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MH SET 2021: 26 September, Paper II, Life Sciences

  • Date: 26 September 2021
  • Paper code: SEP34221
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 24 pages
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                      A
                                                             LIFE SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                         Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                               (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                 Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                 OMR Sheet No.
SEP - 34221                                                                                                (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.     2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are           3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept                (i)
                    a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
           (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
                    the booklet with the information printed on the cover                   (ii)
                    page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                    or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                    other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
                    booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
                    the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                    Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
                    given. The same may please be noted.
           (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                                                                                            (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on        4.                       (A), (B), (C)   (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                           (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                       A        B              D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
           other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.    5.
6.         Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.         Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                    6.
8.         If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put                7.
           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                   8.
           allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
           identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with          9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
           conclusion of examination.
                                                                                   10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                   11.
11.        Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                     12.
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SEP - 34221/II—A




2
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SEP - 34221/II—A
                                  Life Science
                                    Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                                  [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
        carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is           2.   Cytochalasin      D   inhibits    the
                                                     formation of microfilaments. Which
     used while separating proteins by               of the following biological activities
                                                     will not be hindered ?
     polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
                                                     (A) Muscle contraction
     because :                                       (B) Cytosolic transport of vesicles
                                                     (C) Amoeboid      movement         of
     (A) it helps in solubilization of                   phagocytic cells

         proteins making it easier to                (D) Formation of cleavage furrow
                                                         following telophase of mitosis
         separate                               3.   Which of the following statements
                                                     for ‘Genetic drift’ is FALSE ?
     (B) it binds to proteins and confers
                                                     (A) Genetic drift can cause allele
                                                         frequencies to change at
         a uniform negative charge
                                                         random
         density thereby making them                 (B) Genetic drift can lead to
                                                         richness of genetic variation
         move during electrophoresis                     within populations
                                                     (C) Genetic drift can cause harmful
     (C) decreases surface tension of the
                                                         alleles to become fixed
         buffer used for electrophoresis             (D) Genetic drift affects allele
                                                         frequencies stronger in small
     (D) stabilizes the protein                          populations

                                            3                                      [P.T.O.
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4.   According to Oparin, which of the          7.   Severe combined immuno deficiency

     following was not present in the                (SCID) mice do not have :
     primitive atmosphere of the earth ?
                                                     (A) B & T cells
     (A) methane
                                                     (B) Eosinophils
     (B) hydrogen
                                                     (C) Basophils
     (C) water
                                                     (D) Neutrophils
     (D) oxygen
                                                8.   The lichen Roccella is source of :
5.   Life is said to have originated as

     coacervates that were formed by :               (A) Condiment

     (A) DNA                                         (B) Dye

     (B) Radiations
                                                     (C) Antibiotic
     (C) Polymerization and aggregation
                                                     (D) Therapeutic compounds
     (D) Heat
                                                9.   Seasonal activity of cambium leads
6.   When a taxon is restricted to a
                                                     to :
     particular geographical region, then
                                                     (A) Ring porous wood
     it is called :

     (A) Endemic                                     (B) Both ring porous and diffuse

                                                            porous wood
     (B) Low risk

     (C) Threatened                                  (C) diffuse porous wood

     (D) Critically endangered                       (D) Heteroporous wood

                                            4
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10. Cytoplasmic male sterility occurs as       13. Which of the following technique is
    a result of interaction of :
                                                   best for determining the precise
    (A) Nucleus and plastid
                                                   location of the radioactive isotope
    (B) Mitochondria and plastid
                                                   located in a specimen ?
    (C) Nucleus and Golgi
                                                   (A) Ultracentrifugation
    (D) Nucleus and mitochondria

                                                   (B) Atomic force microscope
11. The enzyme acetyl CoA carboxylase

    belongs to which class of enzyme ?
                                                   (C) Autoradiography

    (A) Transferases
                                                   (D) Fluorescence microscope
    (B) Hydrolases
                                               14. In bacterial glucose phospho-
    (C) Lyases
                                                   transferase system, glucose is
    (D) Ligases
                                                   converted to glucose 6-phosphate.
12. According to Vavilov, mango, nobel

    canes, rice and brinjal are some of            What is the source of phosphate ?

    the crop plants originated in :
                                                   (A) ATP
    (A) Hindustan centre
                                                   (B) Inorganic phosphate
    (B) Abyssynian centre
                                                   (C) Phosphoenol pyruvate
    (C) Asia minor centre

    (D) China centre                               (D) Creatine phosphate

                                           5                                   [P.T.O.
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15. The end product of adenosine mono-        17. When bacteria growing at 20ºC are

                                                  transferred to 40ºC, they are most
    phosphate (AMP) and guanosine
                                                  likely to synthesize membrane lipids
    monophosphate (GMP) catabolism in             with more :

    normal humans is :                            (A) Short chain saturated fatty

                                                      acids
    (A) Urea
                                                  (B) Long chain saturated fatty
    (B) Creatinine                                    acids

    (C) Xanthine                                  (C) Short chain unsaturated fatty

                                                      acids
    (D) Uric acid
                                                  (D) Long chain unsaturated fatty

16. Which of the following bonds in                   acids

    proteins have a partial double bond       18. The type of microscopy we would use

                                                  to examine bacteria that are stained
    character ?
                                                  by gram staining procedure is :

    (A) C   – C                                   (A) Bright field microscope

    (B) C   – C                                   (B) Fluorescence microscopy

                                                  (C) Dark field microscopy
    (C) C   – N
                                                  (D) Transmission          electron
    (D) C – N                                         microscopy

                                          6
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                                                       21. Which one of the following is correct
19. Mesenteries are found in :

                                                           for Na-K ATPase ?
    (A) Diploblastic animals
                                                           (A) Na + and K + bind on the

    (B) Triploblastic animals                                   extracellular side, while ATP

                                                                and ouabain bind on the
    (C) Friploblastic animals
                                                                intracellular side

    (D) Pseudocoelomates                                   (B) Na + and K + bind on the

                                                                intracellular side, while ATP
20. In a DNA sequence, if nucleotide A
                                                                and ouabain bind on the
    is replaced by nucleotide G, the
                                                                extracellular side

    resulting mutation will be a ...............
                                                           (C) K + and ATP bind on the

    mutation.                                                   intracellular side, while Na+

                                                                and ouabain bind on the
    (A) Transversion
                                                                extracellular side

    (B) Frameshift                                         (D) Na + and ATP bind on the

                                                                intracellular side, while K+ and
    (C) Missense
                                                                ouabain      bind     on      the

    (D) Transition
                                                                extracellular side

                                                   7                                       [P.T.O.
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22. The sequencing of .....................       24. Hybrid zone is a region where :
     helped investigators conclude that
                                                      (A) Hybrids can develop
     all living things can be classified
     into three domains.                              (B) Genetically distinct populations
     (A) DNA
                                                          meet and interbreed to some
     (B) Cytochrome C
                                                          extent
     (C) rRNA
                                                      (C) Genetically similar populations
     (D) Haemoglobin
                                                          meet but cannot interbreed
23. Mark the correct statement :

     (A) In active transport molecules                (D) Populations      of   the   same

         move from higher to lower                        geographic region meet and
         concentration
                                                          exchange genes
     (B) Carrier protein is involved in
                                                  25. The sedimentation coefficient
         both active transport and
         facilitated diffusion                        increases with :

     (C) Energy is consumed to move
                                                      (A) Increase in solvent density
         molecules         against       a
         concentration gradient in active             (B) Increase in friction

         transport only
                                                      (C) Decrease in mass of the particle
     (D) In active transport, only water
                                                      (D) Decrease in partial specific
         molecules are transported with

         consuming energy                                 volume

                                              8
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26. Peptide antigens assemble with              29. Which of the following statements

    class I MHC, aided by :                         about LEAFY (LFY), a regulatory

    (A) Chaperone molecules                         gene in Arabidopsis thaliana is

                                                    correct ?
    (B) Immunoglobulins
                                                    (A) LFY is involved in floral
    (C) T cell receptor
                                                          meristem identity
    (D) Cytokines
                                                    (B) LFY          is    involved         in    leaf
27. Type II glycogen storage disease i.e.
                                                          expansion
    Pompe disease is a genetic disorder
    in which the defective enzyme is :              (C) LFY         is    involved          in root

    (A)    – 1, 4      – 1, 6 branching                   meristem identity

          enzyme                                    (D) LFY is involved in shoot

    (B)    – 1, 6 Glucosidase                             differentiation

    (C)    – 1, 4 Glucosidase                   30. Binomial nomenclature include

    (D) Phosphorylase Kinase                        name of the plant in two words that

                                                    designate ...............................
28. Which one of the following is an
    example     of    an   autoimmune               (A) Family and generic name

    disease ?                                       (B) Generic name and species name

    (A) Parkinson’s                                 (C) Generic name and specific
    (B) Alzheimer’s                                       epithet

    (C) Spasticity                                  (D) Species name and varietal

    (D) Myesthenia Gravis                                 epithet

                                            9                                                   [P.T.O.
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31. The causal organism for rice blast                34. Which of the following pair of sugars

    disease is ...............................            is of non-reducing nature ?

    (A) Xanthomonas oryzae                                (A) glucose and galactose

    (B) Magnaporthe grisea                                (B) sucrose and trehalose

    (C) Rhizoctonia solani                                (C) trehalose and glucose

    (D) Helminthosporium oryzae                           (D) sucrose and heptulose

32. The centre of origin of Patato is :               35. The enzyme involved in the

                                                          following reaction is...........
    (A) India
                                                          Amino acid + ATP + tRNA
    (B) Brazil
                                                          aminoacyl tRNA + AMP + PPi
    (C) Australia
                                                          (A) Aminoacyl tRNA transferase
    (D) Peru
                                                          (B) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
33. Helicobacter pylori uses urease to
                                                          (C) Peptidyl transferase
    counteract a chemical defense in the
                                                          (D) RNA polymerase
    human organ in which it lives. This
                                                      36. The resting membrane potential is
    chemical defense is :
                                                          determined by :
    (A) Lysozyme
                                                          (A) the K+ gradient
    (B) Hydrochloric acid
                                                          (B) the Na+ gradient
    (C) Superoxide radicals
                                                          (C) the Ca2+ gradient
    (D) Sebum
                                                          (D) the Cl– gradient

                                                 10
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37. When a robin eats an earthworm,
                                                39. Which of the following proteins
    the following happens ?
                                                    binds to calcium during excitation-
    (A) Detrital    food   webs   can
        contribute energy to grazing                contraction coupling ?
        food webs
                                                    (A) Tropomyosin
    (B) Grazing     food   webs   can
        contribute energy to detrital               (B) Actin
        food webs
                                                    (C) Myosin
    (C) Transition of energy from
        primary producers to primary
                                                    (D) Troponin
        consumers occurs

    (D) Transition of energy from               40. Both the substrates A and B must

        primary      consumers        to
                                                    be present at the enzyme active site
        secondary consumers takes
        place                                       simultaneously is a characteristic

38. Which of the following is known as              feature of ...................
    the sedimentary cycle because its
    reservoir is sedimentary rock ?                 (A) All bisubstrate reactions

    (A) Carbon cycle
                                                    (B) Double displacement reactions
    (B) Hydrologic cycle
                                                    (C) Single displacement reactions
    (C) Nitrogen cycle

    (D) Phosphorus cycle                            (D) Both (B) and (C)

                                           11                                        [P.T.O.
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41. Number of nuclear pores depend on                     44. M-STr|PES is associated with one
    the .....................                                 of the following :

    (A) Surface volume of nuclear                             (A) Captive breeding of wild fauna
           membrane
                                                              (B) Indigenous satellite navigation
    (B) Transcription activity of the cell                        system
    (C) DNA content of the cell                               (C) Security of national highways
    (D) Size of the nucleus
                                                              (D) Maintenance of tigers
42. How         many            different   linear
                                                          45. Which of the following is not a
    tripeptides can be made from three
                                                              method of enzyme immobilization ?
    different L-          neutral amino acids,
    using each amino acid only once in                        (A) Entrapment

    the chain ?                                               (B) Adsorption

    (A) 3                                                     (C) Absorption

    (B) 6                                                     (D) Cross-linking
    (C) 12                                                46. As part of the circadian clock,
    (D) 27                                                    transfer of phosphate groups from

43. The characteristics of organisms                          adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to

    involved in symbiotic relationships                       PER is required. This is achieved by

    have developed :                                          one of the following :

    (A) by chance                                             (A) Caesin kinase 1

    (B) through co-evolution                                  (B) Caesin kinase 2

    (C) by character displacement                             (C) Tyrosine kinase 1

    (D) through resource partitioning                         (D) Tyrosine kinase 2

                                                     12
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47. In lake succession, the stages are                       49. Chlorophyll-b is distinguished from

    observed in the following order :
                                                                 chlorophyll-a by having a .................

    (A) Olig o t ro phic-Me s o t roph ic-
                                                                 group in place of a ................. group.

          Eutrophic
                                                                 (A) Acetyl, formyl
    (B) O l i g o t r o p h i c - E u t r o p h i c -
                                                                 (B) Methyl, formyl
          Mesotrophic


    (C) Meso t ro phic-O lig o t roph ic-                        (C) Formyl, methyl

          Eutrophic
                                                                 (D) Formyl, acetone

    (D) E u t r o p h i c - M e s o t r o p h i c -
                                                             50. The proteins that are sorted to
          Oligotrophic
                                                                 mitochondrial matrix are .................
48. The      carrying        capacity        of    a
                                                                 in nature.
    population is determined by its :

                                                                 (A) hydrophobic
    (A) Gross primary production


    (B) Net energy                                               (B) hydrophilic


    (C) Net production                                           (C) amphipathic


    (D) Gross usage                                              (D) amphoteric

                                                        13                                          [P.T.O.
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51. Normal RBCs are :                         53. Artificial ripening of banana can be

                                                  induced by :
    (A) Biconcave in humans and in
                                                  (A) Auxin
        frogs
                                                  (B) Cytokinin
    (B) Nucleated in camels and
                                                  (C) Ethylene
        enucleated in humans
                                                  (D) Polyamines
    (C) Biconcave in camels and in
                                              54. Diplospory and parthenogenesis
        frogs
                                                  leads to development of :

    (D) Enucleated in humans and in               (A) Haploid embryo

        camels                                    (B) Diploid embryo

52. Which one of the following pairs              (C) Viviparous embryo

    execute their functions by binding            (D) Adventive embryo

    with cytoplasmic receptors ?              55. Which one of the following is a true

                                                  combination for Kala-azar disease ?
    (A) Estrogen and noradrenaline
                                                  (A) Sand fly and Leishmania
    (B) Growth         hormone     and
                                                  (B) Glossina fly and Trypanosoma
        progesterone
                                                  (C) Mosquito and Plasmodium
    (C) Growth hormone and GABA
                                                  (D) Mosquito and Micro-filarial
    (D) Estrogen and progesterone                      worm

                                         14
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56. Match the following and choose the                 58. The common feature of the following

     correct combination :                                 bacteriophages   × 174, OB, N4 and
                                                           P1 is :
     (a) Sulphur            (1) Chlorophyll
                                                           (A) Single stranded DNA genome
     (b) Zinc               (2) Nitrogenase
                                                           (B) RNA genome

     (c) Magnesium          (3) Methionine                 (C) Circular genome

     (d) Molybdenum         (4) Auxin                      (D) All infect E. coli

     (A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4                    59. Protein synthesis in eukaryotees is
                                                           inhibited by :
     (B) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
                                                           (A) Chloramphenicol
     (C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2, d – 4
                                                           (B) Streptomycin

     (D) a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3                        (C) Cephalosporin C

57. ............. are the simplest transposable            (D) Cycloheximide

     element that contain inverted                     60. With      reference      to   plants,

     repeat sequences at each end and                      gynogenesis refers to :

     a gene encoding transposase.                          (A) Initiation of gynoecium

                                                           (B) Development of gynoecium
     (A) Composite transposon
                                                           (C) Development of haploid plants
     (B) Insertion element
                                                               from the egg cell of unfertilized
     (C) Virus                                                 female gametophyte in vitro

     (D) Prion                                             (D) Development of an ovary

                                                  15                                     [P.T.O.
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61. A linear DNA is 100% labelled at             63. NMR is a very important technique
    one end and has 3 restriction sites
                                                     for determination of biopolymer
    for EcoRI. If it is digested by EcoRI
                                                     structure. NMR experiments are not
    so that possible fragments are

    produced, how many of these                      limited to the study of protons only.

    fragments will be labelled and how               Which of the following represents a
    many non-labelled ?
                                                     correct group of isotopes used to
    (A) 4 labelled and 6 unlabelled
                                                     obtain resonance signals ?
    (B) 6 labelled and 4 unlabelled
                                                     (A) 1H, 12C, 15N, 19F
    (C) 3 labelled and 5 unlabelled

    (D) 3 labelled and 3 unlabelled                  (B) 1H, 13C, 14N, 19F


62. Inclusive fitness is a measure of :              (C) 1H, 12C, 14N, 19F

    (A) The selective advantage of
                                                     (D) 1H, 13C, 15N, 19F
        group fitness
                                                 64. Cryopreservation is a process of :
    (B) The reproductive fitness of an

        organism and its relatives                   (A) ex situ in vitro conservation

    (C) The selective advantage of
                                                     (B) ex situ ex vitro conservation
        assortative selection
                                                     (C) in situ in vitro conservation
    (D) The selective advantage of

        stabilizing selections                       (D) in situ ex vitro conservation

                                            16
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65. Which of the following does not need           68. Which of the following organisms get

     an insect vector for transmission ?                energy only      by fermentative
                                                        metabolism ?
     (A) Rickettsia prowazekii
                                                        (A) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
     (B) Rickettsia rickettsi
                                                        (B) Bacillus subtilis
     (C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis
                                                        (C) E. coli

     (D) Coxiella burnetti                              (D) Pseudomonas putida

66. Hepadnaviruses (e.g. Hepatitis B virus)        69. In the fertilised egg, cortical granule

     differ from other DNA viruses as their             reaction required for slow block
                                                        polyspermy, is initiated by :
     genome replication involves :
                                                        (A) Na+
     (A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
                                                        (B) Mg2+
     (B) Reverse transcriptase
                                                        (C) K+
     (C) RNase H                                        (D) Ca2+

     (D) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase              70. When the velocity of enzyme
                                                        activity is plotted against substrate
67. In fermentor, the top portion left
                                                        concentration, which of the following
     without broth is called :
                                                        is obtained ?
     (A) Shaft                                          (A) Hyperbolic curve

     (B) Headspace                                      (B) Parabola

     (C) Impeller                                       (C) Straight line with positive slope

     (D) Sparger                                        (D) Straight line with negative slope

                                              17                                      [P.T.O.
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71. Anticancer drug, cyclophosphamide,                73. Mangrove swamps are found
     is metabolised in the body by                        along ..................................
     glutathionation reaction. What is
                                                          (A) Tropical and subtropical coast-
     the type of this reaction ?
                                                                 lines
     (A) Reduction
                                                          (B) Rocky coastlines
     (B) Glucuronidation
                                                          (C) Temperate coastlines
     (C) Conjugation

                                                          (D) Arctic coastlines
     (D) Oxidation

72. In non-competitive inhibition, ...........        74. Indicate the ionic species that

                                                          predominates at pH 4, 8 and 11 for
     (A) Inhibitor binds to the active site

          of enzyme                                       ammonia :


     (B) Inhibitor binds at a site other                  (A) NH 4 at pH 4, NH 4 at pH 8 and

          than active site and may bind                          NH3 at pH 11

          to either E or ES complex
                                                          (B) NH 4 at pH 4, NH3 at pH 8 and
     (C) Inhibitor binds to a site other
                                                                 NH 4 at pH 11
          than active site and binds only
                                                          (C) NH3 at pH 4, NH 4 at pH 8 and
          to the ES complex
                                                                 NH 4 at pH 11
     (D) Inhibitor binds at a site other

          than active site and binds only                 (D) NH3 at pH 4, NH 4 at pH 8 and

          to E                                                   NH3 at pH 11

                                                 18
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75. Which of the following transcription        78. The formation of Z ring in bacteria
    factor act as positioning factor for            is important for :
    RNA polymerase      and binds to the
                                                    (A) Septum formation
    promoter ?

    (A) TF                                          (B) Formation of pill

    (B) TF       C                                  (C) Helpful in attachment

    (C) TF       D                                  (D) Useful in movement

    (D) TF       E
                                                79. Which of the following is NOT true
76. Ti   plasmid     used   in   genetic            of Spermatogenesis ?
    engineering is obtained from :
                                                    (A) Four gametes are formed per
    (A) Bacillus thuringensis
                                                        meiosis
    (B) Agrobacterium shizogenes
                                                    (B) Sex chromosomes are excluded
    (C) Thermus aquaticus
                                                        from      recombination     and
    (D) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
                                                        transcription during the first
77. Which enzyme of the following is
                                                        meiotic prophase
    used as a marker for lysosomal
    fraction ?                                      (C) Meiosis occurs continuously in

    (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase                          mitotically dividing stem cells

    (B) Phospholipase                               (D) Differentiation of the gamete

    (C) Acid phosphatase                                occurs; while in diploid, during

    (D) Succinate dehydrogenase                         first meiotic prophase

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80. A population of cells grown in                82. The groups which are evolved from

    adherent culture contains 0.4 mg                  more than one ancestor are known
                                                      as :
    protein per 106 cells. Actin comprises
                                                      (A) Monophyletic
    4.5% of the total protein. Given the

    Mr of actin is 42000 daltons and                  (B) Paraphyletic

    Avogardo number is 6.02 × 1023,                   (C) Polyphyletic

    which of the following equals the                 (D) Heterophyletic

    mean number of actin molecules per            83. Which of the following is an example

    cell ?                                            of a symmetrical animal ?

                                                      (A) Hydra
    (A) 2.58 × 1014 actin molecules
                                                      (B) Frog
    (B) 2.58 × 1011 actin molecules
                                                      (C) Sponges
    (C) 2.58 × 108 actin molecules
                                                      (D) Sea Anemone
    (D) 2.58 × 1010 actin molecules
                                                  84. Which of the following chemical

81. Which of the following is a natural               mutagens are incorporated into the

    dye obtained from plant ?                         genome by the DNA polymerase
                                                      during genome replication ?
    (A) Acid fuchsin
                                                      (A) Alkylating agents
    (B) Haematoxylin
                                                      (B) Base analogues

    (C) Carmine                                       (C) Deaminating agents

    (D) Aniline blue                                  (D) Intercalating agents

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85. Progesterone :                                     87. Globin synthesis in the absence of

    (A) is        synthesized          in   the            heme in RBC is regulated by the

          hypothalamic neurons and                         phosphorylation of this factor :

          stored in the posterior pituitary
                                                           (A) EF1
    (B) plays a major role in preparing
                                                           (B) eIF2
          the uterus for implantation
                                                           (C) EFG
    (C) is a protein hormone and solely

          responsible for the maintenance                  (D) eIF3

          of secondary sex characteristics
                                                       88. In anaerobic glycolysis, 2 moles of

    (D) is exclusively responsible for                     inorganic phosphate are used per
          stimulation of FSH production
                                                           mole of glucose consumed. Which of
          and follicle growth
                                                           the following enzymes catalyzes the
86. When somatic cells of ovule directly
                                                           uptake of inorganic phosphate ?
    form embryos, the phenomenon is
                                                           (A) Hexokinase
    called as ......................

                                                           (B) Phosphofructokinase
    (A) Adventive embryony

    (B) Diplospory                                         (C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

                                                               dehydrogenase
    (C) Apospory

    (D) Parthenogenesis                                    (D) Pyruvate kinase


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89. When oxygen reacts with rubisco             92. RAPD marker is :
    enzyme the following products will              (A) Recessive
    be formed ?
                                                    (B) Co-dominant
    (A) 3-phosphoglycerate           and
                                                    (C) Dominant
        2-phosphoglycolate
                                                    (D) Partially dominant
    (B) Two          molecules        of
        3-phosphoglycerate                      93. Which of the following chromosomal

    (C) Two          molecules        of            aberration results in formation of

        2-phosphoglycolate                          dicentric and acentric chromosomes ?

    (D) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate                  (A) Paracentric inversion
        and 2-phosphoglycolate                      (B) Pericentric inversion
90. Which one of the following is a                 (C) Reciprocal translocation
    functional    excretory   unit    of
                                                    (D) Deletion
    cephalochordata ?
                                                94. In a hypothetical diploid animal
    (A) Nephridia
                                                    species, there is a locus with two
    (B) Flame cell
                                                    alleles A and B. If A and B are co-
    (C) Solanocytes                                 dominant, then how many different
    (D) Nephron                                     phenotypes are possible in this

91. Weismann proposed the theory of :               species ?

    (A) Continuity of germplasm                     (A) 1

    (B) Continuity of protoplasm                    (B) 2

    (C) Continuity of plasma cells                  (C) 3

    (D) Continuity of cytoplasms                    (D) 4

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95. If a woman having blood group A               98. The protein binding site in DNA can
    with |A|O genotype married a man                  be identified by the following
    having a blood group with |B|B                    experiment :
    genotype, the expected proportion of              (A) DNA footprinting
    heterozygotes among their children
                                                      (B) Mobility shift assay
    is :
                                                      (C) Western blotting
    (A) 25%
                                                      (D) DNA fingerprinting
    (B) 50%
                                                  99. Noble laureate Barbara McClintock
    (C) 75%
                                                      observed frequent breakage of maize
    (D) 100%                                          chromosome 9 due to which of the
96. Type of migration where marine                    following transposons ?
    fishes migrate to freshwater for their            (A) IS (Insertion elements)
    reproduction is :
                                                      (B) Ac-Ds (Activator-Dissociator
    (A) Anadromus                                          elements)
    (B) Catadromus                                    (C) Mu (Mutator)
    (C) Oceanodromus                                  (D) Spm/En (Suppressor-Mutator/
    (D) Potamodromus                                       enhancer)

97. The propeller twist in B-form of DNA          100. Red green colour blindness is an
    is approximately :                                example of ............. genetic disorder.

    (A) 30º                                           (A) X-linked recessive

    (B) –30°                                          (B) X-linked dominant

    (C) 36º                                           (C) Y-linked recessive

    (D) –36º                                          (D) Y-linked dominant

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ROUGH WORK




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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.