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MH SET 2025: 15 June, Paper II, Commerce

  • Date: 15 June 2025
  • Paper code: JUN-50225
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 32 pages
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                               A
                                                                             Paper-II
                                                                        COMMERCE
       Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                          Seat No.
       1. (Signature) .........................................                                                      (In figures as in Admit Card)
             (Name) ................................................                      Seat No. ..............................................................
       2. (Signature) .........................................                                                (In words)

             (Name) ................................................                  OMR Sheet No.
       JUN - 50225                                                                                                 (To be filled by the Candidate)
       Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                  [Maximum Marks : 200
       Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32                                                      Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                              Instructions for the Candidates
       1.          Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided              1.
                   on the top of this page.
       2.          This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
                   will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.      2.
       3.          At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
                   will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
                   requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as             3.
                   follows :
                   (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the                    (i)
                            paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
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                            the booklet with the information printed on the cover
                            page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                            or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                            other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
                            booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
                            the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                            Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be                     (iii)
                            given. The same may please be noted.
                   (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                            should be entered on this Test Booklet.                         4.                     (A), (B), (C)   (D)
       4.          Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
                   (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
                   the correct response against each item.
                   Example : where (B) is the correct response.                                              (B)

                                A                  C        D                                                        A              C       D
                   Following wrong methods should not be used as they are not                                                                 (Digitized)
                   recognised by scanning machine in digitized assessment.
                   Candidate using such method will be responsible for their loss.

CORRECT METHOD                          WRONG METHODS
                                                                           CORRECT METHOD                                WRONG METHODS
        C      D        A B C D        A B C D         A B C D      A B C D
                                                                                   C D                      A B C D      A B C D    A B C D      A B C D
       5.          Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
                   Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place            5.
                   other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
       6.          Read instructions given inside carefully.                                6.
       7.          Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                     7.
       8.          If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put
                   any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space              8.
                   allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
                   identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
                   means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
       9.          You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
                   end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with           9.
                   you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
                   to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
                   conclusion of examination.                                               10.
       10.         Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
       11.         Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.                 11.
       12.         There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                      12.
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JUN - 50225/II—A




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JUN - 50225/II—A
                                 Commerce
                                   Paper II


                                                   II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                          [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
                              (100)                                           (2)


1.   Which of the following is not an         1.
     aspect of International Business ?
     (A) Exporting
                                                    (A)
     (B) Joint Ventures
                                                    (B)
     (C) Licensing
     (D) Confined to the boundaries of              (C)
          one country                               (D)
2.   A Multinational Corporation is           2.
     defined as :
     (A) Having multiethnic workforce               (A)
     (B) Having suppliers in more than
          one company                               (B)
     (C) Carrying out production or
          operation in more than one
                                                    (C)
          country
     (D) Having more than 100
          volunteers                                (D)
3.   Anti-dumping and countervailing          3.             dumping
     duties are imposed under :
     (A) Regional Trade Agreements
     (B) Trade Related Investment                   (A)
          Measures
                                                    (B)
     (C) Trade Related Investment
          Property Rights                           (C)
     (D) Customs Tariff Act, 1975                   (D)

                                          3                               [P.T.O.
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4.   The theory of Absolute advantage            4.
     was propounded by ..................
                                                      (A)
     (A) David Ricardo
                                                      (B)
     (B) Eli Heckscher
                                                      (C)
     (C) Berti Ohlin
                                                      (D)
     (D) Adam Smith
5.   Which of the following country is not       5.
     a part of NAFTA ?                                      NAFTA
     (A) United Kingdom                               (A)
     (B) Mexico                                       (B)
     (C) Canada                                       (C)

     (D) United States of America                     (D)

6.   Which of the following are the two          6.
     main Fiscal barriers ?
     (A) Blocked   Accounts          and              (A)
         Exchange Rates
     (B) Exchanged    control        and              (B)
         Exchange Intervention
     (C) Anti-dumping duties         and
                                                      (C)
         countervailing duties
     (D) Monetary and Fiscal policy                   (D)

7.   The Government starts buying the            7.
     domestic currency to maintain its
     exchange value. This process is
     called as ...................
                                                      (A)
     (A) Balancing
                                                      (B)
     (B) Maintaining
                                                      (C)
     (C) Pegging up
     (D) Pegging down                                 (D)

                                             4
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8.   Which of the following is not a              8.
     component of balance of payment ?
                                                        (A)
     (A) Current Account
                                                        (B)
     (B) Capital Account
                                                        (C)
     (C) Savings Account
     (D) Unilateral Payment Account                     (D)         Unilateral

9.   The risk arising from uncertain              9.
     economic and social performance
     and discriminating economic policies
     of a country is termed as :
     (A) Political Risk                                 (A)
     (B) Cultural Risk                                  (B)
     (C) Country Specific Risk                          (C)
     (D) Market Risk                                    (D)

10. The economic system in which                  10.
    productive assets are owned and
    operated by the central Governing
    body or Administrative authority is :
     (A) Command economy                                (A)
     (B) Mixed economy                                  (B)
     (C) Liberal economy                                (C)
     (D) Open economy                                   (D)
11. Revenue is generally recognised               11.         Matching concept
    being earned at the point of time
    when ........ as per matching concepts.
     (A) Cash is received                               (A)
     (B) Production is completed                        (B)
     (C) Sale is affected                               (C)
     (D) Goods are delivered                            (D)
                                              5                         [P.T.O.
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12. X and Y shared profit in the ratio           12. X        Y                7 : 3
    of 7 : 3. Z was admitted as a partner.                              Z
    X surrendered 1/7 of his share and                 X          1/7                   Y
    Y 1/3 of his share in favour of Z. The             1/3                    Z
    new ratio will be ................
     (A) 3 : 1 : 1                                     (A) 3 : 1 : 1
     (B) 6 : 1 : 6                                     (B) 6 : 1 : 6
     (C) 14 : 6 : 9                                    (C) 14 : 6 : 9
     (D) 1 : 1 : 4                                     (D) 1 : 1 : 4
13. If equity shares have been bought            13.
    back out of free reserves, amount
    equal to the face value of equity
    shares bought back should be
    transferred to ...............
                                                       (A)
     (A) Development Rebate Reserve
                                                       (B)
     (B) General Reserve
     (C) Sinking Fund                                  (C)

     (D) Capital Redemption Reserve                    (D)

14. The subsidiary company can carry             14.
    forward its losses for Income Tax
    purposes .....................
                                                       (A)
     (A) As it possesses its own separate
         entity
                                                       (B)
     (B) As it prepare its own individual
         accounts
     (C) As it can make necessary                      (C)
         arrangement
     (D) As their shareholders are not                 (D)
         properly protected
                                             6
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15. You are given the following                15.
    information :
    Selling price per unit : Rs. 40                                               40
    Variable cost per unit : Rs. 30                                               30
    Fixed cost Rs. 1,80,000
                                                                       1,80,000
    What will be the new Break even
    sales in rupees if sales price is                              10%
    reduced by 10% ?
    (A) Rs. 10,80,000                                (A)      10,80,000
    (B) Rs. 7,20,000                                 (B)      7,20,000
    (C) Rs. 9,60,000                                 (C)      9,60,000
    (D) Rs. 10,00,000                                (D)      10,00,000
16. The projected cash operating               16.
    expenditure of a firm for the next                           1,82,000
    year is Rs. 1,82,000. It has quick                        40,000
    current assets amounting to
    Rs. 40,000. What will be the
    defensive internal ratio ?                       (A) 5
    (A) 5 days
                                                     (B) 500
    (B) 500 days
                                                     (C) 160
    (C) 160 days
                                                     (D) 80
    (D) 80 days
17. According to ............... ‘‘Human       17.
    Resource Accounting’’ is the process
    of identifying and measuring data
    of    human       resource       and
    communication the information to
    interested parties’’.
                                                     (A)
    (A) Alfred Marshall
    (B) The American Accounting                      (B)
        Society
                                                     (C)
    (C) Brommet
    (D) Lew and Schwartz                             (D)

                                           7                                           [P.T.O.
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18. AS-26 deals with .................              18. AS-26

     (A) Earning per share                                (A)

     (B) Employee benefits                                (B)

     (C) Borrowing cost                                   (C)

     (D) Intangible Assets                                (D)

19. Which report will be submitted by an            19.
     auditor, if he is dissatisfied regarding
     the facts and informations ?

     (A) Clean report                                     (A)

     (B) Qualified report                                 (B)

     (C) Management report                                (C)

     (D) Cost report                                      (D)

20. Which aspect of business is affected            20.
     the most by implementing Just-in-
     Time (JIT) ?
                                                          (A)
     (A) Sales
                                                          (B)
     (B) Manpower Requirement
                                                          (C)
     (C) Inventory

     (D) Total maintenance                                (D)

21. Business Economics is the extension             21.
     of ..................... .

     (A) Commerce                                         (A)

     (B) Management                                       (B)
                                                          (C)
     (C) Arts
                                                          (D)
     (D) Traditional Economics
                                                8
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22. Which of the following statement is           22.
    correct ?                                           (A)
    (A) Firms exist to use scarce
          resources of the society
          efficiently; and thus help the
          economy to cope with the basic                (B)
          problem of scarcity
    (B) Firms exist to use scarce
          resources of the society and help
                                                        (C)
          to self sufficient
    (C) Firms exist to use scarce
          resources of the society for self
          employment                                    (D)
    (D) Firms exist to use scarce
          resources of the society for
          business growth
23. Match the following :                         23.
                   List I                                                    I
    (a) Demand Schedule                                 (a)
    (b) Demand Curve                                    (b)
    (c) Individual Demand                               (c)
    (d) Market Demand                                   (d)
                   List II                                                   II
    (i) It is the graphic representation                (i)
          of Demand                                     (ii)
    (ii) It is in tabular form of Demand
                                                        (iii)
    (iii) Size of total market
                                                        (iv)
    (iv) Goods demanded by a consumer
    Codes :
                                                            (a)     (b)     (c)    (d)
          (a)    (b) (c)     (d)
                                                        (A) (ii)    (i)     (iv)   (iii)
    (A) (ii)     (i)   (iv) (iii)
    (B) (i)      (iii) (ii) (iv)                        (B) (i)     (iii)   (ii)   (iv)
    (C) (iii) (ii) (i)       (iv)                       (C) (iii)   (ii)    (i)    (iv)
    (D) (ii)     (iv) (i)    (iii)                      (D) (ii)    (iv)    (i)    (iii)

                                              9                                            [P.T.O.
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24. Demand curve slopes downward                      24.

    because ................
                                                            (A)
    (A) Diminishing Marginal Utility
                                                            (B)
    (B) Increasing Marginal Utility

    (C) Total Utility                                       (C)

    (D) Increasing Average Utility                          (D)

25. Total production will be maximum                  25.
    when .................
                                                            (A)
    (A) Marginal               production   is
          maximum
                                                            (B)
    (B) Average                production   is
          maximum
                                                            (C)
    (C) Marginal production is zero
    (D) Average                production   is              (D)
          maximum
26. Total cost of a Business :                        26.

    (A) Total Cost = Total Fixed Cost                       (A)   =             +
          + Total Variable Cost
    (B) Total Cost = Total Fixed Cost                       (B)   =             ÷
          ÷ Total Variable Cost
    (C) Total Cost = Total Variable                         (C)   =             ×
          Cost × Total Fixed Cost
    (D) Total Cost = Total Fixed                            (D)   =             –
          Cost – Total Variable Cost

                                                 10
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27. Marginal cost can also be written as :             27.

                                    Total Cost
     (A) Marginal Cost =                                     (A)                      =                       
                                     Quantity
                                                                                      
     (B) Marginal cost =  Total Cost ×
                                                             (B)                      =                       
          Quantity                                                                   
                           Quantity                         (C)                  =                     
     (C) Marginal Cost =  Fixed Cost
                                                                                 
    (D) Marginal Cost =  Quantity ÷                         (D)                  =                     
         Average Cost                                                           
28. Match the following :                              28.
                   List I                                                                 I
     (a) Monopoly                                            (a)
     (b) Oligopoly
                                                             (b)
     (c) Perfect competition
                                                             (c)
     (d) Monopolistic competition
                                                             (d)
                  List II
                                                                                          II
     (i)   Many buyers, few sellers
                                                             (i)
     (ii) Single seller, many buyers
                                                             (ii)
     (iii) Many sellers with different
           products                                          (iii)
     (iv) Many sellers with identical                        (iv)
          product
     Codes :
                                                                     (a)   (b)        (c)      (d)
           (a)   (b)     (c)     (d)
                                                             (A) (ii)      (i)        (iv)     (iii)
     (A) (ii)    (i)     (iv)    (iii)
                                                             (B) (i)       (ii)       (iii)    (iv)
     (B) (i)     (ii)    (iii)   (iv)
                                                             (C) (ii)      (iv)       (iii)    (i)
     (C) (ii)    (iv)    (iii)   (i)
     (D) (iv)    (iii)   (ii)    (i)                         (D) (iv)      (iii)      (ii)     (i)

                                                  11                                                     [P.T.O.
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29. The long-run equilibrium outcomes                29.
    in monopolistic competition and
    perfect competition are similar,
    because in both market structures :
                                                           (A)
     (A) The efficient output level will be
         produced in the long run
     (B) Firms will be producing at                        (B)
         minimum average cost
     (C) Firms will only earn a normal                     (C)
         profit
                                                           (D)
     (D) Firms realise all economies of
         scale
30. It has been suggested that non-                  30.
    profit enterprises should pursue
    marginal cost price policy so as to......
     (A) Maximum profit                                    (A)
     (B) Achieve economic efficiency                       (B)
     (C) Minimum losses                                    (C)
     (D) Normal profit                                     (D)
31. Which of the following is the costliest          31.
    long term source of finance ?
     (A) Preference share capital
                                                           (A)
     (B) Retained earnings
                                                           (B)
     (C) Equity share capital                              (C)
     (D) Debentures                                        (D)
32. Market value of a firm is the result             32.
    of :
     (A) Dividend decision                                 (A)
     (B) Working capital decision                          (B)
     (C) Capital Budgeting decision                        (C)
     (D) Trade off between risk and                        (D)
          return

                                                12
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33. Which of the following is not the           33.
    theory of capital structure ?
    (A) Gordon’s theory                               (A)
    (B) Miller-Modigliani theory                      (B)
    (C) Net Income theory                             (C)
    (D) Traditional theory                            (D)
34. Match the following columns :               34.
               Group-A
    (a) Net present value                             (a)
    (b) Payback period                                (b)
    (c) Accounting rate of return                     (c)
    (d) Profitability index                           (d)
               Group-B
    (1) Greater the better                            (1)
    (2) More than one
                                                      (2)
    (3) Lesser the better
                                                      (3)
    (4) Should be positive
                                                      (4)
    Codes :
         (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
                                                          (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
    (A) (4)    (3)   (1)   (2)
                                                      (A) (4)   (3)   (1)   (2)
    (B) (2)    (3)   (1)   (4)                        (B) (2)   (3)   (1)   (4)
    (C) (1)    (2)   (3)   (4)                        (C) (1)   (2)   (3)   (4)
    (D) (4)    (3)   (2)   (1)                        (D) (4)   (3)   (2)   (1)
35. Which of the following is not factor        35.
    that affects the estimation of
    working capital ?
                                                      (A)
    (A) Nature of business
                                                      (B)
    (B) Nature of raw material
    (C) Tax structure of the Company                  (C)
    (D) Process, Technology used                      (D)

                                           13                                     [P.T.O.
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36. Which of the following risk will rise        36.
    due to fluctuation in exchange rate
    when the normal trading transactions
    take place in the normal course of
    international trade ?                              (A)
    (A) Transactional risk
                                                       (B)
    (B) Transnational risk
                                                       (C)
    (C) Economic risk
    (D) Payment risk                                   (D)
37. Which of the following is not the            37.
    advantage of Capital Account
    Convertibility ?                                   (A)
    (A) To integrate national economy
         with global economy                           (B)
    (B) To enhance growth rate of the
         economy through pumping of
         foreign funds                                 (C)
    (C) Ease in transfer of capital from
         our country to another
    (D) Modify the direct tax system of                (D)
         country
38. Which of the following is not                38.
    involved in hedging ?
    (A) Risk sharing
                                                       (A)
    (B) Transfer pricing
    (C) Maintaining a foreign currency                 (B)
         bank account
                                                       (C)
    (D) Maintaining reserve of foreign
         currency                                      (D)

                                            14
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39. Which of the following is not                39.

    function of exchange market

    participant ?                                      (A)

    (A) The market acts as a central

         focus whereby prices are set for              (B)

         various currencies

    (B) The market allows traders to

         identify risk free opportunities              (C)

    (C) It provides an investment

         function     for   banker   and

         Corporate Traders                             (D)
    (D) It minimises hedge or loss due

         to adverse exchange rates

40. Which of the following international         40.
    organisation is not working for

    global financial stability ?

    (A) Financial Stability Forum (FSF)                (A)

    (B) Bank        for     International
                                                       (B)
         Settlement

    (C) International          Financial               (C)

         Stability Fund
                                                       (D)
    (D) Financial Action Task force on

         Money laundering

                                            15                         [P.T.O.
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41. Which of the following is a formula               41.
    of quartile deviation ?
                 Q1  Q 2                                                Q1  Q 2
    (A) Q.D. =                                              (A) Q.D. =
                    2                                                       2
                 Q 3  Q1                                                Q 3  Q1
    (B) Q.D. =                                              (B) Q.D. =
                     2                                                       2
                 2                                                       2
    (C) Q.D. = Q  Q                                        (C) Q.D. = Q  Q
                  1      2                                                1      2

                 Q1  Q 3                                                Q1  Q 3
    (D) Q.D. =                                              (D) Q.D. =
                    2                                                       2
42. The Central Limit theorem assures
                                                      42.
    that the mean sample distribution
    is ..............
                                                            (A)
    (A) Always normal
    (B) Always normal for large sample                      (B)
           size
    (C) More than 1000 as N aptly                           (C)
           normal only
    (D) Increase the sample size                            (D)
           approaching normal
43. Karl Pearson’s coefficient              of        43.
    Skewness is .............
                  Mode
    (A) Mean =                                                            Mode
                  S.D.                                      (A) Mean =
                                                                          S.D.
                          Mode
    (B) Mean =                                                                    Mode
                  Correlation coefficient                   (B) Mean =
                                                                          Correlation coefficient
                  Mode
    (C) Mean =                                                            Mode
                  Median                                    (C) Mean =
                                                                          Median
          S.D.
    (D)                                                           S.D.
          Mode                                              (D)
                                                                  Mode

                                                 16
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44. The cause and effect is known by in          44.
    study of .........................
    (A) Regression                                     (A)
    (B) Correlation                                    (B)
    (C) Probability                                    (C)
    (D) Coefficient of variation                       (D)
45. Which is a systematic method of              45.
    investigation,          evaluation,
    experimentation, interpretation and
    theorizing ?
    (A) Survey                                         (A)

    (B) Experiment                                     (B)
    (C) Scientific method                              (C)
    (D) Meta Analysis                                  (D)
46. Assuming that a box contains in all          46.                 10
    ten balls of which six are green and               6         4
    four are red, what is the probability
    of drawing a red ball ?
    (A) 0.1                                            (A) 0.1
    (B) 0.5                                            (B) 0.5
    (C) 0.4                                            (C) 0.4
    (D) 1.0                                            (D) 1.0
47. A sampling in which every member             47.
    of the population has a calculable
    and non-zero probability of being
    included in the sample is known as :
    (A) Probability sampling                           (A)
    (B) Non-probability sampling                       (B)
    (C) Quota sampling
                                                       (C)
    (D) Multistage sampling
                                                       (D)
                                            17                                 [P.T.O.
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48. Mann-Whitney ‘U’ test is used for             48.
    testing :
    (A) Equality of two means                           (A)
    (B) Equality of more than two
                                                        (B)
           means
                                                        (C)
    (C) Equality of three means
    (D) Equality of two sets of ranking                 (D)
49. The classification of Analysis                49.
    between the two samples and within
    the samples is known by the study
    of ................

    (A)  -test                                         (A)  -test
         2                                                   2


    (B) t-test                                          (B) t-test
    (C) Z-test                                          (C) Z-test
    (D) F-test                                          (D) F-test
50. Which one is the first section of the         50.
    research paper ?                                    (A)
    (A) Abstract                                        (B)
    (B) Introduction                                    (C)
    (C) Methodology
                                                        (D)
    (D) Analysis
51. Which of the following is considered          51.
    as     a     corrective   method   for
    inadequate performance ?
    (A) Coaching                                        (A)
    (B) Mentoring                                       (B)
    (C) Job Rotation                                    (C)
    (D) Job Instruction Technique                       (D)
                                             18
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52. What is the uniqueness of 360                    52. 360º
    degree Feedback method ?
    (A) Senior Managers can evaluate                       (A)
         the employee
    (B) Team members can evaluate                          (B)
         the employee
    (C) Supervisor can evaluate the                        (C)
         employee
    (D) All those who interact with an                     (D)
         employee in any capacity can
         evaluate the employee
53. Who stated that need should be                   53.
    categorized and that there is basic
    distinction between lower order
    needs and higher order needs ?
    (A) Porter and Lowler                                  (A)
    (B) Maslow                                             (B)
    (C) Alderfer                                           (C)
    (D) Victor Vroom                                       (D)
54. The Act of increasing the knowledge              54.
    and skills of the employees for doing
    a particular job is called ............ .
    (A) Motivation                                         (A)
    (B) Information                                        (B)
    (C) Leadership                                         (C)
    (D) Training                                           (D)
55. An organised, factual statement of               55.
    the duties and responsibilities of
    specific job is ................ .
    (A) Job Specification                                  (A)
    (B) Job Analysis                                       (B)
    (C) Job Description                                    (C)
    (D) Job Rotation                                       (D)
                                                19                         [P.T.O.
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56. Which of the following steps in               56.
    Planning process involves the
    execution of a Plan ?
                                                        (A)
    (A) Implementation
                                                        (B)
    (B) Selection
    (C) Evaluation                                      (C)
    (D) Review                                          (D)
57. Which one of the following best               57.
    describes a sequence of steps formed
    to achieve a particular objectives ?
    (A) Programs                                        (A)
    (B) Policies                                        (B)
    (C) Procedures                                      (C)
    (D) Rules                                           (D)
58. Which of the following refers to a            58.
    series of activities undertaken by the
    HR Managers for filling the present
    and future vacancies of the
    organisation ?
    (A) Integration                                     (A)
    (B) Compensation                                    (B)
    (C) Development                                     (C)
                                                        (D)
    (D) Procurement
59. Which of the following is not a major
                                                  59.
    characteristics of Human Resource
    Planning ?
    (A) Effective Utilization of Human                  (A)
         Resources                                      (B)
    (B) Focus on short term and long
         term strategies of Human
         Resources                                      (C)
    (C) Emphasis on quantitative and
         qualitative task and dimension
         of Human Resources                             (D)
    (D) Focuses on promotional plan
                                             20
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60. Which of the following is not a major        60.
    feature of Collective Bargaining ?
                                                       (A)
    (A) Joint Process
                                                       (B)
    (B) Interactive mode
    (C) Continuous Process                             (C)
    (D) Unilateral                                     (D)
61. Which of the following statements            61.
    are true in case of Indian Financial
    markets ?
    (A) Indian capital market is
                                                       (A)
          developed but Indian money
          market is underdeveloped
    (B) Indian money market is
                                                       (B)
          developed but Indian capital
          market is underdeveloped
    (C) Indian capital market as well as
                                                       (C)
          Indian money market are
          developed
    (D) Indian capital market and
                                                       (D)
          Indian money market are
          underdeveloped
62. Which of the following are the term          62.
    finance institutions ?                                         Term Finance Institute
    (i) Industrial Development Bank
          of India                                     (i)
    (ii) Industrial Investment Bank of                 (ii)
          India
                                                       (iii)
    (iii) Unit Trust of India
                                                       (iv)
    (iv) Export Import Bank of India
    (v) Small Industries Development                   (v)
          Bank of India
    (A) (i), (ii) and (iv)                             (A) (i), (ii)    (iv)
    (B) (i), (iv) and (v)                              (B) (i), (iv)     (v)
    (C) (i), (ii) and (v)                              (C) (i), (ii)    (v)
    (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)                            (D) (i), (iii)    (iv)
                                            21                                     [P.T.O.
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63. The use of instruments within the            63.
    control of the Central bank to
    influence the level of the aggregate
    demand for goods and services by
    regulation of the money supply and
    credit is known as ..........                      (A)
    (A) Monetary policy
                                                       (B)
    (B) Economic policy
    (C) Financial policy                               (C)

    (D) Open market operations                         (D)
64. Which among the following is an              64.
    advantage of informal financial
    system ?
                                                       (A)
    (A) Wide range of interest rates
                                                       (B)
    (B) Higher rates of interest rates
                                                       (C)
    (C) Unregulated
    (D) Minimum default risk                           (D)

65. Which of the following statements            65.
    is not true ?
                                                       (A)
    (A) Equity share capital represents
         ownership capital
    (B) Equity shareholders have                       (B)
         residual claim on income, assets
         and have limited liability
    (C) Equity share capital is a high
                                                       (C)
         risk-high reward source of
         finance
    (D) Equity      shares      represent              (D)
         creditorship securities

                                            22
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66. Which of the following statements           66.
    is true in case of NBFCs ?
    (A) NBFCs        supplement     the               (A)
         activities of banks in deposit
         mobilisation and lending by
         providing more options to
         savers and investors
                                                      (B)
    (B) NBFCs only provide merchant
         banking and stock broking
    (C) NBFCs are not involved in                     (C)
         retail banking
    (D) NBFCs are involved in portfolio               (D)
         management and venture
         capital financing only
67. Which of the following statements           67.
    is true in case of regulation of
    financial system in India ?                       (A)
    (A) Reserve Bank of India
         regulates banking sector and
                                                      (B)
         stock exchanges in India
                                                            Mutual fund
    (B) SEBI regulates stock exchanges
         and mutual funds in India
    (C) IRDA regulates insurance                      (C)
         sector and mutual funds in                         IRDA
         India                                              Mutual fund
    (D) RBI regulates the entire                      (D)
         financial system in India
68. Which of the following is the result        68.
    of Financial Sector reforms ?
    (A) Inflow of funds from other                    (A)
         countries due to globalisation
    (B) Investment erosion due to                     (B)
         complex economic activities
    (C) Making the financial system
                                                      (C)
         more complicated as compared
         to earlier
    (D) Increase in risk of financial
         transactions                                 (D)

                                           23                                  [P.T.O.
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69. Which of the following statements              69.
    is correct in case of digitisation of
    banking services ?                                   (A)
    (A) Internet banking has improved
        speed, accuracy and flexibility
        of transactions                                  (B)

    (B) Mobile banking is a form of
        internet banking                                 (C)
    (C) Unified payment interface is
        more complex system
                                                         (D)
    (D) Internet banking is app based,
        unregulated banking facility
70. Which of the following is known as             70.
    additional benefit that is offered with
    base policy at nominal price ?
    (A) Rider                                            (A)      Rider

    (B) Reimbursement                                    (B)

    (C) Reinsurance                                      (C)
    (D) Money back                                       (D)
71. Which of the following levels of               71.
    market segmentation typically
    entails marketing to a small market
    whose needs are not well served ?                    (A)
    (A) Segment marketing
                                                         (B)
    (B) Niche marketing
                                                         (C)
    (C) Local marketing
    (D) Individual marketing                             (D)

                                              24
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72. Match the pair :                              72.
                  List I                                                       I
    (a) Introduction                                    (a)
    (b) Growth                                          (b)
    (c) Maturity                                        (c)
    (d) Decline                                         (d)
                 List II                                                      II
    (i)   Redefining target markets                     (i)
    (ii) Reduce the number              of              (ii)
         distributions outlets                          (iii)
    (iii) Improving product quality                     (iv)
    (iv) Establish a clear brand identity
    Codes :
          (a)   (b)     (c)     (d)                             (a)   (b)     (c)     (d)
    (A) (iv)    (ii)    (iii)   (i)                     (A) (iv)      (ii)    (iii)   (i)
    (B) (iv)    (iii)   (i)     (ii)                    (B) (iv)      (iii)   (i)     (ii)
    (C) (i)     (iv)    (ii)    (iii)                   (C) (i)       (iv)    (ii)    (iii)
    (D) (iii)   (ii)    (i)     (iv)                    (D) (iii)     (ii)    (i)     (iv)
73. Which objective of pricing relates to         73.
    increase market share among the
    following ?
                                                        (A)
    (A) Profit related objective
    (B) Sales related objective                         (B)
    (C) Customer related objective                      (C)
    (D) Competition related objective                   (D)
74. In relation to factors affecting              74.
    promotion mix decisions which one
    is not consistent ?
    (A) Political stability                             (A)
    (B) Type of product                                 (B)
    (C) Size of market                                  (C)
    (D) Stage of product life cycle                     (D)
                                             25                                               [P.T.O.
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75. Which one among the following is            75.
    not a valid type of label ?
    (A) Brand label                                   (A)
    (B) Grade label                                   (B)
    (C) Descriptive label                             (C)
    (D) Entertaining label                            (D)
76. A consumer who holds the most               76.         Brand
    favourable attitude towards the
    brand is called :
                                                      (A)
    (A) Positive
                                                      (B)
    (B) Enthusiastic
                                                      (C)
    (C) Indifferent
    (D) Hostile                                       (D)
77. Customer satisfaction can be defined        77.
    by comparing :
    (A) Predicted service and perceived
         service                                      (A)
    (B) Predicted service and desired
         service                                      (B)
    (C) Desired service and perceived
         service                                      (C)
    (D) Adequate service and perceived
         service                                      (D)
78. Which among the following                   78.
    statements is incorrect ?
                                                      (A)
    (A) Cyber marketing and online
         marketing are same
    (B) Online marketing is one of the                (B)
         options of direct marketing
    (C) Online marketing is applicable                (C)
         to services only
    (D) Online marketing offers high
                                                      (D)
         convenience, reliability and
         speed
                                           26
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79. Which of the following is not                 79.
    considered as types of direct
    marketing ?                                         (A)
    (A) Web marketing
                                                        (B)
    (B) Telemarketing
    (C) Email Direct marketing                          (C)
    (D) Direct mail marketing                           (D)
80. A supply chain which includes the             80.
    distribution of finished products and
    services ?                                          (A)
    (A) Outbound logistics                              (B)
    (B) Inbound logistics
    (C) Supply of goods                                 (C)
    (D) Transportation                                  (D)
81. Misrepresentation is defined in ......        81.
    under the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
    (A) Section 16
                                                        (A)
    (B) Section 17
                                                        (B)
    (C) Section 18
                                                        (C)
    (D) Section 13                                      (D)
82. Goods as defined under Indian Sale            82.
    of Goods Act 1930 do not include :
    (A) Shares and stock
                                                        (A)
    (B) Growing crops
                                                        (B)
    (C) Actionable claims                               (C)
    (D) Grass                                           (D)
83. Goods identified and agreed upon at           83.
    the time when a contract of sale is
    made is termed as ............
    (A) Future goods                                    (A)
    (B) Specific goods                                  (B)
    (C) Moveable goods                                  (C)
    (D) Immovable goods                                 (D)

                                             27                         [P.T.O.
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84. When one endorser after he has                 84.
    negotiated an instrument again
    becomes its holder before maturity
    the instrument is said to be ..........              (A)
    (A) Forged
                                                         (B)
    (B) Partial endorsement
    (C) Sans recours endorsement                         (C)
    (D) Negotiated back                                  (D)
85. As per sec. 2(6) of Companies Act,             85.
    2013, a Company in which other
    Company has significant influence
    but which is not a Subsidiary
    Company is ................. .                       (A)
    (A) Dormant Company
                                                         (B)
    (B) Holding Company
    (C) Associate Company                                (C)
    (D) Unlimited Company                                (D)
86. Eight digit numeric number allotted            86.
    by Central Government to each
    designated partner of Limited
    liability partnership is :
    (A) Designated                 Partner
                                                         (A)
         identification number
    (B) Director Partner identification                  (B)
         number
    (C) Director identification number                   (C)
    (D) Depository                 Partner
                                                         (D)
         identification number
87. Competition Commission of India                87.
    consists of which among the below
    appointed by central government ?                    (A)
    (A) Chairperson and six members
                                                         (B)
    (B) Chairperson and four members
    (C) Director and six members                         (C)
    (D) Director and four members                        (D)
                                              28
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88. The Information Technology Act was                 88.
    introduced on account of the
    initiatives of ................... .                     (A)
    (A) I.T. Industry in India
                                                             (B)
    (B) Indian Parliament
    (C) Reserve Bank of India                                (C)
    (D) National Informatic Centre                           (D)
89. Which section of Right to                          89.
    Information Act, 2005 deals with
    constitution of State Information
    Commission ?                                             (A) 15
    (A) 15                                                   (B) 12
    (B) 12
                                                             (C) 21
    (C) 21
    (D) 22                                                   (D) 22
90. The period of registration of a                    90.                Trademark
    Trademark is ................. .
    (A) 10 years                                             (A) 10
    (B) 12 years                                             (B) 12
    (C) 15 years                                             (C) 15
    (D) 20 years                                             (D) 20
91. Which of the following income of the
                                                       91.
    previous year is not taxable
    immediately following Assessment
    Year ?
    (A) Income From Pension                                  (A)
    (B) Shipping Business of Non-                            (B)
         Residents
    (C) Interest on Fixed Deposits                           (C)
    (D) Income From Dividend                                 (D)
92. The ............... is passed every year by        92.
    the parliament in the form of
    popularly known as ‘‘Budget’’.
    (A) Income Tax Act
                                                             (A)
    (B) Goods & Service Tax Act
                                                             (B)
    (C) Contract Act
                                                             (C)
    (D) Finance Bill
                                                             (D)
                                                  29                            [P.T.O.
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93. Any person who does not have PAN               93.                           PAN
    and who enters into any financial                    Number
    transaction, he shall make a
    declaration in Form No. ............
    giving therein the particulars of such
    transactions.
                                                         (A) 10
    (A) 10
                                                         (B) 49A
    (B) 49A
    (C) 60                                               (C) 60
    (D) 85                                               (D) 85
94. As per Income Tax Act provision of             94.
    Sec. 28 is applicable to the following
    heads of income .................. .
    (A) Income from house property                       (A)
    (B) Income from business or
                                                         (B)
         profession
    (C) Capital gain                                     (C)
    (D) Income from other sources                        (D)
95. Which of the following asset is                95.
    included as per the section 2(14) of
    the Income Tax Act ?
    (A) Current Asset                                    (A)
    (B) Capital Asset                                    (B)
    (C) Liquid Asset                                     (C)
    (D) Short Term Asset                                 (D)
96. As per old regime of Income Tax Act,           96.
    Deduction in respect of interest on                                     80TTA
    deposits in Savings bank accounts
    (Sec. 80 TTA) is deductible upto ......
    (A) ` 20,000                                         (A) 20,000
    (B) ` 10,000                                         (B) 10,000
    (C) ` 50,000                                         (C) 50,000
     (D) ` 30,000                                        (D) 30,000
                                              30
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97. The objective of Transfer pricing is           97.
     to ensure which of the following ?
     (A) Taxes are paid in country of                     (A)
            Residence
     (B) Taxes are paid in country of                     (B)
            source
     (C) Taxes are paid in the                            (C)
            jurisdiction where economic
            activity takes place
     (D) Taxes are not paid                               (D)
98. Provision of sec. ................ is          98.
     applicable to transfer of capital
     Assets to Amalgamated Indian
     Company as per Income Tax Act.
     (A) 47(vi)                                           (A) 47(vi)
     (B) 40(v)                                            (B) 40(v)
     (C) 42(iii)                                          (C) 42(iii)
     (D) 50(i)                                            (D) 50(i)
99. Under ................ section faceless        99.
     Assessment services provided by
     CBDT, in which assessment
     proceeding conducted electronically
     in ‘‘e-proceeding’’ facility through
     assesses registered account in the
     designed portal.                                     (A)        140 A
     (A) U/s. 140 A
                                                          (B)        144 B
     (B) U/s. 144 B
     (C) U/s 143 (3)                                      (C)        143 (3)
     (D) U/s 140                                          (D)        140
100. Where the assessee is a person other          100.
     than a company required to be
     audited under any law the due date
     of Submission of Income tax return
     is ................... .
                                                          (A) 31st
     (A) July 31st
     (B) June 30th                                        (B) 30th
     (C) August 31st                                      (C) 31st
     (D) October 31st                                     (D) 31st

                                              31                                       [P.T.O.
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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.