MPPSC AE 2021: State Engineering Service Examination, Mechanical Engineering
Text of page 1
J^OOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO^
SEE/ME/2021
(Mechanical Engineering)
"Candidate should write his/her
ORoll No.
Roll No. in the given boxes
of Printed Pages:32 ^3I^^^i^/Totai No. of Questions:150O
0Wl/Tlme:3^Eiv^/Hours ^ifeti/Totai Marks;450^
o—
O o
g 'SnW %'5'^ ^4-Sdlcrl 3^^ f«RT 4>dl ^ ^3TT 3TSt^ ^
o
3IHm3TTil^^ dr+>M I 0
O 2. ^31^-^f^RjT ^ ^"fenrri^^ -'3?'crarxis -'^' 1 O
o 3. ^-*3t'%m;h yiMM ^ %, Riyij^503ih%,^yiiH d^i aiiTsft«im I 1 ^
g 4. T35 -V ^t I I^RT^ 100 31^1 I ^31^ aiM 1 ^31^ I0
o
o
o
5. 3R^% 3Ri yHH f I Mc^=h 03 3t^3RR «IT^ I ^"iirHt»i ^3n^^TFT % I 3tc^'tdri ^
o %f^n501 31^ ebldl 1
o 6. (3Tt.T^.3TR.'?fte) R5^n 3?^ ^3tR 3^i^d^ I
O
7. ^H<<l 3d^-^ (3^t.3^.3TR. ^fte)"'K R^IRd ^ 3rf^1^'TT 3F5I^ I
o
O 8. *nsfFBiftxtF^3rF-g^^^3te^^'MttTWTTKft^,3ro^H^W3m-^(3it.^ii.3rK.^)^ift'^ I
O 9. 3IH-^ 6C1 •SII^MI 1 WI^IitVh/^'aflRiin.M MdfiiTT'^ Hl'^ -1^% 1
g 10- ^,^-'3T'%Mt3R^Tf'M3l^^W^''TTrTSZTIciT^3i^^^^,^3IH%1l^
^vqfcK^TTRgi TRT 1
0
o
o o
o INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES o
o 1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Question Booklet o
o does not have any unprinted or tom or missing pages or items etc. if so,immediately contact the invigilator
o
o and get it replaced with Question Booklet. o
o 2. This combined Question Booklet is divided in two Sections. Section -'A* and Section -'B'. o
o 3. Section-'A'contains 50 Questions of General Studies. Ail Questions are In Hindi and English Language. o
o All questions are compulsory. o
o 4. Section -'B' contains 100 Questions of Concerned Engineering Subject. Question are only in English o
o Language. All questions are compulsory. Candidates should ensure that he/she got the question paper o
o of the same post for which he/she had applied. o
o o
5. All questions carry equal marks. Three marks for each correct answer. There is provision of Negative o
o Markings. For each wrong answer, one mark will be deducted.
o o
o
6. Read carefully the instructions given on the Answer Sheet(OMR)supplied and indicate your answers o
accordingly. o
o
o
7. Kindly make necessary entries on the Answer Sheet(OMR)at the places indicated and nowhere else. o
o 8. Examinee should do all rough work on the space meant for rough work on pages given at the end of the o
o Question Booklet and nowhere else, not even on the Answer Sheet(OMR). o
o 9. Only simple calculator is allowed to solve the Question Paper. Scientific/Engineering calculator will not o
o be allowed. o
O 10. If there Is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature in any question of Section - A, then o
O out of the Hindi and English versions of the question, the Hindi version will be treated as standard. o
OOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO
SEE/ME/2021-A 1
Text of page 3
SECTION - A
General Studies
1. The highest peak of Madhya Pradesh Is 4. Consider the following statement with
located reference to soils.
(A) Mahadeo hills
1. Large amount of Iron and lime are
(B) Kalmur range
found In black soil.
(0) Vlndhyacha! range
2. Red and yellow soil is found in
(D) Bhander range
Baghelkhand.
2. Match List - I with List - II and select 3. Alluvial soil is found in Bhind and
the correct answer from the codes given Morena District.
below.
List-I List- II Select the correct statement from the
(River) (River drainage above.
area Town/District) (A) 1,2 and 3
a. Walnganga 1. Multal
(B) 1 and 2
b. Tapti 2. SeonI
(C) only 1
c. Narmada 3. Jabalpur
(D) only 2
d. Betwa 4. VIdlsha
Codes: 5. Which of the following pair is not correctly
a b c d matched ?
(A) 2 1 3 4 District Mining area
(B) 1 2 3 4 (A) Panna Diamond
(C) 2 1 4 3
(B) Balaghat Copper
(D) 1 2 4 3
(C) Katni Limestone
3. The most important Geographical (D) Sagar Manganese
factor affecting average temperature in
Madhya Pradesh
(A) Proximity to the Bay of Bengal 6. Which Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh
(B) Tropic of Cancer passes through has been declared the Biosphere
the middle of Madhya Pradesh Reserve by UNESCO ?
(C) About 25 percent part of the land (A) Kanha Tiger Reserve
area of Madhya Pradesh is covered
(B) Pench Tiger Reserve
by forests
(D) Proximity to the Equator of the (C) Satpuda Tiger Reserve
Southern part of Madhya Pradesh (D) Panna Tiger Reserve
SEE/ME/2021-A [ P.T.O.
Text of page 5
7. The two States that have been recently in 10. Yogesh Malviya has been awarded the
news for inter-state border dispute are Dronacharya Award - 2020 for which
(A) MIzoram - Meghalaya sport ?
(B) Manipur-Meghalaya (A) Kabaddi
(B) Wrestling
(C) Mizoram - Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Mallakhamba
(D) Mizoram - Assam
(D) Boxing
8. Match List - I with List - II and using
11. Which of the following is an example of
the given codes, select the correct
input devices ?
answer.
(A) Trackball
List -1 List-11
(B) Speaker
(Player) (Sport)
(C) Printer
a. Chinki Yadav 1. Horse Riding
(D) Plotter
b. AkshatJoshi 2. Shooting
c. Muskan Kirar 3. Hockey
d. Khamman Singh 4. Archery 12. Who is called the 'father of artificial
Codes: intelligence'?
a b c d (A) V. Rajaraman
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) Alan Turing
(B) 2 1 3 4 (C) John McCarthy
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) Tim Berners-Lee
(D) 1 2 4 3
13. The smallest unit of memory in a
9. With which sport is "Rajmata Vijya Raje
computer is
Sindhia Competition" associated ?
(A) Megabyte
(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey (B) Nibble
(C) Football (C) Byte
(D) Chess (D) Bit
SEE/ME/2021-A [P.T.O.
Text of page 7
14. E-Pathshala App is related to 18. Who built Sanchi Stupa ?
(A) Books (A) Chandragupta first
(B) Scholarship (B) Bimbisara
(C) Medicine (C) Bindusara
(D) Farmers (D) Ashoka
15. Which of the following is an anti-virus 19. Amritlai Vegad is related to
software ? (A) Sculpture
(A) Monkey (B) Painting
(B) Norton (C) Singing
(C) Adware (D) Music
(D) Trojan Horse
20. Who is the 'Bhilat Baba'?
18. It was the Capital of 'Rajabhoj' (A) The Chief deity of the 'Bhaha'
(A) Ujjain (B) The Chief deity of the 'Bhils'
(B) Dewas (C) The Chief deity of the 'Baiga'
(0) Dharanagari (D) The Chief deity of the 'Saharia'
(D) Bhopal
21. Which of the following campaign has
been initiated under the "Beti Bachao
17. Who was the last successful and glorious
Beti Padhao" Scheme run by Madhya
King of Garha Mandala ?
Pradesh Government ?
(A) Raja Shah
(A) Sankh
(B) Vikram Shah
(B) Lado
(C) ShankarShah (C) Uma
(D) Vishnu Shah (D) Pankh
SEE/ME/2021-A [ P.T.O.
Text of page 9
22, Underthe Madhya Pradesh Mukhyamantri 25, Singorgarh fort is situated in which
Kisan Kalyan Yojana, how much amount
district of Madhya Pradesh ?
is to be given to beneficiary family in a
financial year ? (A) Sagar
(A) ?4,000 (B) Damoh
(B) ^5,000 (C) Jabalpur
(C) ?6,000 (D) Chhatarpur
(D) ^7,000
26, Which of the following is not a mobile
23, Consider the following statements Operating System ?
related to Mission Gramodaya Yojana (A) PalmOS
of Madhya Pradesh Government.
(B) Web OS
i. Families living in rural areas will be
provided with residential facility. (C) Symbian OS
ii. Basic amenities of rural areas will (D) Mac OS
be expanded.
ill. This scheme was inaugurated in the
district headquarter of Bhopal. 27, Which of the following is the core protocol
Choose the correct option : of WWW?
(A) i and iii (A) DSI
(B) ii and iii (B) HTTP
(C) i and ii (C) NNTP
(D) All of the above (D) FTP
24, Which award has been given to
28, URL stands for
Prof. Sharad Pagare ?
(A) Universal Reference Location
(A) Saraswati Samman -2020
(B) Kalidas Samman-2020 (B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Vyas Samman-2020 (C) Universal Resource Locator
(D) Tansen Samman-2020 (D) University Resource Locator
SEE/ME/2021-A [P.T.O.
k
Text of page 11
29, Which of the following describe 33. 'Matki' dance Is famous in which area ?
E-Commerce ? (A) Malwa
(B) Nimar
(A) Business of Electronic Goods
(0) Bundelkhand
(B) Business of Electrical Goods (D) Baghelkhand
(C) Doing Business Electronically
(D) All of the above 34, In which District is'chidikho tourist place'
located ?
(A) Bhopal
(B) Rajgarh
30, Which of the computer language is used
(C) Raisen
in "Artificial Intelligence" ?
(D) Sehore
(A) JAVA
(B) Pascal 35, 'Poet Bihari' was related from
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(C) PROLOG
(B) Bihar
(D) FORTRAN (0) Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh
31. Venganga river flows
36, Which of the following correct order of
(A) Balaghat
Ministers from senior to junior in the
(B) BetuI State Council of Ministers ?
(A) Minister of State, Cabinet Minister,
(C) Khandwa
Deputy Minister, Parliamentary
(D) Dindori Secretary
(B) Cabinet Minister, Deputy Minister,
Minister of State, Parliamentary
32, Chanderi is famous for Secretary
(A) Sarees (C) Cabinet Minister, Minister of
State, Parliamentary Secretary,
(B) Wooden work Deputy Minister
(C) Bidi industry (D) Cabinet Minister, Minister of State,
Deputy Minister, Parliamentary
(D) Diamond industry Secretary
SEE/ME/2021-A 11 [ P.T.O.
b A
Text of page 13
W!.
37. Who was the first leader of opposition 41. By whom is the work of diamond mining
of Madhya Pradesh Legislative done in Panna District ?
Assembly ?
(A) National Mineral Development
(A) Vishnu Vinayak Sarvate
Corporation
(B) Vishnu Nath Tamashkar
(C) V. G. Ghate (B) Bharat Diamond Bourse
(D) VIshwanath Yadavrao Tamashkar (C) Jindal Sales Corporation
(D) Alrosa
38. Which of the following body is the
highest decision making body in the
42. Which of the following option is not
politico-administrative system
according to Indian Constitution ? correct ?
(A) Ruling party (A) The coal found in Madhya
(B) Cabinet Pradesh is deposit in Gondwana
(C) Legislative Assembly rock group
(D) Collectively all (B) Pench Kanhan coalfield is an
important coal mining area in
Madhya Pradesh
39. In which Article of the Indian Constitution
there is a provision to constitute Gram (C) Singrauli coalfield is spread over
Sabha in Gram Panchayat ? Madhya Pradesh and Chhatisgarh
(A) 243 A (D) Pathakheda coalfield is situated in
(B) 243 B BetuI district and provides coal to
(C) 243 C Sarni Thermal Power Station
(D) 243 D
43. Which coalfield is not located in Madhya
40. When Madhya Pradesh was declared as Pradesh ?
"Open Defection Free" State ?
(A) Korba coalfield
(A) 16 January 2016
(B) 01May2018 (B) Mohpani coalfield
(C) 15 August 2016 ' (C) Sohagpur coalfield
(D) 02 October 2018 (D) Pathakheda coalfield
SEE/ME/2021-A 13 [ P.T.O.
(\ I
Text of page 15
44. Which of the following pair is not correctly 48. As per 2011 Census, what is the
matched ?
population density of Madhya Pradesh
Irrigation Project River/Tributary
from the following ?
(A) Ban Sagar Son
Project (A) 225/sq. km.
(8) Tawa Project Tawa
(B) 236/sq. km.
(C) Pench Project Pench
(C) 246/sq. km.
(D) Koiar Project Betwa
(D) 382/sq. km.
45. Balaghat District gets Irrigation facility
from the canal of which river ?
49. In which district of Madhya Pradesh
(A) Wainganga
thickest layer of coal of India is found ?
(B) Narmada
(C) Tapti (A) Chhindwara
(D) Matiyari (B) Singrauli
(0) Shahdol
46. Which of the following tribe Is not a (D) BetuI
sub-tribe of "Baiga Tribe" ?
(A) Bijhwar
(B) Narotia 50. How much amount Is being provided by
(C) Badoya the Madhya Pradesh Government under
(D) Kathmaina the "Kisan Kalyan Yojana" annually in
addition to the amount announced by
47. The scale of measuring the values of the the Central Government under "Kisan
components of "Physical Quality of Life Samman Nidhi Yojana" ?
Index" lies between
(A) Rs. 2,000
(A) In between 0 to 1
(B) Rs. 3,000
(B) In between 1 to 100
(C) In between 1 to 50 (C) Rs. 4,000
(D) In between 0 to 100 (D) Rs. 5,000
SEE/ME/2021-A 15 [ P.T.O.
fi
Text of page 16
SECTION - B
Mechanical Engineering
51. Little's law Is the relationship between 54. In context to the inventory management,
(A) Stock level and lead time in an ABC analysis means
inventory system (A) Classifying materials according to
(B) Waiting time and length of the their consumption value
queue in a queuing system (B) Classifying materials according to
(0) Number of machines and job due their quality
dates in a scheduling problem (C) Classifying materials according to
(D) Uncertainty in the activity time and their size and weight
project completion time (D) Classifying materials according to
their suppliers
52. A toy manufacturer uses approximately
32,000 silicon chips annually. The chips 55. The process of fixing the sequence of
are used at a steady rate during the operations and material flow is
240 days a year that the plant operates.
Annual holding cost is $ 3 per chip and (A) Master scheduling
ordering cost is $ 120.The optimal order (B) Scheduling
quantity is (C) Expediting
(A) 2000 chips (D) Routing
(B) 1200 chips
56. The main function of the strainer in the
(C) 1500 chips
carburetor
(D) 1600 chips (A) To maintain pressure of the fuel
53. A factory has three work centres for a (B) To maintain temperature of the
particular product. The centres are in a fuel
series as shown.The raw material passes (C) To prevent possible blockage of
through the work centres successively to the nozzle by dust particles
produce the product. The time required (D) To prevent access amount of
at each work centre is shown in bracket. engine oil in the combustion
The system efficiency Is chamber
Raw
Material
57. In the exhaust gases of the IC engine,
(1.6min) (1.2min) (1.4min) PrOdUCt
the source of diesel odor is
(A) 85% (A) Hydrocarbon compounds
(B) 87.5% (B) CO
(C) 92% (C) NO Y
A
(D) 80% (D) CO,
SEE/ME/2021-A 16
Text of page 17
■ 58. In the4stage steam turbines with pressure 62. The lost motion in CNC machine tool is
compounding the total isentropic enthalpy an account of
drop of steam
(A) Wind up of drive shafts
(A) Remain constant for all 4-stages
(B) Is maximum at the last stage
(B) Deflection of machine tool
members
(C) is divided equally among the
4-stages (C) Backlash in gearing
(D) Is maximum at the first stage (D) None of the above
59. Maximum air required per kg of fuel for 63. Flexible Manufacturing Systems (FMS)
complete combustion can be given by incorporate automation concepts such as
(considering mass fraction being C, H,
O and S of respective constituent) (A) CNC machines, group technology
and automatic material handling
r
1 0' between machines
-C + 8 H- +S
(A) ^
21 3 8. < -
(B) Computer control over the
/
materials handling systems, direct
1
(B) 23 3 -C + 8 H- ]+s
0'
8)
numerical machine tools, group
\
technology and CNC machines
f
1 (C) Equipment maintenance and
H- +s
(C) 23
V. 8J repair, tool changing and tool
(D) None of the above setting
00 (D) Above(A)and (B)
60. A combustion+has all the oxygen supplied
with air to O
the reactants being used and 64. Which feedback device translate physical
CO
no free oxygen appears in the product, motion In to electrical data ?
such air supplied is called as
(A) Excess air (A) Transducer
(B) Dry air (B) Encoder
(C) Stoichiometric air (C) Digital system monitoring
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
61. In CNC programming cutter radius 65. The interpolation in a CNC machine tool
compensation is set with controls
(A) G02 (A) Feed rate
(B) G42 (B) Spindle speed
(C) G28 (C) Tool change
(D) G03 (D) Coolant flow
[P.T.O.
SEE/ME/2021-A 17
I
Text of page 18
66. The Otto cycle Is an air standard cycle 69. if'm' is mass of fluid and 'V is velocity
of spark ignition engine. The sequence of the fluid, then the macroscopic kinetic
of first four processes of the engine is energy 'Ej^' of the fluid element by virtue
(A) Intake, Expansion, Combustion, of Its motion Is
Compression (A) m^V
(B) Intake, Combustion, Compression,
Expansion mV
(B)
(C) Intake, Compression, Combustion, "2"
Expansion (C)
2
(D) Intake, Combustion, Expansion,
mV^
Compression (D)
2
70. The maximum amount of work that can
67. The Brayton cycle consists of the
be extracted from a system at a given
following processes state, till the system reaches at thermal
(A) Two reversible isothermal and two equilibrium with the surrounding is
known as
reversible adiabatic
(A) Entropy
(B) Two reversible Isobaric and two (B) Enthalpy
reversible adiabatic (C) Exergy
(C) Two reversible isothermal and two (D) Thermal power
reversible isochoric 71, In the case of cross flow heat exchanger,
(D) Two reversible isobaric and two refer the fig. mentioned below.
reversible isothermal (A)
68. If is heat transferred to the working
fluid and Is heat rejected from the
working fluid, then the efficiency of the t B
vapour power cycle is
(A) ^o,c,e=1-^
(B) llcyc,e=1+^
U2
Area —>
The curve'B'represents the temperature
of fluid w.r.t. area at
(C) ^cycle = 1 ~
(A) Inlet of heat exchanger
(B) Outlet of heat exchanger
(D) ^cycle = 1 (C) Cannot predicted
(D) None of the above
SEE/ME/2021-A -|q
Text of page 19
72. The unit with Stefan-Boltzman constant is 77. For increasing the productivity, CNC
(A) W/m^ system can be interface with
(A) CAD/CAM
(B) W/m'^k
(B) DNC
(C) W/m^k'
(C) FMS
(D) W/mk
(D) All of the above
73. It is advisable to put on white cloth in 78. Consider the following statements
summer, the reason is for white cloth regarding laws of robotics :
(A) a = 0, X = 0 and p = 1 1. A robot may not injure a human
being or through inaction, allow a
(B) a = constant human to be harmed.
(C) p = 0, X =0 and a = 1 2. A robot must obey orders given
(D) None of the above by humans except when that
conflicts with first law.
74. Emissivity is the property of a surface 3. A robot must protect its own
and independent of existence.
(A) Temperature Which of the following statements are
correct ?
(B) Wavelength
(C) Source of radiation (A) 1 and 2 only
(D) Heat (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1,2 and 3
75. The concept of log-mean temperature (D) 1 and 3 only
difference is devised to study the
heat transfer rate in heat exchangers, 79. Reach and stroke are specification of a
because robotic manipulator,which ofthe following
(A) Rate of heat flow varies along the relation is true between them ?
path of heat exchanger (A) Stroke = Reach
(B) Temperatures of fluids vary from (B) Stroke < Reach
point to point in heat exchanger
(0) Stroke > Reach
(C) Both (A)and (B)
(D) Stroke S: Reach
(D) None of the above
76. In the computer aided design aspect ratio 80. Which system is also known as
'sort wised' system ?
of an image is
(A) Ratio of vertical to horizontal pixel (A) Numerical Control(NC)
(B) Ratio of vertical to diagonal pixel (B) Conventional Machine Tool
(C) Ratio of horizontal to vertical pixel (C) Computer Numerical Control
(CNC)
(D) Ratio of horizontal to diagonal .
pixel (D) None of the above
[ P.T.O.
SEE/ME/2021-A 19
k i
Text of page 20
81. On a ladder resting on a smooth ground 84. The relationship between load intensity(W),
and leaning against rough vertical wall, shear force(S)and bending moment(M)
the force of friction acts
is given by
(A) Upwards at Its upper end (A) W =^andS =^
dx dx
(B) Toward the wall at the upper end
(C) Toward the wall at the lower end
(B) w=™ai,dS.™!
dx dx
(D) Downwards at its upper end fr^\ s
(U) o = —-andM
dW j..= —
dS
dx dx
(D) None of these
82. A prismatic bar is supported between
two rigid supports as shown in figure. 85. A cantilever is subjected to a uniformly
The support reaction will be distributed load over its entire length.
The variation of bending stress along
A B the length of the cantilever is
1 m
10 kN
2m
I (A) Constant
(B) Linear
(G) Parabolic
(D) Not defined
(A) RA=^kN,RB=—kN
o 3
86. The theoretical velocity of jet for an
RA=^kN,RB=:^kN effective head(H)on the turbine is given
o 3 by
(C) R^ = 10kN.R„ = 10kN (A) 2^
(D) R^ = 5kN, Rg = 5kN (B) ^
(C) 2g^/H
83. The radius of the Mohr's circle (D) gVH/2
represents 87. The place where cavitation is most likely
(A) Minimum shear stress to occur in hydraulic turbine is
(B) Minimum normal stress (A) Inlet of turbine casing
(B) Inlet of guide vane
(C) Maximum shear stress
(C) Inlet of turbine runner
(D) Maximum normal stress (D) Inlet of draft tube
SEE/ME/2021-A 20
A
Text of page 21
88. Which is the wrong statement about 92. Component of acceleration parallel to
hydraulic turbine ? that link is called as
(A) The relative velocity over the (A) Radial component
moving blades increases in impulse (B) Coriolis' component
turbines (0) Final component
(B) A pelton wheel is a tangential flow (D) Tangential component
impulse turbine
(C) A francis turbine is a mix of radial 93. A belt of rectangular cross section is
and axial flow reaction turbine known as
(D) A kapian turbine is a axial flow (A) Leather Belt
reaction turbine
(B) V-Belt
89. The correct formula of specific speed (0) Crossed Beit
of a hydraulic turbine under a head H (D) Flat Belt
rotating with speed N and giving power
output as P is 94. When gear has straight teeth parallel to
p>/n the axes and are not subjected to axial
(A) H3/4 thrust due to tooth load is called as
(A) Herringbone gear
■Mp
(B) H5/4 (B) Spur gear
N# (C) Helical gear
(C) H
|5/4 (D) Bevel gear
NP
(D) H3/4
95. In a mass balancing system, when several
masses rotate in a different planes and
90. Velocity diagrams of hydraulic turbine when there does not exist any resultant
can be used in calculation of centrifugal force or couple is called as
(A) Pressure in turbines (A) Partial balancing
(B) Power generated by turbines (B) Static balancing
(C) Temperature variations in turbine (C) Dynamic balancing
(D) Acceleration of turbine blades (D) None of these
91. Whiteworth Quick return mechanism is an
inversion of following basic mechanism 96. Heat transfer is that science which
predicts the
(A) Four bar chain mechanism
(B) Double slider crank chain (A) Rate of mass transfer
mechanism (B) Rate of energy transfer
(C) Slider crank chain mechanism (C) Rate of momentum transfer
(D) All of the above (D) None of the above
21
[ P.T.O.
SEE/ME/2021-A
Text of page 22
97, The "Thermal Transmittance" Is also 102. Hand peening is a method in which weld
known as zone is hammered along the length with
(A) Energy the peen of a hammer, while the joint is
(B) Mass transfer hot. Which of the following statements
(C) Radiation correctly specify the reasons for hand
(D) Overall heat transfer coefficient peening ?
I. It induces tensile residual stresses.
98, There exists a "critical thickness" beyond II. It induces compressive residual
which the heat transfer rate stresses.
(A) Decreases III. It improves the fatigue life of the
(B) Increases joint.
(C) No effect on heat transfer IV. it makes the joint leak proof.
(D) None of the above Choose the best option from below :
99, Which dimensionless number indicates (A) Statements I and II are correct but
the relative strength of buoyant to III and IV are incorrect
viscous force ? (B) Statements II and III are correct but
(A) Stanton Number I and IV are incorrect
(B) Nusselt Number (C) Statements I, II and III are correct
but IV is incorrect
(C) Grashoff Number
(D) None of the above (D) Statements I, II, III and IV are
correct
100, The fluid motion in free convection is due 103. Which of the following statements are
to difference in density between various
fluid layers caused by correct while designing a componentfor
fatigue ?
(A) Atmospheric pressure
I. Stress life method is used for designing
(B) Wind velocity for low cycle and high cycle fatigue.
(C) Mass II. Strain life method involves analysis
(D) Temperature gradient of plastic deformation at a localised
101, Consider two flat plates connected region.
together by means of single riveted lap III. Linear-elastic fracture mechanics
joint and subjected to a tensile force. uses fracture toughness of the
The tensile resistance of unriveted solid material.
plate Is 35 kN. If the shear resistance of IV. Paris equation is used to determine
the rivet, tensile resistance of the riveted the rate of crack growth.
plate and crushing resistance ofthe plate Choose the best option from below :
per pitch length are given as 24.5 kN.
28 kN and 31.5 kN respectively. The (A) I and II are correct but III and IV are
efficiency of this joint will be incorrect
(A) 70% (B) II and III are correct but I and IV are
incorrect
(B) 75%
(0) I, II and III are correct but IV is
(0) 80% incorrect
(D) 90% (D) I, II, III and IV are correct
SEE/ME/2021-A 22
i
Text of page 23
104. If the value of theoretical stress 108. The equivalent length of a column as per
concentration factor is 1.0, then the Euler's theory whose one end is fixed
value of fatigue stress concentration and the other end is hinged is given by
factor is equal to
(A) 21
(A) 0
(B) /
(B) oo (infinite)
(0) 112
(C) 1
(D) 0.5 (D) //^/2
105. Consider a single V-groove butt welded 109. The maximum shear stress theory states
joint between two plates of same that yielding of the material begins
thickness equal to 6 mm and same width under the following relationship between
of 60 mm is subjected to a tensile force maximum shear stress (x )and yield
of 36 kN. Assuming that the weld throat iIlaA
dimension is same as the thickness of
stress (Oy)
the plate,then the average normal stress (A) ^„ax = °y
induced in the joint is equal to
(A) 50MPa
(B) 100 MPa
(0) 150 MPa (C)
(D) 200 MPa
(D) t = 5l
^ ' max o
106. Maximum shear stress in a hollow shaft
subjected to a torsionai moment is at A thin seamless pipe of diameter 'd'm
the
is carrying fluid under a pressure of 'p'
(A) inner surface of the shaft
kN/cm^. If the maximum stress is not
(B) Outer surface of the shaft exceed'o* kN/cm^,the necessarythickness
(0) Middle of the thickness T of metal in cm will be given as
(D) None of the above
pd
107, A simply supported beam of span 'L' (A)
^'
t>^cm
2a
carrying a point load W at mid span.
The defiection at the centre of the beam , lOOpd
is equal to (B)
(A) WL^MSEI
(B) WL^/48EI t<P^
(0) t< —cm
2a
(C) 5WL®/348EI
(D) WL^/348EI (D) None of the above
SEE/ME/2021-A 23 [ P.T.O.
h
Text of page 24
111. For a cutting tool, the Taylor's equation 115. The angle between face of the tool and
is given as vVt = 300, where 'V is a line parallel with the base of the tool,
the cutting speed in m/min and tool life measured in a perpendicular plane
T is in minutes, if the cutting speed is through the side cutting edge is
reduced by 50%,then the tool life will be (A) Side relief angle
enhanced by
(A) 300%
(B) Back rake angle
(B) 200% (C) Side rake angle
(C) 100% (D) End relief angle
(D) 400%
116. Which of the following statement/
112. Thetype offit of an assembly is designated statements is/are correct ?
as50 H7s6. Using hole basis system,the
type of fit is given by (A) PERT considers activity time as a
random variable
(A) Clearance fit
(B) CRM considers a single
(B) Transition fit
deterministic time value for the
(0) interference fit activities
(D) Loose running fit (C) CRM considers trade-off between
time and cost
113. Which of the following statements are
correct for a component assembly with (D) Ail of the above
poor surface finish ?
117. The "Information transmission device"
I. Friction and wear increases.
used for system of inventory and
II. Reduction in holding capacity of production control is known as
joints.
III. Fatigue limit is reduced. (A) Roka-yoke
IV. improved corrosion resistance. (B) Benchmarking
(A) i and ii are correct (C) Kanban
(B) I, il and Mi are correct (D) Kaizen
(C) I, II, III and IV are correct
118. Customers arrive at one person barber
(D) i, Ii and IV are correct
shop according to a Roisson process with
114. In abrasive jet machining, if the mixing a mean inter-arrival time of 20 minutes.
ratio is constant, the MRR is Customers spend on an average of
15 minutes in the barber's chair.
(A) Directly proportional to mass flow Determine how much time can a
rate of gas customer expect to wait for his turn ?
(B) indirectly proportional to mass of (A) 30 minutes
abrasive
(C) Indirectly proportional to mass of gas (B) 15 minutes
(D) Directly proportional to mass flow (C) 45 minutes
rate of abrasive (D) 20 minutes
SEE/ME/2021-A 24
Text of page 25
119. Determine initial basic feasible solution 122. In the following statement/statements
using VOGEL's approximation method which is/are correct ?
to minimize total transportation cost. i. The cetane number characterises
the ability of the fuel to auto ignite.
^^^Warehouse P Q R Capacity ii. The cetane number(CN) may be
calculated by
Plant
CN =% hexadecane + 0.15 x
A 35 25 15 875
(% heptamethylnonane).
B 10 20 30 575
iii. Diesel fuels are compared using
Demand 350 350 450
an ignition delay metric.
(A) Rs. 15,750 (A) i only
(B) i and ii only
(B) Rs. 18,300
(0) i and iii only
(C) Rs. 17,375 (D) i, ii and iii
(D) Rs. 20,275
123. The solar radiation reaches on the Earth's
surface. It's maximum flux density is
120. A company requires 16,000 units of raw (A) I.OKW/m^
material costing Rs.2 per unit. The cost
(B) 0.5KW/m^
of placing an order is Rs. 45 and the
carrying costs are 10% per year per unit
(C) 1.5KW/m^
of the average inventory. Determine the (D) 2.0KW/m^
economic order quantity.
(A) 2684 Units 124. Which of the following statement/
statements is/are correct ?
(B) 2434 Units
Gas turbines may be classified on the
(C) 2520 Units basis of
(D) 2052 Units i. Continuous combustion or
constant pressure type.
ii. On the basis of the action of
121. The running cost of the Cl engine
expanding gases.
compare to the SI engine is
iii. On the basis of direction of flow.
(A) Less
(A) i only
(B) High (B) i and ii only
(C) Equal (C) i and iii only
(D) None of the above (D) i, ii and iii
SEE/ME/2021-A 25 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 26
125. In the following which statements are 129. A belt runs over a pulley. The angle of
correct in SI engine, fuels to avoid lap is 165°. If coefficient of friction is 0.3,
detonation following are required ? then ratio of tension (T^/T^) is
i. High auto ignition temperature. (A) 10.14
ii. A long ignition lag. (B) 2.37
ili. Short ignition lag. (C) 9.46
(D) 5.49
(A) i and iii
(B) i and ii 130. If a vibrating system consists of a mass
of 50 kg; a spring with stiffness of
(C) ii and iil 30 kN/m; then the value of critical
(D) i, ii and iii damping coefficient will be
(A) 3295N/m/s
126. Spinning body, which is free to move (B) 2750N/m/s
in other directions under the action of (C) 2450N/m/s
external forces, is called as (D) 3735N/m/s
(A) Elliptical train
(B) Oscilloscope 131. Which is not the characteristics of ideal
fluid ?
(C) Gyroscope
(A) Incompressible
(D) Blower
(B) No surface tension
127. In a slider crank mechanism, radius of (C) Follows Newton law of viscosity
crank is 480 mm, it's angular velocity is (D) Inviscid
20 rad/s. Velocity of crank will be equal to
(A) 9.6 m/s 132. Which of the velocity fields will lead to
steady three dimensional flow of an
(B) 11.34 m/s
incompressible fluid ?
(C) 12.24 m/s
(D) 17.58 m/s (A) u = 7+3x^-4xy^;v=1+8yz^-4y^z;
w = 6 + 7xz^-5x^z
128. In a simple band brake, tension on tight
side is 336 N; tension on slack side (B) u=3-2y^+4yz^;v=2+6xV-7x^z;
is 125.8 N; if radius of brake drum is w = 5-8x^y® + 9xy
100 mm;then braking torque value will be
(A) 33N.m (C) u=4-5xy^+7x^y;v=5+6y^z-7yz^;
(B) 27N.m w = 2- 3x^z + 6xz^
(C) 35N.m (D) u=9+3)^-5)^;v=10-4y^+7y^^;
(D) 21 N.m w = 7 + 5xy -2xz^
SEE/ME/2021-A 26
/
Text of page 27
133. Bernoulli's theorem can be obtained 137. The energy transferred to the work
from Euler's equation by assuming the material in EBM is
foliowing characteristics as constant
(A) Kinetic
(A) Velocity
(B) Thermal
(B) Pressure
(C) Atomic
(C) Elevation
(D) Density (D) Electrical
134. Which of the following parameter of
138. Coordinate measuring machine is a
fluid flow does not effect its Reynold's
instrument.
Number ?
(A) Density of fluid (A) Electrical
(B) Mean fluid velocity (B) Mechanical
(C) Temperature of fluid (C) Metrological
(D) Characteristics dimension of fluid (D) Aesthetic
flow cross-section
135. In which of the following numbers 139. Continuous chips can be produced during
gravitational force is the most machining of
significant ?
(A) Brass
(A) Froude Number
(B) Bronze
(B) Mach Number
(C) Cast iron
(0) Weber Number
(D) Copper
(D) Euler Number
136. in ultrasonic machining,abrasive particles
140. Accelerating wear rate is found in
motion is to the workpiece.
(A) Steady-state wear region
(A) Tangential
(B) Oscillatory (B) Break-in period
(0) Circular (C) Failure region
(D) Normal (D) Accelerating period
SEE/ME/2021-A 27 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 28
141. A stationary mass of gas is compressed 144. Availability function for a closed system is
without friction from an initial state of (A) U + PV-TS
0.2 m^ and 0.1 MPa to a final state of (B) U-PV + TS
0.1 m^ and 0.1 MPa, the pressure (C) U + PV + TS
(D) U-PV-TS
remaining constant during the process.
There is a transfer of 35 kJ of heat from 145. Which of the following is an intensive
the gas during the process. The internal property ?
energy of the gas change will be (A) Entropy
(B) Volume
(A) -15kJ
(0) Pressure
(B) +15kJ (D) All of the above
(C) -25kJ
146. List - I specifies the type of ends of
(D) +25kJ helical compression spring and List - II
consists of the formulas for calculating
142. The state of thermodynamic system the pitch of the spring.
where the value of the property is same Match List-I and List- II and select the
at ail the points is known as correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.
(A) Mechanical equilibrium
List-I List-II
(B) Thermal equilibrium J. Plain ends 1. (LQ-2d)/Na
(C) Chemical equilibrium K. Plain and 2. (LQ-3d)/Na
ground ends
(D) Thermodynamic equilibrium
L. Squared ends 3. LQ/(Na + 1)
M. Squared and 4. (L^-dyNa
143. A cyclic heat engine operates between a ground ends
source temperature of 500°G and a sink (Where, Na = Number of active coils,
temperature of 50°C. The least rate of Lq = free length of the spring and
heat rejection per kW net output of the d = diameter of spring wire)
engine will be Codes ;
J K L M
(A) 0.10 kW
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 0.41 kW
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 0.60 kW (0) 4 3 2 1
(D) 0.71 kW (D) 3 1 4 2
SEE/ME/2021-A 28
Text of page 29
147. The proof load is defined as the maximum 149. A machine component Is subjected
load that a bolt can with stand without to fluctuating stress that varies from
acquiring a permanent set. Which of the 40 to 100 MPa. If corrected endurance
following strengths defines the proof limit of the component is 300 MPa and
strength ? ultimate tensile strength of the material
(A) Fatigue strength of the bolt is 700 MPa, then the factor of safety of
the designed component according to
(B) Shear strength of the bolt
Goodman equation Is given by
(C) Tensile strength of the bolt
(A) 1
(D) All of the above
(B) 2
148. Which of the following statements are (C) 4
correct in the case of torque transmission (D) 5
through a cone clutch ?
150. Based on the comparison of a hoilow
I. Torque capacity is directly proportional
shaft with a solid shaft for the. same
to sin a, where a is half cone angle.
weight, following statements are made
II. If half cone angle (a) is less than
I. Naturai frequency of hoilow shaft is
the angle of static friction, then
higher than that of the solid shaft.
cone clutch has tendency to self
II. Stiffness of a holiow shaft is more
engage.
than that of a solid shaft.
III. For the given dimensions, torque
III. The diameter of a hollow shaft is
capacity of cone clutch Is higher
greater than that of a solid shaft for
than that of single plate clutch.
same torque transmission.
IV. Width of friction lining does not
IV. Hollow shaft is manufactured by
affect the torque capacity.
extrusion process.
Choose the best answer from below :
Choose the best statements from above
(A) I and II are correct but 111 and IV are which signify the advantages of hollow
Incorrect
shaft over a solid shaft and answer
(B) II and III are correct but 1 and IV are below:
incorrect
(A) Statements I and 11 only
(G) I, II and 111 are correct but IV is (B) Statements II and III only
incorrect
(C) Statements III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct
(D) Statements I and IV only
SEE/ME/2021-A 29 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 30
/ ROUGH WORK SEE/ME/2021-A 30
Text of page 31
/ ROUGH WORK SEE/ME/2021-A 31 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 32
/ ROUGH WORK SEE/ME/2021-A 32
Text of page 4
Ql)<p Sll-lii-*!,
3ff^ v^a7V
SET-(C)
M'Jlwi 'TPT: — M'?l5i1—2020 - 'diHi-y ajajzpT XT^ ^"vjflPi^Rji
\d5Xl'< \dal>C v3al'< VJOIX
?FTT^ imim 5Pwn «5*11CP
1 D ~26~ D 51 76 B 101 B :26
Id 27 52 B 77 102 ¥"
28 53 78 D 103 TT
Delete 29 54 B 79 104 TT B&D
30 B 55 80 105 B W
31 56 D 81 B&D 106 ¥ TT D
32 57 82 B 107 TT
33 D 58 83 108 TT D
D 34 ¥ 59 Delete 84 109 B TT ¥
10 35 ¥ 60 85 B 110 TJ ¥
TT B&D 36 61 86 111 TJ ¥
B 37 62 87 112 TT
Bi&C 38 D 63 B 88 D 113 D TT D
"14" 39 64 89 B&C 114 ¥ TT
"15" A&C 40 B 65 90 D 115 Delete 40" D
"T^ 41 ¥ 66 B 91 Delete TT6" TT A&C
IT 42 ¥ 67 ¥ 92 117 B 'TT B
Ts" B 43 ¥ 68 93 D 118 ¥ TT B
I9 44 69 D 94 119 ¥ TT
To D 45 D 70 95 120 TJ
~2l 46 71 D ~9^ 121 TJ D
TT D 47 72 97 122 B TT
TJ ~B 48 73 B 98 123 TT B
24 ~B 49 B 74 99 124 TT ¥
TJ 50 A,C,D 75 D 100 D 125 D Jo ¥
tlffSIT Pl4^ch
Text of page 7
Ql)<P
3ff^ vicnv
SET-(B)
^ arterf^i^ ^eTT-202i :- WTHT ^sm^^^ ^
\d(Xl'< \dal^ y^ VJal'< y^ \d<xix 3?^ vioiy y^ vjca^
y>w Jp^icp sFTiy^ y>w PP+iicp
1 26 D 51 D 76 101 126
27 D 52 B 77 102 127
28 53 B 78 103 B 128
B 29 Delete 54 D 79 B 104 129
A,C,D 30 55 B 80 105 B 130
B&D 31 56 D 81 D 106 B 131
7 B 32 57 D 82 107 D 132
B&C 33 58 83 108 133
34 D 59 D 84 109 134 B
10 A&C 35 60 85 D 110 D 135 B
11 D 36 61 B 86 111 D 136 B
12 D 37 62 87 B 112 D 137 D
13 B 38 B 63 B 88 B 113 138 B
14 39 64 B 89 114 B 139
15 D 40 D 65 90 115 140
16 D 41 66 D 91 116 B 141
17 42 D 67 A&C 92 117 142 B
18 43 B 68 D 93 A&B 118 B 143 B
19 44 B 69 94 D 119 144 B
20 B 45 70 B 95 120 D 145 B
21 46 71 96 121 B 146
22 47 72 D 97 122 147
23 D 48 D 73 Delete 98 B 123 148 B
24 B 49 74 99 124 B 149
25 B 50 B 75 B 100 125 B 150
Text of page 10
c|^^
SET-(A)
^STT ^■^: - ad^Wj^Rfr ^ 11^6^-2021 :— ■^TFTF^T a?SZT^
1?^ VJOl^ \d(Xl'< v3cH^ \b^'< X3?^ WR
jp+licp fl7+licp pp*iicn 5FW jp*iicp
1 26 B&D 51 B 76 101 126
27 B 52 D 77 D 102 B 127
B 28 B4&C 53 B 78 103 D 128 D
29 54 79 B 104 129 B
D 30 A&C 55 D 80 105 B 130
D 31 56 81 106 B 131
D 32 57 82 B 107 B 132 B
33 58 83 108 D 133 D
Delete 34 B 59 B 84 109 D 134
10 35 A,C,D 60 85 110 B 135
11 36 D 61 B 86 B 111 136 D
12 37 D 62 87 D 112 137
13 D 38 B 63 D 88 113 B 138
14 39 64 A&B 89 114 D 139 D
15 B 40 D 65 90 B 115 B 140
16 41 66 91 116 D 141
17 42 67 B 92 117 142 D
18 D 43 68 93 D 118 143 D
19 B 44 D 69 D 94 B 119 Delete 144
20 B 45 70 95 120 145
21 D 46 71 B 96 B 121 146
22 47 D 72 97 D 122 D 147
23 48 B 73 98 123 148 B
24 49 B 74 D 99 124 D 149 D
25 B 50 75 100 D 125 B 150
Page 1 of 32
Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.