MPPSC AE 2022: State Engineering Service Examination, Civil Engineering
Text of page 1
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TFPT/Time : 3 ^T^/Hours ^C^/Total Marks : 450
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INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
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immediately contact the Invigilator and get it replaced .with another Question Booklet. ^
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^ 2. This combined Question Booklet is divided in two Sections, Section—'A' and Section—B'.
3. Section—'A' contains 50 questions related to General Studies. These questions are in Hindi ^
and English languages. All questions are compulsory.
4. Section—"B' contains ICQ questions of concerned Civil,Engineering subject. All questions <3^
are in English language. All questions are compulsory.
c?4
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Text of page 3
SECTION—A
General Studies
1. What would you use for immediate '6. Which of the . following is an
real time communication with a example of guided media in
friend? communication?
[A] E-mail [A] USB-waves
[BJ IRC [B] Radio waves
[C] Usenet [C] Infrared
[D] Instant messaging '[D] Fibre optic cable '
'.7Government of India has launched
2. Which of the following is not an NMEICT project for which sector?
E-commerce activity?
[A] Administration sector
[A] B2B'
[B] Finance sector
[B] C2B
[C] Education sector'
[C] B2A . . [D] Conservation sector
[D] None of the above
''8. Which.of the following bus provides
'Plug and play' mode of operation
3. In Turing .test, the number of
to computer user?
participants is
[A] PCI
[A] one
[B] SCSI
[B] three
[C] USB
[C] four
[D] INT - ■
[D] None of the above
. 9. The method used in Artificial
Intelligence, for determining
4. Fuzzy logic has'.been' very
whether a computer is capable of
successful in • • • application. thinking like a human-being or not,
[A] washing machine • is called
[B] air conditioner ^ [A] Alpha Test
[C] dishwasher [B] A* Algorithm
[D] All of the above [C] Turing Test
[PJ Beta Test -.
5. Which of the following symbols and
10. Which technique'is used to convert
rules are used in FOPL? ■
an analog signal to digital signal?
[A] Predicate '" '" ! [A] Quantization
[B] Logic Quantifiers •* [B] Pulse Code Modulation
[C] Both [A] and [B] [C] B8ZS
[D] None of,the above ' • [D] HDB3
5-A [P.T.O.
Text of page 5
Ip]
11. Which of the following inscriptions 15. Name the Greek ambassador who
gives an account of a guild of established the Garuda Pillar at
weavers? Besnagar.
[A] Prayag Prashasti of [A] Megasthenes
Samudragupta
[B] Helipdorus
[B] Sanchi inscription of [C] Arrian
Chandragupta II
[D] Menander
[C] Mandsaur inscription of
Kumaragupta 16. Who was the author of
[D] Bhitari inscription of Viddhasalabhanjika?
Skandagupta [A] Bilhana
[B] Somadeva
12. Ancient name Maikal denotes
which of the following areas? [C] Bhasa
[A] Amarkantak [D] Rajashekhara
[B] Ujjain 17. Who is the author of Ram Rasayan?
[C] Malwa [A] Padmakar
[D] Bundelkhand [B] Ishuri
'[C] Rajashekhara
13. Which Chandela king died by
[L/J Ollil8Jl&
abandoning his body at the
confluence of Prayag?
18. Bagheli is closer to which dialect
[A] Harsha of Uttar Pradesh?
[B] Yashovarman [A] Bhojpuri
[C] Dhanga [B] Avadhi
[D] Vidyadhara [C] Khadi Hindi
[D1 Braj
14. Who established Sarada Sadan in
Dhar? 19, Who is accredited as the folk deity
at Bundelkhand?
[A] King Bhoja
[A] Pabuji Rathore
[B] Vidyadhara
[B] Lala Hardaul
[C] Vakpati Munja
[C] Veer Lorik
[D] Sindhuraja
[D] Gogaji
5-A [P.T.O.
Text of page 7
IP
20.. Who was the builder of the 23. Which of the following statements
Khajuraho group of temple? is incorrect regarding the climate
of Madhya Pradesh?
, [A] Pala
[A] In winter, the mean minimum
^ [B] Pratihara
temperature is 10 °C and the
[C] Chandela mean maximum temperature
is 25 ''C
[D] Paramara
[B] Average rainfall is less than
200 mm
21. Which of the following regions of
Madhya Pradesh are densely . [C] The heaviest rainfall is in the
forested? south-eastern part and
gradually decreases in north-
O %/
[A] Dudwara - Narsinghpur -
west
Haveli
[B] Gird - Gwalior [D] None of the above
[C] Satpura - Maikal area
24. Which of the following energy
[D] None of the above resources is found abundantly in
Johila, Sohagpur, Pench, Kanhan
and Singrauli?
22. Which of the following statements
represents the correct location of [A] Iron ore •
the Malwa Plateau?
{a) It lies on the western part of [B] Mineral oil
central highland.
[C] Natural gas
(b) It lies between Betwa and
Johilla valley. [D] Coal
(c) It lies to the east ,of
Bundelkhand highland. 25. The most important manganese
producing belt lies in which of the
(d) It lies to the north of river following district regions?
Narmada.
[A] Sheopur, Morena, Shivpuri
[A] (a)and (d) ■
[B] (a)and (c) [B] Balaghat, Chhindwara, Jhabua
[C] (b)and (d) ' [C] Sidhi, Katni, Mandsaur
[D] (c) and (b) [D] Gwalior, Khandwa, Bhopal
5-A P.T.O.
Text of page 9
26. Study the following statements. 29. What is the major source of
(a) It is a multipurpose project of irrigation in Madhya Pradesh?
Madhya Pradesh and Uttar [A] River
Pradesh.
[B] Canal
(b) The dam is constructed on
[C] Well and Tubewell
Betwa river on the boundary
of Ashoknagar and Lalitpur. [D] Pond
(c) The height of the dam is
43-80 meters and length is 30. What is the main cause of low
562-50 meters.
temperature in Pachmarhi?
Which of the following irrigation [A] Height and vegetation
projects represents the above.
statements? [B] Low population and rain
[A] Harsi [C] Vegetation and rivers
[D] Rivers and waterfalls
[B] Rajghat
[C] Gandhi Sagar 31. Who among the following was not
[D] Bansagar the Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
[A] Lalji Tandon
27. Diamond, which is found in [B] Kunwar Mahmood Ali Khan
Chhatarpur district is located in
[C] Kailash Nath Katju
which of the following development
blocks? [D] Sarla Grewal
[A] Bunder ,
32. Who among the following was the
[B] Picchore Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh?
[C] Pipariya [A] Satyanarayan Singh
[D] None of the above [B] Ram Naresh Yadav
[C] Bhagwat Dayal Sharma
28. In which year did the Madhya [D] Sunder Lai Patwa
Pradesh Government constitute a
separate department of new and
33. The Panchayati Raj system in
renewable energy?
Madhya Pradesh is
[A] April, 2008
[A] one tier
[B] April, 2009 [B] two tier
[C] April, 2010 [C] thrqe tier
[D] April, 2011 [D] None of the aboye
5-A [P.T.O.
Text of page 11
Bp]
.34. In which district of Madhya 38. In which district of Madhya
Pradesh is • Bhagoria festival Pradesh is Ordnance Factory,
celebrated? Khamaria situated?
[A] Jhabua [A] Indore
[B] Bhopal [B] Bhopal
[C] Dewas [C] Jabalpur
[D] Ujjain [D] Sagar
35. According to 2011 census, which 39. 'Souda-Patrak Mobile App'launched
is the district with the lowest by Government of Madhya Pradesh,
population density in Madhya is related to which of the following?
Pradesh?
[A] Agricultural sector
[A] Dindori
[B] Industrial sector
[B] Harda
[C] Educational sector
[C] Mandla
[D] None of the above
[D] Alirajpur
40. The product of Indore district in
36. According to 2011 census, which
Madhya Pradesh under 'One
is the least populous district of
District One Product'(ODOP) is
Madhya Pradesh?
[A] bamboo
[A] Dindori
[B] onion
[B] Harda ,
[C] garlic
[C] Jabalpur
[D] potato
[D] Dewas
37. Where is Sant Shiromani Ravidas
41. Who among the following attended
Global Skills Park located in
the Republic Day of India as the
Madhya Pradesh? chief guest in the year 2023?
[A] Bhopal [A] Abdel Fattah el-Sisi
[B] Shajapur [B] Justin Trudeau
[C] Chhindwara [C] Joe Biden
[D] Narsinghpur [D] Rishi Sunak
5-A 11 [P.T.O.
Text of page 13
42. Which Kalvari class submarine, 47. , Which of the following is not a
built under the P-75 project, was UNESCO world heritage site of
inducted into the Indian Navy in Madhya Pradesh?
January, 2023? [A] Khajuraho group of
[A] INS Kalvari monuments
[B] INS Damini [B] Rock shelters of Bhimbetka
[C] INS Khanderi [C] Buddhist monuments at
[D] INS Vagir Sanchi
[D] Udayagiri caves of Vidisha
43. In which State was the 36th
'National Games organised? 48. Which of the following sports has
[A] Gujarat been declared as the State sport
[B] Uttar Pradesh of Madhya Pradesh?
[C] Jharkhand [A] Table Tennis
[D] Kerala [B] Football
[C] Mallakhamb
44. In February 2023, 'Rashtriya
[D] Badminton
Sanskriti Mahotsav 2023' was-
organized in
49. Which of the following is the
[A] Bhopal scheme of Madhya Pradesh
[B] Bhubaneswar Government for improving the
health and education status of the
[0] Bengaluru
girls?
[D] Mumbai
[A] Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
45. Where in Madhya Pradesh, is the Abhiyan
country's first Geological Park [B] Ladli Laxmi Yojana
being set up?
[C] Gaon ki Beti Yojana
[A] Lamheta Village •
[D] Balika Shiksha and Health
[B] Tamot Protsahan Yojana
[C] Nagaud
50. What is the upper limit of the
[D] Hathnora
subsidy given to the farmers under
46. Where was the 17th Pravasi
Khet-Talab Yojana of the Madhya
Pradesh Government?
Bharatiya Divas organized?
[A] Indore [A] ^32,000
[B] Bhopal [B] ^21,350
[C] Mumbai [C] ^16,350
[D] Lucknow [D] None of the above
5-A 13 [P.T.O.
Text of page 14
/ SECTION—B
/ Civil-Engineering
51. The Bombay road plan commenced 54. Which of the following is the typical
from rigid pavement failure?
[A] Frost heaving
[A] 1958-78
[B] Water pumping
[B] 1959-79 [C] Mud pumping
[C] 1960-80 [D] None of the above
[D] 1961-81 55. The Passenger Car Unit (PCU)
value for bus and truck on urban
roads at signalised intersection is
52. The Indian Road Congress (IRC)
was formed in the year [A] 1-0
[B] 0-3
[A] 1934
[C] 0-4
[B] 1935
[D] 2-8
[C] 1936
56. Direction and place identification
signs are
[D] 1937 ' .
[A] regulatory signs
53. The Intermediate Sight Distance [B] warning signs
can be defined as
t •
[C] informatory signs
[A] the same distance equal to [D] prohibitory signs
stopping sight distance-'
57. For airports serving big aircrafts,
[B] twice the stopping, sight ICAO recommends that the cross -
distance wind component should not be
more than kmph.
[C] thrice the stopping sight
[A] 35
distance
[B] 40
[D] the distance visible to driver
[C] 50
during night driving, under the
vehicle headlights [D] 55
5-A 14
Text of page 15
58. As per Indian Road Congress (IRC), 61. Which of the following clay minerals
the range of class A loading varies has lowest base exchange capacity
from tonnes. in terms of meq per 100 gm?
[A] Illite
[A] 2-5 to 10-0 [B] Kaolinite
[C] Montmorillonite
[B] 2-6 to 11-2
[D] None of the above
[C] 2-7 to 11-4 62. The unit weight of solids (yj for a
soil is 27 kN/m^ and unit weight
[D] None of the above of water is 10 kN/m^. If void
ratio is 70%, then the submerged
unit weight (yj for the soil is
kN/m^.
59. The IRC code for the standard [A] 1000
specificatipn and code of practice
[B] 20-00
for road bridges is
[C] 21-76
[A] IRC-20 [D] 24-28
63. If two permeable soil layers of equal
[B] IRC-21
thickness have permeabilities k
and 2fc, then the equivalent
[C] IRC-18. coefficient of permeability is
lA] fc/2
[D] None of the above [B] 2/3 k
[C] 4/3 k
[D] 3/2 k
60. Reinforced concrete railway
bridges have been used up to the 64. Boussinesq's stress coefficient with
span of m.
' y
z
[A] 10 3
[A]
647C
[B] 15 3
[B]
323C
3
[C] 20 [C]
167C
3
[D] 25 [D]
Sn
5-A 15 [P.T.O.
Text of page 16
0^ /
65. The type B, one and one-half peak
68. In stability of slopes, is called
compaction curve is obtained when
the liquid limit of soil is as (Symbols have their usual
meanings)
[A] in the range of 30% to 70%
[A] critical number
■ [B] greater than 70% [B] mobilization number
[C] less than 30% and greater [C] stability factor
than 70%
[D] stability number
[D] less than 30%
69. Choose the correct descending
order of electrical resistivity, for
66. For a triaxial shear test on a soil the following different soils :
sample with C = 50 kN/m^ and
^ = 30°, Og = 100 kN/m^, the soil (a) Sandy clay
sample failed. So od = kN/m^.
(b) Clayey sand
[A] 373
(c) Sand
[B] 473
(d) Gravel
[C] 161 [A] (a), (b), (c), (d)
[D] 261 [B] (d),M(b),(a}
[C] (b), (ah (dh (c)
67. In C soils, local shear failure may
be assumed to occur in soft to [D] (ch (bh (dh (a)
medium stiff clay with an
unconfined compressive strength
70. The vibroflotation technique
(qj, kPa.
[A] is used for compacting clayey
[A] <250 soils only
[B] < 100 [B] is used for compacting any type
of soil
[C] < 150
[C] is used for compacting granular
soils only
[D] < 200
[D] All of the above
5-A 16
Text of page 17
71. The relation between Young's 74. A solid shaft having diameter d is
Modulus of Elasticity (E), Bulk subjected to a torque T at its ends.
Modulus (if) and Modulus of The maximum shear stress
Rigidity (C) is developed will be
[A] nd
3K + C
[AI
9KC
[B] E =
3K~C
Tzd^
3K + C
[B]
[C] E = 3^
9KC
167
3K-C [C]
ID]'E^ Tzd^
9KC
327
72. If any beam or truss is having a [DI
deflection at any point D, due to Kd^
a load W at any point C, then what
will be the deflection at the point C 75. A semicircular bracket ABC o
due to the same load W applied at radius R is fixed at A. A rigid
point D, according to Maxwell's horizontal arm BO of length R is
reciprocal deflection theorem? attached at B. The bracket carries
[A] Half of a vertical load P at O. The vertical
[B] Less than A^ deflection of the load is given by
[C] Equal to A^
[D] Greater than A^
73. Match the following :
List—I List—II
(a) Maximum principal (i) Beltrami
stress theory or Haigh
(b) Maximum principal (ii) Tresea
strain theory
PR^
(c) Maximum shear stressful) Rankine [AI
theory 3EI
(d) Maximum strain (iv) ST. Venant
energy theory tzPR"^
[B]
(a) (b) (0) (d) 2EI
[A] (Hi) (iv) (ii) d)
PR"^
[B] (ii) (Hi) (iv) [C]
(i) 6EI
[CJ (Hi) (i) (ii) (iv)
nPR^
[D] Civ) (Hi) [D]'
(i) (ii) 12EI
5-A 17 [P.T.O.
Text of page 18
What are the values of maximum 78. In a two-dimensional stress
shear force and maximum bending system, Mohr's circle of stress for
moment for a simply supported two unequal unlike principal
beam carrying a load whose stresses is drawn. The radius of
intensity varies uniformly from zero Mohr's circle drawn for this case
at one end to w per unit run at the represents
other end?
[A] maximum principal stress
[B] minimum principal stress
wl^ wr
[A] 6'9S
[C] maximum shear stress
[D] maximum shear strain
wl wl
3'9V3 79, A fixed beam is having length I and
carrying uniformly distributed load
w throughout the span. The
wl wfi distance of point of contraflexure
[C1 8 from the centre of span is given by
[A] /./3
PI Xii
77. in a rectangular element subjected
to like principal stresses Pj and P2
in two mutually perpendicular [C]
directions; the greatest shear
stress would occur along the
PI /3V2
[A] plane canying principal stress
80, A cantilever 3 m long carries a
uniformly distributed load over the
[B] plane carrying principal stress , entire length. If the slope at the
free end is 1°, the deflection at the
free end will be
[C] planes at angles 45° and 135°
with the principal plane [A] 6-5x mm
canying the principal stress Pj
[B] 10*5Jt mm
[D] planes at angles 90° and 0° [C] 12*5x mm
with the principal plane
canying the principal stress P^ [Dl 15-Ox mm
&-A IS
Text of page 19
81. When the effect of wind .,or v84. . FjOr;a rolled steel I-section with
earthquake load-,is taken into
, account,, the permissible stress in
' s h'/ . r and ' ty ^100 anc
the steel structural member may / buckling about 'z-z axis, the
be increased by bucliiihg class of the member is
[A] 20% . ''(All symbols have their standard
[B] 25% meanings.)
[C]33%,, ,
.:'.Y
[D] 40% ,
82. If the allowable shear stress in rivet
is 100 N/mm^, then the strength h.z- ■z
o'f a 22 mm diameter,rivet in single
shear will be
[A] 39194 N
[B] 41608 N.
[C] 43374 N
Rolled I-Section
[D],46000 N - . .7 , i
[Al buckling class d
83. The design compressive stress
of axially loaded compression [B] buckling class;C , ... .
t, . -".v.-,, ■ '.vJ 5. ■' V
members is given by
, ' \ c '' , - If. ' ,■> I' ( '
' . IP] buckling class d'
fv
[A] [p]' buckiihg class' b ''''
fmo _ -". j ,/j
} yi
- ■ (...iVii
IB]
A" (|> +((|)2-X2jO:5 85i''Afi -I-section purlin bf s^an 4*50 m
, Ymo _ is subjected to a total gravity load
of 5000 N. The purlin will be
'designed fdr^'maximum bending
o\0-5'
Ymo moment of (in N-m) -
[C] ♦-(♦'.-xT
4A] 2250^: T'.
'' , ■ • •■-T • • • '. '
Ymo s ■^-iB] Ull.M:ll ■ .7 '
[D]
fy
..^'[C] 12650. -A .
where all S3mibols have their usual
meanings. ; 11250.i ^
&-A 19 ' [P.TA
Text of page 20
86. As per IS 800 ; 2007, for plastic 91. An RC beam is 200 mm wide and
analysis, the cross-section of the having 350 mm effective depth. The
member should be
permissible stresses in concrete and
[A] subjected to impact loading steel are bN/mm^ and 140 N/mm^
[B] symmetrical about its axis respectively. The percentage of steel
perpendicular to the axis of required is (take m = 18'66)
plastic hinge rotation
[C] made of steel having yield
stress more than 450 mPa [A] 1-0
[D] Only [A] and [B] ■
87. Lug angle is . [B] 0-32
[A] a short length of angle section
used to reduce the length of
joint [C1 0-714
[B] usually highly recommended in
tension members
[D] 1-22
[C] an angle section provided to
join two sections
[D] provided to resist shear
92. The degree of end restraint of
88. Mansard trusses are variation of compression member is given as :
[A] Pratt truss "Effectively held in position at both
ends, restrained against rotation
[B] Fan truss
at one end".
[C] Fink truss
[D] Howe truss
As per IS ; 456:2000 the
89. Gusseted base is used for column recommended value of effective
to cany length is (where I = unsupported
[A] medium load length of compression member)
[B] dead load
[C]" only static load [A1 0-65 I
[D] heavy load
90. Battens are used to connect the [B1 1-20 I
main components of
[A] tension member
[C] 0-80 I
[B] compression member
[C] flexural member
[D] torsional member [D] 0-10 I
5-A 20
Text of page 21
93. For a T-beam, the effective width 95. The approximate fundamental
of flange can be taken as' translational natural period (TJ of
oscillation in second of a moment
[A] + +
resisting RC frame building without
any masonry infills may be
estimated by which of the following
expressions {where h is height of
IB] bf=-^+3b^+3Df building in meters)?
[A] 0-085
[C] bf=^+b^+3Dj. [B] 0-075 A 0-75
[C] 0-090 h 0-75
[D] bj-=!^+6b^+6Df , [D] 0-060/10-75
96. A pretensioned concrete beam of
where bj- = effective width of flange rectangular cross-section, 150 mm
wide and 300 mm deep, is
Iq - distance between points prestressed by high tensile wires
of zero moments in the of total cross-section area 300 mm^.
beam All wires are located at 100 mm
from the soffit of the beam. If the
b... - breadth of the web wires are tensioned to a stress o.
1000 N/mm^, the percentage loss
Dy = thickness of flange of stress due to elastic deformation
is equal to (Take = 30 kN/mm^,
b = actual width of flange = 200 kN/mm^)
[A] 5-926
94. For the limit state of serviceability, [B] 6-666
the value of partial safety factor [C] 2-333
7^for DL + IL + WL combination will
be [D] None of the above
[A] l-S DL I'S IL + l-Q WL 97. As per IS 3370 (Part 2) : 2009, the
crack width for reinforced concrete
[B] 1-ODZ,+ 1-0 2L + 0-8 member in direct tension and
flexural tension may be deemed to
[C] I'O DL + Q-S IL + Q-3 WL be satisfactory, if steel stress under
service conditions does not exceed
[D] 0-9 DL + 1-2 iL + 1-5 WL for high strength deformed
bars.
where DL = Dead load [A] 115N/mm2
[B] 190 N/mm2
IL = Imposed load
[C] 130 N/irim2
WL = Wind load [D] None of the above
5-A 21 [P.T.O.
Text of page 22
98. The minimum grade of concrete 101. What is "Optimistic Time Estimate"
used for the design of reinforced in Project Management?
concrete water tank is and [A] The maximum possible time an
that for the design of prestressed t- '
activity could take to complete
concrete water tank is
[B] The average time calculated
[A] M30;M40 from historical data
[B] M20;M35 [C] The estimate of the shortest
[C] M15; M40
possible time under ideal
conditions
[D1 M20; M40
[D] The time estimate which lies
between optimistic and
99. When the allowable soil pressure pessimistic estimates
is low or the building loads are
heavy, in such cases a footing is
provided that covers the entire 102.'. What is "Expected Time" in PERT
analysis?
area beneath a structure and
supports all the walls and columns [A] The most optimistic time
known as estimate for completing an
activity
[A] pile foundation
[B] combined footing
[B] The average optimistic,
pessimistic and most likely
[C] raft foundation time estimates for completing
an activity
[D] strap footing
[C] The time estimate for
100. For a column with rectangular completing an activity -with the
section, as per IS 456 : 2000 code, highest probability
all columns shall be designed for a [D] The longest time estimate for
minimum eccentricity equal to completing an activity
[l = unsupported length of column)
I lateral dimension 103. What is the purpose of "Crash
[A] 500 or 20 mm Time" in Project Management?
30
whichever is greater [A] It is the time taken to complete
an activity under normal
I lateral dimension conditions
[B] 500 or 20 mm
30
whichever is less [Bl It is the maximum allowable
time for completing an activity
I lateral dimension
[C] 500•+— [C] It is the minimum possible
20 time for completing an activity
using extra resources
[D1 or 20 mm whichever is
I i 'inn
300 [D] It is the time beyond which an
greater activity cannot be shortened
5-A 22
Text of page 23
104. What effect does extending the 108. How is the Le-Chatelier apparatus
boom of a crane have on its load
used in the Soundness Test?
rating?
[A] It increases the load rating [A] To measure the extension of a
[B] It does not affect the load rating standard specimen
[C] It decreases the load rating
[B] To calculate the normal
[D] It depends on the type of crane
consistency of cement paste
105. Why are detachable curved plates,
and spikes used in transporting a [C] To assess the ■ compressive
sheep-foot roller? strength of concrete
[A] To protect the roller's drum
[D] To determine the quantity o
[B] To save fuel during water required for mixing
transportation
[C] To prevent damage to existing
tracks 109. Which type of aggregate shape
[D] To reduce the overall weight of results in the -highest voids in
the roller concrete? .
106. How are loads adjusted on the [A] Rounded
wheels of a smooth wheeled roller?
[B] Angular
[A] By replacing the wheels with
different sizes
[C] Cubical
[B] By filling the wheels with sand,
gravel or water
'[D] Flaky.
[C] By reducing the number of
wheels
[D] By attaching additional weights 110. What is the recommended limit for
to the roller air ehtrainmerit in concrete to
avoid decreasing of its strength?
07. Which component is not responsible
for setting and hardening of [A] Up to 2%
cement?
[A] Dicalcium silicate [B] Up to 4-5%
[B] Tetra calcium aluminoferrite
[C] Up to 8-10%
[C] Tricalcium aluminate
[D] Calcium sulphate [D] Up to 15%
5-A 23 fP.T.O.
Text of page 24
0^
111. Calculate the ultimate first 114. A horizontally flowing rectangular
stage BOD of sewage sample whose sedimentation tank with
5 day's BOD at 20 °e is 100 mg/1. continuous flow takes time
(Assume deoxygenation constant at to fill the tank when there are ho
20 °C as O'l) outflows. Assume Q = discharge,
L = length of tank, B = width of
[A] 68-3 mg/1 tank, H = depth of tank.
- [B] 90 mg/1 [A] Q/BLH
[C] 146-2 mg/1 [B] BLH/Q : '
[D] 111-1 mg/1 [C] Q/BL
[D] Q/BH
112. In air binding phenomenon, air
binds the filter and stops its.
functioning. This occurs due to the 115. Manholes are generally located at
fnrmatinn of in
[A] all junctions of different
[A] mud balls, slow sand filters sewers
[B] negative pressure, rapid gravity [B] any change of gradient in
filters sewer length
[C] dissolved solids, slow sand [C] any change of diameter in
filters sewers
[D] high temperature, rapid gravity [D] All of the above
filters
116. As per Goodrich formula, the
113. A coloured liquid containing maximum monthly demand for
chlorinated hydrocarbons and toxic wntpt- snpplv is of average
compounds is known as leachate. monthly demand.
It is collected from
[A] 180%
" [A] aerated lagoons
[B] 148%
[B] digested sludge tank
[C] 128%
[C] sanitary landfills
[D] septic tank [D] 150%
5-A 24
Text of page 25
117. Sludge produced in a biological 121. The rate of flow through per unit
aeration system is having mixed cross-sectional area per unit
liquor suspended solids as hydraulic gradient is known as
2500 rng/l and settled sludge [A] storage coefficient
volume is 200 ml in 1 litre.
Calculate the sludge volume index [B] coefficient of transmissibility
of the sample. [C] coefficient of permeability
[A] 0*08 ml/gm [D] coefficient of variation
[B] 80 ml/1
122. An intermediate pile of 6 m length
[C] 80 ml/gm is situated at a distance of 24 m
[D] 0-08 mg/1 from the 6 m long upstream pile.
The total floor length is 60 m. Then
the correction value at (rear
118. Corrosion of metal pipes used in point of the upstream pile in the
water supply can be reduced by direction of flow) in determining
[A] adding lime or powdered chalk the percentage pressure for mutual
interface of pile is
[B] adding sodium hexa-
[A] 1-49
metaphosphate
[B] 1-90
[C] doing chlorination of water
[C] 2-05
[D] Both [A] and [B]
[D] None of the above
119. As per NAAQS 2009, the maximum
123. To estimate evapotranspiratio'n, the
permissible annual concentration
assumption that monthly
of PM^q and PMg.g respectively in temperature and mean monthly
ecologically sensitive areas are consumptive use have on
[A] 100 pg/m^ and 80|ig/m^ exponential relationship is known
as
[B] 60(ig/m^-and 30 pg/m^
[A] Penman formula
[C] 60 pg/m^ and 40 pg/m^
[B] Blaney-Criddle method
[D] 180 pg/m^ and 80 pg/m^
[C] Christiansen method
120. What should be the minimum DO [D] Thornthwaite formula
value to be maintained in river
streams to sustain fishes and other 124. Hydfopower production in
aquatic life in river? hydropower plant mainly depends
on
[A] 8 mg/1 to 10 mg/1
[A] rainfall
[B] 4 mg/1 to 5 mg/1 [B] coal availability
[C] More than actual DO value [C] reservoir width
[D] Equal to saturated DO value [D] cost
5-A 25 fP.T.O:
Text of page 26
sp]
125. When canal is taken over the 128. Which of the following is not the
main function of head regulator?
natural drain and drain bed is
' generally depressed; the cross- [A] To regulate or control the
drainage work is known as supplies entering the off-take
channel
[A] syphon
[B] To effectively control the entire
[B] aqueduct canal irrigation system
[C] superpassage [C] To serve as a meter for
measuring discharge
[D] syphon aqueduct
[D] To control silt entry into the
off-take channel
126. An S-curve is obtained by the
summation of 4 hr unit hydrograph 129. If irrigation water is carrying Ca,
for a catchment of 60 km^. The Mg and Na concentration as 5, 3
equilibrium discharge in m^/s is and 38 milliequivalents per litre
respectively, then sodium
[A] 9-28 absorption ratio and type of water
are
I
[B] 18-53
[A] 17, medium sodium
[C] 41-70
[B] 17, high sodium
[D], 55-24 [C] 19, medium sodium
• [D] 19, high sodium
127. If the'initial and sequent depths of
a hydraulic jump are 1-2 m and
3-6 m respectively, then the value 130. At the outlet of a watershed, a
of Froude number and the type
triangular 4 hr unit hydrograph
of jump are
with ordinate 6 (m^/s) and base
6 hr is developed, then area (km^
of the watershed is
[A] = 2-445, weak jump
[A] 4-32
[B1 Fj^ = 2-445, undular jump
[B] 6-48
[C] F^ = 4-255, steady jump
[C] 8-64
[D] Fj = 4-255, strong jump
[D] None of the above
5-A 26
Text of page 27
131. The headloss due to contraction is 134. A rectangular channel 2-5 m wide
expressed as .(Here = V^^.) carries water at a depth of 1-2 m
The bed slope of the channel is
[A] iVi^-Vi)/2g 0-0036. Calculate the average
shear stress on the boundary.
[B] [y^-V^]l2g [A] 21-58 Pa
[C] 0-55(Vi-V2f/23 [B] 25-85 Pa
[C] 22-65 Pa
[D] {Vi-V2f 12g [D] None of the above
132. The term alternative depth is used 135, Lift force (F^) is expressed
in an open channel flow to denote mathematically as =-
the depths having the same
for a given discharge. [A]
[A] kinetic energy [B]' ya pv^C^A
[B] potential energy [C] 2 pv^Cj^A
[C] speciflc energy [D] 1 pv^C^A
[D] total energy where p = Density
= Coefficient of lift
133. If E is specific energy at a section
A = Area of the body
in a gradually varied flow, then -r- which is the projected area to the
dx body perpendicular to the direction
is of flow
[A] So+Sf . V = Uniform velocity
N
[Brs„-s^ 136. Bernoulli's equation from Euler's
equation deals with the law of
conservation of
[C] Sf-S„
[A] mass
[D] Sj./S„-1 [B] momentum
where is bed slope [C] energy
S^is ener^ slope [D] None of the above
5-A 27 [P.T.O.
Text of page 28
137. Find the discharge through a totally 141. Using the sleeper density of(m + 6)
drowned orifice 2 m wide and 1 m for a BG track, determine the
deep, if the difference of water number of sleepers required for
levels on both the sides of the construction of 100 panels of
orifice be 3 m. Take = 0*62. 13 metres each.
[A] 6'432 m^/sec [A] 1300
[B] 7*356 m^/sec [B] 1306
[C] 8*783 m^/sec
[C] 1900
[D] 9*513 m^/sec
[D] None of the above
138. The stream function = is
observed for a two-dimensional flow 142. The standard top width of ballast
for BG track of Indian Railways is
fluid. What is the magnitude of the
velocity at point (1, -1)? [A] 3*35 m
[Al 4*24
[B] 3*53 m
[B] 2*83
[C] 2*35 m
[C] 2-33 .
[D] 3*87 [D] 2*53 m
139. A model of reservoir is drained in 143. Centre-to-centre minimum spacing
5 minutes by opening a sluice gate. of formation for double railway line
The model scale is 1 : 256. How for BG is
much time would it take to. empty
the protot5rpe? [A] 4250 mm
[A] 80 minutes [B] 4725 mm
[B] 60 minutes
[C] 5050 mm
[C] 70 minutes
[D] 5350 mm
[D] 90 minutes
140. A flat plate of size 2 m x 3 m is 144. The type of fastening that can be
submerged in water flowing with a ■ fixed on wooden, steel, cast iron
velocity of 5 m/sec. Find the drag and concrete sleeper is
(inkN), if Cd = 0*04. [A] pandrol clip
[A] 13
[B] IRN 202 clip
[B] 15
[C] lock spike
[C] 12
[D] None of the above [D] two-way keys
5-A 28
Text of page 29
■^0 ^—
145. The value of maximum- allowable 149. Match correctly the given nature
superelevation on BG in Indian of resistance with its
Railways under normal conditions understanding :
' is
Nature of Understanding
[A] 100 mm
resistance
[B] 140 mm
(i) Resistance due to (a) Resistance
[C] 165 mm friction dependent on
weight and
[D] 185 mm speed of train
(ii) Resistance due to (b) Resistance
146. For determining the number of wave action dependent on
angles of crossing, the method used ■ '- weight 0
in Indian Railways is train only
[A] right angle method (Hi) Resistance due to (c) Resistance
wind dependent
[B] centreline method on weight .anc
square of speec
[C] isosceles triangle method of train
[D] None of the above [A] (iy(a), (ii}-(b), (iii)~(c)
47. A falling gradient followed by a [B] . (i)-(a), (m)-(b), (ii}-(c)
rising gradient is known as
[C] (HHa), (i)-(b),-(m)^(c)
[A] ruling gradient
[D] (i)-(c), (iij-fbjy (ni)-(a)
[B] pusher gradient
[C] angular gradient
[D] momentum gradient 150. In Standard-II interlocking on
Indian Railways, the maximum
speed of the train is
48. Gauge tolerance for BG on a
straight track is ■ '' [A] ■ 50 kmph
[A] -3 mm to +6 mm
[B] 110 kmph
[B] -6 mm to +6 mm
[C] 130 kmph
[C] -6 mm to +15 mm
[D] Up to +20 mm ■ ^ [D] None of the above
5-A 29 fP.T.O.
Text of page 30
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Ct)T3^ CfilH
30
5-A
Text of page 31
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P.T.O.
Text of page 32
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
M
>
32
MM23/5(050)—3275x4
5'A
Page 1 of 32
Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.