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MH SET 2024: 7 April, Paper II, Law

  • Date: 7 April 2024
  • Paper code: APR-60224
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 24 pages
MH SET 2024 question paper, 7 April 2024, Paper II, Law, page 1 of 24
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                      A
                                                                           LAW
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                             Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                               (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                 Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                 OMR Sheet No.

APR - 60224                                                                                                (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.     2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are           3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept                (i)
                    a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
           (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
                    the booklet with the information printed on the cover                   (ii)
                    page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                    or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                    other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
                    booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
                    the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                    Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
                    given. The same may please be noted.
           (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                                                                                            (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on        4.                       (A), (B), (C)   (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                           (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                       A        B              D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
           other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.    5.
6.         Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.         Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                    6.
8.         If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put                7.
           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                   8.
           allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
           identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with          9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
           conclusion of examination.
                                                                                   10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                   11.
11.        Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                     12.
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APR - 60224/II—A




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                                            Law
                                         Paper II


Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                                            [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
        carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   Kelsens hierarchy of norms derived              4.     “Act in such a way that the maximum
     from :                                                 of your actions could be made the
     (A) Hypothetical grund norms                           maxim of general action”. This was
     (B) Closed logical system                              propounded by ............. .
     (C) Aesthetic experience                               (A) Kant
     (D) Legislation                                        (B) HLA Hart
2.   Austin’s conception of sovereignty as                  (C) Prof. Frank
     an element of law clearly presupposes
                                                            (D) Rawl
     a pre-legal element as ................ .
     (A) the habit of obedience from the             5.     Match the following jural opposites :
         bulk of a given society                                 List I                     List II
     (B) purpose in the law                               (a)   Rights             (i)      Liability
     (C) a determinate source                             (b)   Privilege          (ii) Duty
     (D) sanction                                         (c)   Power              (iii) Disability
3.   A personal servitude is one which                    (d) Immunity             (iv) No rights
     is vested in an individual because
     of his .................. .                                 (a)   (b)   (c)    (d)

     (A) rights                                             (A) (iv) (ii)    (iii) (i)
     (B) power                                              (B) (ii) (iv) (i)       (iii)
     (C) personality                                        (C) (iii) (iv) (i)      (ii)
     (D) obligation                                         (D) (i)    (iii) (ii) (iv)

                                                 3                                               [P.T.O.
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6.   “De mortuis nisi bonum” means :           9.   ‘Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit
                                                    rea’ means :
     (A) Dead men survives through his
                                                    (A) the act does not constitute a
         descendants                                    guilt unless it is done with a
                                                        guilty mind
     (B) Legal personality ends with the
                                                    (B) the act itself constitute a guilt
         death of a person
                                                    (C) if a duty is created by law, the
     (C) Dead body has a right to a
                                                        later should see to it that the
         decent burial                                  same is performed

     (D) Dead body has a right in                   (D) once a libel has been committed,
                                                        its specific enforcement is not
         reputation
                                                        possible
7.   The word ‘dominium’ denotes :             10. Who among the following argued,

     (A) Physical control over a thing              ‘actual justice cannot be achieved
                                                    except within a sovereign state’ ?
     (B) The absolute right to a thing
                                                    (A) Rawls
     (C) Hohfeldian philosophy of right             (B) Cohen

     (D) Development of the idea of                 (C) Thomas Hobbes

         possession                                 (D) Julius Stone
                                               11. Article 39-A of the Constitution
8.   Who has defined ownership as ‘a
                                                    provides for :
     plenary control over an object’ ?
                                                    (A) Maternity relief
     (A) Austin
                                                    (B) Uniform Civil Code
     (B) Kelsen                                     (C) Promotion of Co-operative
                                                        Society
     (C) Hart
                                                    (D) Equal justice and free legal
     (D) Holland                                        aid

                                           4
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12. The minimum age to become the               15. Under which of the conditions can
                                                    the President make proclamation of
    Governor is :                                   national emergency ?
                                                     (A) When the security of India is
    (A) Thirty years
                                                         threatened by war or external
                                                         aggression or armed rebellion
    (B) Twenty five years
                                                     (B) When two neighbouring
    (C) Twenty years                                     countries are on war
                                                     (C) When more than half of the
    (D) Thirty-five years                                Members of Lok Sabha make
                                                         the requisition in writing to the
13. Who has the power to make the law
                                                         President
    with respect to goods and service tax            (D) When more than half of the
    provided under Art, 246-A when the                   State Governments make the
                                                         requisition in writing to the
    provision of Article 356 is in                       President
    operation in a State ?                      16. Relate the following Articles to the
                                                    name of the State that enjoys
    (A) Governor of the State                       special provisions and choose the
                                                    right option :
    (B) State legislature
                                                          Article                    State
    (C) Parliament                                 (i)   371-C                (a)    Manipur
                                                   (ii) 371-I                 (b)    Goa
    (D) President
                                                   (iii) 371-D                (c)    Andhra
14. Law declared by the Supreme Court                                                Pradesh/
                                                                                     Telangana
    shall be binding on :
                                                   (iv) 371-J                 (d) Karnataka
    (A) All Subordinate Courts only
                                                          (i)    (ii)   (iii) (iv)
    (B) All High Courts only                         (A) (a)     (b)    (c)    (d)
                                                     (B) (b)     (c)    (d) (a)
    (C) All the Courts
                                                     (C) (c)     (d)    (a)    (b)
    (D) All the Foreign Tribunals
                                                     (D) (d) (a)        (b)    (c)

                                            5                                              [P.T.O.
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17. Under which of the following
                                                18. Who defined administrative law
   grounds an order of the Election
   Commission can be interfered with                in relation with constitutional law
   by the High Court under Art. 226 ?
                                                    as, “It is logically impossible to
   (i)   Where it is contrary to the law
                                                    distinguish administrative from
         enacted under Art. 327.
   (ii) If the order is arbitrary or mala           constitutional law and all attempts
         fide or unfair.
                                                    to do so are artificial” ?
   (iii) If it is without or in excess of
         the Commission’s jurisdiction,             (A) Maitland
         being in contravention of any
         electoral law or the Rules made            (B) Keith
         thereunder by the competent
                                                    (C) A.V. Dicey
         Legislature or any provision of
         the Constitution itself.
                                                    (D) M.P. Jain
   (iv) Where a particular direction of
         the Commission is submitted to         19. Which among the following is not
         the Government for approval as
                                                    covered under the principles of
         required by the Rules, it is not
         open to the Commission to go               natural justice ?
         ahead with the implementation
         of it at its own sweet will                (A) Fair play in action
         even if the approval of the
                                                    (B) To secure justice
         Government is not given.
   (A) (i) and (ii) only                            (C) To prevent miscarriage of
   (B) (iii) and (iv) only
                                                        justice
   (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
   (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)                    (D) Command of the Sovereign

                                            6
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20. Which among the following is not             22. Which of the following provides
    within the meaning of judicial                    provision regarding Conventional
    review ?                                          sources of the International Law ?
    (A) Judicial review is an appeal
                                                      (A) Article 38(2)
        against the administrative
                                                      (B) Article 38(1)
        action

    (B) Judicial review is to keep the                (C) Article 38(3)

        administrative authorities                    (D) Article 38(4)
        within the bounds of their
                                                 23. De jure Recognition is ............. .
        powers under the law
                                                      (A) Permanent           and     Legal
    (C) Judicial review is to see whether
                                                             Recognition
        there has been any infirmity in
        the decision-making process                   (B) Temporary          and    Factual

    (D) Judicial review is simply to set                     Recognition

        aside the unlawful order and not              (C) Primary Recognition
        to substitute its own decision for
                                                      (D) Cannot        enjoy   diplomatic
        that of the statutory authority
                                                             immunity
21. Which of the following is included
                                                 24. Question of the determination of
    as the subject of International
                                                      nationality falls within the domain
    Law ?
                                                      of :
    (A) State alone
                                                      (A) International Law
    (B) International Institution
                                                      (B) Municipal Law
    (C) Individual alone

    (D) State, International Institution              (C) Customary Law

        and Individual                                (D) Natural Law

                                             7                                        [P.T.O.
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25. Extradition is the .................. of an       28. Identify the organization which does

     accused or convicted individual.                     not have trade related objectives ?

     (A) Arrest                                           (A) The World Bank

     (B) Custody                                          (B) International Monetary Fund

     (C) Delivery                                         (C) World Trade Organization

     (D) Bail                                             (D) Economic and Social Council

26. Which of the following is a                       29. The term Humanitarian Law was

     permanent member of the Security                     firstly used in 1965, in the Inter-

     Council ?                                            national Red Cross Conference held

     (A) Brazil                                           at ................. .

     (B) India                                            (A) Chicago

     (C) Japan                                            (B) Vienna

     (D) China                                            (C) Hague

27. Which of the following is not a                       (D) Geneva

     coercive means of the Settlement of              30. Who has primary duty to implement

     Dispute ?                                            International Humanitarian Law ?

     (A) Retortion                                        (A) State

     (B) Reprisal                                         (B) Regional Organizations

     (C) Embargo                                          (C) International Community

     (D) Inquiry                                          (D) NGOs

                                                  8
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31. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
                                                    33. The idea of something, fortuitous
     with the help of codes given below
     it. Point out the correct explanation :
                                                        and unexpected is involved in the
     Assertion (A) : A sword blow in the
     abdomen of a person constitute the                 word ................ .
     offence of murder.
     Reason (R) : It is immaterial that                 (A) Accident
     the injury was done without any
     specific intention.                                (B) Negligence
     Codes :
     (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and               (C) Rashness
          (R) is the correct explanatin
          of (A)                                        (D) Recklessness
     (B) (A) and (R) are occasionally
         complementary to each other                34. Whoever aids or abets the actual
     (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not
                                                        commission of crime either at the
          supplementary
     (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong                     place where it is committed or
32. In criminal law, ................. may be
     defined as that which leads or                     eleswhere is a :
     tempts the mind to indulge in a
     criminal act or as the moving power                (A) Principal in the first degree
     which impels to act for a definite
     result.                                            (B) Principal in the second degree
     (A) Intention
     (B) Motive                                         (C) Accessory before the fact

     (C) Preparation
                                                        (D) Accessory after the fact
     (D) Attempt

                                                9                                           [P.T.O.
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35. Match List I with List II and select         36. Which is the first country of the
    the correct answer using the codes
                                                     world, introduced its nationwide
    given below it :
                                                     criminal injuries compensation
                       List I
                                                     program in 1963 ?
    (a) Adultery cannot and should not
        be a crime                                   (A) England
    (b) Consensual adult gay sex is not
                                                     (B) France
          a crime
    (c) Religion of the spouse is                    (C) New Zealand
        irrelevant under section 125
                                                     (D) America
        Cr.P.C.
    (d) Triple talak is violative of             37. Which of the following is a gist of
        fundamental rights of Muslim                 criminal conspiracy ?
        women
                                                     (A) Agreement
                    List II
    (i)   Navtej Singh Johar          and            (B) Knowledge
          another V. U.O.I.
                                                     (C) Meeting
    (ii) Shayara Bano V. U.O.I.
                                                     (D) Common intention
    (iii) Joseph Shine V. U.O.I.
    (iv) Mohd. Ahmed Khan V. Shah                38. In which of the following cases, the
         Bano Begum and others                       right to private defence extends to
    Codes :                                          causing death ?
          (a)   (b)      (c)    (d)
                                                     (A) House-breaking
    (A) (i)     (ii)     (iii) (iv)
                                                     (B) House-breaking by night
    (B) (i)     (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (C) (iii) (i)        (ii) (iv)                   (C) House-trespass

    (D) (iii) (i)        (iv) (ii)                   (D) Mischief

                                            10
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39. Under the Indian Penal Code sexual         42. According to Stephen and Holmes
    intercourse or sexual acts by a man            voluntary act may be distinguished
    with his own wife :
                                                   from an involuntary act by dividing
    (A) cannot amount to rape as                   the former into :
        marital rape is not recognised
                                                   (A) Act and guilty intention
        in India

    (B) will amount to rape if her                 (B) A willed muscular contraction,
        consent is not dully taken                     its    circumstances          and

    (C) can amount to rape if wife is                  consequences
        below the age of 15 years                  (C) Action and reaction
    (D) will amount to rape if wife is
                                                   (D) Lawful act with bonafide
        below the age of 18 years
                                                       intention
40. Causing one thing to resemble
                                               43. Philosophy      behind     statutory
    another thing is known as :
                                                   immunity is :
    (A) Counterfeit
                                                   (A) that lessor private right must
    (B) Deception
                                                       yield to the greater public
    (C) Cheating
                                                       interest
    (D) Forgery
                                                   (B) private     interest    can     be
41. In view of presumption of damages
    rights are classified into :                       comprised at any time

    (A) Fundamental                and             (C) public interest is always private
        constitutional rights                          interest

    (B) Absolute and qualified rights              (D) statutory       authority      can
    (C) Qualified and quantified rights                compromise both public and

    (D) Basic and indienable rights                    private interest

                                          11                                       [P.T.O.
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44. Force is not reasonable if :                   47. As per the Consumer Protection Act,

     (A) It is exceeding limitation of                 1986, who is the chairperson of
         morality                                      the District Consumer Protection
                                                       Councils ?
     (B) It may cause death
                                                       (A) District judge of the concerned
     (C) It may develop rivalry
                                                           district
     (D) If it is unnecessary, greater
         than requisite for the purpose                (B) Any person appointed by the
         for the disaproportionate to the                  High Court of the concern state
         evil to be prevented                          (C) District Collector
45. The restitutio in integrum is the                  (D) Any member of Parliament
     basic principle of governing :                        elected from the concerned
     (A) The measure of damages for                        state
         damages to the property in tort           48. As per section 181 of Motor Vehicle
         as well as contract
                                                       Act 1988 consequences of driving
     (B) Property in contract                          without a valid licence in its recent
     (C) Property in tort                              amendment includes penalty for

     (D) Property in crime                             both of minor and other caught
                                                       driving without a valid licence of :
46. More stringent rule of strict liability
     than the rule in Rylands V. Fletcher              (A) Rs.     1,000    and   one   year
     was laid down by the Supreme Court                    imprisonment
     in the case of M.C. Mehta V. Union                (B) Rs. 5,000 and three months
     of India popularly known as :                         imprisonment
     (A) Ganga water pollution case                    (C) Rs. 10,000 and 6 months
     (B) Oleum gas case                                    imprisonment
     (C) Taj Mahal case                                (D) Rs. 2,000 and 3 months
     (D) Sabarimala case                                   imprisonment

                                              12
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49. To resolve the dispute under the           51. The vendor and vendee in respect
                                                   of two properties entered into a
    Motor Vehicle Act, motor accidents
                                                   gentlemen’s agreement that the
    claims tribunals are established
                                                   vendee would recover the property
    under :                                        sold to the vendors if within a period
    (A) Chapter I Section 165                      of three years the consideration
                                                   money along with some money
    (B) Chapter II Section 165                     solatium is paid. The contract is a :
    (C) Chapter II Section 65                       (A) Valid contract unless it yield
                                                        legal obligations
    (D) Chapter V Section 165
                                                    (B) Void contract as it does not yield
50. Under section 8(1) of Competition
                                                        legal obligations
    Act, 2002 the commission shall
                                                    (C) Voidable contract at the option
    consist of :                                        of the party
    (A) A chairperson and not less than             (D) Social contract as it yield moral
        two and not more than ten other                 obligations
        members to be appointed by the         52. Section 73 of the Indian Contract
        Central Government                         Act, 1872 deals with substantial
                                                   damages namely :
    (B) A chairperson and not less than
                                                    (A) General damages arising from
        five and not more than ten                      the usual or natural course of
        members appointed by Central                    events
        Govt.                                       (B) Special damages arising from
    (C) A chairperson and not less than                 peculiar circumstances of a
                                                        particular case
        10 members and not more than
                                                    (C) General and special damages
        15 members appointed by
                                                        arising out of usual or natural
        Central Government
                                                        and peculiar circumstances of a
    (D) A chairperson appointed by                      particular case
        Central Government                          (D) Remote damages or indirect loss

                                          13                                      [P.T.O.
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53. “No customer in a thousand ever               56. An agreement without mentioning
    read the conditions. If he had stopped
                                                      the terms of its existence is dealt
    to do so, he would have missed the
    train or the boat.” This expression               under the Partnership Act, 1932
    made in Thornton V. Lone Parking                  under Section :
    Ltd. (1971) by :
                                                      (A) 4
     (A) Lord Denning H.R.
     (B) Scrutton L.J.                                (B) 5

     (C) Mellish L.J.                                 (C) 6
     (D) Lord Wilberforce
                                                      (D) 7
54. The obligations of co-guarantees are
    provided under the Contract Act,              57. Which section of the NI Act, 1881
    1872 in sections :                                justifies the dishonour of the
     (A) 143, 145                                     cheque ?
     (B) 145, 146
                                                      (A) 28
     (C) 144, 147
     (D) 146, 147                                     (B) 29

55. The right to stoppage in transit                  (C) 30
    u/s 46 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
    available to unpaid seller :                      (D) 31

     (A) if he is UPS under section 45            58. The incorporation certificate issued
     (B) if he is UPS u/s 45 and once he              by Registrar of Companies is
         departed with possession
                                                      conclusive proof for all purposes was
         u/s 46
                                                      first time held by :
     (C) if he is UPS u/s 45 and the
         buyer becomes insolvent                      (A) Lord Dunnedt
     (D) The seller must be UPS u/s 45
                                                      (B) Lord Cairns
         and the buyer becomes
         insolvent and the seller                     (C) Lord Chelmsford
         departed with the possession of
         goods                                        (D) Lord Macnaghten

                                             14
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59. “The Board of Directors are the brain
                                                 61. Mitakshara became the authority for
    of the company, which is the body
    and the company can and does act                 the whole India except the parts of
    only through them” was expressed
    by :                                             ................ states.
    (A) Neville J. in Bath V. Standard
                                                     (A) Punjab and Bengal
         Land Co. Ltd.
    (B) Greer LJ in Fanton V. Denville               (B) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
    (C) Madras High Court in
        Ramasamy Iyer V. Brahmayya                   (C) Maharashtra and Goa
        and Co.
    (D) Supreme Court in State Trading               (D) Rajasthan and Gujarat
        Corporation V. CTO
                                                 62. Which of the following is not an
60. Social responsibility committee to be
    established by a company under                   essential for a female Hindu to adopt
    Section 135 of the Companies Act,
    2013 if a company having :                       a child ?
    (A) Networth of Rs. 500 crores or                (A) Soundness of mind
        more, or turnover of Rs. 1000
        crores rupee or a net profit of              (B) Age of majority
        Rs. 5 croes or more during a
        financial year                               (C) Consent of her husband
    (B) Net worth of Rs. 400 crores or
        more, or turnover of Rs. 700                 (D) Consent of her parents
        crores or more or a net profit
        of Rs. 4 crores or more during           63. Which of the following is not a
        a financial year
                                                     ground for divorce under Sec. 13 of
    (C) Net worth of Rs. 300 crores or
        more, or turnover of Rs. 500                 the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
        crores or more on a net profit
        of Rs. 3 crores or more during               (A) Cruelty
        a financial year
    (D) Net worth of Rs. 200 crores or               (B) Religious Conversion
        more, or turnover of Rs. 400
        crores or more or a net profit               (C) Non-vulnerable disease
        of Rs. 2 crores or more during
        a financial year                             (D) Leprosy

                                            15                                            [P.T.O.
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64. The property of a female Hindu                 66. Which of the following Law

     dying intestate shall devolve in                  Commission Report highlighted the
                                                       need for family law legislation for
     which of the following sequence ?
                                                       NRIs ?
     (i)   Upon heirs of father                        (A) Law Commission’s 219th Report
     (ii) Upon the mother and father                   (B) Law Commission’s 277th Report

     (iii) Upon the heirs husband                      (C) Law Commission’s 271st Report

     (iv) Upon sons, daughters and                     (D) Law Commission’s 262nd Report

           husband                                 67. In which case it was decided that
                                                       ‘the widow of a coparcener including
     (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)                        the widow of Karta is entitled to
     (B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)                        maintenance out of the joint family
                                                       property’ ?
     (C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
                                                       (A) Herani V. Malibai
     (D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
                                                       (B) Sama V. Magan Lal
65. In which case it was opined that ‘live             (C) Lakshmi V. Sundaramma
     in relationship is not illegal or                 (D) Pokur V. Pokur
     immoral and the two consenting
                                                   68. Muslim law permits bequests to be
     adults have the right to live together            made to a child in the womb,
     without getting married’ ?                        provided it is born within certain
                                                       time of the death of the testator. The
     (A) Mary Roy V. State of Kerala
                                                       said time limit is :
     (B) Khushboo V. Kanniammal                        (A) 1 month
     (C) Lata Singh V. State of Uttar                  (B) 3 months
           Pradesh                                     (C) 6 months

     (D) Tamil Nadu V. Suhas Katti                     (D) 1 year

                                              16
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69. Which Article of the Indian                 72. At which Conference does the states
    Constituion encourages enactment
                                                    were called upon to provide effective
    and implementation of Uniform
    Civil Code ?                                    access to judicial and administrative

    (A) Article 14                                  proceedings including redress and

    (B) Article 21                                  remedy ?
    (C) Article 44
                                                    (A) Rio de Janeiro
    (D) Article 370
                                                    (B) Stockholm
70. Which of the following does not come
    under the preview of Fault Theory               (C) Johannesburg
    of divorce ?
                                                    (D) Kyoto
    (A) Adultery

    (B) Cruelty                                 73. Which of the following was never

    (C) Desertion                                   the aim of Indian Forest Act, 1927 ?

    (D) Mutual consent
                                                    (A) To earn revenue from cutting
71. The sum total of all conditions
                                                        of the trees and forest produce
    and influences that affect the
    development and life of organisms               (B) To regulate the cutting of trees
    is known as :
                                                    (C) To protect the vegetation cover
    (A) Ecology
                                                        of India
    (B) Environment

    (C) Atmosphere                                  (D) To supply raw material for

    (D) Pollution                                       forest based industries

                                           17                                     [P.T.O.
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74. What does the procedure to know the           77. Which of the following international
    positive and negative aspects of a                instrument is recognized as a
    proposed developmental activity                   common standard of achievement for
    called ?                                          all peoples and all nations ?

    (A) Ecological Risk Assessment                    (A) ICCPR

    (B) Integrated     Environmental                  (B) UDHR

        Management                                    (C) ICESCR

    (C) Environmental            Impact               (D) CEDAW
        Assessment                                78. Under reporting mechanism of
    (D) Life Cycle Assessment                         ICCPR, the state parties have to
                                                      submit reports on the measures
75. National Green Tribunal has been
                                                      adopted to give effect to rights
    established render a constitutional
                                                      recognized therein to whom ?
    mandate provided under which
                                                      (A) Secretary General of UNO
    entry of List I in schedule VII of the
    Constitution of India ?                           (B) Security Council

    (A) Entry 12                                      (C) ICJ

                                                      (D) ECOSOC
    (B) Entry 14
                                                  79. Which system was introduced by
    (C) Entry 13
                                                      optional protocol to the Convention
    (D) Entry 15                                      on Elimination of All Forms of
76. According to D.D. Basu human                      Discrimination Against Women ?
    rights are available against whom ?               (A) Conciliation system
    (A) Private person                                (B) Reporting system
    (B) Public authority                              (C) Interstate     communication
    (C) State                                              system

    (D) Both state and public authority               (D) Individual complaints system

                                             18
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80. Which one of the following is not the        82. Sentences           relating     to        Paris
    ground of removal of Chairperson or
                                                     Convention :
    a member of National Commission
    for Women ?                                      (i)   was followed by the Berne
    (A) Becomes          undischarged                      Convention
          insolvent
                                                     (ii) there are 55 articles
    (B) Becomes of unsound mind
                                                     (iii) it    provides        protection        to
    (C) Gets convicted and sentenced to
          imprisonment for an offence                      Industrial Property
          which in the opinion of Central
                                                     (iv) it was held in 1883
          Government involves moral
          turpitude                                  (A) Only (i) is true

    (D) Is, without obtaining leave of               (B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
          absence from the commission,
          absent from two consecutive                (C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
          meetings of the commission                 (D) Only (iv) is correct
81. The British Statute of Anne 1710
                                                 83. “To protect, in as effective and
    of the Statute of Monopolies 1623
    are now regarded as the origin of :              uniform a manner as possible, the

    (i)   Copyright                                  rights of authors in their literary

    (ii) Patent                                      and        artistic       works,”     is     the

    (iii) Design and trademark                       aim ................. .

    (iv) Geographical indication                     (A) Paris Convention
    (A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
                                                     (B) Tokyo Convention
    (B) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct
                                                     (C) Berne Convention
    (C) Only (iv) is correct
    (D) Only (iii) is correct                        (D) Berlin Convention

                                            19                                              [P.T.O.
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84. TRIPs agreement :                                86. Section 5 of Part-II of TRIPS
    (i)   aims at protecting intellectual                Agreement relates to the ............ .
          property rights to reward                      (A) Copyright
          creativity and inventiveness
                                                         (B) Patents
    (ii) is added to the Agreement
          Establishing the World Trade                   (C) Goodwill
          Organisation (WTO)                             (D) Trademarks
    (iii) it   is    multilateral    Trade           87. An office known as Trade Marks
          Agreement
                                                         Registry has been established under
    (iv) it is an integral part of Geneva                Section........of the Trade Marks Act,
          Convention
                                                         1999 to provide for registration and
    (A) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct            better protection of trademarks for
    (B) Only (i) is correct                              goods and services.
    (C) All are correct                                  (A) Section 5(2)
    (D) Only (i), (ii), (iii) are correct                (B) Section 6(1)
85. Which provision of the Copyright
                                                         (C) Section 5(1)
    Act, 1957, provides that– “Copyright
    means the exclusive right to do or                   (D) Section 7(1)
    authorize to do certain acts in                  88. Which of the following recognized
    relation to literary, dramatic,                      the legal validity under Section
    musical         and   artistic   works;
                                                         10(A) of Information Technology
    cinematograph           film;    sound
                                                         Amendment Act, 2008 ?
    recording.”
                                                         (A) Electronic Signature
    (A) Section 14 and 2(y)
    (B) Section 15 and 3(g)                              (B) e-Data

    (C) Section 36 and (a)                               (C) Digital Signature

    (D) Section 16 and 2(y)                              (D) e-Contract
                                                20
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89. Section 50 of the Information
                                                        91. The form of government in USA is
    Technology Act—“A person shall not
    be qualified for appointment as a                       based on the theory that there
    Chairperson of the Tribunal unless                      should be separation between
    he is, or has been, or is qualified to
                                                            executive     and    legislature    is
    be, a Judge of a .............. .
    (A) High Court                                          characterired as :

    (B) Supreme Court                                       (A) Parliamentary
    (C) District and Sessions Court
                                                            (B) Presidential
    (D) City Civil Court
                                                            (C) Federal
90. ‘The National Biodiversity Authority’
    is ................. .
                                                            (D) Quasi-Federal
    (i)    established by the Central
           Government                                   92. The British North America Act,

    (ii) to regulate, transfer and use of                   1867 was intended to establish
           biodiversity resources at the                    strong centre in Canada. The growth
           national level
                                                            of Canadian federation has been
    (iii) having its head office located at
           Mumbai                                           much influenced by which factors in

    (iv) the          Chairperson      of   the             the country ?
           Authority shall be the retired
                                                            (A) Bi-racialism and bi-linguism
           Judge of High Court
    (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct                (B) Upper house and Lower house
    (B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
                                                            (C) Unitary and Monarchy
    (C) All         (i), (ii) (iii) and (iv) are
           correct                                          (D) Constitutionalism              and

    (D) Only (iv) is correct                                    Utilitarianism

                                                   21                                    [P.T.O.
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93. The three essential norms of Rule            95. Which Constitutional Amendment

    of Law as thus precisely synchronized            inserted the words ‘Socialist’ and

    by whom ?                                        ‘Secular’ in the preamble of the
                                                     Indian Constitution ?
    (i)   Norms of conduct of one another
                                                     (A) First Amendment
    (ii) Norms which proceed from a

          known external authority                   (B) Forty-first Amendment

    (iii) Norms whose binding force is               (C) Forty-fourth Amendment

          guaranteed by the external                 (D) Forty-second Amendment
          powers                                 96. Independence of judiciary which

    (A) John Locke                                   declared the judicial tenure to be

    (B) Thomas Jefferson                             during good behavior and that upon
                                                     the address of both the Houses of
    (C) Jellinek
                                                     Parliament it would be lawful to
    (D) Dicey
                                                     remove a judge was secured in
94. Who aphorized, ‘power corrupts and               England by which Act ?
    absolute power corrupts absolutely’
                                                     (A) Act of Settlement, 1701
    in adherence to the idea of
                                                     (B) Statutory Instruments Act,
    separation of powers ?
                                                         1946
    (A) Lord Acton
                                                     (C) Tribunals and Inquiries Act,
    (B) Lord Atkin                                       1958
    (C) Lord Atler                                   (D) Administrative       Appeals
    (D) Lord Douglas                                     Tribunal Act, 1975

                                            22
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97. Which of the following is one of the         99. Which of the following Commission
    prime functions of the doctrine of               recommendations the Lok Sabha
    judicial review ?                                enacted the Lokpal and Lokayuktas
    (A) To protect the constitution                  Bill, 1968 ?
         against any undue encroach-
                                                     (A) Administrative        Reforms
         ments by the government
                                                         Commission
    (B) De-legitimising government
                                                     (B) Parliamentary Commissiner
         action
                                                         (Ombudsman) Act
    (C) To encroach the powers of
         judiciary                                   (C) Central Vigilance Commission

    (D) To distract the doctrine of rule             (D) The Commissions of Inquiry Act

         of law                                  100. Which of the following is not
98. Which of the following constitutional            included as ‘record’ under Right to
    amendment abolishes the slavery                  Information Act, 2005 ?
    system in America ?
                                                     (A) Any document manuscript and
    (A) First           Constitutional
                                                         file
         Amendment
                                                     (B) Any microfilm, microfiche and
    (B) Thirteenth      Constitutional
                                                         facsimile copy of document
         Amendment
                                                     (C) Any other material produced by
    (C) Twenty Second Constitutional
         Amendment                                       a computer or any other device

    (D) Tenth           Constitutional               (D) Any immaterial document and

         Amendment                                       information

                                            23                                   [P.T.O.
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ROUGH WORK




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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.