MP SET 2024: State Eligibility Test, Music
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(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORIQ S/24/2024/A
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I (Part I)
' A'
51. ^ 1^?^,11^ f ?■ 51. Fanda, Chhoot and Laraj are types of
(A) .(B) ™ (A) Gmnak (B) Taan
(C) 3TI^ (D) tflfe (C) Aalap (D) Meend
52. #Tt^ ^ STRfN^ 52. What was 'Saam Sangeet' in the. initial
wftcT* ^ «^T ? stage of Indian Music ?
(A) ^ (A) Marg Sangeet ,
s. , '
. (B) ^ ^nftcT' (B) Deshi S^geet.
. ■ (C) (C) Gandharv
- , (D) ^ (D) None of the above
'53. ^ MHcti ^ 53. Zamzama, Murki and Gitkaii are the
#r ^ ^ ? three types of which Gamak ?
(A) ^IKlPdd (B) (A) Aandolit (B), Kampit
(C) (D) (C) Sfurit (D) Plavit
54. 2frraT^"JTT^ ^ 1^ "ipr 54. Due to which characteristics of Naad
sound of different instruments can be
■ I _ .
t? distinguished ? j
t ' .
^ (A) ^ . (B) ?TR5TT , . (A) Timbre (B) Pitch
(C) am ' (D) ^ ■' (C) Loudhess (D) All of these ,
1 P.T.O,
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55. ^ rHHPdRsid 55. ; In North Indian music 'Nirawal' appears
^ "Sldtcl t ? similar to which of the following ?
(A) ZOTT. ^ (A) Tappa
f
(B) ^letiH (B) Bol Aalap
■(C) ^HT (C) Tarana
(D) (D) Bhajan
56. I^JrRt ^ SRRI^- 56. Interval of how many Shrutis has been
qoNi ^rar ^ ? told between Vadi and Samvadi ?
L
(A) 8-11 #Pi1f (A) 8-11 Shrutis
(B) 9-12 gM ^ ^ (B) 9-12 Shrutis
, (C) 9-13 ^ (C) 9-13 Shrutis
(D) 10-14 gf^* m (D) 10-14 Shrutis
57. '4)iH^4V "211^ ^ W "SRN^ 57, What is the purpose of 'Katapayadi'
■- • • / ,.
plan ? ■
-■ f ?-
[v.
(A) Method of making 72 Mela
(A) 72 Tfe ^
(B) Method of making 32 Thaats
(B) 32 s?I3 ^
■(C) Method of making 10 Thaats
(C) 10 m ^ "^ 'Wi
(D) Method of figuring out Mela
(X)) WH ^ number
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58. 4 7 ^ 58. In which Layakari 7 Matras coincide in
t" ? 4 Matras ?
(A).^5fns (A) Kuaad
(B) ^ (B) Thah
(C) (C) Biaad
♦
(D) ^ (D) Aad
59. mcT ^ 1^ ^ 59. What is synonym for Vadya Vrinda in
y<iVi "t" ? Bharat's period ?
(A) ^ (A) Toorya
(B)^ (B) Kutap
(C) "fel (C) Naubat
(D) ^ ^^ (D) None of the above
60. 1^ y-^'+iK ^ ^ 'ailM 60. Which Granthkar has related *Ras' with
'TH' ^t ? Shruti Jatis ?
(A) U 31?^ (A) Pt. Ahobal
(B) TOT (B) Pt. Matang
(C) wn^ (C) Pt. Sharangdev
(D) TT. TTRf^ (D).Pt. Bhatkhande
P.T.O.
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61. PinfeiRan "4* ^ ^ 61. Which of the following folk artists was
*^-1^^' ^ irafe 1^ -m i 7 awarded 'Padma-Vibhushan' ?
(A) ^Kocll (A) Hemu Gadhvi
(B) HlPdHl (B) Malini Awasthi
(C) #5H M (C) Teejan Bai
(D) ^ (D) Hansraj Hans
62. ''i"('fl<* ete ^ 62. 'Gangaur' folk festival is related to union
^ W^pi^ t ? of which deities ?
(A) W-^ (A) Radha-Krishna
(B) 7FT-'?itaT (B) Ram-Sita
(C) 1^-^^ (C) Vishnu-Laxmi
(D) t^--qT^ (D) Shiv-Parvati
63. ^ -^rkl ^ XFJ'T 63. *Chhakar' folk music is related to which
^ ,t ? of the following States ?
(A) (A) Sikkim
■ (B) 3TW^ "51^ (B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) (C) Kashmir
(D) (D) Chhattisgarh
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64. Which of the following is a 'percussion'
^ i ?■ instrument ?
(A) (B) (A) Kamaicha (B) Nafiri
(C) ^ (D) ^ (C) Chang (D) Shrung
65. PlMldRsid "^* ^ 'Tm* 65. Which of the following options is a
^ t sSk "q^ '-m^' ^ ? 'Raga' as well as a 'singing style' too ?
(A) "^itei (B) fq^ (A) Soratha (B) Piloo
(C) ^ (D) 7^ (C) Mand (D) Garba
66. PdMPdnsld "4* ^ dild^i 3T^ '66, Which of the following statements is
' t?' false ?
(A) "^. 'Ti^ ^ (A) In folk music, the language is set to
^RFTT 'aiiai "t I simple and beautiful music.
(B) dld)^*^nd 3#R??R Miiq "% (B) Folk music is normally related to
daily life of the human bemg.
^ t i
(C) No particular note has more
(C) dldi^'lld ^
importance in folk music.
11?^ a#i^ ^ I
i
(D) Folk music comprises of complex
(D) ^ ■#Tt?T sSk ^ei'qiiRqi
and ornamental language.
TO ^ t I
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67. ^ dWDd TRHT 67. In which folk song form did 'Bharatendu
■^f "M ? Harishchandra' do the reforms ?
(A) ^ (B) (A) Chaiti (B) Sohar
(C) (D) 'Hfi'4ld) (C) Kajari (D) Bhatiyali
68. TTT^ 'm\ 68.' 'Aalha', 'Basdeva', 'Kathi', 'DholaMani
'wm w' ^ ^ Gatha', Sarman Gatha' etc. folk music
^ ^ t ? forms being to which state ?
(A) (A) Chhattisgarh
(B) "3^ "51^ (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) tT«2T 31^ (C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) TT^RSTH (D) Rajasthan
69. fH**inrlRsld «h1*i^i fq^urM 69. " Which of the following options is a
^ t -q^ 'dU^lld' ^
■'Sect' as well as 'Folk Song' style too ?
«it t ?
(A) Baul
(A)
(B) Bhavaiya
(B) ^71^
(C) iSm (C) Rasiya
(D) ^aqi 0) Barua
70. sfk '1^* ^ -SRiR fro TFJ^T 70. Which of the following state are the folk
^ t ? styles 'Fugdi' and 'Jimma' related to ?
(A) (A) Maharashtra
(B) ©diti'its (B) Chhattisgarh
(C) -q^z? 31^ (C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) didlicf) 0) Kamataka
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71. dRia ^ 71. "Aesthetics is only a view of fine aris."
t l" l^fgH ^t ? Which scholar gave this definition ?
(A)^ (A) Croche
(B) (B) Hegel
(C) ■'Tte (C) Hunter Mead
(D) (D) Harold Osbome
72. Which is the fixed feeling of Shringar
t ? Rasa?.
(A) .1^1^ (A) Nirveda
(B) (B) \^smaya
(C) .Tf!l (C) Rati
(D) ^5ir^ (D) Jugupsa
I
73. ^ teRi ^ 73.- Who introduced the principle of
1^ ? generalisation (Sadharanikaran) ?
(A) 3#H^ Tpfn ' , (A) Abhinav Gupta
(B) '^. TT^f "^Fl^^TT^T (B) Pt. Raj Jagannath
1
•1 .
■ (C) (C) Bhattanayak
(D) (D) Bhamah
P.T.O.
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74. According to Natyashastra, Shrinagar
^^ t ? Rasa is related to which God ?
(A) ■Z7TT (B) W (A) Yama (B) Brahma
(C) (D) (C) Vishnu (D) Shiva
75. "mi: I qmf% ^ *?M: l" 75. "^tRr I ^ i"
ozm^ "fer^ 31^ Who presented this interpretation of the
^ ? world 'Bhaav' ?
(A) srf^ ^ (A) Abhinav Gupta
(B) ST^tel (B) Ahobal
(C) W (C) Bharat
(D) wn^ (D) Sharangdev
76. ^ "^T^WT 76. Who used the word 'Aesthetic' first
.1^^ 2TI ? time ?
(A) ^ (A) Croche
i
(B) 3icri^*-s< ■^IWTt5^ (B) Alexander Baumgarten
(C) (C) Hegel
(D) Tf^ (D) Ruskin
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77. ^ RhO'll chell-^ ^ dorxrlo I^^l 77. How many arts have been mentioned by
t ? Vatsyayana ?
(A) 16 (B) 21 (A) 1.6 (B) 21
(C) 14 (D) 64 (C) 14 (D) 64
78. W ^ ^ W 78. What is the meaning of Vibhava
3T8f t ? according to Bharata ?
(A) (B) WI (A) Rasa (B) Karan
(C) 'to (D) (C) Cheshta (D) A^char
79. 1^ ^ '■^' 79. Which Indian scholar first considered the
TO ^ 3ilMqi4ni ■'IT RcqK 'fe'll U ? • necessity of Rasa in poetry ?
(A) (A) Vamana
(B) ^ (B) Dandi
(C) (C) \^shvanath .
(D) W , (D) Bharat
80. TffRf TO 313TOni t l" TO 80. "Art imitates nature." >^o gave this
statement ?
TOn TO t ?
(B) ^ (A) Plato (B) Croche
(A)
(C) arog (D) (C) Aristotle (D) Hegel
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81,. Discovery of new theories will come
."SRiK ^ sRnfer 3Jirar ^ ? under which variety of research ?
(A) 3T5?m (A) Fundamental research
(B) oi^w^iRch ^ (B) Applied research
^ (C) cjutni^ch 3l5^T«qH J (C) Descriptive research
(D) iEr*ii?R^. (D) Experimental research
82. ^ T^* ^ 82. What is not relevant in context of
I
t? . . ■ synopsis ?
, (A) TOiM ^ (A) Synopsis contains basic elements of
"i^ 1 , research plan.
(B) ^ ^ TIN (B) Synopsis focuses the. researcher
^ sik 3nHR "f i towards completion of research.
(C) Tiki wm ^ 1^ 3PI (C) It is unnecessary to^ review the
"T»raf Tit ^oii SRITTT^ ^ 1; ^ literature on related research.
(D) tiRjJl TTT "3^ W«t>eii 1^' "frr^TJi (P) Indication of the design to be used
T)t WfTiRt ^ TfRft ^ 1 to collect and analyse the data.
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83.. Tiwfer ^ ^ 83. Which is the method of collecting i
TO t ? ■ information from primary source ?
(A) (A) Observation
/ , ,
(B) 3??^? (B) Books
(c) Hn<<+)ii| (C) Journals
(D) CD :
(D)
84. Which is not a variety of questionnaire ?
84. -gji "siTO t ?
(A) ^\ (A) Fixed Questions
(B) "SR'T (B) Open Questions
(C) Mm (C) Mixed Questions
(D) «i<yic=t)K (D) Interviews
i
f r
85. WiRi^ ^ ^n*nft FiHRifisid 85. Which ofthe following will n^t be usehil
for collecting data for the historical
^ 3IT^ ^^ ?
res^ch ? .
(A)^ ^
(A) Books
(B) StiRTOSff
(B) Autobiography
(C)
(C) Documents
(D)
(D) Synopsis .
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Ts
86, ^ ^ 86. For research in music, how an authentic
"SRiR TrNi 'JiitctiiO ^ ^ information can be .obtained from
f ? internet ?
(i) ^ (i) Research engine
(ii) ^ ^ 1^ (ii) By paying fee for academic research
4)1'H ^ ^4C1N on internet
(iii) dN^il OT (iii) Through virtual libraries
(iv) From any web site whether that
(iv) 1^ *Tt ^. ^ ^ ^
does not have information on any
^ #rffe ^ ^ H
aspect of music.
Codes :
W'
(A) (i), (iii), (iv) (A) (i),.(iii),(iv)
. (B) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iv)
87. ^Kd ^ 1=t)F ^IFT "^TPTHcRR" 87. In which part of India maximum musical
-gro ^ t ? pillars are available ?
!
(A) (B) (A) South (B) East
(C) (D) "3^ (C) West (D) North
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88. 31^ ^ W 88. While writing research and report, what
^^ t ? is not included in the conclusion ?
(A) W4f ^ ^ ^ (A) Clarity on the sequence of decisions
(B) ^ ^ (B) Information of books
(C) 3=lk '•33iTTT3ff ^ t^rf^ (C) Underlining achievements and
limitations
(D) ^ (D) Potential research avenues in fiiture
89. rHHPdRsid ^ ^fntcT ^ 89. Which of the following does not preserve
felT ^ W?TT ? music ?
(A) wit* ft* (A) Gramophone records
(B)^ (B) Cassette tapes
(C) (C) Encyclopedia
(D) (D) C. D.
90.- 3*T ^ ^ 90. Ajanta caves paintings are regarded as
■^WT ^ ^3TRt ^snSt ^ ? pioneers in which ?
(A) *it (A) Fresco
(B) (B) Rag-mala-Paintings
(C) ^MPddi (C) Musical Pillar
*
(D) ^wPtiPh-mT (D) Manuscripts
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*nn n (Part n)
91. 1. ^^ ^ WIT 91. What is the number of'Thaats' according
f^?T^ t ? to Ft. Bhatkhande ?
(A) 10 (B) 72 (A) 10 (B) 72
(C) 40 (D) 20 ■ (C) 40 (D) 20
92. '^TT^;?T?n^' ^ 3i3?iR im 4 ^prqlf 92. How many counts of Shrutis are
there in Madhyam Gram according to
^ WIT fei4t t ?
'Natyashastra'?
(A) 18 (B) 24
(A) 18 (B) 24
(C) 28 (D) 22 (C) 28 . (D) 22
93. Tlf^ "^T?^ % WTT^ ^ 93. Which term is used for the R^as which
^TT^ TPft ^ ^'IT «t)ecl are sung/played from twelve O'clock at
t? night to twelve O'Clock in the day ?
(A) TFT (A) Paramela Praveshak Raag
(B) TFT (B) Poorvangavadi Raag
(C) "SWT^ TFT (C) Uttarangavadi Raag
(D) TFT (D) Sandhi Prakash Raag
94. "JRIF #% TFff-^ ^nfercT '% %it ferft 94. How many 'Geetiyan' were used for
^ I^J'IT 8tt ? Raag Vargikaran by 'Matang Muni' ?
(A) 5 (B) 9 (A) 5 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 7 (C) 6 (D) 7
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95. How many Murchanas are there in one
t ? *Grama' ?
(A) 7 (B) 5 (A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8 (C) 6 ■ (D) 8
96. =hHt<i+ ^ XPI ^ 96. Which Raag from Camatic music is
j
resembling with the Raga Bilawal from
■#Tta ^ TFT r=(^rlW<rl ^ T§raT t ?
northern Indian music ?
(A) -R^
(A) Mohanam
(B) teK^TpMRI
(B) Kharaharapriya
(C) ^TTT^
(C) Hansanandi
(D) tftr (D) Dheer Shankarabharan
97. WgirR T^TfMR ^ 97. In westem notation system the pure foim
?FI ^ ^ ^ 1^ t ? of Swaras sign is :
(A) b . (A) b
(B) _d (B) ^
(C) bb (C) bb
(D) =#= (D) =#=
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98. ■EFrfe Km ^ 98. There are three main components in
Camatic Taal system. Their names
I ^ :
are :
(A) tcR^,
(A) Tistra, Khand, Sankima
(B) "^k, "nf^, ^ k
(B) Jati Bhed, Gati Bhed, Laghu Bhed
(C) '^, 1=1^
(C) Rupak, Jatt, Trivat
(D) (D) Sam, Tali, Khali
99. 3TT^fTO^)I*T #nif TIT ^ ^ 99. In the establishment of the Shuddha
WTTT ■^* TT, "T, -R, -^%^ 1^-1^ Swaras based on modem Shruti system
.*Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, Ni' is based
TR T«TTPm t ?
on which places ?
(A) 1, 5, 8, 10, 14, 18,,21
(A) 1, 5, 8, 10, 14, 18, 21
(B) 4,3, 2,4,4, 3,2
(B) 4, 3, 2, 4, 4, 3, 2
(C) 4, 2, 2, .4, 4, 2, 2
(C) 4,2,2,4,4,2,2
(D) 4, 3, 2, 10, 14, 18 (D) 4, 3, 2, 10, 14, 18
100. Mkr <yi44>iR^T 'k 100. What is called 'Ded Gun' in special
■Jp' ^ ^ ^i?T ^fRTT ^ ? meaning in different Layakaries ?
(A) Aad (B) Chaugun
(A) STIf (B) %T.
(C) Kuaad (D). Biaad
(C) (D)
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101. TO ^ ^ 101. The third chapter of'Sangeet Ratnakar'
'llH ^ J treatise is called :
(A) (A) Taladhyaya
(B) (B) Prakimakadhyaya
(C) Swargatadhyaya
(D) Ragvivekadhyaya
102,*W TTOH.* TO <R^dl f 102. The author of'Bharat Bhashyam' text is ;
(A) STRl^ TO (A) Acharya Bharat
(B) (B) Parshvadev
(C)^ (C) Dattil
(D) (D) Nanyadev
103. "^TPf TO "JJTO f ? 103. How many types of Marg Taal are there ?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (A) 6 (B) 4
(D) 5 (C) 7 (D) 5
(C) 7
. '3Tlf^ ^ t? 104. How many types of'Aali Prabandha' are
104
there ?
(A) 32 (B) 24
(A) .32 (B) 24
(C) 20 (D) 36
(C) 20 (D) 36
17
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105. ^ 105. Flat Nishad (Ni") note on Hindustani
(g)^^ ^H^cb #itcr ^f ^ music system is called in Kamataka
f: music system ;
(A) ^ (A) Shuddha Dhaivat
(B) =bl=bdl 1^ (B) Kakli Nishad
(C) ^ (C) Chatuh Shruti Dhaivat
(D) fNK - (D) Kaishik Nishad
106. '#r* ^ "itIto iT*m tw 106. The classical analysis of 'Shruti' found
■ ^* "qif ^ t ? first time in which text ?
(A) (A) Natyashastra
(B) (B) Saraswati Hridayalankar
(C) wM^RmteR (C) Sangcetopnishatsaroddhar
(D) ^^ (D) None of the above
107. ^ 32^* 3TSW i( ^ 107. What is described in the 32nd chapter of
■f^RTT "W ^ ? Natyashastra ?
(A) ^ ^ (A) Geeti
(B) m ij^,. # ^ (B) Gram, Mobrchhana, Shruti
(C) 31^ ^ (C) Percussion instruments
(D) prsff ^ (D) Dhruvas
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108.'W' "SITO t ? 108. 'Sama' is a kind of :
(A) "2# (A) Yati
(B) (B) Geeti
(C) ^ (C) Jati
(D) (D) Moorchhana
109. ^ "51^ # : 109. The Prabandhas of'Sud Varg' are :'
(A) (A) Ella, Ankcharini, Kalhans
(B) lit^ (B) Ella, Dhenki, Jhombad
" (C) -m, (C) Ella, Lambh, Dhwanikuttani
(D) ^FTS (D) Ella, Dhollari, Jhampat
110.-' <i(r*rl^a TI^T 110. The 'Laghupurvika Veena' is mentioned
ten t ? in which treatise ?
(A) (A) Jabalopanishad
(B) iTWTR (B) Sangeet Samaysaar
(C) "^rtci (C) Sangeet Chudamani
(D) TTsr (D) Sangeet Raj
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111. t ? 111. How many Jatees of Prabandha are
there ?
(A) 03 (B) 04
(A) 03 (B) 04
(C) 05 (D) 06 (C) 05 (P) 06
112. •am ^ m ^ 112. Dadara Singing style is related to which
t ? genre ?
(A)^ ■HTfe (A) Folk music
(B) lOiT "^FftcT (B) Light music
(C) viiwl4 ^mkr (C) Classical music
(D) #Tkf (D) Semi-classical music
113. PHHldRsid ^ 3FT ^ 113. Which of the following is not *Anga' of
t ? Prabandha ?
(A) W (B) J^dl44i
(A) Taal (B) Melapak
(C) ^ (D) ^
(C) Ten (D) Swar
114. PlMldR^d Tim ^ 114. Which of the following singing styles is
in the correct order of development ?
% 7
(A) Dhrupad -> Prabandha Khayal
-> Thumari
(A) ^ -R^V ^ -m^ -> ^
(B) Prabandha -> Dhrupad -> Thumari
(B) "R^V -> -> ->• ^sRT^ -> Khayal
(C) Prabandha -> Dhrupad Khayal
(C) "R^V ^ ^ wm -> ^
-> Thumari
(D) Thumari Prabandha -> Khayal
(D) -> 3f^V ^ IsRT^. ^ ^
^ Dhrupad
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115: ^ #T?T ^ 115. Which instrument is used for
^t ? . .. accompaniment in Dhrupad singing ?
(A) aqeii (A) Tabia
(B) (olei^ ■ (B) Dholak
(C) (C) Mridangam
(D) M<£il=l^ (D) Pakhawaj
116.^"nm 116. 'Softness and Sweetness' is the speciality
STT ^ Mw t ? of which Anga of Thumari singing ?
(A) ^ . (A) Punjabi Anga
(B) m (B) Purbi Anga
(C) 3TIT (C) Pachhai Anga
(D) ^ ^ "=1^* (D) None of the above
117. PHHrdfidd ■^. ^ t ? ■ 117. Which ofthe following pairs is different ?
(A) mRT-Pdcr^HI (A) Tarana-Tillana
(B) (B) Dhrupad-Padam
(C) (C) Aalap-Raagam
(D) ^a7T-■5^^■ (D) Tappa-Jawali
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■JE
118. Tim ^ ^ 118. Which singing style is also called
f? 'Swaravart' ?
(A) wm (A) Khayal
(B) (B) Swarmalika
(C) (C) Trivat
(D) TftcT (D) Lakshan Geet
119. 1?T ^ ^ 119. Which 'Gat is played in Druta Laya ?
t?
(A) Maseetkhani Gat
t
(A) TRflraRt Tm
(B) Firozkhani Gat
(B) tt^
(C) Razakhani Gat
(C) Tj^
(D) Tj^- (D) Zafarkhani Gat
120. ^ TSIRH ^ ; 120. Each line of 'Ghazal' is called :
(A) (A) Matla
(B) (B) Misra
(C) imr (C) Maqta
(D)
(D) Sher
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121. ^ ^ 121. Who is the writer of the book 'Bhartiya
f ? Sangeet Vadya' ?
(A) (A) Dr. Premlata Sharma
(B) WFI IF? (B) Dr. Laxmi Narayana Garg
(C) F. "^51^1^ 1^ (C) Pt. Thakur Jaidev Singh
(D) 1to . (D) Dr. Lai Mani Mishra
122. Pi^l^Raa ^tili'^i "^T?f ^ 122. Which of the following comes imder the
M ■# simT t ? category of string instruments ?
(A) W (B) ."^OTST (A) Jhanjh (B) Israj
(C) (D) TT^ (C) Nag Swaram (D) Mardal
123. ^ ^ f ? 123. \Wth what is the Sarod instrument
played ?
(A) 1f^3KR (B) ^
(A) Mizrab (B) Bow
(C) "5^1 •(D) F?«K
(C) Java (D) Stone
124. "3^ ^ ^^t ? 124. What is 'Murchang* instrument made
of?
(A), ^ (B)
(A) From Bronze (B) From Brass
(C) ^ (D)-"## ^
(C) From Copper (D) From Iron
(3)S/24/2024/A 23 P.T.O.
Text of page 26
125. ^ '3iiiq< 125. In the 'Chang Instrument' with the skin
of which animal the wooden ring is
^ ^511?n "I ?
covered ?
(A) ^ ^
I
(A) From the skin of a lion
(B) ^ ^
(B) From the skin of a sheep
(C) ^ (C) From the skin of a goat
(D) ^ ^ (D) From the skin of a buffalo
126. rnHRHRdci ^ ^ 126. Which of the following is South Indian
^i ? Instrument ?
(A) ^TT^ (B) ^ (A) Sarangi (B) Ghatam
(C) M^Mvji (D) (C) Pakhawaj (D) Rawanhattha
127. PHHr^Rdd ^ W^ 127. Which of the following is the Auspicious
■HlMPeldi ^ t ? Instrument of South India ?
(A) ^ (A) Dhol
(B) #5M (B) Khanjiri
(C) ^ (C) Ghatam
(D)
(D) Nag Swaram
(3)S/24/2024/A 24
rA
Text of page 27
128. Rd»°tl ^ W 'S'sil jlK ^ 128. How many main wires are used in
f? Dilruba Instrument ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 6 (C) 3 (D) 6
129. ^ ^^ 129. On the basis of which instrument the
!
cpt ^ ? Swar Mandal' was created ?
(A) W (A) Santoor
(B) (B) Chitra Veena
(C) (C) Brahma Veena
(D) ^ (D) Mattkokila Veena
130. Pi*-ifeii^ci
130. The 'Clarionet' instruments f^ls under
which of the following categories of the
, ^^ M ara t ?
instruments ?
(A) ^ ^T?I
(A) String Instrument
(B) ^
(B) Wind Instrument
(C) "SR ^ (C) Drum (Ghan) Instrument
(D) 3^^^ ^ra (D) Percussion Instrument
25 P.T.O.
(3)S/24/2024/A
Text of page 28
131. 'TTO. ^ "^WT 131. 'Pranava Rang' is pen name of which
t? Vaggeykar ?
(A) ""T. fqiiHcti XI^ (A) Ft. "N^nayak Rao Patwardhan
(B) i. ^iIR (B) Pt. Kumar Gandharva
(C) ■^. 3ta "^2? ■ (C) Pt. Omkamath Thakur
(D) U 1^ R*Mi (D) Pt, \^shnu Digamber Paluskar
132. SFPplf "f^ ^ cf)Qii'»)K 132. Annapuma Devi was an artist of which
8ff ? instrument mainly ?
(A) 1^ (B) ^ (A) Sur Singar (B) Sur Bahar
(C) ^ wnf (D) XT^ (C) Tar Shahnai (D) Sarod
133. XPftcf ^ iWT^ 1^ . 133. Which Kamataka musician is considered
Xfiftw ^ 1THT ^ t ? to be grandfather of South Indian
music ?
(A) it.
(A) P. Sambamurthy
(B) -3^=^ ^
(B) Purandar Das
(C) wn wit
(C) Shyama Shastri
(D) wft itfecTR
(D) Muttu Swami Dixitar
|3)S/24/2024/A 26
Text of page 29
134. 1975 artfW ^ 'Festival 134. Which musician conducted orchestra in
of India' ^ 'Festival of India' organised in America
^ . "^Flte)R ^ ®1T ?^ in the year 1975 ?
(A) ■^. (A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B) (B) Mozart
(C) "ten (C) Zubin Mehta
(D) . (D) Pannalal Ghosh
135. 1Nt 'SFTTW^' 'TRK' 135, Which Sitar player played Sitar in Hindi
^ ftidliciKH t ? film 'Anarkali' and 'Shabab' ?
(A) • (A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B) U "sit^ (B) Pt. Nayan Ghosh
(C) ^ (C) Ustad Inayat Khan
(D) <i«ii'^ 3^1^51 6eil^ WFX ^ (D) Ustad Abdul Halim Jafar Khan
136. PiHRrlRdd ^ f^ <+)dldiK ^ 136. Which-of the following artists has been
awarded with 'Bh^at Ratna' ?
XtT' ^ t ?
(A) Pt. Balwant Ray Bhatt
(A) ■^. XR
(B) Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan
(B) ^ U^IFT 31^
(C) Girija Devi
■ (C) Mm
(D) M. S Subbulaxmi
' (D) T^R. T^R.
{3)S/24/2024/A 27 P.T.O.
Text of page 30
137. ^ 137. The father and Guru of famous Vocalist
^ ^ fW ^STT "p of Kirana Gharana Ustad Abdul Kareem
I
Khan was :
(A) <i«ii«\ ^ y
(A) Ustad Kale Khan
(B) eiHfiH ^ (B) Ustad Hashim Khan
(C) "3^ (C) Ustad Inayat Khan
(D) M (D) Ustad Bahram Khan
138. '^. ^flR ^ RHfeifed ^ 1^, 138. Which the following Ragas is created by
TFT ^ i" ? Pt. Kumar Gandharva ?
. (A) ^ (B) M<Aiici<T (A) Ahiri Todi (B) Parmeshwari
(C) ^ (D) ddM^d (C) Saheli Todi (D) Natmanjari
139. "F. ■^TOI TTOK mm] m ^ 139. When and where was Pt. Samta Prasad-
^ W ^1371 8^? [Gudai Maharaj] bom ?
(A) 1921 ^RPRft (A) In 1921 at Kabir Choura, Varanasi
(B) 1901 37^ dKiui^l (B) In 1901 at Assi Ghat, Varanasi
(C) 1921 31^# W, ^RPrat (C) In 1921 at Assi Ghat, Varanasi
(D) 1901 WRft (D) In 1901 at Kabir Choura, Varanasi
(3)S/24/2024/A 28
Text of page 32
143. "RWRT^ ^ Wn ^ 143. Gokhale Gharana of Maharastra is a sub-
^^ 4q^ll<sil t -? branch of which music Gharana ?
(A) Mfc^lcll (B) R*rxnl (A) Patiala . (B) Delhi
(C) (D) (C) Kirana (D) Benaras.
144. TFT ^^ *Tn^ ^ "EIT 311^* 144. The popular Bandish of Rag Jog 'Sajan
More Ghar Aaye' is associated with
which Gharana ?
(A) (B) i^<rci)
(A) Jaipur (B) Delhi
(C) I^JIFTT (D) 3TO (C) Kirana (D) Agra
145. qinn<\ afRlt ?IT^ UTT ^oil 145. Which singing style was promoted and
^ "SMT-lITnT fe'IT ? popularised by Nawab Wajid Ali Shah ?
(A)^ (B) ^ (A) Thumari (B) Chaity
(G) ^ (D) ^[wRt (C) Hori (D) Kajari
146. ^ STRn^T 1415. Who was the first person to introduce
Tl^jm ftJTT^ 1^ "? play back singing in Indian Cinema ?
(A) "#7^ "a^I^T (A) Khemchandra Prakash
(B) TFT^ (B) Ramchandra Boral
(C) 1?^ #T . ' (C) Mushtaq Hussain
(D) ^tPpt ^sTfaRff (D) Amiy Chakravarti
(3)S/24/2024/A 30
Text of page 33
147. WTfW ^ ^ WT ^ 147. Man Singh Tomar is associated with
t ? which singing style ?
(A) . (B) (A) Dhrupad (B) Dhamar
(C) (D) Hon (C) Khyal (D) Tappa
148. W ^ 1^ ^ ■148. In which city of India is Sangeet
■^* f^ t ? Research Academy located ?
(A) "fe# , (B) ^ (A) Delhi (B). Mumbai
(C) d<2H<i> (D) <*ileichiai (C) Lucknow (D) Kolkata
149. ^ aqptk 1^ "nm 149. Sthayee, Antra, Sanchari and Aabhog are
WT "f ? four parts of which singing style ?
I
(A) Tsqra (A) Khyal
(B) (B) Thumari
(C) ^ (C) Dhrupad
(D) ^ (D) Hori
150. M^o gnfl i=ba^ sfift nf «iRft 150. Thumari is mainly performed in how
t ? many Angas ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 (C) 3 (D) 4
(3)S/24/2024/A 31 P.T.O,
Text of page 34
^ in (Part III)
91. *"3?* ^ ^^ 91. Scripturist denotes 'Guru' Aksharkaal by
which name ?
(A) (B) (A) Kaal (B) Kala
(C) (D) ^ (C) Shastra (D) Laghu
92. sratM?- •■^ ■95^ ^ t 92. Atitgraha is known by.
(A) (B) (A) Samapani (B) Avapani
(C) dMRmP"! (D) 1Wi* (C) Upari Pani (D) "N^sham Pani
93. +Hk'*1 tit# 93. Camatic Taals are also known
^ t I as.
(A) TM (A) Sapta Taal
(B) W (B) Sapta Suladi
(C) W ■ (C) Shashtha Suladi
(D) (D) Salag Suladi
94. ^ ^ M 3TR1T 94. Bheri falls under. category of
t I instruments.
(A) ^ (A) String instrument
(B) ^RT (B) Percussion instrument
(C) (C) Wind instrument
(D) "^RI (D) Ideophones
(3)S/24/2024/A 32
Text of page 35
95, 95 Layakari happens when
^t I Jhaptaal is played in Keherwa.
(A) «II^ (B) 1^3TTf . (A) Aad (B) Biaad
(C) "^Si^ (D) (C) Paunguni (D) Kuaad
96. dldPdrM "q^ 1^ "qM ^ 96. For which beat there is no provision of
any sign in Paluskar Taal notation
1^ PhtH 1^ ^ ^?
system ?
(A) 1/6 (B) 1/2
(A) 1/6 (B) 1/2
(C) 1/4 (D) 1/5 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/5
97. ^ W ^Heit ^ 135 97. In Camatic music seven Taals are
converted into 135 Taals by which
drq ^ o(ici ?
principle ?
(A) ^
(A) JatiBhed
(B) -qf^^
(B) Gati Bhed
.. (C) ^-^rfq ^ (C) Jati-Gati Bhed
I
(D)^ ^ (D) Laghu Bhed
98. -d-gdiid ^ IWlFf T7i^* 98. Number of beats of Chachhput Taal in
? Chitramarg would be :
(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10 ■
(C) 14 (D) 22 (C) 14 . (D) 22
/
(3)S/24/20247A 33 P.T.O,
Text of page 36
99. "STO ^ ^ 99. Which composition is called as 'Ekkad'?
t ?
(A) Tukda
(A)^
(B) Gat
(B) "ncT
(C) Nauhakka
(C)
(D) (D) Fard
100. MOO' TO ^ t ? 100. MOO' sign denotes which Taal ?
(A) P TO (A) Dhruv Taal
(B) "RS TO (B) Matha Taal
(C) cM (C) Triput Taal
(D) 37^ TO (D) Atha Taal
101. TFT TT^WT "ferr TT^ 101. In which book is Raag technically
t ? described for first time ?
(A) ^n^^RTR^ (A) Natyashastra
(B) (B) Brihaddeshi
,(C) TFftcT (C) Sangeet Manjusha
(D) TFftcf ^ (D) Sangeet Bodh
'»■
(3)S/24/2024/A 34
Text of page 37
102. ^ 102. How many characteristics ofVaggeyakara
t. ? in the Granth *Sangeet Ratnakar'?
(A) 28 (B) 26 (A) 28 (B) 26
(C) 20 (D) 15 (C) 20 (D) 15
103. U'^if ^' ^ SflT^irC^ clc^ 103. How many important facts of the Taal
t ,? have been considered in the Scriptures ?
(A) ^ (B) -^' (A) Four (B) Five
(C) w (D) ^ .(C) Seven (D) Ten
104. I^PcFft «nM ^^ 104. How many Jaties are described in
w t? *Natyashastra' ?
(A) (B) (A) Fourteen (B) Sixteen
(C) 37gR^ (D)^ (C) Eighteen (D) Twenty
105.'W w ^ ^ 105. Who is the author of Granth 'Bharat
t ? Bhashyam' ?
(A) ^IFT^ (A) Nanyadev
(B) (B) Sharangdev
(C) (C) Matang
(D) (D) Narad
(3)S/24/2024/A 35 P.T.O.
Text of page 38
106. t ? 106. Which is Nihshabda Kriya in Taal ?
(A) (B) cTT^ (A) Sam (B) Tali
(C) (D) (C) Khali (D) Laya
107. '^HklMl41' 1^ Tf^ ^ ^t ? 107. Which book is called 'Saptadhayayi' ?
(A) ■^TTSW^ (A) Natyashastra
(B) (B) Sangeet Makrand
(C) m I (C) Raag : Ek Adhyayan
(D) (D) Sangeet Ratnakar
108. ^ ^ t ? 108. Who is the writer of 'Tabla Puran' ?
(A) qIM "f^ST (A) Pandit Chhote Lai Mishra
(B)i wr wrf (B) Bhagwat Sharan Sharma
(C). ai<iui (C) Arun Kumar Sen
(D) "fe 1^ 1tt«I (D) Pandit "V^jay Shankar Mishra
109. ^ aiiPc^HK^ ^ ? 109. The Kinnari Veena was discovered by :
(A) TO (B) TO (A) Bharat (B) Matang
(C) Wl^ (D) (C) Sharangdev (D) Shriniwas
110. ^VlHI'41 TO TO?ft 8ft ? 110. Which instrument was played by
Dr. Yogmaya Shukla ?
(A) (B) TOITO
(A) Flute (B) Pakhawaj
(C) cITOT (D) TOf^ (C) Tabla (D) Violin
(3)S/24/2024/A 36
Text of page 39
111. ^ 111. State -the composition whose beginning
Mdld ^: and ending phrases seems confusing :
(A)^ (B) ^ . (A) Ladi (B) Rela
(G) ^rim (D) 'm (0) Quaida (D) Gat
112. ^ ■^* 315^ 5ffe 3TO ^ t : 112. The 1^ syllable used in Rela is :
(A) (A) Sayuktakshar
(B) ^ (B) Vowel
(0) (C) Consonant
(D) "^f (D) None of the above
113. -Tft ■^" #I ^ 113. In which Gat three degree of Laya is
t? played ?
(A) (A) Manjhedar Gat
I
(B) fef ^ (B) Tilai Manjhedar Gat
(C) (C) Tripadi Gat
(D) "fRr' (D) Tipalli Gat
114. ^ "^f "51^^ ^ 3TITO ^ 114. The smallest expendable composition
iq«iK<^ t : used in Tabla is :
(A) % (B) ^ (A) Rela (B) Bant
(C) ^ (D) wit (C) Ladi (D) Laggi
(3)S/24/2024/A 37 P.T.O.
Text of page 40
115. ^ 115. The trend of Theka probably started
: from:
(A) (A) Ancient Times
(B) ii«2T P)- Middle Age
(C) ^ (C) Modem Era
(D) aftWRl^ ^ p) Colonial Era
116. H^ldtelHl TTcT "Sn^ ^ t 116. Masitkhani Gat begins from :
(A) ^R?^* -qr^ (A) Twelveth Matra
(B) -RM ^ p) Thirteenth Matra
(C) Tm i{ (C) Ninth Matra
P) '^m ^ P) Seventh Matra
117. * rilsi' "0^1 ^ : 117. The word Toda' is used in :
(I) te -^f P Sitar
(II) (II) Kathak Dance
(A) chqoi (I) (A) Only p
p) (II) P) Only (n)
(C) ® ^^^' (H) (C) Both p and (0)
P)"5^^ ^^ p) None of the above
(3)S/24/2024/A 38
Text of page 41
118. : 118. Sadra is a :
(A) 1^ (A) Dhrupad composed in Jhaptaal
(B) (B) Dhamar composed in Jhaptaal
(C) (C) Chhotakhyal composed in Jhaptaal
(D) T? 1^ .(D) Badakhyal composed in Jhaptaal
119. ; •• '•jtimi.' ^ "^fl^ 119 is known as the element of
■ t I Kathak Dance.
(A) ^ (A) Thaat
. (B) ^ ' (B) Toda
(C) tRpJR (C) Tatkar
(D) (D) Paran
120. Wni3^ *3^^' -g^." 120; As per tradition the sequence of'Aamad'
in Kathak Dance is after :
- (A) HJf-qiq^ (A) Paran
/
(B) aq^«ftK "% Tatkar .
(C) cfe ^ (C) Toda
(D) BR (D) Thaat
1
{3)S/24/2024/A 39 P.T.O.
Text of page 42
121. aicTO ^ ^^ 121. The percussion instruments" in which
there was no arrangement for tuning,
'l^l ®ft| HsR ^<d ^ "3^ "f^i^T
Maharishi Bharat considered them us
3™ ^ ^^ t ?
which type of instruments ?
(A) (B) WT
(A) Ashtang (B) Upang
(C) 3Ic^ (D)^ (C) Pratyang (D) Chaturang
122. ^ "3^^ U'^T 122. In which ancient musical text, Rudra
ten t ? Veena is mentioned for the first time ?
(A) ^TT^59TR^ (A) Natyashastra
(B) (B) Sangeetsudha
(C) #Tt3 11^ (C) Sangeet Makrand
(D) (D) Briahaddeshi
123. Pi*^Rifed Chilli Siqiifi ^TU 123. Which of the following instruments is a
f ? percussion instrument ?
(A) sT^mt^ (B) wfsr (A) Algoja (B) Jayghanta
(C) =bddlei (D) (C) Kathtaal (D) Panav
124. ni'dld "^iT^ STT^fro sleigh ^ <^1^ 124. By which name, the modem Dholak was
."TO ^ «iHT "^TRTI 8^1 7 • known is the ancient times ?
(A) (B) ^
(A) Panav (B) Patah
(C) (D)
(C) Upang (D) Hudukka
(3)S/24/2024/A 40
Text of page 43
125. wTf^. mm 125. Which musical instrument is generally
m chli'A «si§.(nRi n<i*\ "f^rqr ^irar used iii temples and on auspicious
t ? occasions in South India ? •
(A) 3TePil^ (A) Algoja
(B) ^ . (B) Sundari
(C)^ (C) Flute
(D) (D) Naagswaram
126. it 126. Name the instrument which is smaller in
^ itk ^ «t>5i ^lai "t ? length but similar to Shehanai ?
(A)^ ■ (B) ^ (A) Sundari (B) Vanshi
(C) -Rl^ (D) RTf^. (C) Mahuvari (D) Payika
127. "Rf^ ^ "^TT^T ^fR% ^ "5^: 127, Which percussion instrument is mainly.
3iqio& ^ "SPitR Ph^l ^101 used for accompaniment with M^puri
dance ?
(A) %T (A) Chenda
(B)
(B) Tavil
(C) "fMir
(C) Gangira
(D)
(D) Khol
(3)S/24/2024/A 41 p.T.o;
Text of page 44
128. ^ ^ ^ snro 128. What : is the name of small-sized
^ «fRfT ^ "3^ ^ instrument which is played dong with
t? . . V ■ .' .Nakkara or N^gara ?
(A) Tra (B) (A) Tabl, (B) Jhil
(C) ^ (D) W (C) Ghat (D) Jhanjh
129. nia ^ Hi'iwH, <j<;<=iKH 129. Which percussion instrument is specially
^ fq<(l«l ^ 3iqiS) qiEJ ^ used^to accompany the Nagaswaram
ipilt l^i'ir -sM f ? . ensemble in South India ?
(A) alq« (A) Tavil
. (B) (B) Nakkara
(C)
(C) Mridangam
(D)
; (D) Khol
130. fFifefeir # ^ ^iNrai nftra ^iwirt 130. l^^ch among the following is popular
sraro ^ra ^ ? percussion instruments in Western
\ ,
music?
(A) Brf
(A) Harp
(B)
(B) Trumpet
(C) ^fer
(C) Cattle
(D) , (D) Bag-pipper
(3)S/24/2024/A 42
Text of page 45
131.^ ^ 'Ito ^ "^n^' "TO 131. Which artist is called as 'Sitar Kai
I^
-3^ w t ? Jadugar' ? '
(A) r^dHd ^ (A) ^^ayat Khan
(B) ^ (B) Imdad Khan
(C) ^ (C) Ravi Shankar
(D) -^0301 sefln WTiT • (D) Abdul Halim Jafar Khan
\ •.
132. di^l+K 133? 31^ "q^ai^ "34 132. Which artist was "a good Pakhawaj
player, talented Tabla player and a dancer
cR^ TWT 'jrH^hK 'ft ^ ?
too ? '
(A) IMI HH-^
(A) Nana Panse
(B) ^5r "ftf?
(B) Kudau Singh
(C) "^TFl^ ^
(C) Pagai Das .'
(D)' 3Fft«zir 31^ (D) Ayodhya P^ad,
133. ^ ^ W ^ t ?• 133. Who is known as 'Thirakwa of South'?
(A) Mldi^ld (A) Palghat Mani Iyer
1
\
(B) Yikka Vinayak Ram
(B) fqiiH**) TR
' / •
(C) Sheikh Daud Khan
(C) ^13^ "M
(D) Ahmed Jan Thirakuwa
(D) 3^3
(3)S/24/2024/A 43 - P.T.O.
Text of page 46
134. WK ^ ftcn -m 134. What was the name of father of Ustad
^7 Bismillah Khan ?
(A) ^ 31^ -d" (A) Ali Akbar Khan
(B) (B) Faiyaz Khan
(C) 3TOk . (C) Amir Khan
(D) -TOfT (D) Ustad Paigambar Bakhsh
135. "q. 3T^ TOm 135. Ft. Aijim Shejwal is disciple of which
^t ? , Pakhawaj player ?
(A) -q^ (A) Panvat Singh
(B) MKN'JI chleil (B) Narayan Koli
(C) ^ "qFiT^ (C) Nana Panase
(D) W# fw (D) Chatrapati Singh
136. fqiH ^nw ch<nichK ^ qiilicfi 136. Which singer artist was awarded the
^ ii<^K "qqiq National Award for classical Camatic
iRT ? music ?
(A) T^q. T^^T. (A) M. S. Subbalaxmi
• (B) ^ (B) Hari Shankar
(C) qm qRT (C) Pagal Das
(D) PiRaoi (D) Nikhil Ghosh
(3)S/24/2024/A 44
Text of page 47
137."3^ -g^fk ^ WRT 137. The tradition of Ustad Munir Khan is
^^ ^t I also known by. name.
(A) WTS wn (A) Raigarh Gharana
(B) dPel^HI ^ • (B) Laliyana Ba^
(C) IWR "^TIFTT (C) Hyderabad Gharana
(D) wn (D). Bombay Gharana
138. a«ieii ^ 138. Which Tabla player said this sentence for
^ -zr^ -M Ustad Natthu Khan ; "Natthu Khan
q>31lJ ^ie1 ^ xl^W Sahab does not play Tabla, he writes
t I" ^ . Tabla with golden ink".
(A) srik 1^ (A) Amir Hussain Khan
(B) ^ (B) Habibuddin Khan
(C) fimsT# ■rf' (C) Inamali Khan
(D) (D) Ahamadjan Thirakwa
139. 3?^^ H^KN g? ' 139. Who was the Kathak Guru of Achchhan
? . Maharaj ?
(A) kRIRI (A) Sitara Devi
(B) TlfRR (B) Maharaj Bindadin
(C) 1^ (C) Biiju Maharaj
(D) "PWRR (D) Lachchhu Maharaj
140. ^l4sh^ 1^ 140. The program 'East-Meets-West' is related
^ t ? to which Tabla player ?
(A) ^nf^ 1^ (B) 1^ ^ (A) Zakir Hussain (B) Vikram Ghosh
(C) ^ ^ (D) ^^K44dl (C) ChaturLal (D) Allarakkha
(3)S/24/2024/A 45 P.T.O,
Text of page 48
141. T5Fn t : 141. Which is a Khali-Bhari based composition
?
(A) "qriT (B)
(A) Paran^ (B) Kayda
(C) felf (D) (C) Tihai (D) Mukhada
142. 1^^ '^* Ito «nf^ ^ chi<<^ »j^KlcK 142. In which Gharana Tishra Jati Kayda's are
^t ? mostly played ?
(A) fscml (A) Delhi
(B) (B) Banaras
(C) 3T5Rrsr (C) Ajarada
(D) (D) Punjab
143."3^ f8R^ 143. In which institute was Ustad Ahmadjan
^ Pl^<W ^ ? Thirakwa appointed as a professor ?
(A) v^. T^R. I5r7^f^gi^-«[jkr (A) M. S. University-Baroda
(B) (B) Khairagarh University-Khairagarh
(C) TPSIT HURi'^ (C) Raja Man Singh Tomar University -
Gwalior
(D) VIdWi "RETf^Ul^- (D) Bhatkhande Hindustani Sangeet
W337
Mahavidyalaya - Lucknow
(3)S/24/2024/A 46
Text of page 49
144. ^ ^ 144. Which Gharana of Takhavaj did Pandit
^ llfclf^ 4)<rll4>K ^ 7 Ambadas Pant Agle represent ?
(A) '1MI (B) tw (A) Nana Panase (B) Kudau Singh
(C) Je4lRrl^< (D) '^TT«TgRT (C) Gwalior (D) Nathdwara
145.^ JmR ^ •^. ^ 145. Which king gave a respected position to
vm 1^ ? p^dit Kudau Singh in his court ?
(A) fc^j^cnnq ^ (A) Mahmja \^shwanath Singh
(B) TRI TR (B) Raja Gangadhar Rao
(C) ^ (C) Shri Jodh Singh
(D) «RRt ftf? (D) Maharaj Bhawani Singh
146. w# Ht? "q^gm ^ 1^ "sri^ 146. Raja Chatrapati Singh represented which
^ 4)<rll4iK ^ ? Gharana of Pakhawaq ?
(A) qHT Hii^ (A) Nana Panase
(B) ■^^3? 1^ (B) Kudau Singh
(C) "wm (C) Nathdwara
(D) M^l«1 (D) Punjab
147. ^ t^RIR ^ ^ t ? 147. Expansion of Laggi is called :
(A) (B) (A) Ladant (B) Laggi-Nada
(G) Tf^ (D) ^ (C) Ravish (D) Bant
(3)S/24/2024/A 47 P.T.O.
Text of page 50
148. ^ to ^ ^^ ? 148. Who was Guru of Ft. Biru Mishra ?
(A) 3TT^ ^ (A) Abid Hussain Khan
(B) (B) Wajid Hussain Khan
(C) % Tm (C) ModuKhan
(D) W7 to (D) Janaki Sahay Mishra
149. ^ Wff ^ ^•' 149., We find the History of Pakhawaj Gharana
^ "RM ^ t I from century.
(A) 16^* (B) 17^* (A) 16th (B) 17th
(C) 18^*- (D) 19^ (C) 18th (D) 19th
150. Til. ^rto tor tomtom 150. In which Institute was Prof. Sudhir Kumar
Saxena employed ?
?i7nfcT ^ ?
(A) Raja Mansingh Tomar University -
(A) XRT hmP^*^ tor -
Gwalior
(B) Banaras Hindu University -
(B) 1?^ fq^qPqyKriH - ■^Rrafl Varanasi
(C) Maharaja Sayaji Rao University -
(C) H^KM w^fto
Baroda
(D) Bhatkhande Sangeet University -
(D) s=TRi^ #te. Lucknow
(3)S/24/2024/A 48
Text of page 51
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORIQ
, ^
I.
(
' t
I
f •
t '■
S/24/2024/A
Text of page 52
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. This Question Booklet is printed in two languages—Hindi and English. Candidates can select
any one ofthe two languages according to their convenience.
2. Examinee whose optional subjetA is Music and Percussion,they have to answer 100 questions in
total. There.are three parts in the question paper.Part I is compulsoiy,in which there are 40
questions—in the order of51 to 90,PartII has60 questions in order of91to 150. This partis for
Music subject and Part m has 60 questions in order of91 to 150. This part is for Percussion
subject. Candidates should note thatPartI is compulsory for both Music and Percussion and
Part I and n are for Music or Part I and HI are for Percussion. Examinee should clearly
mention in the OMR Sheet whether opted Music or Percussion.
3. Each question has four options. There is only one correct answer to each question. Choose the
appropriate option and d£urken/blacken the corresponding circle on the Answer Sheet(OMR Sheet)
with black point pen.
4. In this examination there are two question papers,consisting of150 objective type questions and
each question carries 2 marks. Both the question papers and all the questions are compulso^.
Two(2)marks shall be awarded for each correct answer. Unanswered question will npt be given"
any marks. There is no provisions for Negative Marking.
Paper I General paper (Q« No.1-50)
Paper IIQuestion paper on the Subject opted by the examinee (Q.No.51-160)
5. No. of pages consisting ofthis quei^on booklet is indicated over the cover page. Candidates are
advised to ensure that allthe pages ofQuestion Booklet are properly printed and binded.Otherwise
they may demand the other Question Booklet ofthe same set.
6. Kindly make necessary entries on the Answer Sheet(OMR Sheet)only atthe places indicated and
. nowhere else.
7. Exaniinee should do all rough work on the spaces meantfor rou^ work on the pages given in the
Question Bpoldet and nowhere else, not even on the Answer Sheet(OMR Sheet).
8. Ifthere is any sort of mistake either of printing or offactual nature in any question, then out of
• the Hindi and English versions ofthe question,the Hindi version will be treated as standard one.
'9. Use of any type of calculator,log table or any type of electronic devices etc. are not allowed;
10. Use onty black ball point pen to mark the answers in the Answer Sheet(OMR Sheet)only after
you are instructed to open the Question Booklet.
11. Candidates will leave the Examination Hall only after handing over the Answer Sheet(OMR
Sheet)to'the.Invigilator at the end ofthe examination.
12. Before answering on Answer Sheet(OMR Sheet)ensure to follow the instructions given
for that.-
S/24/2024/A
Text of page 2
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
Computer Science and A ^plication (22)
Answer Answer Answer Answer
Key Key Key Key
A B C D /Option A B C D /Option A B C D /Option A B C D /Option
51 131 101 71 B 76 ' 56 126 96 D 101 81 51 121 D 126 106 76 146 B
52 132 102 72 A 77 57 127 97 B 102 82 52 122 D 127 107 77 147 B
53 133 103 73 D 78 58 128 98 C 103 83 53 123 B. 128 108 78 148 A
54 134 104 74 D 79 59 129 99 B 104 84 54 124 D 129 109 79 149 A
55 135 105 75 C 80 60 130 100 B 105 85 55 125 B 130 110 80 150 D
56 136 106 76 C - 81 61 131 101 B 106 86 56 126 A 131 111 81 51 C
57 137 107 77 A 82 62 132 102 A 107 87 57 127 B 132 112 82 52 B
58 138 108 78 A 83 63 133 103 D 108 88 58 128 C 133 113 83 53 C
59 139 109 79 B- ■ 84 64 134 104 C 109 89 59 ■ 129 D 134 114 84 54 B
60 140 110 80 D 85 65 135 105 C 110 90 60 130 D 135 115 85 55 C
61 141 111 81 C 86 66 136 106 D 111 91 61 131 B 136 116 86 56 B
62 142 112 82 B 87 67 137 107 A 112 92 62 132 D. 137 117 87 57 D
63 143 113 83 B 88 . 68 138 108 D 113 93 63 133 D 138 118 88 58 B
64 144 114 84 . B 89 69 139 109 B 114 94 64 134 D 139 119 89 59 C
65 145 115 85 B 90 70 140 110 B 115 95 65 135 A 140 120 90 60 C
66 ■146 116 86 A 91 71 141 111 D 116 96 66 136 C 141 121 91 61 A
67 147 117 87 C 92 72 142 112 A 117 97 67 137 A 142 122 92 62 A
68 148 118 88 D 93 73 143 113 B 118 98 68 138 C 143 123 93 63 B.D
69 149 119 89 B 94 74 144 114 A 119 99 69 139 D 144 124 94 64 A
70 150 120 90 C 95 75 145 115 D 120 100 70 140 A 145 125 95 65 D
71 51 121 91 c ■ 96 76 146 116 A 121 ' 101 71 141 D 146 126 96 66 A
72 52 122 92 D 97 77 147 117 B 122 102 72 142 C 147 127 97 67 D
73 53' 123 93 D 98 ; 78 148 118 C 123 103 73 143 B 148 128 98 68 A
74 54 124 94 C 99 79 149 119 B 124 104 74 144 C 149 129 99 69 D
75 55 125 95 B. 100 80 150 120 : A 125 105 75 145 D 150 130 100 70 C
Text of page 3
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
Defence and Strategic Stuc ies (23)
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 121 91 81 A 76 146 116 106 A 101 71 141 131 B 126 96 66 56 C
52 122 92 82 B 77 147 117 107 C 102 72 142 132 A 127 97 67 57 A
53 123 93 83 D 78 148 118 108 A 103 73 143 133 C, 128 98 68 58 B
54 124 94 84 C 79 149 119 109 B 104 74 144 134 A 129 99 69 59 B,
55 125 95 85 B 80 150 120 110 B 105 75 145 135 B 130 100 70 60 D
56 126 96 86 C 81 51 121 111 C 106 76 146 136 A 131 101 71 61 C
57 127 97 87 B 82 52 122 112 A 107 77 147 137 C 132 102 72 62 D
58 128 98 88 A 83 53 123 113 D 108 78 148 138 D 133 103 73 63 C
59 129 99 89 B 84 54 124 114 B 109 79 149 139 C 134 104 74 64 C
60 130 100 90 B 85 55 125 115 D 110 80 150 140 B 135 105 75 65 B
61 131 101 91 B 86 56 126 116 A 111 81 51 141 B 136 106 76 66 D
62 132 102 92 C 87 57 127 117 C 112 82 52 142 C 137 107 77 67 C
63 133 103 93 B 88 58 128 118 B 113 83 53 143 D 138 108 78 68 A
64 134 104 94 C 89 59 129 119 D 114 84 54 144 B 139 109 79 69 B
65 135 105 95 A' 90 60 130 120 C 115 85 55 145 C 140 110 80 70 D
66 136 106 96 B 91 61 131 121 D 116 86 56 146 D 141 111 81 71 C
67 137 107 97 B 92 . 62 132 122 C 117 87 57 147 D 142 112 82 72 B
68 138 108 98 B. 93 63 133 123 A 118 88 58 148 A 143 113 83 73 C
69 139 109 99 C 94 64 134 124 B 119 89 59 149 D 144 114 84 74 B
70 140 110 100 D 95 65 135 125 D 120 90 60 150 C 145 115 85 75 D
71 141 111 101 A 96 66 136 126 C 121 91 61 51 C 146 116 86 76 A
72 142 112 102 D 97 67 137 127 B 122 92 62 52 B 147 117 87 77 B
73 143 113 103 D 98 68 138 128 1 C 123 93 63 53 A 148 118 88 78 D
74 144 114 104 A . 99 69 139 129 B 124 94 64 54 C 149 119 89 79 C
75 145 115 i05 B : 100 : 70" 140 130 A 125 95 65 55 A 150 120 90 80 A
Text of page 4
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
EARTH SCIENCE (25)
Answer Answer/ Answer Answer/
A B C D /Option A B C D Option A B C D /Option A B C D Option
51 131 101 81 A 76 56 126 106 A 101 81 51 131 D 126 106 76 56 A
52 132 102 82 C 77 57 127 107 B 102 82 52 132 A 127 107 77 57 D
53 133 103 83 C 78 58 128 108 A 103 83 53 133 D 128 108 78 58 A
54 134 104 84 B 79 59 129 109 C 104 84 54 134 A 129 109 79 59 B
55 135 105 85 C 80 60 130 110 B 105 85 55 135 C 130 110 80 60 C
56 136 106 86 B 81 61 131 111 B 106 86 56 136 C 131 111 81 61 B
57 137 107 87 D 82 62 132 112 D 107 87 57 137 B 132 112 82 62 C
58 138 108 88 D 83 63 133 113 B 108 88 58 138 B 133 113 83 63 A
59 139 109 89 B 84 64 134 114 D 109 89 59 139 A 134 114 84 64 B
60 140 110 90 C 85 65 135 115 A 110 90 60 140 B 135 115 85 65 B
61 141 111 91 C 86 66 ' 136 116 A 111 91 61 141 A 136 116 86 66 A
62 142 112 92 A 87 67 137 117 B 112 92 62 142 B 137 117 87 67 D
63 143 113 93 D 88 68 138 118 B 113 93 63 143 C 138 118 88 68 D,
64 144 114 94 A 89 69 139 119 C 114 94 64 144 A 139 119 89 69 A
65 145 115 95 A 90 70 140 120 C 115 95 65 145 D 140 120 90 70 D
66 146 116 96 B 91 71 141 121 A 116 96 66 146 B 141 121 91 71 A
67 147 117 97 . C 92 72 142 122 B 117 97 67 147 D 142 122 92 72 C
68 148 118 98 D 93 73 143 123 C 118 98 68 148 A 143 123 93 73 B
69 149 119 99 C 94 74 144 124 D 119 99 69 149 C 144 124 94 74 C
70 150 120 100 c 95 75 145 125 B 120 100 70 150 B 145 125 95 75 C
71 51 121 101 c 96 76 146 126 C 121 101 71 51 B 146 126 96 76 D
72 52 122 102 D 97 77 147 127 C 122 102 72 52 D 147 127 97 77 A
73 53 123 103 C 98 78 148 128 A 123 103 73 53 D 148 128 98 78 B
74 54 124 104 A 99 79 149 129 D 124 104 74 54 C 149 129 99 79 A
75 55 125 105 C 100 80 .150 130 B 125 105 75 55 C 150 130 100 80 A
Text of page 5
State Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
HOME SCIENCE (09)
Answer/ Answer/O Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B C D pHon A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 131 111 91 C 76 56 136 116 C 101 81 61 141 B 126 106 86 66 B
52 132 112 92 C 77 57 137 117 D 102 82 62 142 A^ 127 107 87 67 A
53 133 113 93 A 78 58 138 118 B 103 83 63 143 A 128 108 88 68 D
54 134 114 94 A 79 59 139 119 B 104 84 64 144 C 129 109 89 69 D
55 135 115 95 B 80 60 140 120 C 105 85 65 145 D 130 110 90 70 A
56 136 116 96 D 81 61 141 121 C 106 86 66 146 C 131 111 91 71 C
57 137 117 97 D 82 62 142 122 B 107 87 67 147 A 132 112 92 72 A
58 138 118 98 C 83 63 143 123 A 108 88 68 148 D 133 113 93 73 B
59 139 119 99 D 84 64 144 124 B 109 89 69 149 D 134 114 94 74 C
60 140 120 100 B 85 65 145 125 C 110 90 70 150 B' 135 115 95 75 D
61 141 121 101 B 86 66 146 126 B 111 91 71 51 B 136 116 96 76 C
62 142 122 102 C 87 67 147 127 D 112 92 72 52 C 137 117 97 77 A
63 143 123 103 B,C 88 68 148 128 B 113 93 73 53 c 138 118 98 78 A'
64 144 124 104 D 89 69 149 129 C 114 94 74 54 D 139 119 99 79 C
65 145 125 105 C 90 70 150 130 D 115 95 75 55 B 140 120 100 80 A
66 146 126 106 D 91 71 51 131 D 116 96 76 56 C 141 121 101 81 C
67 147 127 107 D 92 72 52 132 B 117 97 77 57 A 142 .122 102 82 B
68 148 128 108 B 93 73 53 133 C 118 98 78 58 A 143 123 103 83 C
69 149 129 109 A 94 74 ■ 54 134 B 119 99 79 59 D 144 124 104 D
84
70 150 130 110 D 95 75 55 135 D 120 100 80 60 D 145 125 105 85 D
71 51 131 111 C 96 76 56 136 B 121 101 81 61 B 146 126 106 A
86
72 52 132 112 A 97 77 57 137 A 122 102 82 62 D 147 127 107 87 A
73 53 133 113 C 98 78 58 138 C 123 103 83 63 A 148 128 108 88 D
74 54 134 114 B 99 79 59 139 A 124 104 84 64 B 149 129 109 89 C
75 55 135 115 D 100 80 60 140 B 125 105 85 65 C 150 130 110 90 A
Text of page 6
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
MUSIC (24) PART I AND 11
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B c D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 81 71 61 B 76 66 56 86 B 101 141 131 121 B 126 106 96 146 B
52 82 72 62 A 77 67 57 87 D 102 142 132 122 D 127 107 97 147 D
53 83 73 63 C. 78 68 58 88 B 103 143 133 123 D 128 108 98 148 A
54 84 74 64 A 79 69 59 89 D 104 144 134 124 B 129 109 99 149 D
55 85 75 65 B 80 70 60 90 C 105 145 135 125 D 130 110 100 150 B
56 86 76 66 C 81 71 61 51 A 106 146 136 126 A 131 111 101 91 C
57 87 77 67 D 82 72 62 52 C 107 147 137 127 D 132 112 102 92 B
58 88 78 68 C S3 73 63 53 A 108 148 138 128 A 133 113 103 93 B
59 89 79 69 B 84 74 64 54 D. 109 149 139 129 B 134 114 104 94 C
60 90 80 70 A 85 75 65 55 D 110 150 140 130 B 135 115 105 95 D
61 51 81 71 ■ C 86 76 66 56 B 111 91 141 131 C 136 116 106 96 D
62 52 82 72 D 87 , 77 67 57 A 112 92 142 132 D' 137 117 107 97 A
63 53 83 73 C 88 78 68 58 B' 113 93 143 133 B 138 118 108 98 C
64 54 84 74 c 89 79 69 59 C 114 94 144 134 C 139 119 109 99 A
65 55 85 75 c 90 80 70 60 A 115 95 145 135 D 140 120 110 100 A
66 56 86 76 D 91 131 121 111 A- 116 96 146 136 B 141 121 111 101 D
67 57 87 77 C 92 132 122 112 D 117 97 147 137 D 142 122 112 102 D
68 58 88 78 C 93 133 . 123 113 C 118 98 148 138 B. 143 123 113 103 C
69 59 89 79 A ; 94 134 124 114 D, 119 99 149 139 C 144 124 114 104 D
70 60 90 80 A 95 135 125 , 115 A 120 IQO 150 140 B 145 125 115 105 A
71 61 51 81 B . 96 136 126 116 D 121 101 91 141 D 146 126 116 106 B
72 62 52 82 , C 97 137 127 : 117 B 122 102 92 142 B 147 127 117 107 A
73 63 53 83 C 98 138 . 128 : 118 B 123 103 93 143 C 148 128 118 108 D
74 64 54 84 c 99 139 ' 129 119 A 124 104 94 144 D 149 129 119 109 C
75 65 55 85 c 100 140 130 120 A • 125 105 95 145 B 150 130 120 110 B
Text of page 7
MUSIC PART ill
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D Option A B c D Option A B C D Option
91 131 121 111 B 116 96 146 136 A 141 121 111 101 B
92 132 122 112 B 117 97 147 137 C 142 122 112 102 C
93 133 123 113 B 118 98 148 138 A 143 123 113 103 D
94 134 124 114 B 119 99 149 139 C 144 124 114 104 A
95 135 125 115 D 120 100 150 140 D 145 125 115 105 D
96 136 126 116 D 121 101 91 141 C 146 126 116 106 B
97 137 127 117 C 122 102 92 142 C 147 127 117 107 D
98 138 128 118 B 123 103 93 143 D 148 128 118 108 A
99 139 129 119 D 124 104 94 144 B 149 129 119 109 C
100 140 130 120 C 125 105 95 145 D 150 130 120 110 C
101 141 131 121 B 126 106 96 146 A
102 142 132 122 A 127 107 97 147 D
103 143 133 123 D 128 108 98 148 B
104 144 134 124 C 129 109 99 149 A
105 145 135 125 A 130 110 100 150 C
106 146 . 136 126 C 131 111 101 91 D
107 147 137 127 P 132 112 102 92 A
108 148 138 128 D 133 113 103 93 C
109 149 139 129 B 134 114 104 94 D
110 150 ; . 140 130 C 135 115 : 105 95 B
111 91 141 131 A 136 116 106 96 A
112 92 142 132 C 137 117 107 97 P,B
113 93 - 143 133 B 138 118 1 108 98 D
114 94 , i44 134 P 139 119 109 9,9 B
115 95 145 135 B 140 120 ■ 110 100 A
Text of page 8
State Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
Answer/ Answer/ Answer/ Answer/O
A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D ption
51 131 101 71 C 76 56 126 96 C 101 81 51 121 C 126 106 76 146 C
52 132 102 72 A 77 57 127 97 C 102 82 52 122 A 127 107 77 147 D
53 133 103 73 D 78 58 128 98 A 103 83 53 123 C' 128 108 78 148 B
54 134 104 74 B 79 59 129 99 D 104 84 54 124 D 129 109 79 149 B
55 135 105 75 C 80 60 130 100 D 105 85 55 125 A 130 110 80 150 D
56 136 106 76 B 81 61 131 101 B 106 86 56 126 A 131 111 81 51 B
57 137 107 77 D 82 62 132 102 C 107 87 57 127 D 132 112 82 52 A
58 138 108 78 C 83 63 133 103 D 108 88 58 128 C 133 113 83 53 A
59 139 109 79 C 84 64 134 104 B 109 89 59 129 c 134 114 84 54 A
60 140 110 80 A 85 65 135 105 A 110 90 60 130 B, 135 115 85 55 D
61 141 111 81 B - 86 66 136 106 C 111 91 61 131 B 136 116 86 56 D
62 142 112 82 A 87 67 137 107 C 112 92 62 132 C 137 117 87 57 C
63 143 113 83 D 88 68 138 108 B 113 93 63 133 c 138 118 88 58 B
64 144 114 84 B 89 69 139 109 B 114 94 64 134 D 139 119 89 59 B
65 145 115 85 B 90 70 140 110 D 115 95 65 135 B 140 120 90 60 B
66 146 116 86 D 91 71 141 111 B 116 96 66 136 C ■ 141 121 91 61 B
67 147 117 87 D 92 72 142 112 C 117 97 67 137 B 142 122 92 62 C
68 148 118 88 C' 93 73 143 113 B 118 98 68 138 B 143 123 93 63 D
69 ^ 149 119 89 C 94 74 144 114 A 119 99 69 139 B 144 124 94 64 A
70 150 120 90 C 95 75 145 115 B 120 100 70 140 A 145 125 95 65 B
71 51 121 91 A' 96 76 146 116 C 121 101 71 141 D 146 126 96 66 D
72 52 122 92 D 97 77 147 117 c 122 102 72 142 B 147 127 97 67 B
73 53 123 93 C 98 78 148 118 A 123 103 73 143 A 148 128 98 68 D
74 54 124 94 B 99 79 149 119 B 124 104 74 144 B 149 129 99 69 C
75 55 125 95 A 100 80 150 120 C 125 105 75 145 C 150 130 100 70 A
Text of page 9
state Eligibility Test 2024
Final Answer Key
PSYCHOLOGY (18)
Answer Answer/ Answer/ Answer/
A B C D /Option A B C D Option A B C D Option A B C D Option
51 121 91 71 A 76 146 116 96 B 101 71 141 121 A 126 96 66 146 A
52 122 92 72 C 77 147 117 97 B 102 72 142 122 C 127 97 67 147 C
53 123 93 73 C 78 148 118 98 B 103 73 143 123 c 128 98 68 148 B
54 124 94 74 D 79 149 119 99 B 104 74 144 124 D 129 99 69 149 D
55 125 95 75 C 80 150 120 100 D 105 75 145 125 C 130 100 70 150 B
56 126 96 76 B, 81 51 121 101 A 106 76 146 126 B 131 101 71 51 C
57 127 97 77 C 82 52 122 102 C 107 77 147 127 C 132 102 72 52 B
58 128 98 78 A 83 53 123 103 B 108 78 148 128 C 133 103 73 53 C
59 . 129 99 79 D 84 54 124 .104 B 109 79 149 129 A . 134 104 74 54 A
60 130 100 80 B 85 55 125 105 B 110 80 150 130 B 135 105 75 55 D
61 131 101 81 B 86 56 126 106 D 111 81 51 131 B 136 106 76 56 B
62 132 102 82 A 87 57 127 107 C 112 82 52 132 C 137 107 77 57 D
63 133 103 83 C 88 58 128 108 D 113 83 53 133 A 138 108 78 58 C
64 134 104 84 B 89 59 129 109 D 114 84 54 134 B 139 109 79 59 C
65 135 105 85 A 90 60 130 110 C 115 85 55 135 A 140 110 80 60 D
66 136 106 86 C 91 61 131 111 B 116. 86 56 136 A < 141 111 81 61 D
67 137 107 87 B 92 62 132 112 A : 117 87 57 137 B 142 112 82 62 A
68 138 108 88 D 93 . 63 133 113 D 118 88 58 138 A. 143 113 83 63 D
69 139 109 89 D 94 64 134 114 D. 119 89 59 139 B 144 114 84 64 C
70 140 110 90 A 95 65 135 115 B 120 90 60 140 D 145 115 85 65 A
71 141 111 91 A 96 : 66 136 116 A 121 91 61 141 D 146 116 86 66 B
72 142 112 92 B 97 . 67 137 117 C 122 92 62 142 A 147 117 87 67 A
73 143 113 93 A 98 68 138 118 D 123 93 63 143 C 148 118 88 68 D
74 144 114 94 C 99 69 139 : 119 A 124 94 64 144 A 149 119 89 69 D
75 145 115 95 D 100 70 140 120 C 125 95 65 145 A 150 120 90 70 APage 1 of 52
Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.