MP SET 2024: State Eligibility Test, Earth, Atmospheric Ocean and Planetary Sciences
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■
R/P/P/2024/II Question Booklet No.
^T^rT5*r, iWPTT aftr
Subject-Earth, Atmospheric Ocean
and Planetary Sciences
r
SET A 242500265
Paper 11 (Optional)
fqnM '^t¥-25
Subject-Code-25
Name
tritytii 3rH 3ipiiifgi 'n^ 131%'if f^i
^ Candidate should write his/her
Roll No. Roll No. in the given boxes.
■gfecT ^ tfem/No. of Printed Pages ; 32 ^ ■«<sMI/Total No. of Questions : 100
Tm : 3 ^ %cihT ^ ""JTlf^/Maximum Marks : 200
Time Allowed: 3 Hours to complete both 1st and Ilnd question paper
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S/25/2024/A
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(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) S/25/2024/A
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51. "^HRT ^ A ^ ^2? 3TTTOT 51. Approximately how many light years
^Mll f^d^ "S^iRT away is our Sun along with its solar
^ ^ "qr 1^ t ? system from the centre of Milky Way ?
(A) 30,000 ^ (A) 30,000 light year ■
(B) 50,000 ^ (B) 50,000 light year
(C) 20,000 "aqTRT ^ (C) 20,000 light year
(D) 60,000 ^ (D) 60,000 light year
52. PiMfeiHad '^* ^ <21 Pi-si y^<ad: 52. Which of the following minerals mainly
■^fer ^cidnT ^ pTRfR t ? form clay rocks ?
(A) (A) Calcite
(B) sfiPtre (B) Argonite
(C) ^3;feT (C) Kaolin
(D) (D) Calcium Carbonate
53. 3ri^ ^ ^ 53. On the basis of nature of agents in
"q^- PlHprlRsJd -^f ^ ^ ?TTf% metamorphism process which of the
t ? following is not included ?
(A) ^nqk ^TRRRR (A) Thermal metamorphism
(B) 4,NH<U| (B) Dynamic metamorphism
(C) vRlhT (C) Hydro-metamorphism
(D) WTRRR (D) Contact metamorphism
(5)S/25/2024/A P.T.O.
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54. ^ 120° ^ 54. Which of the following waves disappear
from the epicentre of earthquake at the
ctilitil cT^' fqi^Ki ^ "^jncit ?
angular distance of 120° ?
(A) 3ns!lte
(A) Primary
(B) TffW
(B) Secondary
(C) V<lddl^ (C) Surface
(D) ^4^^ "^f ^ (D) None of the above
r
55. ^^^ ^ 2780 1^. 55. The zone of the earth with a thickness of
TT81T 3?tel 5.6 f, -^i^dldl 2780 km, having an average density of
t: 5.6 is known as :
(A) T8TFFT5FT (A) Lithosphere
(B) (B) Barysphere
(C) (HxfFFTS^) (C) Pyrosphere
(D) ^^dciiHsei '(D) Asthenosphere
56. ^ ^ "3^ ^ 56.' The origin of the geomagnetic field is
^ PiHPdRdd "^f related to which of the following internal
^t ? structures of the earth ?
(A) -fer (A) Mantle
(B) ^ SFTOH (B) Outer core
(C) 3F?RcR (C) Inner core
(D)^ (D) Crust
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57. ^ "JIWT ^ 57. Who first propounded the concept of
MfdMKH rHMPdRsid seafloor spreading from the following ?
fen an ?
(A) Wine and Mathew
(A) T3^'
(B) Doyal
(B) ^Sfe
(C) (C) Cox •
(D) tt t?T (D) Harry Hess
58. twfef ^ 31^ wm- 58. According to some climatologists
ife ^ fefn di^H^d ^ fer "q^' chemosphere is located in which layers
t ? of the atmosphere ?
(A) ffeiTS^ (A) Troposphere and Stratosphere
(B) TT^* (B) Ionosphere and Stratosphere
(C) TT^' (C) Ionosphere and Mesosphere
(D) T^* (D) Stratosphere and Mesosphere
59. "q** fRT ^ ferfefe ■^* fepft 59. Which of the following is environmental
f ? lapse rate ?
(A) 10°C^ 1000 ife (A) 10°C per 1000 metres
(B) 6.5°c-qfn 1000 ^- (B) 6.5°C per 1000 metres
(C) 3.6°c qfn 1000 Tfe (0) 3.6''C per 1000 metres
(D) 2.7°CU% 1000-tfe (D) 2.7°C per 1000 metres
60. ferfew 'fsrfeq fecfiV 60. Which of the following is called as
radiation windows ?
(A) "q^ (A) Greenhouse effect
(B) wfen (B) Valleys
(C) -q^ (C) Mountains
(D) (D) Clouds
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61. hn: 61 is often called the normal type
WR W ^n?TT t I of the Cubic system.
(A) (B) (A) Axinite (B) Gypsum
(C)^ (D) (C) Galena (D) Corundum
62. 3^ ^ ^ 62. Very elongate crystals (usually quartz)
cR^ fstit^d resulting from cataclasis and intense
(WTF^cT: ^^ "^HcfT "I ? plastic deformation is called as :
(A) (B) nn^cbd^d (A) Ribbon (B) Symplectite
(C) ^ (D) tfeft (C) Kink band (D) Mortar
63. ^?#r3T 1^ ^ 63. Omphacite is a characteristic mineral of
■?#r3f f ? which facies ?
(A) iMIr^ (B) (A) Greenschist (B) Blueschist
(C) (D) (C) Granulite (D) Eclogite
64. hmi "^TclT 64. A material that basically obeys the
^ ^ yRi=id ^ f^ viscous law but that behaves elastically
WTR«T ^ ^RcTT t, for stresses of short duration is termed
'"^i^ ^5]M ^ I as :
(A) (B) (A) Elastoviscous (B) Viscoelastic
(C) ^dlRd=b (D) (C) Elastic (D) Rigid
65. ^ 3TT^ TO t ? 65. Age of conodonts is
(A) ^fTTOT ^ (A) Cambrian to Triassic
(B) (B) Proterozoic
(C)- ^ (C) Jurassic to Eocene
(D)
(D) Cenozoic
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66. 66. The mouth of Echinoidea fossil class is
I
cS(r«hR'4^ %9QT*^ 1^ ^tcfl %, sunounded by a ring of calcareous plates
f^ ^ t : known/called as :
(A)"W^ (B) (A) Periproct (B) Peristome
(C) ^3T™ (D) ?Tt^ (C) Genital duct (D) Apical disc
67. pFTteTfecT ■^* ^37[ -qcm "^f 67. Both textural maturity and compositional
MRM^di cf8TT Kf^ maturity is found in which type of
^ t ? sandstone ?
(A) (B) 37R#5I (A) Greywacke (B) Arkose
(C) (D) (C) Quartzarenite (D) Lithicarenite
68. wfh4dTwi ^ ^ t ? 68. The fundamental unit of Biostratigraphy
is :
(A) ^KciQi ^TRNRt
(A) Inerval Biozone
(B) ^ (B) Stage
(C) ^ (C) Bed
(D) ^BTNh (D) Biozone
69. -wihfhT ^RTf^ 3lk 69. is a transition zone between the
continental margin and the deep-ocean
^ fq^iicn ^Sf^FFT ^ I floor comprised of huge submerged pile
of debris.
(A) TTwrfhrhT
(A) Continental slope
(B) (B) Continental shelf
(C) (C) Continental rise
(D) (D) Abyssal plain
70. di<(i I=t)^ H5i^i'i{ld "HFR '^* 70. Canary current is present' in which
t ? oceanic gyre ?
(A) ^ TRim (z^) 'mi (A) North Pacific (Turtle) Gyre
(B) "H^TRT (^^<-S(n) "mi (B) South Pacific (Heyerdahl) Gyre
(C) "StT^ ^dcrllTdcb (c+AelH^H) ttTJR (C) North Atlantic (Columbus) Gyre
(D) ^ddiTdcti (AciljldO -rni (D) South Atlantic (Navigator) Gyre
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71. The precambrian-cambrian boundary
sT^m "qi ^5trtt t ? problem in India is studied on the basis
of:
(A) eT^5I^ ^ *Rii
. (A) Trace, fossils in Ladakh
(B) ^^ ^
(B) Trace fossils in Spiti Valley
(C) 4l TtftIrT "ETT^ -4* (C) Areno-Argillaceous sequence in
31^ ■^* Kashmir and Spiti Valley
(D) ^ (D) None of the above
72. 3JR5HN ^TTOT ^ ^ ■^* *^1RT 72. How much area does the Turana basins'
occupy in the Precambrian peninsular
^ f^KPTT t ?
India ?
(A) 30% (B) 25%
(A) 30% (B) 25%
(C) 50% (D) 20% (C) 50% (D) 20%
73. chTw<^cHH (^.^.^.) 73 is not associated with the Banded
Gneissic Complex (BGC)-Bundelkhand
TltetqFffefe ^ ^ ^ t ?
protocontinent.
(A) "fe ^ (A) Great boundary fault
(B) WezpT sfk (B) Vindhayan basin and Indo-Gangetic
airuviiun
(C)
(C) Deccan Traps volcanic rocks
(D) (D) Singhbhum Craton
74. Mmldl^d. ^ t ? 74, The composition of Pyrolite is equivalent
to :
(A) 80% sSk 20%
(A) 80% Peridotite and 20% Eclogite
(B) 50% 3rk 50%
(B) 50% Peridotite and 50% Eclogite
(C) 20% 3fk 80%i^#w (C) 20% Peridotite and 80% Eclogite
(D) 80% ^R^ld^d 4t20% ^ (D) 80% Peridotite and 20% Gabbro
(5)S/25/2024/A
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78. ^ CO2 ^ 78. Which process is the main mechanism
^^ f ? for removing CO2 from the atmosphere ?
(A) (A) Dissolution
(B) WT?iW^ (B) Hydrolysis
(C) ^I^pfhsFT (C) Hydration
(D) (D) Carbonation
79. %2iifw^ (FTelW) ^ 79. Asthenosphere lies below the lithosphere
100 ^ 3fto ^ at an average depth of 100 km extending
t, f^R?^ i: up to :
(A) 150-200 %^ (A) 150-200 km
(B) 200-600-M (B) 200-600 km
(C) 350-650-M (C) 350-650 km
■(D) 300-650-M (D) 300-650 km
80. "^F^M ^ 80. Which isotopic system is controlled by
"gRT PimT^ci t" initial PGE differentiation and is applied
ak "te "sfeuaff ^ to mantle evolution and mafic melt
fen "511^ t ? process ?
(A) Rb/Sr (A) Rb/Sr
(B) Re/Os (B) Re/Os
(C) Ur/Pb (C) Ur/Pb
(D) Lu/Hf (D) Lu/Hf
(5)S/25/2024/A 8
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81. rHMPdRsId ^ ^ 81. Mark the ore of Zinc in the following :
(A) Anglesite
(A)
(B) Willenite
(B) f^#TT?e
(C) Pentlandite
(C)
(D) (D) Cerussite
82. rHMfeindd ^ 82. Which of the following iron-ores
^^^ (Fe%) 1^F?^' t ? contains least iron content (Fe%) ?
(A) (A) Goethite
(B) ^Ad^ci (B) Hematite
(C) (C) Magnetite
/ ■
(D) (D) Siderite
83. rdHfaPsld fer ^ "A' "snsife kr^PiHH 83. Which rock hosts primary platinum
f ? deposits ?
(A) (A) Kimberlite
(B) ^ "^ftskne (B) Dunite or Peridotite
(C) T#«taf3' (C) Anorthosite
(D) ■^ikf?^ (D) Norite
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87. Which of the following rock aggregates
is suitable for bituminous mixes as it is
"Hl^fH ■4' ^ M«^t t ? hygroscopic in nature ?
(A) (A) Granite
(B) (B) Basalt
(C) TRtelfS (C) Rhyolite
(D) (D) Granodiorite
88. 3T8M ^3^ ^I#T ^ 88. New water of magmatic or cosmic
# "3^ ■# ^ WT ^ •^- origin, which was previously not a part
t I of hydrosphere is called :
(A) ^ (^T^) (A) Connate water
(B) (%7Tk) ^ (B) Juvenile water
(C) WTiiteter ^ (C) Hygroscopic water
(D) ^ (D) Vadose water
89. PHMRrlR^d ^ 89. Which of the following satellites has
256 t ? radiometric resolution of 256 ?
(A) 3?[f.37R.T3^.-lT^ (A) IRS-IA
(B) H*rtiWdtJd (B) LANDSAT-1, Multispectral Scanner
(C) ^-1 . (C) SPOT-1
(D) 3Tlf.3TRT3^--qt3 (D) IRS-P3
90. ■^* 1^ ^ ^ 90. The amount of a particular element
■S^RR ^ Wf^ R RRT R?M t ? present in the parent rock not affected by
dispersion or migration is called as :
(A) Mnfn
(A) Anomaly
(B) (aiR^ilRT)
(B) Threshold
(C) (C) Background values
(D) -^f ^ R^if R^' (D) None of the above
(5)S/25/2024/A 11 P.T.O.
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91. cRqi wiWfer 91. The science which studies inter
^ 3fk "Q^Rtfo? ^ relationships between abiotic and biotic
mk^Rc+1 ^ 3T«2i^ t 3SR component of the biospheric ecosystem
cR^ ^RTff^ ^ ^ aT«2RR on the one ■ hand and among biotic
^RcTI ct)5^iai ^ : component on the other hand is called :
(A) (A) Ecology
. (B) (B) Geology
(C) (C) Photosynthesis
(D)^1^ (D) Oceanology
92. ^ ^ 1^,^ ^ 92. The point on the Earth's surface that lies
vertically above the origin of an
earthquake is called :
(A) (B) ^Ml^-rii (A) Focus (B) Epicenter
(C) WfeFffs (D) ^ ^ (C) Hotspot (D) Wave base
93. "31^ ^ W ^ 93. When concentrated shells of rock are
removed from the outside of a boulder,
f, ^ W Tlfer ^ ^ t ? the process is known as :
(A) (A) Leaching
(B) (B) Disintegration
(C) y.+fH4iTdy.VH (C) Exfoliation
(D) TRfe (D) Frost wedging
(5)S/25/2024/A 12
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94. ^ 94. In the soil profile the deepest horizon
AW i, ^ ^? that constitutes parent material is known
as :
(A) E ifR^H (B) A eTR-JH
(A) E horizon (B) A horizon
(C) BW^ (D) (C) B horizon (D) C horizon
95. ^ -q^ 7Tf^ ^^ 95. The Coriolis force which has its effect on
^3ff ^ TT^rf^ -^mi t, ^^ every moving object on the earth is
WFT ^ t ? caused due to :
(A) ^ ^ ^JRorr (A) Gravitation of the earth
(B) ^ ^ (B) Rotation of the earth
.(C) "^8^ ^ ^ ^ -qOT (C) Centripetal force of the earth
(D) "^8^ ^ ^ cfiKui (D) Centrifugal force of the earth
96. ^ "qiT ^ f, Ri^Ai* -wRHieia 96. The sleet is a form of precipitation that
t: includes :
(A), "qnt ^ '^eK (A) Fine drops of water
(B) ^qi (B) White grain of snow
(C) "qnt 3^ ^ w (C) Mixture of rain and snow
(D) "qpft 3M ^ (D) Mixture of rain and ice balls
97. ^ 13^ ^ ^ "^JET^ 97. A form of bar that connects one island
^ ^ 'Jil-scii f, -S'tiqil W "^1?^ "t* ? with another island is known as :
(A)^ (A) Spit
(B) ^^8™ (B) Isthumus
/
(C) a«i]eii (C) Tombola
(D) (D) Gulf
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98. ^ 98. If a flowing stream, suddenly disappears
WTO "^rot "I, ^ <i^=til ^ in the lower reaches then it-is known
"I* ? as:
(A) «^I5"S (A) Blind valley
(B) "RI^ (B) River piracy
(C) tf^ (C) Hanging valley
(D) ^ (D) Karst valley
99. ^^^^ WT 99. That part of Himalaya which is
■51T ^ ^ WIT ^aiT t, ^ composed entirely of sedimentary rocks
TO f ? of Tertiary age, is known as :
(A) tro^ (A) Higher Himalaya
(B) Wz? r^HId^ (B) Central Himalaya
(C) fro flWPT (C) Lesser Himalaya
(D)- fro^ (D) Outer Himalaya
100. I^RT^ SKJifq^s 100. A crescent-shaped dune with horns
■^* t, ^ TO f ? pointing downwinds are known as :
(A) ^<i«ilRi^ "^3? (A) Parabolic dune
(B) ^T#T (B) Barchan dune
\C) WR ^ (C) Star dune
(D) ^ (D) Transverse dune
(5)S/25/2024/A 14
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101. RnrdR^d ^ 3TdTr^ (l7t, 7c) 101. Which one of the following is not the
^ F(x)^ feR-d-Sd Dirichlet's condition for a Fourier series
of the function F(x) for interval (Itt, tt) ?
^niiWPT ^ t?
(A) Single value
(A)
(B) Finite number of maxima and
(B) "^feqT ■^' ARw^i "q;^* 1t#rt minima
(C) Bounded
(C)
(D) Infinite number of maxima and
(D) 3TO wn ■^' fiffTO
minima
102. feid ^ ^ y^r^fd 102. How can Clairaut's theorem be
t ? expressed ?
(A) gp - ge/gp = 5^2 - F
(A) gp - ge/gp = 5^2 - F
■ (B) gp - ge/gp = Sm/2 - F
(B) a? - gelgp = 5w/2 - F
(C) gp - ge/ge = 5m/2 + F
(C) gp - ge/ge = 5m/2 + F
(D) gp - ge/gp = 5m/2 + F
(P) gp ~ ge/gp = Smil + F
where gp is normal gravity at the pole,
j
^ gp m ge-3lW
ge-mean equatorial gravity, F-the polar
^pcWcilR-yd v-im sm
flattening of the optimum reference
a#siR R4)^-h iRrof^, ellipsoid, w-ratio of equatorial centrifu
di-5iH^Kch fcRiJi ^ gal acceleration to the equatorial
gravitational acceleration.
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109. ^PcrimT^^ OT 109. How is the Earth's shape represented by
the international reference ellipsoid with
(a) im (c) ^
equatorial radius (a) and Polar radius (c),
aw ^ ■?RR awPT
compared to a sphere of Radius (R) of
^ ^ aimr ^ ^ ^ ? equal volume ?
(A) a-R =(^ (A) =^
(B) a-R = R-c (B) a-R = R-c
(C) a-R = 2(R-c) (C) cf-R = 2(R-c)
(D) a-R = 3(R-c) (D) a-R = 3(R-c)
110. ailRi^ifH4) 13^* ^ fesiT 110. What percentage of the annually released
iww i3.nwr^di -^f 3if!i^ seismic energy is contributed by the
seismic activity in the system of oceanic.
fete ^ t ?
ridge and rises ?
(A) 1 - 3%
(A) 1 - 3%
(B) 3-7%
(B) 3-7%.
(C) 15-20% (C) 15 - 20%
(D) 75 - 80% (D) 75 - 80%
111. ^ ^ cfi^ 111. A seismic /j-wave, that travels through
ak aifcfe ^ TfjR^ -g;^ mantle, fluid core and inner core is
t^ WR ^nfkf ^ t ? represented by :
(A) PKIKP (B) PKiKP
(A) PKIKP (B) PKiKP
(C) PcP (D) PKP
(C) PcP (D) PKP
(5)S/25/2024/A 18
Text of page 21
112. ^ 112. Poisson's ratio can be defined as .:
!
mRmiIhci 1^)^ ^ ««t>ai ^ ? (
'I
(A) Lateral strainA^olumetric strain ,
(A) cHI^/srraf^ ?PTT^
( -'
(B) Lateral strain/Longitudinal strain
(B)
■ i
(C) ai^Ezf I
I
ciTO (C) Longitudinal strain/Lateral strain j
1
(D) aii^dPni cRR (D) Volumetric strain/Lateral strain
113. ^^^ TTT 1^ ^FM t : 113. The rotation of Earth is dependent on ;
\
j
(A) "qftilFT i(^^) (A) Magnitude (only)
(B) fen (^fer) (B) Direction (only)
i
(C) "nfeM 2Rk fen (^*) (C), Magnitude and Direction (both)
(D) ^^ (D) None of the above
114. "^z "nr sfk 114. The gravitational attractions of the Sun,
i
TJ^ ^ 3n^ ^ ^^ROI PiHfdRdd Moon and Planets on the spinning,
I
■^f mPw^Ih 4^ t : flattened Earth causes change in :
■ • I
(A)
(A) Rate of rotation I
(B) mRsFHui ^ ^ 1
1
(B) Rate of revolution
(C) "Rfem 3T^ ^ a#Tfe?RT -
(C) Orientation of revolution axis
-(D) ^ ^
(D) The size of Earth's path around
"Hnr
Sun !
(5)S/25/2024/A 19 P.T.O.
Text of page 22
115. TO ^ STRFT f: 115. The amplitude of surface wave is :
(A) Directly proportional tQ the distance
(A) ^ ^^ STT^qrfW
from its source
(B) 3Tq^ ^^ ^ ^ ^gcg^in^qfe (B) Inversely proportional- to the
distance from its c^urce
(C) mk ^^ ^
(C) Directly proportional to the square
sn^qife
root of the distance from its source
(D) '<?ild ^ ^ (D) Inversely proportional to the square
root of the distance from its source
116. ^ P 3^ S-OT ^ ^ 116. If velocity of P-wave and S-wave are
6 sSk 4 t> ^ 6 km/sec. and 4 km/sec. respectively,
ST^qm W : then calculate the Poisson's ratio :
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.1 (A) 0.3 (B) 0.1
(C) 0.2 (D) 0.4 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.4
117. yRiqei feT "q^ ^ "^fe a^ii 117. The stress at which a material extends
'^* "q^ "qqr^f ^oidi "t", ' more rapidly compared to the increase in
"3^ "t : load is termed as :
(A) "Hc^TRST 1^ (A) Elastic point
(B) (B) Plastic point
(C) f^ (C) Breaking point •
(D) ^3^ 1^*^ (D) Yielding point
118. "qfer^ ^ sSk* "rppTW 118. Acoustic impedance is defined as the
t I product of velocity and
(A) (B) 3IT^ (A) Density (B) Frequency
(C) (D) di'l^w} (C) Pressure (D) Wavelength
(5)S/25/2024/A 20
Text of page 23
119. "RR 3k 3^^-31^ 119. Suppose, there are two objects A and B
3nTO ^^ A 3k B t, ^ made up of same material and different
sizes, then they will have :
(A) "RRH 3k "SlflRt^il^ (A) Same resistance and resistivity
(B) wm 3rikt«T 3trtt-3t^ (B) Same resistance but different
3lfkt«RKTTTt resistivity
(C) "RRPT 3T^-3T^ (C) Same resistivity but different
resistance
(D) 3TRTT-3q^ Trfkt?? 3k (D) Different resistance and .resistivity
120. I ^^ II fRRH : 120. Match Group I with Group 11 :
I II Group I Group II
(1) Electrical (p) Velocity
(1) 1^ (p) kr
method
(2) (q) "sM^RhTT (2) Magnetic (q) Resistivity
(3) ^J^TT#T MV (r) method
(4) ii^c^l4itfui (s) (3) Seismic (r) Density
method
(4) Gravity (s) Susceptibility
I '
method ;
(1) (2) (3) (4) Codes :
(A) (p) (q) (s) (r) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (p) (q) (s) (r)
(B) (q) (s) (p) ■ (r)
(B) (q) (s) (p) (r)
(C) (q) (s) (r) (p) (C) (q) (s) (r) (p)
(D) (q) (p) (s) (r) (D) (q) (P) (s) (r)
(5)S/25/2024/A 21 P.T.O.
Text of page 24
121. (w) ^ (q) 121. How the may mixing ratio(w) be related
^^ fen ^ "^T^ t ? with specific humidity (q) ?
(A) w^ql{\+q) (A) w = q/{\+g)
(B) w = g/(l-^) (B) w = g/{\-g)
(C) w ={\+q)!q (C) w^{l+ g)/g
(D) w ={\-q)lq (D) w ={l-g)/g
122. ferfM^ ^ ^ ^ 122. Which one ofthe following properties of
the atmosphere is not represented on a
tfwH "H^fer ^^ t ?
Tephigram ?
(A)
(A) Isobars
(B)
(B) Isotherms
(C) liTOT
(C) Saturation mixing ratio lines
(D) ^ stsqiTH (D) Dry air mass
123. PhhRtiRdti ^ 123. Which one of the following is not a
•iOH"1 ^^ correct genetic grouping of the cloud
based on the mechanism of vertical
aimrfci wff ^^ 3TT5^f^
motion that produces condensation ?
t?
(A) Thermal convection
(A) sfe ^fer
(B) Uplift by mechanical turbulence
(B) ^Tffe OT
(C) Ascent over an orographic barrier
(C) sMnrfW ^ ^ "snr snfer
(D) Rapid uplift of an air over a narrow
(D) "SFTT# ^ Wq ^fSFiH area in association with a high
^ ^ "^cSTH pressure system
(5)S/25/2024/A 22
Text of page 25
124. ^ ^ 124. How is the component of the earth's
y<t)K c^cKi 1^;^ «IRTT vorticity about it axis of rotation
t ? expressed ?
(A) ^^ 3fk 3T^ ^ (A) Twice the angular velocity times the
4)1^I^H ^ iiUH4id ^ cosine of the latitude
'(B) 3fk 37^ ^ ^TTf^ ^ (B) The angular velocity times the sine
of the latitude
(C) Tlf^ ^ ^ ^ sk 37TO ^ (C) Twice the angular velocity times the
WT ^ ^^ sine of the latitude
■(D) ^ ^ ^ ak mm ^ (D) Twice the angular velocity divided
«TFTW ^ by the sine of the latitude
125.. fHHf^Rdd ^ ^ ar^ 125. Which one of the following best
7R? ^ ^rf% t ^TOPkr describes how the pressure decre^es in
an isothermal atmosphere ?
qi^H^sci '4* ^ "SI25IT ^ ?
(A) Linearly with geopotential height
(A) ^ ^87
(B) Exponentially with geopotential
height by a factor of per scale
(B) sMf^ ^ "^nsT el ^ height
^ ^rrat^T ^ ^ Tiftr (C) Exponentially with geopotential
I
(C) ^ ^ e-1 ^ height by a factor of e~l per scale
height .
wckr ^ ^ 3rf^
(D) Logarithmically with geopotential
(D) 4rte^ ^ ^ e-1 ^ ^R^
height by a factor of e~^ per scale
^ d^J|>Jl^lA| ^ ^ 3lf^
height j
(5)S/25/2024/A 23 P.t.O.
Text of page 26
126. Inertial flow is characterized as a balance
126. ^ rHMRriHsId ^ ^
between :
^ t:
(A) Coriolis force and centrifugal force
(A) ^ sfk (B) Pressure gradient force and
centrifugal force
(B) TROT ^ 3lk 3tW^ ^
(C) Coriolis force and pressure gradient
force
(C) +lR'4ir<rl^ ^ ak ^ ^
(D) Pressure gradient force and
(D) y«i<ndi sfR gravitational force
127. "SiRt ^s^JlRlcti "3^ ^ 127. The cyclostrophic flow in the Northern
t: Hemisphere may be :
(A) =tiqet -cisticiidl^ (A) Cyclonic only
(B) -RRr-^shc^ldl^ (B) Anti-cyclonic only
(C) (C) Linear only
(D) 3fh: 3lf?T-ds6clld1«4 (D) Cyclonic and anti-cyclonic both
128. PiHRHRsid "^f 3T^*it tjto 128. Which one of the following is the correct
(a^) sfk Tpif^ (Sy) ^ relation for the extinction coefficient
■ (Ky) in the terms of an absorption
^TcRTFT ^rprf^ (L^d^PdcWH TpiTf^)
coefficient (fly) and a 'scattering
(K^). t? coefficient (Sy) ?
(A) K^ = + S^ (A) K^ = a^ + S^
(B) K^ = fly - Sy (B) Ky = fly - Sy
(C) Ky = fly . Sy (C) Ky = C7y . Sy
(D) Ky = fly/Sy (D) Ky = ay/Sy
{5)S/25/2024/A 24
/"N
Text of page 27
129. 129. In which wavelength ranges do the
T? ^ t ? Hartley and Huggins bands occur ?
(A) ^1^^^310-350 nm,^fTR{ (A) Hartley band 310-350 nm, Huggins
200-310 nm bands 200-310 nm
(B) ^1^^^200-310 nm,?fTRT (B) Hartley band 200-310 nm, Huggins
310-350 nm bands 310-350 nm
(C) 350-400 nm, (C) Hartley band 350-400 nm, Huggins
200-310 nm bands 200-310 nm
(D) ^1^ 200-250 nm, ^Pl"H (D) Hartley band 200-250 nm, Huggins
250-350 nm bands 250-350 nm
130. f: 130. The atmospheric Rossby waves occur on :
(A) ^ avi^t4 sSk ^ 3Tl^f^' (A) Low horizontal wavel^gths and
I
• vrith low frequencies
(B) ^ ^Ri'^ wi^^ "3^ (B) Large horizontal wavelengths and
with high frequencies
(C) ^ ^f!R 3?k Rl^Rpjf (C) Large horizontal wavelengths and
. ^ R12T with low frequencies
(D) ^R ^HcTSf cR1^^4 afl^ -3^ ^it^Ri4i (D) Low horizontal wavelengths and
with high frequencies -
I
(5)S/25/2024/A 25 P.T.O.
Text of page 28
131. WTPI cii^qu^el "^f 131. For a typical atmosphere, the relationship
between saturated vapour pressure and
^rmH ^ ^ ^t :
temperature is :
(A) (B) "STRik (A) Linear (B) Exponential
(C) M<cj<ripjch (D) (C) Parabolic (D) Inverse
132. ^ f{^ ^Rdt t : 132. Moist adiabatic lapse rate depends on :
(A) w?R "qr (A) Temperature only
(B) (B) Pressure only
(C) ?nwT -q^' "qr (C) Temperature and pressure
(D) ^3if -IK (D) Winds
133. TOT ^ (LWC)^ TTft-qiitRT ^ 133. The Liquid Water Content (LWC) is
«TTtir "I : defined as :
(A)^^ -qf^ ^ 3IT^ i{ ^ (A) Total number of water droplets per
unit volume of air
(B) ^ ^ ^ -^f TTTit (B) Total number of water droplets per
^^ ^ -WOHI unit area of air
(C) 3Tf^ 'AhI <jvqi^ "q^ "qj^ ^ (C) Total number of water droplets per
unit cm of height in air
. (D) "sq^ (D) All of the above
(5)S/25/2024/A 26
Text of page 29
134. (^) 134. The baroclihic instability is a jJrim^
)
mechanism of synoptic-pscale wave
t: ' development in :
(A) 3^^ TR (A) High latitudes
i
,(B) 3T8jm TR (B) Mid latitudes
(C) ^ (C) Equator
(D) ^ tR (D) Poles
135. TPS (qmin) 37f*il^ cft^ ^: 135. Fronts are more intense in :
(I) Piqei "^f (I) Lower troposphere
(n) sjlMlMW ^ wh (U) Near tropopause
(HI)"3^ ■^' (HI) Upper stratosphere
(A) (I) (A) (I) only
(B) (I) sfk (n) (B) (I) and (II) only j
I
(C) ;n) (HI) (C) (n) and (HI) only '
(D) (I),(II) (m) (D) (I), (n) and (ni)
)
- I
136. •qf^ C ^ ^ t, &c WR ^ 136. If C is wind speed, 5x is space increment
t ^ 8/ WT ■^f ^ t, lit .ftRfRfeq and 6/ is time stop, then which of the
following is correct for ■ Courant-
■if ^ (CFL) ftsR tlN^
Friedrichs-Levy (CFL) stability
^ l5m ^t ? criterion?
(A) c|.l (B) c|.l (A) C|.l («)
,2 St
(C) c^l^i (C) c^l^i ,2
(5)S/25/2024/A 27 P.T.O.
Text of page 30
137. ^ ^ PHHrdPsId 137. Which of the following is/are necessary
^i ? condition(s) for the occurrence of deep
convection ?
(I) "TO
(I) Substantial boundary-layer moisture
(II) ^ ^ ^ #Tr
(II) Existence of a conditionally
(HI) 3qf^8RcIl ^ ^ "^iT^ ^ 1^ unstable lapse rate
"f^T^ ^ 3Tf^ra^ ^ (III) Low level convergence sufficient to
. release the instability
(A) (I)
(A) (I) only
(B) (II)
(B) (II) only
(C) (III)
■ (C) (III) only
(D) (D,(II) ^ (III) (D) a), ai) and (III)
138. ^ 1^ 138. The first satellite dedicated to the climate
WJF ^ ^ 1^ "W an : research was launched in the year :
(A) 1970 (B) 1975 (A) 1970 (B) 1975
(C) 1980 (D) 1984 (C) 1980 (D) 1984
139. Tn# ^ #»n (RVR)^ ^ 139. Runway Visual Range(RVR)is reported,
t, "=5^ i[ ^ t : when visibility is less than :
(A) 1500 iTt^^ ^ ^ (A) 1500 meter
(B) 2500 ^ (B) 2500 meter
(C) 2000 ^^ (C) 2000 meter
(D) 4500 fffe?: ^ ^ (D) 4500 meter
(5)S/25/2024/A 28
Text of page 31
140. ^t : 140. The Western Disturbances (WDs)
originate over the :
(A)
(A) Mediterranean sea
(B) "^TFR
(B) Caspian sea
(C) ^TFR ^
(C) Black sea
(D) (D) All of the above
141. ^ ■? iHHfdRsId ^8FT 141. Which of the following trace elements
has thg maximum concentration in the
^ ^Tfen ^Tfq^ ^ t ?
sea water ?
(A) 3TnAihT
(A) Iodine
(B) *ilfci®^iH
(B) Molybdenum
(C) -fe
(C) Zinc
(D) (D) Iron
142. fdHldHsid "^* ^ =h1d^Hl TO ^G!T ^ 142. Which of the following currents flows
^ aik t ? equatorward ?
(A) d1<icilH TO (A) Leeuwiri current
I
(B) #TOit TO (B) Somali current
(C) %q:^,to (C) Benguela current
I
(D) aTR^f^ TO (D) East Australian current
{5)S/25/2024/A 29 P.T.O.
Text of page 33
146. ^ fem 146. Ocean water contains various elemen
I
• 1
^1^ fsrf^ ^^ 1^ i "5^* with different average residence times.
Which among these represents the
«»)litii cR^ sItefT Piqi^
correct order of decreasing average
sb*l ^RTfelT t ? I
residence time ?
(A) Na > Ca > Ag > Li
(A) Na > Ca > Ag > Li
(B) Ca > Na > Ag > Li
j Ca > Na > Ag > Li ,
(C) Ca>Ag>Li>Na
(C) Ca > Ag > Li > Na
(D) Na > Li > Ca > Ag (D) Na > Li > Ca > Ag
147. ^ TITO ^ Sim (Ion) 147. Different ions are dissolved in the sea
''s f
"5^ ^f 1 PinrdR^d ^ 1^ t^rafef water. Which of the following dissolved
Sim ^ ^ig^ ^ ■^* "?l^ SltocFT ions has a maximum concentration in sea
^i ? water ?
(A) (C1-) (A) Chloride (C1-) I
(B) (Ca^"^) (B) Calcium (Ca^"*")
(C) titem (K+) (C) Potassium (K^)
(D) (Na+) . (D) Sodium (Na*^)
(5)S/25/2024/A! 31 P.T.O
Text of page 34
148."?T^ 4000 ^ ^ 148. Siliceous ooze is very common in the
'm (Siliceous ocean floor below 4000 metres depth
ooze) 37TT7 f, ct^ili'i^ ; because :
(A) ^ 3#!^ - (A) Silica production is higher than
^i carbonate
(B) tt^ ^ "HIST ^^ t, (B) Carbonate dissolves with depth,
r^pd^ii ■^' while silica does not
(C) ^ cbN^i ^ witn (C) Carbonate are consumed or used by
■srmr t organisms
(D) ^ ^ -3?^ (D) Siliceous ooze are derived from the
^ t oceanic crust
149. ^-"3^1 H^l^MK ■^* "3^ "Hcmt 149. The high surface salinity in the
subtropical ocean is due to :
d=i^MI ^ WT t :
(A) High evaporation and low
(A) "3^ qm1ch<"i
precipitation
(B) ^ qi"=Ml=t)<'J| "W ^ (B) Low evaporation and low
precipitation
(C) ^sqtdhr ^ "3^ 'mm ^
(C) Supply of high salinity water from
^ ^ 31FjM
the equatorial region
(D) ^ ^ "3^ mm ^
(D) Supply of high salinity water from
^ 3TFjM the polar region
150. PHHRrlRsid ^ %^T ^ ^ ^ 150. Lack of which of the following metals
can restrict the growth of marine life ?
(A) Fe (B) Au , (A) Fe (B) Au
(C) Hg (D) Pb (C) Hg (D) Pb
(5)S/25/2024/A 32
Text of page 35
TV
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
S/25/2024/A
Text of page 36
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) S/25/2024/A
Text of page 2
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
Computer Science and A ^plication (22)
Answer Answer Answer Answer
Key Key Key Key
A B C D /Option A B C D /Option A B C D /Option A B C D /Option
51 131 101 71 B 76 ' 56 126 96 D 101 81 51 121 D 126 106 76 146 B
52 132 102 72 A 77 57 127 97 B 102 82 52 122 D 127 107 77 147 B
53 133 103 73 D 78 58 128 98 C 103 83 53 123 B. 128 108 78 148 A
54 134 104 74 D 79 59 129 99 B 104 84 54 124 D 129 109 79 149 A
55 135 105 75 C 80 60 130 100 B 105 85 55 125 B 130 110 80 150 D
56 136 106 76 C - 81 61 131 101 B 106 86 56 126 A 131 111 81 51 C
57 137 107 77 A 82 62 132 102 A 107 87 57 127 B 132 112 82 52 B
58 138 108 78 A 83 63 133 103 D 108 88 58 128 C 133 113 83 53 C
59 139 109 79 B- ■ 84 64 134 104 C 109 89 59 ■ 129 D 134 114 84 54 B
60 140 110 80 D 85 65 135 105 C 110 90 60 130 D 135 115 85 55 C
61 141 111 81 C 86 66 136 106 D 111 91 61 131 B 136 116 86 56 B
62 142 112 82 B 87 67 137 107 A 112 92 62 132 D. 137 117 87 57 D
63 143 113 83 B 88 . 68 138 108 D 113 93 63 133 D 138 118 88 58 B
64 144 114 84 . B 89 69 139 109 B 114 94 64 134 D 139 119 89 59 C
65 145 115 85 B 90 70 140 110 B 115 95 65 135 A 140 120 90 60 C
66 ■146 116 86 A 91 71 141 111 D 116 96 66 136 C 141 121 91 61 A
67 147 117 87 C 92 72 142 112 A 117 97 67 137 A 142 122 92 62 A
68 148 118 88 D 93 73 143 113 B 118 98 68 138 C 143 123 93 63 B.D
69 149 119 89 B 94 74 144 114 A 119 99 69 139 D 144 124 94 64 A
70 150 120 90 C 95 75 145 115 D 120 100 70 140 A 145 125 95 65 D
71 51 121 91 c ■ 96 76 146 116 A 121 ' 101 71 141 D 146 126 96 66 A
72 52 122 92 D 97 77 147 117 B 122 102 72 142 C 147 127 97 67 D
73 53' 123 93 D 98 ; 78 148 118 C 123 103 73 143 B 148 128 98 68 A
74 54 124 94 C 99 79 149 119 B 124 104 74 144 C 149 129 99 69 D
75 55 125 95 B. 100 80 150 120 : A 125 105 75 145 D 150 130 100 70 C
Text of page 3
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
Defence and Strategic Stuc ies (23)
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 121 91 81 A 76 146 116 106 A 101 71 141 131 B 126 96 66 56 C
52 122 92 82 B 77 147 117 107 C 102 72 142 132 A 127 97 67 57 A
53 123 93 83 D 78 148 118 108 A 103 73 143 133 C, 128 98 68 58 B
54 124 94 84 C 79 149 119 109 B 104 74 144 134 A 129 99 69 59 B,
55 125 95 85 B 80 150 120 110 B 105 75 145 135 B 130 100 70 60 D
56 126 96 86 C 81 51 121 111 C 106 76 146 136 A 131 101 71 61 C
57 127 97 87 B 82 52 122 112 A 107 77 147 137 C 132 102 72 62 D
58 128 98 88 A 83 53 123 113 D 108 78 148 138 D 133 103 73 63 C
59 129 99 89 B 84 54 124 114 B 109 79 149 139 C 134 104 74 64 C
60 130 100 90 B 85 55 125 115 D 110 80 150 140 B 135 105 75 65 B
61 131 101 91 B 86 56 126 116 A 111 81 51 141 B 136 106 76 66 D
62 132 102 92 C 87 57 127 117 C 112 82 52 142 C 137 107 77 67 C
63 133 103 93 B 88 58 128 118 B 113 83 53 143 D 138 108 78 68 A
64 134 104 94 C 89 59 129 119 D 114 84 54 144 B 139 109 79 69 B
65 135 105 95 A' 90 60 130 120 C 115 85 55 145 C 140 110 80 70 D
66 136 106 96 B 91 61 131 121 D 116 86 56 146 D 141 111 81 71 C
67 137 107 97 B 92 . 62 132 122 C 117 87 57 147 D 142 112 82 72 B
68 138 108 98 B. 93 63 133 123 A 118 88 58 148 A 143 113 83 73 C
69 139 109 99 C 94 64 134 124 B 119 89 59 149 D 144 114 84 74 B
70 140 110 100 D 95 65 135 125 D 120 90 60 150 C 145 115 85 75 D
71 141 111 101 A 96 66 136 126 C 121 91 61 51 C 146 116 86 76 A
72 142 112 102 D 97 67 137 127 B 122 92 62 52 B 147 117 87 77 B
73 143 113 103 D 98 68 138 128 1 C 123 93 63 53 A 148 118 88 78 D
74 144 114 104 A . 99 69 139 129 B 124 94 64 54 C 149 119 89 79 C
75 145 115 i05 B : 100 : 70" 140 130 A 125 95 65 55 A 150 120 90 80 A
Text of page 4
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
EARTH SCIENCE (25)
Answer Answer/ Answer Answer/
A B C D /Option A B C D Option A B C D /Option A B C D Option
51 131 101 81 A 76 56 126 106 A 101 81 51 131 D 126 106 76 56 A
52 132 102 82 C 77 57 127 107 B 102 82 52 132 A 127 107 77 57 D
53 133 103 83 C 78 58 128 108 A 103 83 53 133 D 128 108 78 58 A
54 134 104 84 B 79 59 129 109 C 104 84 54 134 A 129 109 79 59 B
55 135 105 85 C 80 60 130 110 B 105 85 55 135 C 130 110 80 60 C
56 136 106 86 B 81 61 131 111 B 106 86 56 136 C 131 111 81 61 B
57 137 107 87 D 82 62 132 112 D 107 87 57 137 B 132 112 82 62 C
58 138 108 88 D 83 63 133 113 B 108 88 58 138 B 133 113 83 63 A
59 139 109 89 B 84 64 134 114 D 109 89 59 139 A 134 114 84 64 B
60 140 110 90 C 85 65 135 115 A 110 90 60 140 B 135 115 85 65 B
61 141 111 91 C 86 66 ' 136 116 A 111 91 61 141 A 136 116 86 66 A
62 142 112 92 A 87 67 137 117 B 112 92 62 142 B 137 117 87 67 D
63 143 113 93 D 88 68 138 118 B 113 93 63 143 C 138 118 88 68 D,
64 144 114 94 A 89 69 139 119 C 114 94 64 144 A 139 119 89 69 A
65 145 115 95 A 90 70 140 120 C 115 95 65 145 D 140 120 90 70 D
66 146 116 96 B 91 71 141 121 A 116 96 66 146 B 141 121 91 71 A
67 147 117 97 . C 92 72 142 122 B 117 97 67 147 D 142 122 92 72 C
68 148 118 98 D 93 73 143 123 C 118 98 68 148 A 143 123 93 73 B
69 149 119 99 C 94 74 144 124 D 119 99 69 149 C 144 124 94 74 C
70 150 120 100 c 95 75 145 125 B 120 100 70 150 B 145 125 95 75 C
71 51 121 101 c 96 76 146 126 C 121 101 71 51 B 146 126 96 76 D
72 52 122 102 D 97 77 147 127 C 122 102 72 52 D 147 127 97 77 A
73 53 123 103 C 98 78 148 128 A 123 103 73 53 D 148 128 98 78 B
74 54 124 104 A 99 79 149 129 D 124 104 74 54 C 149 129 99 79 A
75 55 125 105 C 100 80 .150 130 B 125 105 75 55 C 150 130 100 80 A
Text of page 5
State Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
HOME SCIENCE (09)
Answer/ Answer/O Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B C D pHon A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 131 111 91 C 76 56 136 116 C 101 81 61 141 B 126 106 86 66 B
52 132 112 92 C 77 57 137 117 D 102 82 62 142 A^ 127 107 87 67 A
53 133 113 93 A 78 58 138 118 B 103 83 63 143 A 128 108 88 68 D
54 134 114 94 A 79 59 139 119 B 104 84 64 144 C 129 109 89 69 D
55 135 115 95 B 80 60 140 120 C 105 85 65 145 D 130 110 90 70 A
56 136 116 96 D 81 61 141 121 C 106 86 66 146 C 131 111 91 71 C
57 137 117 97 D 82 62 142 122 B 107 87 67 147 A 132 112 92 72 A
58 138 118 98 C 83 63 143 123 A 108 88 68 148 D 133 113 93 73 B
59 139 119 99 D 84 64 144 124 B 109 89 69 149 D 134 114 94 74 C
60 140 120 100 B 85 65 145 125 C 110 90 70 150 B' 135 115 95 75 D
61 141 121 101 B 86 66 146 126 B 111 91 71 51 B 136 116 96 76 C
62 142 122 102 C 87 67 147 127 D 112 92 72 52 C 137 117 97 77 A
63 143 123 103 B,C 88 68 148 128 B 113 93 73 53 c 138 118 98 78 A'
64 144 124 104 D 89 69 149 129 C 114 94 74 54 D 139 119 99 79 C
65 145 125 105 C 90 70 150 130 D 115 95 75 55 B 140 120 100 80 A
66 146 126 106 D 91 71 51 131 D 116 96 76 56 C 141 121 101 81 C
67 147 127 107 D 92 72 52 132 B 117 97 77 57 A 142 .122 102 82 B
68 148 128 108 B 93 73 53 133 C 118 98 78 58 A 143 123 103 83 C
69 149 129 109 A 94 74 ■ 54 134 B 119 99 79 59 D 144 124 104 D
84
70 150 130 110 D 95 75 55 135 D 120 100 80 60 D 145 125 105 85 D
71 51 131 111 C 96 76 56 136 B 121 101 81 61 B 146 126 106 A
86
72 52 132 112 A 97 77 57 137 A 122 102 82 62 D 147 127 107 87 A
73 53 133 113 C 98 78 58 138 C 123 103 83 63 A 148 128 108 88 D
74 54 134 114 B 99 79 59 139 A 124 104 84 64 B 149 129 109 89 C
75 55 135 115 D 100 80 60 140 B 125 105 85 65 C 150 130 110 90 A
Text of page 6
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
MUSIC (24) PART I AND 11
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B c D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 81 71 61 B 76 66 56 86 B 101 141 131 121 B 126 106 96 146 B
52 82 72 62 A 77 67 57 87 D 102 142 132 122 D 127 107 97 147 D
53 83 73 63 C. 78 68 58 88 B 103 143 133 123 D 128 108 98 148 A
54 84 74 64 A 79 69 59 89 D 104 144 134 124 B 129 109 99 149 D
55 85 75 65 B 80 70 60 90 C 105 145 135 125 D 130 110 100 150 B
56 86 76 66 C 81 71 61 51 A 106 146 136 126 A 131 111 101 91 C
57 87 77 67 D 82 72 62 52 C 107 147 137 127 D 132 112 102 92 B
58 88 78 68 C S3 73 63 53 A 108 148 138 128 A 133 113 103 93 B
59 89 79 69 B 84 74 64 54 D. 109 149 139 129 B 134 114 104 94 C
60 90 80 70 A 85 75 65 55 D 110 150 140 130 B 135 115 105 95 D
61 51 81 71 ■ C 86 76 66 56 B 111 91 141 131 C 136 116 106 96 D
62 52 82 72 D 87 , 77 67 57 A 112 92 142 132 D' 137 117 107 97 A
63 53 83 73 C 88 78 68 58 B' 113 93 143 133 B 138 118 108 98 C
64 54 84 74 c 89 79 69 59 C 114 94 144 134 C 139 119 109 99 A
65 55 85 75 c 90 80 70 60 A 115 95 145 135 D 140 120 110 100 A
66 56 86 76 D 91 131 121 111 A- 116 96 146 136 B 141 121 111 101 D
67 57 87 77 C 92 132 122 112 D 117 97 147 137 D 142 122 112 102 D
68 58 88 78 C 93 133 . 123 113 C 118 98 148 138 B. 143 123 113 103 C
69 59 89 79 A ; 94 134 124 114 D, 119 99 149 139 C 144 124 114 104 D
70 60 90 80 A 95 135 125 , 115 A 120 IQO 150 140 B 145 125 115 105 A
71 61 51 81 B . 96 136 126 116 D 121 101 91 141 D 146 126 116 106 B
72 62 52 82 , C 97 137 127 : 117 B 122 102 92 142 B 147 127 117 107 A
73 63 53 83 C 98 138 . 128 : 118 B 123 103 93 143 C 148 128 118 108 D
74 64 54 84 c 99 139 ' 129 119 A 124 104 94 144 D 149 129 119 109 C
75 65 55 85 c 100 140 130 120 A • 125 105 95 145 B 150 130 120 110 B
Text of page 7
MUSIC PART ill
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B c D Option A B C D Option
91 131 121 111 B 116 96 146 136 A 141 121 111 101 B
92 132 122 112 B 117 97 147 137 C 142 122 112 102 C
93 133 123 113 B 118 98 148 138 A 143 123 113 103 D
94 134 124 114 B 119 99 149 139 C 144 124 114 104 A
95 135 125 115 D 120 100 150 140 D 145 125 115 105 D
96 136 126 116 D 121 101 91 141 C 146 126 116 106 B
97 137 127 117 C 122 102 92 142 C 147 127 117 107 D
98 138 128 118 B 123 103 93 143 D 148 128 118 108 A
99 139 129 119 D 124 104 94 144 B 149 129 119 109 C
100 140 130 120 C 125 105 95 145 D 150 130 120 110 C
101 141 131 121 B 126 106 96 146 A
102 142 132 122 A 127 107 97 147 D
103 143 133 123 D 128 108 98 148 B
104 144 134 124 C 129 109 99 149 A
105 145 135 125 A 130 110 100 150 C
106 146 . 136 126 C 131 111 101 91 D
107 147 137 127 P 132 112 102 92 A
108 148 138 128 D 133 113 103 93 C
109 149 139 129 B 134 114 104 94 D
110 150 ; . 140 130 C 135 115 : 105 95 B
111 91 141 131 A 136 116 106 96 A
112 92 142 132 C 137 117 107 97 P,B
113 93 - 143 133 B 138 118 1 108 98 D
114 94 , i44 134 P 139 119 109 9,9 B
115 95 145 135 B 140 120 ■ 110 100 A
Text of page 8
State Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/ Answer/O
A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D ption
51 131 101 71 C 76 56 126 96 C 101 81 51 121 C 126 106 76 146 C
52 132 102 72 A 77 57 127 97 C 102 82 52 122 A 127 107 77 147 D
53 133 103 73 D 78 58 128 98 A 103 83 53 123 C' 128 108 78 148 B
54 134 104 74 B 79 59 129 99 D 104 84 54 124 D 129 109 79 149 B
55 135 105 75 C 80 60 130 100 D 105 85 55 125 A 130 110 80 150 D
56 136 106 76 B 81 61 131 101 B 106 86 56 126 A 131 111 81 51 B
57 137 107 77 D 82 62 132 102 C 107 87 57 127 D 132 112 82 52 A
58 138 108 78 C 83 63 133 103 D 108 88 58 128 C 133 113 83 53 A
59 139 109 79 C 84 64 134 104 B 109 89 59 129 c 134 114 84 54 A
60 140 110 80 A 85 65 135 105 A 110 90 60 130 B, 135 115 85 55 D
61 141 111 81 B - 86 66 136 106 C 111 91 61 131 B 136 116 86 56 D
62 142 112 82 A 87 67 137 107 C 112 92 62 132 C 137 117 87 57 C
63 143 113 83 D 88 68 138 108 B 113 93 63 133 c 138 118 88 58 B
64 144 114 84 B 89 69 139 109 B 114 94 64 134 D 139 119 89 59 B
65 145 115 85 B 90 70 140 110 D 115 95 65 135 B 140 120 90 60 B
66 146 116 86 D 91 71 141 111 B 116 96 66 136 C ■ 141 121 91 61 B
67 147 117 87 D 92 72 142 112 C 117 97 67 137 B 142 122 92 62 C
68 148 118 88 C' 93 73 143 113 B 118 98 68 138 B 143 123 93 63 D
69 ^ 149 119 89 C 94 74 144 114 A 119 99 69 139 B 144 124 94 64 A
70 150 120 90 C 95 75 145 115 B 120 100 70 140 A 145 125 95 65 B
71 51 121 91 A' 96 76 146 116 C 121 101 71 141 D 146 126 96 66 D
72 52 122 92 D 97 77 147 117 c 122 102 72 142 B 147 127 97 67 B
73 53 123 93 C 98 78 148 118 A 123 103 73 143 A 148 128 98 68 D
74 54 124 94 B 99 79 149 119 B 124 104 74 144 B 149 129 99 69 C
75 55 125 95 A 100 80 150 120 C 125 105 75 145 C 150 130 100 70 A
Text of page 9
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
PSYCHOLOGY (18)
Answer Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D /Option A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 121 91 71 A 76 146 116 96 B 101 71 141 121 A 126 96 66 146 A
52 122 92 72 C 77 147 117 97 B 102 72 142 122 C 127 97 67 147 C
53 123 93 73 C 78 148 118 98 B 103 73 143 123 c 128 98 68 148 B
54 124 94 74 D 79 149 119 99 B 104 74 144 124 D 129 99 69 149 D
55 125 95 75 C 80 150 120 100 D 105 75 145 125 C 130 100 70 150 B
56 126 96 76 B, 81 51 121 101 A 106 76 146 126 B 131 101 71 51 C
57 127 97 77 C 82 52 122 102 C 107 77 147 127 C 132 102 72 52 B
58 128 98 78 A 83 53 123 103 B 108 78 148 128 C 133 103 73 53 C
59 . 129 99 79 D 84 54 124 .104 B 109 79 149 129 A . 134 104 74 54 A
60 130 100 80 B 85 55 125 105 B 110 80 150 130 B 135 105 75 55 D
61 131 101 81 B 86 56 126 106 D 111 81 51 131 B 136 106 76 56 B
62 132 102 82 A 87 57 127 107 C 112 82 52 132 C 137 107 77 57 D
63 133 103 83 C 88 58 128 108 D 113 83 53 133 A 138 108 78 58 C
64 134 104 84 B 89 59 129 109 D 114 84 54 134 B 139 109 79 59 C
65 135 105 85 A 90 60 130 110 C 115 85 55 135 A 140 110 80 60 D
66 136 106 86 C 91 61 131 111 B 116. 86 56 136 A < 141 111 81 61 D
67 137 107 87 B 92 62 132 112 A : 117 87 57 137 B 142 112 82 62 A
68 138 108 88 D 93 . 63 133 113 D 118 88 58 138 A. 143 113 83 63 D
69 139 109 89 D 94 64 134 114 D. 119 89 59 139 B 144 114 84 64 C
70 140 110 90 A 95 65 135 115 B 120 90 60 140 D 145 115 85 65 A
71 141 111 91 A 96 : 66 136 116 A 121 91 61 141 D 146 116 86 66 B
72 142 112 92 B 97 . 67 137 117 C 122 92 62 142 A 147 117 87 67 A
73 143 113 93 A 98 68 138 118 D 123 93 63 143 C 148 118 88 68 D
74 144 114 94 C 99 69 139 : 119 A 124 94 64 144 A 149 119 89 69 D
75 145 115 95 D 100 70 140 120 C 125 95 65 145 A 150 120 90 70 APage 1 of 36
Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.