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MH SET 2024: 7 April, Paper II, Chemical Sciences

  • Date: 7 April 2024
  • Paper code: APR-33224
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 44 pages
MH SET 2024 question paper, 7 April 2024, Paper II, Chemical Sciences, page 1 of 44
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                      A
                                                    CHEMICAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                         Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                               (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                 Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                 OMR Sheet No.
APR - 33224                                                                                                (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 44                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.     2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are           3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept                (i)
                    a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
           (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
                    the booklet with the information printed on the cover                   (ii)
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                    or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                    other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
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                    given. The same may please be noted.
           (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                                                                                            (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on        4.                       (A), (B), (C)   (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                           (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                       A         B             D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
           other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.    5.
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           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                   8.
           allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
           identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with          9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
           conclusion of examination.
                                                                                   10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                   11.
11.        Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                     12.
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APR- 33224/II—A




2
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APR- 33224/II—A
                              Chemical Science
                                    Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                          [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   The recovery of two lanthanoids easier than the others due to their redox

     chemistry. These lanthanoids are :

     (A) Pr4+, Tb4+                           (B) Ce4+, Eu2+

     (C) Nd4+, Ln2+                           (D) Dy4+, Ln4+

2.   Which one of the following is used for the formation of atomic vapours in Atomic

     Absorption Spectroscopy ?

     (A) Flame atomization                    (B) Electric arcs and sparks

     (C) Sputtering devices                   (D) Ovens

3.   The highest 10 Dq value obtained among the ligands Br–, PR3, en and H2O

     in complexes will be for :

     (A) PR 3                                 (B) H2O

     (C) Br–                                  (D) en

4.   The -ray source used in 57Fe Mössbauer spectroscopy is :

     (A) 57Co                                 (B) 129Tc

     (C) 119mSn                               (D) 121mSn

                                          3                                   [P.T.O.
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5.   The correct trend of                                           3–          3+
                            0 for chromium (III) complexes [Cr(CN)6] , [Cr(en)3] ,

     [Cr(H2O)6]3+ and [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is :

     (A) [Cr(CN)6]3– > [Cr(en)3]3+ > [Cr(NH3)6]3+ > [Cr(H2O)6]3+

     (B) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ > [Cr(NH3)6]3+ > [Cr(en)3]3+ > [Cr(CN)6]3–

     (C) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ > [Cr(NH3)6]3+          [Cr(en)3]3+ > [Cr(CN)6]3–

     (D) [Cr(en)3]3+ > [Cr(CN)6]3– > [Cr(NH3)6]3+ > [Cr(H2O)6]3+

6.   The product of the following reaction is :




     (A)                                        (B)




     (C)                                        (D)



                                          4
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7.   The pair of compounds that are isoelectronic and isostructural is :

     (i)    C2B10H12

     (ii)        –
            C2B9H12

     (iii) C2B8NH 11

                2
     (iv) C3B7SH11

     (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)                 (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

     (C) (i), (iii) and (iv)                 (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

                                                                           59             7
8.   The complex [Co(NH3)6]3+ will show NQR resonance lines due to              Co; I =
                                                                                          2
     and (14N; I = 1) :

     (A) 59Co only

     (B) 14N only

     (C) Both 59Co and 14N

     (D) No resonance will be observed

9.   In the 1H NMR spectrum of diborane number of resonance peaks obtained due

     to bridging hydrogens are :

                                   (11B; I = 3/2)

     (A) 21                                  (B) 7

     (C) 3                                   (D) 35

                                         5                                         [P.T.O.
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10. Which among the following hexa coordinated molecules will exhibit distorted

    Octahedral structure ?

    (A) [IF6]–                              (B) [SeBr6]2–

    (C) [TeCl6]2–                           (D) [BrF6]–



11. Intramolecular oxidative coupling of the following organometallic species would

    yield :




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)



                                        6
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12. The reactivities of halogen oxyanions and oxyacids are well understood by

    studying Latimer diagram. The Latimer diagram for bromine species in acidic

    medium is given below :

                                                                                    –
BrO4–               BrO3–                HBrO                 Br2              Br

    Identify the correct statement(s) from the following :

    (i)   BrO3– is unstable with respect to disproportionation.

    (ii) HBrO is more electrophilic.

    (iii) Reactions of BrO4– are more rapid than BrO3– .

    (A) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct

    (B) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct

    (C) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct

    (D) Only statement (ii) is correct

13. The point group of diborane is :

    (A) D2h                                   (B) C2 h

    (C) D    h                                (D) D4h

14. The Direct Synthesis method involving a reaction between a metal and an organic

    halide is exothermic for :

    (A) Mg and Pb                             (B) Bi and Hg

    (C) Li and Mg                             (D) Li and Tl

                                         7                                  [P.T.O.
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15. In the hydrogenation of carbon monoxide to methanol, finely divided ZnO is
    used as a catalyst. The cleavage of H2 on ZnO surface is of the type ..........
    and produce .......................
    (A) Heterolytic cleavage; hydrides and protons
    (B) Homolytic cleavage; protons
    (C) Homolytic cleavage; tiradicals
    (D) Heterolytic cleavage; hydrides
16. In a non-aqueous medium, a weak acid gets dehydrated upon protonation.
    Identify A and B in the equation given below :

                     HNO3 + 2H2SO4             [A] + [B] + [H3O]+

    (A) A = [NO2]+, B = 2[HSO4]–              (B) A = NO2, B = 2[HSO4]–

    (C) A = [NO3]–, B = ½ SO3                 (D) A =     NO3– , B = 4SO3

17. Four different students reported % of bromine in an organic compound as 40.00,
    40.10, 40.20 and 40.30. The mean deviation of their results is :

    (A) 40.15                                 (B) 0.15

    (C) 0.10                                  (D) –0.15

18. The incorrect statement about XeF6 is :

    (A) It has 14 electrons around central xenon atom

    (B) In condensed phase, it exists as an equilibrium mixture of 4 XeF 6
            XeF5 F –
                       4

    (C) It can be synthesized by reacting SbF 5 with XeF5 wherein XeF5         acts
          as a fluoride ion acceptor

    (D) It undergoes double-displacement reaction with SiO 2 to give xenon trioxide

                                          8
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19. The trans-PtCl2(NH3)2 can be obtained from the transformation :

    (A) [PtCl(NH3)3]+ + Cl–                (B) [PtCl3(NH3)]– + NH3

    (C) [PtCl4]2– + 2NH3                   (D) Cis – [PtCl2(NH3)2] + Cl–

20. The allowed term symbol for microstate (1– 0–) is :

    (A) 3 F                                (B) 3 P

    (C) 1 P                                (D) 1G

21. In Frost diagram, NEº values for four different oxidation states of Thorium

    is found to be Th(II) > Th(I) > Th(III) > Th(IV), then :

    (A) Th(II) is the most stable oxidation state

    (B) Th(III) can disproportionate to Th(I) and Th(IV)

    (C) Th(II) can disproportionate to Th(I) and Th(III)

    (D) Th(II) and Th(IV) can consproportionate to Th(III)

22. Bailar twist and Ray-Dutt twist pathways are observed for :

    (A) Octahedral complexes undergoing isomerization reaction

    (B) Octahedral complexes undergoing electron-transfer reaction

    (C) Square-planar complexes undergoing substitution reaction

    (D) Octahedral complexes undergoing substitution reaction


                                       9                                [P.T.O.
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23. The magnetic moment of Cu2(CH3COO)4.2H2O at 295 K is 1.41 B.M. This can
    be best explained by :

    (A) Ferromagnetic coupling

    (B) Spin-orbit coupling

    (C) Temperature independent paramagnetism

    (D) Antiferromagnetic coupling

24. Carbon monoxide poisoning happens due to :

    (A) Binding of CO to deoxyhemoglobin leading to a paramagnetic complex

    (B) Binding of CO to deoxyhemoglobin leading to a diamagnetic complex

    (C) Binding of CO to oxidized cytochrome C oxidase

    (D) Binding of two CO to heme leading to a diamagnetic complex

25. Which protein is NOT a part of e -transfer chain in photosystem II ?

    (A) Plastocyanin                       (B) Plastoquinone

    (C) Fe8S7 cluster                      (D) Cytochrome

26. For a hydrate alkali metal ion, [M(H2O)6]+, the rate of water exchange
    increases :

    (A) As the size of a metal ion decreases

    (B) As the coordination number increases

    (C) As the surface charge density increases

    (D) As the electronegativity of the metal ion increases

                                      10
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27. The g-value of a radical showing a four-line EPR signal centered at 3300
    G in a spectrometer operating at 9.10 GHz is (Given Planck constant =
    6.62608 × 10–34 Js, Bohr magneton = 9.27402 × 10–24 JT–1).

    (A) 1.97                                  (B) 2.1

    (C) 2.2                                   (D) 2.4

28. The Jahn-Teller distortion in [Ti(H2O)6]3+ species leads to :

    (A) No observed d-d transition

    (B) Three Laporte-forbidden d-d transition

    (C) Two spin forbidden d-d transition

    (D) Only one Laporte-allowed d-d transition

29. The species distribution diagram for phosphate is given below where y-axis
    represents the fraction of the species ( ). The predominant species present at
    pH 3.0, 5.0, 10.0 and 13.0 are respectively :




    (A) H3PO4 , H2PO4– , HPO42– , PO3–
                                    4         (B)   H2PO–4 , H2PO4– , HPO42– , PO3–
                                                                                 4

    (C) H3PO4 , H2PO42– , HPO2–    3–
                             4 , PO4          (D)   H3PO4 , HPO2–     2–    3–
                                                               4 , HPO4 , PO4


                                         11                                    [P.T.O.
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30. The relation between the lattice constant and radius of an atom for fcc lattice

    is :

               3a                                          2a
    (A) r =                                  (B) r =
               4                                           4
               a                                       a
    (C) r =                                  (D)   r
              2 2                                      2

31. The line positions of a quartet signal of compound in 1H–NMR spectrum taken

    on 200 MHz instrument are 791, 797, 803, 809 Hz respectively. The chemical

    shift in ppm and coupling constant of same signal is :

    (A) 4.0    , J = 6Hz                     (B) 4.3   , J = 9Hz

    (C) 3.8    , J = 3Hz                     (D) 4.0   , J = 3Hz

32. Which of the structures given below do NOT follow isoprene rule ?




    (A)                                      (B)




    (C)                                      (D)



                                        12
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33. The major product formed in the following reaction is :




    C6H13 — C      C—H+




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



                                      13                               [P.T.O.
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34. Predict the major product of the following reaction :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                      14
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35. Which of the following alcohols is NOT suitable substrate for sharpless
    asymmetric epoxidation reaction ?



    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)

36. Predict the major product of the following reaction :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)


                                      15                             [P.T.O.
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37. 2-Butanamine on reaction with excess CH3I and Ag2O, H2O followed by heating

    at 150ºC, gives the following major product :

    (A) 1-butene                           (B) 2-butene

    (C) butane                             (D) 2-butanol

38. The major products of the following reaction is :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)


                                      16
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39. The major products formed in the following reaction is :




    (A) X =                         Y =




    (B) X =                          Y =




    (C) X =                            Y =




    (D) X =                          Y =




                                      17                                [P.T.O.
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40. Predict the major product of the following reactions :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D) I & II =




                                      18
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41. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                      19                        [P.T.O.
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42. The major products of the following reaction is :




    (A) P =                                   Q =




    (B) P =                                   Q=




    (C) P=                                   Q =




    (D) P =                                   Q=




                                      20
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43. The major products formed in the following reaction is :




    (A) P =



         Q =



    (B) P =



         Q =


    (C) P =



         Q =


    (D) P =




         Q =


                                      21                                [P.T.O.
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44. Which one of the following compounds undergoes solvolysis faster in HOAc and
    predict the major product ?




    (A) II,                                (B) I,




    (C) II,                                (D) I,




                                      22
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45. The major product of the following reaction is :




                     O
    (A)                                    (B)
                   NH




    (C)                                    (D)



46. The compound that shows the following spectral data is,

    IR : 1720 cm–1

    1H-NMR (ppm) : 1.30 (t, J = 7Hz, 3H), 1.93(s, 3H), 4.19(q, J = 7Hz, 2H),

    5.58 (d, J = 3Hz, 1H), 6.15(d, J = 3Hz, 1H)



    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)


                                      23                               [P.T.O.
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47. The compound that shows the following spectral data is :
    1H-NMR (ppm) : 3.79 (s, 3H), 7.29 (d, J = 8Hz, 1H), 8.47 (dd, J = 8 and 2Hz,

    1H), 9.11 (d, J = 2Hz, 1H).




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




48. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)


                                      24
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49. The major product(s) of the following reaction is/are :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)


50. Predict the appropriate reagent for the following transformation :




    (A) LiBH4, MeOH                         (B) LAH, THF
    (C) BH3 . THF                           (D) NaCNBH3, THF

                                       25                                [P.T.O.
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51. The correct reagent for the following reaction is :



    C4H9—CH      CH2 + C2H5—CH        CH2         CH3—(CH2)5— —(CH2)5—CH3

    (A) Thexylborane; CO; H2O2/NaOH

    (B) Thexylborane; H2O2/NaOH

    (C) 9-BBN; CO; H2O2/NaOH

    (D) Triphenylborane; CO; H2O2/NaOH

52. Predict the major product of the following reaction :




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                              (D)

                                       26
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53. Predict the major product of the following reaction :




    (A)                                       (B)




    (C)                                       (D)



54. The correct order of reactivity of the following alcohols with p-nitrobenzoyl
    chloride in a esterification reaction is :




    (A) III > II > I                          (B) I > III > II

    (C) II > III > I                          (D) II > I > III

                                         27                               [P.T.O.
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55. List of isoelectronic compound is :




                        a




    (A) (a), (b), (d)                          (B) (a), (b), (c)

    (C) (a), (d), (e)                          (D) (a), (b), (e)

56. What will be the stereochemical outcome of the following reaction ?




    (A) Starting material is ‘R’, while the product has ‘S’ configuration

    (B) Starting material is ‘S’, while the product has ‘R’ configuration

    (C) Starting material and product both have ‘S’ configuration

    (D) Starting material and product both have ‘R’ configuration

                                          28
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57. What position hydroxyl group of the alcohol will occupy in the most stable

    conformation of the following molecule ?




    (A) Flagpole                           (B) Bowsprit



    (C) Equatorial                         (D) Axial



58. Predict the major product of the following reaction :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      29                               [P.T.O.
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59. Assign the chiral descriptors for the following molecule :




    (A) 2S, 3S, E                           (B) 2R, 3S, Z

    (C) 2S, 3R, E                           (D) 2S, 3R, Z

60. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :




    (A) 6–Bromo – 3-chloro – 4-methyl cyclohexene

    (B) 3–Bromo – 6-chloro – 5-methyl cyclohexene

    (C) 1–Bromo – 4-chloro – 5-methyl cyclohex – 2-ene

    (D) 4–Bromo – 1-chloro – 6-methyl cyclohex – 2-ene

                                       30
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61. The following diagrams represent the effect of ionic strength on relative free
    energy of reactants and activated complex ( ). Which sketch, most appropriately
    represents the gist of primary salt effect ?




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                       31                                   [P.T.O.
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62. Through activated complex theory, the mechanism of diffusion controlled

    reactions is expressed as :


                       A + B            (AB)            P


        kenc      rate constant associated to encounter of reactant pair.

        kesc      rate constant associated to escaping or separating pair.

    The rate law is given as

                               d[P]    kr kenc
                                    = k + k [A][B]
                                dt     esc    r

    The reaction would become diffusion controlled when :
    (A) kr << kesc                          (B) kr >> kesc
    (C) kr << kesc + kenc                   (D) kesc = kenc
63. In the following reaction mechanism


                               A + B               X*


                                  X*           P

    The rate constants have the relation

                                  k2 << k1, k–1

    The mechanism can be qualified as :

    (A) steady state approximation          (B) Pre-equilibrium approximation

    (C) principle of mass balance           (D) ACT approximation
                                       32
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64. For the first order consecutive mechanism of the type

                                  A                 B                C,

    the concentration [B] is expressed as

                                          k1[A]0
                                [B] =                   e – k1t – e– k2t .
                                          k2 – k1

    If k1 >> k2, then :

    (A) [B] = [A]0 e– k1t                                 (B) [B] = [A]0 e–k2t

                       – k1t
    (C) [B] = [A]0 e           – e– k2t                   (D) [B] = [A]0 e
                                                                             – k1t
                                                                                     – ek2t

65. In 1.0 M H2SO4 solution, the mean activity coefficient of SO2–
                                                                4 ions can more
    accurately estimated by :

    (A) Debye-Huckel theory of acid and base

    (B) Debye-Huckel limiting law

    (C) Debye-Huckel extended law

    (D) Debye-Huckel theory for strong acids

66. Practically it is impossible to construct the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)
    because :

    (A) It is difficult to get high purity H2 gas

    (B) Due to vapour pressure of water, it is difficult to maintain exact 1 atm
         pressure of H2 gas

    (C) Being inflammable, it is challenging to handle hydrogen gas in normal
         laboratory condition

    (D) It is impossible to measure the exact activity of H + ions

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67. Daniell cell was shunted through very high impedance voltmeter :




    The voltage was noted to be 1.10 V.
    Based on this data, the equilibrium constant for the equilibrium (pK).
                     Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)        Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
    will be,
    (Given : RT (at room temp) = 2500 J.mol–1)
    (A) pK = –80                             (B) pK = –40
    (C) pK = –30                             (D) pK = –120
68. The following sketch represents the probability density distribution for :




    (A) 3s orbital                           (B) 3d orbital
    (C) 2p orbital                           (D) 1p orbital

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69. Born interpretation of wave function is based on :

    (A) Probability of finding the particle (electron) in the region r and r + dr
         is proportional to | |2 dr.

    (B) Continuous property of the chosen function throughout the limits

    (C) Mathematical representation of observable of the particle

    (D) Normalization property of certain mathematical function

70. Degeneracy in rotational levels for H-atom along z-axis for l = 0, 1, 2, 3 are :
                                      2
                          (Given :        = 1.2 × 10–21 J)
                                     2I
    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4                             (B) 1, 3, 5, 7

    (C) 2, 4, 6, 8                             (D) 1, 4, 9, 16

71. In X-ray diffraction, the rays are scattered from :

    (A) atomic/ionic nuclei periodically arranged in crystal

    (B) Lattice vibration (phonon) in the crystal

    (C) Electrons cloud present in the crystal

    (D) Electrostatic potential among ions in the crystal

72. Due to symmetry consideration associated to crystals, some of the reflections
    in X-ray diffraction are absent, systematically when symmetry increases from
    triclinic to cubic, the number of systematic absence :

    (A) increases                              (B) decreases

    (C) no change                              (D) difficult to predict
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73. The following plots indicate, the surface pressure ( , m N m–1) vs area per
    surface active molecules viz. stearic acid, isostearic acid and tri-p cresyl
    phosphate :




    Match the following :

    (A) A           D, B    E,      C         F       (B) A              F, B     E,   C    D

    (C) A           E, B    F,     C          D       (D) A              E, B     D,   C    F

74. The result of the following operation

                                                            d
                                 A ( eikx )       A    –i
                                                            dx

    is :

    (A) eikx                                          (B) keikx

                                                                     2
    (C)    k eikx                                     (D)   k eikx


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75. The change in the function (f) of two variables x and y will be exact if :

                                                               2                2
              f           f                                        f                f
    (A)       x y         y x                          (B)     x   2
                                                                                y   2
                                                                       y                x


                  2             2
                      f             f
    (C)       x. y          y. x                       (D) ( f ) x         ( f )y

76. The partial pressure of NO2(g) at 1 atm. of total pressure in the reaction given
    below is :
    (     = degree of dissociation)
                                        N2O4(g)        2NO2(g)
              2                                              (1 – )
    (A)                                                (B)
            (1        )                                      (1   )

            2(1   )                                          (1 – )
    (C)                                                (D)
            (1 – )                                             2
77. The normal boiling point of a liquid is 200 K. If the liquid behaves as ideal
                                                                        H
    liquid at 76 mm, then its boiling point will be close to : (Given :   2303K )
                                                                        R
    (A) 167 K                                          (B) 20 K

    (C) 200 K                                          (D) 440 K

78. For Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics which of the following statements is

    incorrect ?

    (A) System has constant volume and constant total energy

    (B) The energy levels are eigen values of Schrodinger equation

    (C) All possible distributions are equally probable

    (D) Total energy depend upon the number of energy levels available

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79. When in an ensemble the condition of constant temperature is replaced by the

    constant energy condition, each system behaves as :


    (A) Closed                               (B) Open


    (C) Isolated                             (D) Condensed


80. At what temperature, the population in v = 1 level of I2 would become half
                                                     hcv
    the population in ground energy level ? (Given :       = 346.5 K)
                                                      k

    (A) 773 K                                (B) 500 K


    (C) 227 K                                (D) 300 K

81. The transmittance of a solution is 0.900 in 10 mm cell at certain wavelength.

    What will be the transmittance of this solution in 5 cm cell at the same

    wavelength ?

    (A) 1.000                                (B) 0.450

    (C) 0.180                                (D) 0.100

82. Every alternate line in Raman spectra of a symmetric top molecule has increased

    intensity because of :

    (A) Existence of nuclear spin

    (B) Overlapping of S-branch lines with every alternate R-branch line

    (C) Selection rule   K = 0

    (D) Combined rotational Raman spectra

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83. Assign the spectral lines given in the table to different vibrational modes of

     A2B type molecule :

           v(cm –1 )                                   Description

     (1)   590                                   IR-active (PQR branches)

     (2)   1290                                  Raman active, polarized

                                                 IR-active (PR branches)

     (3)   2220                                  Raman active, depolarized

                                                 IR-active (PR branches)

     (A) 1       bending, 2   symmetric stretching, 3      asymmetric stretching

     (B) 1       bending, 2   asymmetric stretching, 3      symmetric stretching

     (C) 1       symmetric stretching, 2    asymmetric stretching, 3       bending

     (D) 1       asymmetric stretching, 2    bending, 3      symmetric stretching

84. For a free electron placed in magnetic field strength of 1.6 T, the value of magneton

     will be :

     (A) 9.273 × 10–28 JT–1                      (B) 9.273 × 10–28 JG–1

     (C) 9.273 × 10–24 JG–1                      (D) 0.9273 × 10–28 JT–1

85. The molecular population is :

                                                                        (2J + 1)
     (A) Proportional to (2J + 1)–1              (B) Proportional to
                                                                        e –E/kT

     (C) Proportional to (2J + 1)e–E/kT          (D) Proportional to (2J + 1)–1 eE/kT

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86. For a stone weighing 100 g located within 0.1 Å, which of the following statements

    is incorrect ?

                                 h
                     (Given :      = 5.27 × 10–35 kg. m2.s–1).
                                4

    (A) Uncertainty in velocity is negligible

    (B) Both position and velocity can be determined with reasonable precision

    (C) Position of stone is precisely known

    (D) Velocity cannot be measured accurately
87. The most probable distance of 1s electron in hydrogen like atom with atomic
    number ‘z’ is given by :

          z3
    (A)                                       (B) z.a0
          a0

          a0
    (C)                                       (D) z3.a0
           z
88. By applying variation method, the ground state energy of the electron in

    hydrogen atom is (in a.u.) :

    (A) –2.75                                 (B) –0.5

    (C) –2                                    (D) 0

89. In stepwise polymerization, the addition of a small amount of catalyst results

    into :

    (A) Increase in time required to reach high degree of polymerization

    (B) No effect on molecular weight distribution

    (C) Reduction in time required for reaching high degree of polymerization

    (D) Lowering of esterification

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                                                                         x      1
90. The adsorption of solution on a solid surface follows the equation     = k.c n .
                                                                         m
                      x
    The plot of log       versus log (c) gives a horizontal line. It means :
                      m
    (A) C = 0                               (B) C = constant
          1                                              1
    (C)           0                         (D) C =
          n                                              n
91. The strongest acid among the following is :
    (A) H2SO4                               (B) HNO3
    (C) [SbF6]–H2F+                         (D) HI
92. The following is the application of nanotechnology in recent years :
    (A) Corona vaccines                     (B) Pregnancy test kit
    (C) Steel industry                      (D) Paper industry
93. The ground state energy of hydrogen like species is proportional to :

          –R                                      –Rz2
    (A)                                     (B)
          n2                                       n2

          Rz2                                     Rz
    (C)       2                             (D)
          n                                       n

94. The point group of CO32– is :

    (A) C3 h                                (B) D3h

    (C) C3 v                                (D) None of these

95. According to molecular orbital theory, the correct order of energy for        2p
    orbital is :

    (A) C2 < N2 < O2                        (B) N2 < C2 < O2

    (C) N2 < O2 > C2                        (D) C2 < N2 > O2

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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.