) ammine bromido chlorido methylamine platinum (II)
8.   The number of EPR lines observed in [Cu (pyridine)2 Cl2] will be (Given : nuclear
     spin 63Cu = 3/2) :
     (A) 20                                   (B) 4
     (C) 5                                    (D) 9
9.   A polycrystalline powder X-band EPR spectrum of a six coordinate Cu2+ complex
     exhibits g11 = 2.35 and g1 = 2.06. The nature of this spectrum will be :
     (A) rhombic                              (B) isotropic
     (C) axial                                (D) diamagnetic
10. The stretching frequency for CO, CN– and NO in IR spectrum will be of the
     order :
     (A) CN– > CO > NO                        (B) CO > CN– > NO
     (C) NO > CO > CN–                        (D) CO > NO > CN–
11. The only electronic transition that occurs in Cu2+ tetrahedral complexes is :
     (A) 2Eg         2T
                          2g                  (B) 2E         2T
                                                              2
     (C) 2T2g         2E
                           g                  (D)   2T
                                                         2
                                                             2E

12. The correct order of magnetic moment of Lanthanide ions La 3+, Gd3+ and
     Ce3+ is :
     (A) La3+ > Gd3+ > Ce3+                   (B) Gd3+ > Ce3+ > La3+
     (C) Ce3+ > Gd3+ > La3+                   (D) La3+ > Ce3+ > Gd3+
                                          4
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13. The first absorption level of [VF6]3– complex is observed at 14,800 cm–1. The
    10 Dq value for the complex is :
    (A) 14,800 cm–1                         (B) 18,500 cm–1
    (C) 12,916 cm–1                         (D) 8,700 cm–1
14. The geometry of N(SiH3)3 will be :
    (A) tetrahedral                         (B) trigonal pyramidal
    (C) trigonal planar                     (D) linear
15. The driving force for complexation of Mg 2+ by EDTA in aqueous medium is :
    (A) change in oxidation state of magnesium
    (B) increase in entropy
    (C) change in coordination geometry
    (D) decrease in entropy
16. Which of the following can be classified as labile complexes ?
    (i) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
    (ii) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
    (iii) [V(H2O)6]3+
    (A) (i) and (ii)                        (B) (ii) and (iii)
    (C) (iii) and (i)                       (D) Only (iii)
17. Which of the following represents the correct order of Lewis acidity ?
    (A) AlCl3 > BF3 > BCl3                  (B) AlCl3 > BCl3 > BF3
    (C) BCl3 > BF3 > AlCl3                  (D) BF3 > BCl3 > AlCl3
18. Which of the following statements about the reaction
                        SbF5 + 2HF        [SbF6]– + H2F+
    is correct :
    (A) H2F+ is a superacid
    (B) SbF5 is a Lewis base
    (C) HF is a stronger acid than H2F+
    (D) [SbF6]– is a Lewis acid
19. The element which causes chemical interference in Atomic Absorption
    spectroscopy is :
    (A) Al                                  (B) Sr
    (C) La                                  (D) Mn
20. An analytical technique in which the temperature difference between the
    sample and a non-reactive reference material is monitored is :
    (A) TGA                                 (B) DTG
    (C) DSC                                 (D) DTA
                                       5                                  [P.T.O.
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21. In ion-exchange chromatography the capacity of exchange of hydrated ions
    of Al+3, Ca2+ and Na+ on the surface of cationic exchanger will follow the
    order :
    (A) Na+ > Ca2+ > Al3+                   (B) Al3+ > Ca2+ > Na+
    (C) Na+ < Ca2+ > Al3+                   (D) Al3+ < Ca2+ > Na+
22. The percentage of bromide ion in a compound was found by three students
    as 10.20, 10.30 and 10.40. The mean deviation of the result is :
    (A) 0.66                                (B) 6.60
    (C) 0.0066                              (D) 0.066
23. The reaction of NiBr2 and Ph2FtP results in two products with composition
    [Ni(P(Ph)2Et)2 Br2]. The first product is green in colour with magnetic moment
    3.20 B.M. The second product is red in colour and is diamagnetic. The geometry
    of the green and red product respectively is :
    (A) square planar and tetrahedral
    (B) trigonal pyramidal and octahedral
    (C) octahedral and trigonal bipyramidal
    (D) tetrahedral and square planar
24. The total orbital angular momentum quantum number L and spin quantum
    S of the term symbol 4G is :
    (A) 2, 1/2                              (B) 3, 3/2
    (C) 4, 3/2                              (D) 5, 1/2

25. The strength of hardness of the isoelectronic ions F –, OH–, NH2 and CH3
    follows the order :

    (A) CH3 > OH– > NH 2 > F–               (B) CH3 > F– > OH– > NH2

    (C) F– > OH– > NH 2 > CH3               (D) CH3 > NH2 > OH– > F–

                                        6
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26. Which of the following Ln 3+ aqua ions are colourless and coloured
    respectively ?
    (A) Pr3+ and Gd3+                     (B) Gd3+ and Pr3+
    (C) Gd3+ and Yb3+                     (D) Yb3+ and Gd3+
27. The total number of M-M bonds in the stable complex
    [ —CO— —CH2—( 5 Cp Rh)2] is :
    (Cp = cyclopentadienyl anion)
    (A) 0                                 (B) 1
    (C) 2                                 (D) 3
28. The complex [M( 3—C5H5) (CO)2] is stable when M is :
    (A) CO                                (B) Fe
    (C) Ni                                (D) V
29. Which statement of a Fischer-type carbene is incorrect ?
    (A) it contains a M = C bond
    (B) it contains a nucleophilic carbene centre
    (C) it contains a metal in low oxidation state
    (D) it contains a heteroatom attached to a metal bound carbon atom
30. The quadrupole splitting ( EQ) value in Mössbauer spectroscopy gives
    information about which of the following :
    (i)   molecular symmetry
    (ii) oxidation state
    (iii) spin state
    (iv) ‘s’ electron density
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii)                  (B) (i) only
    (C) (ii) and (iii) only               (D) (iv) only
31. The 11B{Me} NMR spectrum of Me4( —H)2B2 (nuclear spin 11B = 3/2) will
    exhibit :
    (A) a quartet                         (B) a doublet
    (C) a triplet                         (D) a quintet

                                      7                                  [P.T.O.
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32. Which of the following is the structure of the intermediate during the reduction
     of CO2 to carbonic acid by the enzyme zinc carbonic anhydrase ?


     (A)                                        (B)




     (C)                                        (D)


33. Zn-Cu superoxide dismutase in an enzyme that disproportionate :
     (A) H2O and O2                             (B) H2O2 and O2
     (C)   H2O and •OH                          (D) H2O2 and •OH
34. Trans-tetraamminedichloridocobalt (III) cation belongs to ....................... point
    group.
     (A) D6h                                     (B) D3h
     (C) D4h                                     (D) D h
35. Iron is stored in the protein ferritin in the form :
     (A) Fe(OH)3                                (B) Fe 2S3
     (C) Fe2O3 · (H2O)n                         (D) Fe(OH)2
36. The ground state term symbol of Yb3+ is (At. No. Yb = 70) :
     (A) 2F 5/2                                 (B) 2F 1/2
     (C) 2F 7/2                                 (D) 2F 3/2
37. The correct order of stability of the following alkenes is :


    H3C—CH = CH2                                                  H3C—CH = CH—CH3


             I                   II                   III                    IV
     (A) IV < II < III < I                      (B) III < IV < II < I
     (C) IV < III < I < II                      (D) I < II < IV < III
                                            8
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38. The correct order of basicity of the following compounds is :

                                                                  CH3
                                                                  |
             NH3         CH3—NH2           H3C—NH—CH3         H3C—N—CH3

              I              II                   III               IV
    (A) III < II < IV < I                   (B) IV < III < II < I
    (C) I < IV < II < III                   (D) II < IV < III < I
39. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :

                            F  CH3     Br
                            |  |       |
                       CH3 —CH—CH—CH2 —CH—CH 3

    (A) 2-fluoro-5-bromo-3-methylhexane
    (B) 5-bromo-2-fluoro-3-methylhexane
    (C) 2-bromo-5-fluoro-4-methylhexane
    (D) 5-fluoro-2-bromo-5-methylhexane
40. Most stable conformation of 5-hydroxy-1, 3-dioxane is :




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)



                                       9                                 [P.T.O.
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41. In the Fischer projection, the absolute configuration of a chiral centre will not

    change from R to S when,


    (A) the priority numbers 1 and 2 are interchanged


    (B) the priority numbers 2 and 3 are interchanged


    (C) the priority numbers 1 and 2 are interchanged and then 3 and 4 are

          interchanged


    (D) the priority numbers 3 and 4 are interchanged


42. The major product in the following reaction is :




                                                    NaOH




    (A)                                       (B)




    (C)                                       (D)


                                         10
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43. The major product of the following reaction is :




                                                       PhLi




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      11                            [P.T.O.
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44. The major product in the following reaction is :




                                             CCl4
                                        benzoyl peroxide
                                             heat




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



                                      12
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45. The major product formed in the following reaction is :




                                                    Bu3SnH
                                                 AlBN, 80°C, h




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      13                                [P.T.O.
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46. Which of the following compounds undergo fastest tautomerization ?




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)



47. The suitable reagents for the following reaction are :




    (A) KMnO4, NaOH                    (B) B2H6, THF, H2O2, OH
    (C) H2O2, H3O   +                  (D) B2H6, THF
48. The correct match between Column I and Column II is :
          Column I                         Column II
    (i) p-xylene                       (a) one signal in 1H-NMR and two
                                           signals in 13C-NMR
    (ii) 4-methyl cyclohexanone        (b) 2210 cm–1 in IR
    (iii) 1-Butyne                     (c) Two singlets in 1H-NMR
    (iv) 2, 2-dimethyl propane         (d)  max 280 ( 30) in UV
    (A) (i—a) (ii—b) (iii—c) (iv—d)
    (B) (i—c) (ii—d) (iii—b) (iv—a)
    (C) (i—a) (ii—b) (iii—d) (iv—c)
    (D) (i—c) (ii—b) (iii—d) (iv—a)
                                      14
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49. The major product of the following reaction is :


                                                   Pd PPh3 4 CO
                                                       1, 4-dioxane
                                                          2-3 atm




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)



50. The suitable catalyst system for the following reaction is :




    (A) Pd/BaSO4, quinoline, H2 (1 bar)     (B) LiAlH4

    (C) Raney Ni, H2                        (D) Pd, BaSO4, quinoline

                                       15                                 [P.T.O.
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51. An organic compound having molecular formula C6H11BrO2 exhibits the following
    peaks in 1H-NMR spectrum :      4.1(2H, q, J = 7.5 Hz), 4.0(2H, t, J = 7.5 Hz),
    1.5-2.2(4H, m), 1.25(3H, t, J = 7.5 Hz). The structure of the compound is :




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)


52. Relationship between compound I and II is :




    (A) Diastereomers                       (B) Enantiomers
    (C) Conformational isomers              (D) Constitutional isomers
53. The energy difference between the two conformations of 1, 2-dimethyl-
    cyclohexane is :




    (A) 0.9 kcal/mol                        (B) 1.8 kcal/mol
    (C) 2.7 kcal/mol                        (D) 3.6 kcal/mol

                                       16
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54. The suitable starting material for the desired reaction is :




                       mCPBA




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)




                                       17                                [P.T.O.
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55. The major product of the following reaction is :



                                           (a) C7H7SO2NHNH 2
                                           (b) CH3Li




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



                                      18
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56. The major product in the following reaction is :




                                            (a) NOCl, h
                                              (b) H3O+




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      19                            [P.T.O.
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57. Epoxides X and Y give the same aldehyde on BF 3-etherate catalyzed
    rearrangement. The correct statement is :




    (A) H migrates in both X and Y
    (B) Ph migrates in both X and Y
    (C) H migrates in X; Ph migrates in Y
    (D) Ph migrates in X; H migrates in Y
58. The major product in the following reaction is :




                                                 Cyclohexane
                                                    80°C




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)



                                      20
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59. The following reaction goes through :




                                        Br2




    (A) Free radical intermediate           (B) Carbanion intermediate

    (C) Carbocation intermediate            (D) Carbene intermediate

60. The major product of the following reaction is :




                                              KH, THF
                                               reflux




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)



                                      21                                 [P.T.O.
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61. The major product of the following reaction is :




                                           (i) DMF, POCl3
                                                     5°C
                                           (ii) Aq. NaOH




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      22
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62. The suitable starting material for the following reaction is :



                  ZnCl2 , 170°C
            P                                                + NH3




    (A) P =




    (B) P =




    (C) P =




    (D) P =




                                       23                                [P.T.O.
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63. The starting material in the following reaction is :



               0.1 equiv Rh PPh3 3 Cl
                     CH2Cl2 , rt




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



                                        24
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64. The correct match of natural product in Column II with class in Column I
    is :
           Column I                                Column II
    (a)    Terpene                           (i)   Strychnine
    (b)    Alkaloid                          (ii) Cortisone
    (c)    Steroids                          (iii) Chitin
    (d) Polysaccharide                       (iv) Camphor
    (A) (a—iv) (b—i) (c—ii) (d—iii)
    (B) (a—i) (b—ii) (c—iv) (d—iii)
    (C) (a—iv) (b—i) (c—iii) (d—ii)
    (D) (a—iii) (b—iv) (c—ii) (d—i)
65. Which of the following is not reducing sugar ?
    (A) D-Fructose                           (B) D-Ribose
    (C) Cellobiose                           (D) Sucrose
66. Which of the following compounds will react fastest with diene (A) under thermal
    condition ?



                                             A



    (A)                                      (B)




    (C)                                      (D)



                                        25                                   [P.T.O.
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67. The major product in the following sequence of reactions is :


                                      (i) CH3CHO, h
                                       (ii) O3 , Me2S
                                       (iii) aq. NaOH
                                                 heat



    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                      26
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68. The major product in the following reaction is :




                                              h
                                             Et2O




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      27                         [P.T.O.
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69. The equilibrium constant (KC) for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g)                    2NO(g)

    at a particular temperature is 4.0 × 10–4. The value of KC for the reaction
                          1        1
    NO(g)                   N2(g) + O2(g) at the same temperature is :
                          2        2
    (A) 2.0 × 102                                      (B) 50

    (C) 2 × 10–2                                       (D) 500

70. Maximum number of molecules are present in :
    (A) 15L of H2 at STP                               (B) 10L of O2 at STP

    (C) 0.5 g of H2                                    (D) 1.0 mol of O2 gas
71. A thermoflask used to carry hot drinks is an example of an/a :

    (A) Open system                                    (B) Closed system

    (C) Isolated system                                (D) Adiabatic system

72. A dislocation with Burgers vector that equals one lattice spacing is called
    .............................. dislocation.

    (A) Unit                                           (B) Partial

    (C) Imperfect                                      (D) Frank

73. The expression for the rate of chain initiation in addition polymerization is :
    (A) fkd[I]                                         (B) kd[I]/2

    (C) 2fkd[I]                                        (D) kd[I]

74. In condensation polymerization the reactivity of a specific functional group :

    (A) Increases with increase in molecular size

    (B) Decreases with increase in molecular size
    (C) Is independent of molecular size

    (D) Increases with increasing polarity of group and molecular size

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75. The weight average molar mass (Mw) of a polymer having 50 and 75 molecules
    with corresponding molecular mass of 5000 and 6000 g/mol respectively is :
    (A) 5,800                                  (B) 5,642
    (C) 6,800                                  (D) 10,000
76. According to Langmuir theory of adsorption which of the following is correct ?
    (A) Heat of adsorption changes with coverage.
    (B) Heat of adsorption is independent of coverage.
    (C) The adsorbed species interact with each other.
    (D) Adsorption is always non-dissociative.
77. According to Debye theory, specific heat at high temperature is proportional
    to :
    (A) T                                      (B) T 2
    (C) T 3                                    (D) Independent of T
78. According to Langmuir model of adsorption, there is an equilibrium between
    adsorption and desorption as given below :
                            A(g) + S(s)           A—S(s)
    where A & S represent the adsorbate and the solid surface sites and A—S is
    the adsorbed species.
    The adsorption coefficient K is defined as ka/kd where ka and kd are the rate
    constants for adsorption and desorption respectively.
    Which of the following is correct ?
                 A—S
    (I)    K =   A S

                 A S
    (II) K =     A—S
    (III) A large value of K indicates strong adsorption
    (IV) A large value of K indicates strong desorption
    (A) (I) and (III)                          (B) (II) and (III)
    (C) (I) and (IV)                           (D) (I) and (II)

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79. Which of the following is correct ?
    (A) In X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy valence electrons are ejected.

    (B) K. E of photoelectrons increase when the intensity of the incident X-rays
         is increased.

    (C) K. E of photoelectrons decrease when the oxidation state of the surface
         is increased.
    (D) Number of photoelectrons emitted increases with frequency of the incident
         X-rays.
80. For a solid/liquid interface the following equation is applicable :

                                   SV        SL
                                                  cos
                                        LV

    where    is the contact angle, SV, SL and LV are the surface tension of solid,
    interfacial tension of S/L and surface tension of liquid.

    If a metal pan has to be made non-sticking for cooking appliance :

    (A) Edible surfactants are to be added to the cooking water.

    (B) The metal has to be coated with high energy substance.
    (C) The metal has to be coated with a low energy substance.

    (D) Edible surfactants that can adsorb at S/L interface can be added.
81. A particle can occupy either the ground state at E = 0 or an excited state
    at E > 0. At a temperature T, the probability of the particle being in the excited
    state is :

    (A) 0
    (B) 1 + exp – E/KBT

    (C) exp – E/KBT/(1 + exp – E/KBT)
    (D) 1/(1 + exp – E/KBT)

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82. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the slope of the plot of kinetic
    energy of the photoelectrons Vs. the frequency of the incident radiation :
    (A) will depend upon the nature of the metal that emits the photoelectrons
    (B) will depend on the intensity of the incident radiation
    (C) will depend on both the intensity of the radiation and the nature of the
            metal
    (D) will be the same for all metals and independent of intensity of radiation
83. For a simple harmonic oscillator :
    (A) potential energy varies linearly with displacement from equilibrium
    (B) spacing between energy levels increases with increasing energy
    (C) spacing between energy levels decreases with increasing energy
    (D) number of nodes of the wave function increases with increase in energy

84. Which of the following is correct for H2 ion ?

    (A) A possible trial wave function for the ion is         = C1 1SA ± C2 1SB
    (B) The coefficients of the trial wave function are not equal
    (C) A possible trial wave function is       = C1 1SA / C2 1SB
    (D) The 1S orbitals are not normalised
85. Which of the following is true according to variational theorem ?
    (I)     The ground state energy of a quantum mechanical system is zero.

              |H|
    (II)               E0
               ||

              |H|
    (III)              E0
               ||

    (IV) The ground state energy of a quantum mechanical system is infinite.
    (A) (I) and (II)                          (B) (II) only
    (C) (III) only                            (D) (I) and (IV)

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86. How many normal modes of vibrations are possible for nitrobenzene molecule ?
    (A) 36                                (B) 31
    (C) 09                                (D) 14
87. In the following phase diagram, the process corresponding to sublimation is :




    (A) I     II                            (B) I     III
    (C) II    III                         (D) III II
88. 100 ml of a NaOH solution of pH 12 is mixed with 900 ml of water. What
    is the pH of the resulting solution ?
    (A) 10                                (B) 09
    (C) 11                               (D) 13
89. In August 1986, a cloud of CO 2 gas suddenly erupted from a lake in
    Cameroon killing several people. Which of the following could have caused
    this accident ?
    (I)   Over the years CO2 (g) would have got saturated in the upper layers of
          the lake water.
    (II) Heavy winds could have overturned the water in the lake.
    (III) Over the years CO2 (g) would have got saturated in the bottom layers
          of the lake water.
    (IV) This incident could be related to Raoult’s law.
    (A) (I), (II), (IV)                    (B) (II), (III)
    (C) (II), (III), (IV)                  (D) (I), (IV)
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90. For a reversible process in a state of equilibrium :

     (A)    G° = 0                                 (B)    G = –RT ln K

     (C)    G° = –RT ln K                          (D) ln K = 1

91. The SI unit of measuring radioactivity is :

     (A) Curie                                     (B) Becquerel

     (C) Rads                                      (D) Gray

92. In case of radioisotopes the activity reduces to ......................... of initial value
     after 2 half lives.

           1                                             1
     (A)     rd of the initial activity            (B)     of the initial activity
           3                                             2

           1                                             1
     (C)     of the initial activity               (D)     of the initial activity
           4                                             6

93. Single crystal of which salt is used as a scintillator in scintillation counter ?

     (A) Sodium nitrate                            (B) Sodium iodide

     (C) Sodium sulphate                           (D) Sodium carbonate

94. When radioactive equilibrium is attained, the relative amounts of parent to
     daughter :

     (A) Increase with time

     (B) Decrease with time

     (C) Is constant irrespective of time

     (D) May increase or decrease with time depending on the parent isotope

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95. According to the following half cell reactions :

           Cu2+(aq) + 2e–     Cu(s), E0 = 0.34 V

           Cr3+(aq) + e–     Cr2+(aq) E0 = –0.41 V

    The reaction that would occur in aqueous solutions under standard condition
    is :

    (A) Cu2+(aq) + Cr3+(aq)        Cu(s) + Cr2+(aq)

    (B) Cu2+(aq) + 2Cr2+(aq)        Cu(s) + 2Cr3+(aq)

    (C) Cu(s) + 2Cr3+(aq)        Cu2+(aq) + Cr2+(aq)

    (D) 2Cu2+(aq) + Cr3+(aq)        2Cu(s) + Cr2+(aq)

96. The formation of rust on iron can be inhibited by the coating because tin :

    (A) is a sacrificial anode

    (B) is a weaker reducing agent than ion

    (C) cathodically protects the iron

    (D) keeps the oxygen away from iron

97. Which of the following is correct for a spontaneous process in a closed system
    at constant temperature and pressure ?

    (I)     Ssys +   Ssurr > 0

    (II)    Gsys = 0

    (III) Ssys =     Ssurr

    (IV)    Gsys < 0

    (A) (I) and (II)                          (B) (I) only

    (C) (II) and (III)                        (D) (IV) only

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98.




      Which energy value(s) will change when a catalyst is added ?
      (A) I only                                  (B) II only
      (C) II and III                              (D) I, II and III
99. For the reaction N2 + 3H2             2NH3, the rate expression is :

                                  d NH 3
                                                k H2   N2
                                     dt
      Which of the following is/are correct ?
      (I)     The reaction is not elementary.
      (II) The reaction is of second order.

               d H2      d NH3
      (III)
                dt         dt
      (A) (II) only                               (B) (I) and (II)
      (C) (II) and (III)                          (D) (I), (II) and (III)
100. The point group and the number of symmetry elements of SiF 4 are
     respectively :
      (A) C3V and 4                               (B) d2h and 5
      (C) Td and 5                                (D) Td and 4

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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.