MPPSC AE 2024: State Engineering Service Exam, Mechanical Engineering
Text of page 1
SET
RSAE/2024/M
5312733
A Mechanical Engineering
Question Booklet No. Ol*?!^ I
d^H^Mich Candidate should write his/her Roll No.
Roll No. in the given boxes.
No. ofPrinted Pages : 40 ^vl y^nl^WtT / Total No. of Questions : 150
WT/ Time: 03 /03 Hours gjnfe/ Total Marks ; 450
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INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDmATES
1. Immediately after the commencement ofthe examination, you should check that this Question Booklet </oes
not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, immediately contact the Invigilator and
get it replaced with Question Booklet.
2. This combined Question Booklet is divided in two Sections, Section-'A' and Section-'B'.
3. Section-'A' contains 50 questions of General Studies. All questions are in Hindi and English language. All
questions are compulsory.
4. Section-'B' contains 100 questions of Mechanical Engineering subject. All questions are in English
language. All questions are compulsory. Candidates should ensure that he/she has got the question paper of
the same post for which he/she had applied.
5. All questions cany equal marks. Three (03)marks will be given for each correct answer. There is provision
of Negative Markings as per examination plan. For each wrong answer. One(01) mark will be deducted.
6. Read carefully the instructions given on the Answer Sheet (OMR) supplied and indicate your answers
accordingly.
7. Kindly make necessary entries on the Answer Sheet(OMR)at the places indicated and nowhere else.
8. Examinee should do all rough work on the space meant for rough work on pages given at the end of the
Question Booklet and nowhere else, not even on the Answer Sheet(OMR).
9. If there is any sort of mistake either ofprinting or offactual nature in any question, then out ofthe Hindi and
English versions ofthe question, the Hindi version will be treated as standard(with ref. to Section-A).
RSAE/2024/M ooOO lOOott 11 Set A
Text of page 3
Section-'A' - General Studies
a>
Which of the following place is not 5. In the year 2023-24, whose dropout
^ .
broadcasting 'Vanya Community rate was 1higher
- 1 xi.
at both the pnmary
Radio Center'?
and secondary levels in Madhya
Pradesh?
A. Meghnagar (Jhabua) A. Boys at both levels
B. Khalwa(Khandwa) B. Boys at primary, girls at
C. Sailana(Ratlam) secondary
D. Bijouri(Chhindwara) C. Girls at both levels
0"1
CO D. Girls at primary, boys at
2. Which ofthe following is a key secondary
advantage of cloud computing?
6. Which of these rivers originating
BSB
A. Increased power consumption from Satpura mountains flows
CO
B. Physical storage dependency CO towards the south?
C. Virtualization and better server A. Johilla
utilization B. Banjar
D. Limited Resource access C. Wainganga
D. Tawa
3. Which pair is not correctly matched?
7. In which one place are both
A. Fazil Muhammad - Gada
m Kunvaramath and Jalpa devi temple
ambapani located?
B. Raja Bakhatbali - Shahgarh A. Jaso,(Satna)
C. Raghunath Mandloi - Badwani B. Udaigiri,(Vidisha)
D. Faijand Ali - Dhar C. Kardameshwamath
(Hoshangabad)
4. Who was the author of the 'Papers D. Ramvan (Burhanpur)
Relating to the Aboriginal Tribes of CO
00
8. Who is the first Chief Justice of
Central Provinces'?
Madhya Pradesh High Court?
A. John Malcolm
A. Hon'ble Justice P. V. Dixit
B. Stephen Hislop B. Hon'ble Justice G. P. Bhutt
oo
C. Heeralal C. Hon'ble Justice M. Hidayatullah
D. Elwin Verrier D. Hon'ble Justice Bishambhar
Dayal
OJ
00
RSAE/2024/M •ooOO 3 O O o o 11 Set A
Text of page 5
9. Which tribal revolutionary of 13. After whom is the 'Karma' festival
Madhya Pradesh died in Andaman I celebrated widely in tribal society
Jail during his life sentence?
named?
A. Revolutionary Naval Shah
B. Revolutionary Nizam Shah A. In the name of Goddess
C. Revolutionary Bhima Nayak B. In the name of Tree
D. Revolutionary Raghuvir Singh
C. In the name of River
Mandloi
D. None ofthe above
Ip- Maharaja Hastin, mentioned in the to
Khoh inscription of Guptsanvat 156, 14. The Prime Minister of India
K>
belonged to which of the following
dynasties? congratulated which Indian chess
CO
A. Uchchakalpa player on defeating world no. 01
B. Rajarshitulya Chess player Hou Yifan in the 2"^^ leg
C. Parivrajaka of Blitz semifinal at World Team
D. Nal Blitz Championship at London on
1 !_• According to the Ramnagar 19^Mune 2025?
inscription who was the founder of
A. R. Vaishali
Gond dynasty of Garha?
A. Yadavrai B. Soumya Swaminathan
B. Hridayshah C. Divya Deshmukh
C. Sumer Singh
CO
D. Harika Dronavalli
D. VeerNarayan
12. According to Indian Railways Report 15. What was the position of Madhya
2023-24 what was the position of Pradesh in the country in wind energy
CO
Madhya Pradesh in the country in to capacity (on May 2025)?
terms of Railway Network?
A. Sixth
A. Eighth
B. Third B. Seventh
C. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Fourth
D. Fifth
CO
CO
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 7
16. Which subsector had the lowest tn 20. Against which ruler did Babar laimch
contribution to Madhya Pradesh's an attack on Chanderi?
Gross State Value Added(GSVA)
A. Medini Rai
within the primary sector in the year
2024-25? B. Rao Silhadi
A. Livestock C. Rao Vikram
B. Forestry D. Man Singh
C. Fisheries and Aquaculture
21. What was Madhya Pradesh's score in
D. Crops
Goal 4(Quality Education), as per
In which event Priyanshi Prajapat of
17. to the NITI Aayog SDG India Index
m Madhya Pradesh won the gold medal 2023-24?
at Vietnam in June 2025?
A. 49
A. Archery
B. 50
B. Boxing
C. 56
C. Wrestling
D. 62
D. Shooting
18. Name India's first indigenously 22. What is the main goal of launching
designed and built diving support GYAN Mission in Madhya Pradesh?
vessel which was given to Indian
A. Export promotion
navy on 18^ July 2025?
B. Inclusive and comprehensive
A. INSNilgiri
Wu
growth
B. INS Nistar
C. Urban beautification
C. INS Udaygiri JO
D. Administrative downsizing
D. INS Surat
19. When independent India got full
23. How many tribal development Blocks
administrative control on Bhopal are there in Madhya Pradesh?
State? A. 86
A. August 1947 B. 89
B. Jime 1949 ro
C. 84
C. January 1950
D. 80
D. January 1949
RSAE/2024/M •ooOO 7 Q O o o 11 Set A
Text of page 9
24. When TESA Act' was implemented 28. Which of the following statements is
SSIsl
in Madhya Pradesh? ^ correct regarding irrigation in
Madhya Pradesh in the year 2023-24?
A. November 2021
A. Wells and tubewells are at the top
B. November 2022 among the sources of irrigation.
C. November 2023 B. Ponds are at the second place
among the sources of irrigation.
D. November 2024
C. Canals are at fourth position
According to the 2011 census, which
25. among the sources of irrigation.
H were the first four districts in Madhya D. The net irrigated area in Dindori
Pradesh in terms of population size? and Anuppur is higher than the
state average.
A. Indore, Bhopal, Jabalpur, Gwalior
29. The folk dance called "Dandhar" is
B. Indore, Bhopal, Jabalpur, Ujjain
the folk dance of which tribe?
C. Indore, Jabalpur, Sagar, Bhopal A. Bhil
D. Indore, Jabalpur, Bhopal, Rewa B. Gond
26. Who is the author of the book "The C. Manjhi
Highlands of Central India" written D. Kanwar
on the tribal area of Madhya Pradesh?
30. One of the objectives of Revamped
A. VariyarElwin Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan is-
B. W. B. Grigson CO
A. I)evelop governance capabilities
of Panchayati Raj Institutions to
C. Captain J. Forsyth deliver on Sustainable
D. R. V. Russell, Hiralal Development Goals.
B. Develop capabilities of women
27. 'Karkraj Temple' in Madhya Pradesh and children towards better
is located in- governance.
A. Ujjain Ul C. Enhance economic capabilities of
urban-rural population.
B. Omkareshwar
E-O D. Ensure immigration to urban
C. Maheshwar places for employment
CO
opportunities.
D. Amarkantak
RSAE/2024/M ooOO 9 O O O O 11 Set A
Text of page 11
31. An optical scanner used to read an Qi 34. Under which section of the
,, Bsa
Scheduled Caste and Schedule Tribes
image and recognize text from it is
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989
known as-
the State Government has been given
A. Optical Character Recognition the power to establish special courts?
(OCR) A. Section - 12
B. Section - 14
B. Optical Mark Recognition(OMR)
C. Section-16
CO
C. Magnetic Ink Character ^ D. Section-18
Recognition(MICR)
^ 35^ The inscription of Chandragupta
D. Bar Code Reader(BCR) CO- ii? Vikramaditya at Sanehi mentions—.
A. Sawantardav
32. The Minister of Department of
B. Amrakardav
Women and Child Development in
C. Chellakardav
the 16^ Legislative Assembly of
D. Bilahanardav
Madhya Pradesh is .
36. What is the HTTP status code
msa
A. Smt. Krishna Gaur a returned by the server, when a web
B. Smt. Pratima Bagri page is not found on the server?
A. 404
C. Sushri Nirmala Bhuria
B. 403
CO
D. Smt. Radha Singh C. 304
33. The resolution of a printer is D. 303
lap]
m measured in which unit?
CO Who is the recipient of the 59^^
^ Jnanpith Award for the year 2024?
A. DPI
A.
tn
B. PPI
B.
C. PPM C.
D. KBS D.
CO
RSAE/2024/M •ooOOllOOoo 11 Set A
Text of page 13
38. On the basis of the following cn 40. According to India State of Forest
« .. [3813
statements regarding Satpura, select B:? Report 2023, which are the first three
districts in terms of area(%)under
the correct answer from the code
forests in Madhya Pradesh?
given below-
CO-
A. Balaghat, Mandla, Dindori
(1) The Western part of Satpura is
B. Umaria, Balaghat, Sheopur
also called Rajpipla hills.
C. Sheopur, Mandla, Balaghat
(2) Most of the hilly areas here are
D. Dindori, Umaria, Balaghat
900 m. high.
41. Which of the two sensors help the
(3) The maximum height of western ^li5
B< mobile display change between
Satpura is 1325 m.
C/0 vertical and horizontal orientations
(4) Maikal range is a connecting based on how we hold the mobile
link between the Vindhyas and phone?
Satpuras. A. Accelerometer and Gyroscope
Code: B. Accelerometer and proximity
sensor
A. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
C. Magnetometer and Micro
B. Only 1,2 and 4 are correct. telescope
C. Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct. D. Barometer and Gyroscope
D. All 1, 2,3 and 4 are correct. 42. Match the column-
in
CO District Proposed Industrial
39. The Scheduled Castes and the
Area
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of (a) Gwalior (1) Semlikankad
Atrocities) Act was enacted in the to (b) Mandsaur (2) Mohna
to
which month of year 1989? (c) Morena (3) Mawai
(d) Dhar (4) Lalbagh
A. August
A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. September to
B. a-4,b-3,c-2,d-l
C. October
C. a-2,b-l,c-3,d-4
D. November CO
CO
D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
RSAE/2024/M OOOO13OOO0 11 Set A
Text of page 15
43. Which of the following statements is Q\ 45. Which ofthe following statements is
050 ®
t correct regarding the production of Wm. correct regarding the winter season in
Jowar in Madhya Pradesh in the year the State of Madhya Pradesh?
2020-21?
tUJ A. There is low pressure in January.
A. The State was third in the country
in the production of Jowar.
B. There is low pressure in
^ December.
B. The State was fifth in the country
in the production of Jowar,
C. There is high pressure in January.
C. The highest production in the
State was in Dindori district.
D. The nights are shorter in this
season.
D. Bhind and Gwalior were among
the major producing districts in ii 46^ Kunwar Chain Singh was associated
the State.
with which Princely State of Madhya
Pradesh?
44. In which Hindi month is the
0S!0
0^ Meghnad festival celebrated by the
Gond tribe? o-i A. Dhar
L'2
A. Kwanr
B. Narsinghgarh
B. Jyeshtha
C. Raghogarh
C. Sawan
C/1
CO D. Rajgarh
D. Falgun
CO
RSAE/2024/M ooOO 15 QOOO 11 Set A
Text of page 17
47. In which district is the prehistoric iSi 49. "Laying down standards for emission
HI rock art site of Chaturbhuj Nala ^ discharge of environmental
located? pollutants from various sources
whatsoever" comes within the
A. Dhar general powers of under
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
(St
B. Betul
^ A. State Government
w
C. Mandsaur
B. Central Government
oo
D. Anuppur C. Local Self Government
D. National Green Tribunal
48. When did Gondwana's queen
1^ Durgawati sacrifice herself while 50. Which Padma Shri Award recipient
[ililQ
fighting with Mughal Commander in 2025, of Madhya Pradesh has
AsafKhan? prepared a Nimadi dictionary and
grammar book?
A. Year 1560 oo
BKIhX
A. Shri Bheru Singh Chouhan
B. Year 1562
B. Shri Jagdish Joshila
C. Year 1564 C. Shri Harchandan Singh Bhatti
C71
Cfi?
D. Shri Budhendra Kumar Jain
D. Year 1566
CO
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 18
Section-'B' - Mechanical Engineering
51. Arrange the following entities- 53^ Which statement fi^om following
(i) Gross profit (a)The amount of about the afterburning stage of the
money that a
company owes
combustion in SI engine is true?
to others
A. Pressure inside combustion
(ii) Liabilities (b)Gross profit
minus operating chamber increases during
expense afterburning stage.
(iii) Operating (c)Net sales minus
B. Pressure inside combustion
profit the cost of
goods sold chamber decreases during
(iv) Net cash (d)Profit after tax afterburning stage.
flows minus non-cash
revenue plus C. Pressure inside combustion
non-cash chamber remains constant during
expenses
afterburning stage.
A. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
B. i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b D. Pressure inside combustion
C. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d chamber may increase or
D. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a decrease depending on the
52. A uniformly distributed load (udl) of amount of fuel supplied.
load intensity w is acting on entire f,"
span(t)of a simple supported beam. Ill Wrought iron is obtainedby refining
The maximum bending moment will iaf
of pig iron through the process of-
be-
•'j"*
A. Blast fumace
A.
wt^/2
B.
B. "Chill fumace
wt^/4
C. C. Cupola fumace
w^^/8
D.
w^^/16 D. Puddling fumace
L-:i
c.-'.
RSAE/2024/M iJooOisOooo 11 Set A
Text of page 19
55. In a plate clutch, the inner radius of wn 57. The back-stop brake is a differential
- n]
w band brake used to-
^ the contact surface is 50 mm and the
outer radius is 100 mm. An axial A. Prevent the rotation of the drum
force of4 kN acts on it, the B. Prevent the forward rotation of
the drum
maximum pressure in a plate clutch is
(Assume uniform wear C. Prevent the reverse rotation of the
drum
theory)
D. Prevent the brake from self-
oi^
locking
0.127 N/mm^
58. About thermal reservoirs consider
ESE
e'M following statements-
0.254 N/mm^
(1) To consider a body as thermal
reservoirs it does not have to be
C- 2.54 N/mm^ very large always.
(2) To consider a body as thermal
1.27 N/mm^ reservoirs its thermal energy
capacity must be large
relative to the amount of energy
56. Below are the comparator types it supplies or absorbs.
^ except- Select correct option from below
about above two statements.
A. Johansson Mikrokator
A. Statement(1)is correct and
statement(2) is incorrect
B. Sigma comparator
B. Statement(2) is correct and
statement(1)is incorrect
C. Sheffield reed gauge
<jn C. Both statements(I) and (2) are
o> correct
D. Angle Dekkor
K3 D. Both statements(1) and(2) are
incorrect
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 20
59. In solar photovoltaic system, the CTi 61, The maximum Coefficient of
ESS
current and voltage relationship in IIP Performance (COP) of a heat driven
terms ofjunction current absorption refrigeration cycle is
obtained under which of the
saturation current (Iq), electron W
following assumptions?
CO
charge (e), voltage (V), Boltzmann's
A. Adiabatic heat transfers,
constant(k) and absolute temperature
significant pump work, and
(T)is-
different condenser/absorber
CO temperatures.
A.
Ij=V exp -1
nj B. Isothermal and reversible heat
vkTy
transfers, negligible pump work,
CO
and equal condenser/absorber
B. CO
Ij = Io exp
M -1 temperatures.
eV
C. Isentropic compression, finite
pump work, and varying
c. 'eV^ evaporator temperatures.
exp -1
,kT, ill D. Irreversible heat exchange, high
pump work, and identical
D.
^kT^ generator/absorber pressures.
Ij=V exp -1
62. The relationship between cutting
speed 'V and tool life T' is given by
to
60^ Gun metal composition is- VT^'^C. With n = 0.125 andC =
E
«E
■vsi
34.45, the percentage (%) decrease in
A. 80% copper, 20% tin CO tool life when cutting speed is
CO increased by 1/3'"'^
B. 79% copper, 11% Al,5% Ni
A. 1/20
C. 88% copper, 10% tin, 2% Zinc B. 1/2
CO
C. 1/10
D. 80% copper, 20% zinc lO
-g D. 1/3
CO
CO
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 21
63. Which of the following is NOT the 07 66. Which is the full form ofEPROM?
factor through which the capacity of w A. Extended Programmable Read
the battery is determined? only Memory
A. Final limiting voltage of the cells, B. Erasable Programmable Random-
B. Discharge rate. Only Memory
C. Density of electrolyte. C. Erasable Programmable Random
D. Pressure of electrolyte. Online Memory
cn
D. Expanded Photogenic Removable
64. In case of SI engines as the fuel-air
....X Only Memory
(*•
Q equivalence ratio goes on increasing
)V>
the carbon monoxide emission 67. Liquid metals are preferred for high
Select correct option from below to heat-transfer applications primarily
complete the above statement. because-
A. goes on increasing (Which of the following statements
are necessarily correct?)
B. goes on decreasing
(1) Their high thermal conductivity
C. remains constant
enables faster heat transfer
D. becomes zero compared to conventional fluids.
65. The monthly demands for an office (2) They remain chemically inert
under extreme temperatures,
furniture (in units) are given in the
reducing corrosion risks.
following table. What will be the
(3) They are uniquely suited for
forecast demand for 12'^ month using (JT,
dissipating large heat loads from
3-period?
eonfined spaces, such as nuclear
table :
K)
reactors.
Month(t) 1 2 3 4 5 6
ca
(4) Their low viscosity minimizes
Demand(Dj) 600 628 670 735 809 870
o.> pumping power requirements in
Month (t) 7 8 9 10 11 12
cooling systems.
Demand(Dj) 800 708 842 870 739 -
A. Point 1 and 2 only
A. 700 Units B. Point 1 and 3 only
B. 817 Units C. Point 2 and 3 only
to
C. 890 Units D. Point 2 and 4 only
D. 728 Units
RSAE/2024/M •o€>00 2lOO»o 11 Set A
Text of page 22
68. Wind shear is an important parameter 71. In Psychrometrics, why are only two
used in the study of wind energy. The ^ independent properties required to fix
wind shear is- K5
the thermodynamic state of moist air
when the total (barometric) pressure
A. The rate of change of wind speed
is specified?
with height above ground. C*3
A. Because the humidity ratio is
B. The rate of change of wind speed always constant at a given
with blade length. temperature.
4a)
C. The rate of change of wind B. Because Dalton's law provides an
energy with atmospheric additional relation between the
temperature. partial pressures of dry air and
C^>
water vapor.
D. The rate of change of wind
energy with atmospheric C. Because the enthalpy of moist air
pressure. depends only on temperature.
D. Because the relative humidity is
69. The electrolyte used in the Hydrogen-aj^s fixed at standard atmospheric
Oxygen (Hydrox)fuel cell is-
pressure.
A. Phosphoric Acid
72. Which of the following equation is
B. Molten Carbonates true According to Guest theory, when
the specimen is subjected to uni-axial
C. Sodium Hydroxide 4n
stress in the tension test?
D. Potassium Hydroxide (Sgy - yield strength in shear and -
Syt yield strength in tension)
70. Point to point system is used for
machining operation- A. Se„=0.5xS,
'sy »yt
A. Reaming B. Syt=0.5xSsy
in
B. Facing C. S,y/Syt=2
to
C. Parting ES.3 D. Ssy= 0.85 X Syt
D. Side milling 00
OO
RSAE/2024/M •00OO22OO00 11 Set A
Text of page 23
73. IS 919 recommends basis fit (SI 76. In horizontal milling process
\sm
and tolerance system. ^^ milling provides better surface finish
and milling provides longer tool
A. Shaft, Unilateral
life.
B. Hole, Unilateral
A. Up, Down
C. Shaft, Bilateral
B. Up, Up
D. Hole, Bilateral
cn
C. Down, Up
74. w
Which interface in a SCADA system
is used by a PLC to interface with D. Down, Down
human?
77. The water is flowing through a pipe
A. MMI .0
line of 140 mm diameter with a
B. GUI velocity of 1.6 m/s. Determine the
discharge through the pipe in
C. HMI
litre/sec.
D. None of these
A. 2.464 litre/s
75. Match the machine tools (Group A)
B. 24.64 litre/s
^ with the best probable operations
(Group B)- C. 12.32 litre/s
Group 'A' Group 'B'
D. 11 litre/s
(a) Centre Lathe (i) Slotting
(b) Milling (ii) Counter- 78. Which part is attached at the end of a
s«a , . , . , ,
boring 0^ robot manipulator to manipulate the
(c) Grinding (iii) Knurling object or hold it?
(d) Drilling (iv) Dressing A. Sensor
A. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
B. Controller
B. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C. End-effector
C. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
D. Actuator
Cft)
D. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
RSAE/2024/M 00OO23OO00 11 Set A
Text of page 24
79. The major problem with skin-dried W** 82. Carbon Nanotubes(CNT)are
moulds is- produced except the method of-
A. Mould distortion takes place A. Pyrolysis
f j,
B. The process produces sound B. Arc-discharge
castings without any defects
C. Electrolysis
C. Erosion of the mould takes place
cn D. Jet nozzle discharge
D. A compromise between green 40
sand and dry sand mould 83. The critical fiber length in composite
material depends on properties
80. Ifzeroth law of thermodynamics has except-
to be applied to three bodies then
those bodies should be A. Fiber diameter
Select the correct option from below B. Fiber Surface Area
to fill blank space of above sentence.
C. Fiber Tensile strength
A. ofsame weight
D. Shear yield strength at the fiber-
B. made of similar material
matrix interface
C. in thermal equilibrium
84. In Ultrasonic Machining (USM) for
B|
D. of same shape finishing to roughing operation the
< -V
Material Removal Rate (MRR) with
81. As per Gilbert's limit or Betz respect to grain size of abrasive
\sm
coefficient, the approximate particles usually-
recoverable wind power is-
■f r'
A. Decreases
A. 25%
B. Increases
B. 50%
C. Decreases and Increases
C. 60%
D. Increases and Decreases
D. 90% *■" 1
r
RSAE/2024/M •0000 24 0000 U Set A
Text of page 25
85. A pitot static tube is used to measure 87. The non-conventional machining
the velocity of water in a pipe. The ^ m process that given the best surface
stagnation pressure head is 8.25 m fmish and also is the source of
and static pressure head is 7 m. reduction in fatigue properties is-
Calculate the velocity offlow,
assuming the coefficient of velocity A. Electric Discharge Machining
of the tube equal to 0.98 with [EDM]
consideration of loss. Take value of
B. Electro Chemical Machining
g = 10m/s^.
[ECM]
A. 4.9 m/s
C. Ultrasonic Machining[USM]
B. 3.9 m/s
C. 4 m/s D. Chemical Machining[CHM]
D. 11 m/s
88. In the design of close coiled helical
Zenith angle (G^) used in the study spring, In order to consider the effect
^ ofsolar radiation is- of curvature, the Wahl's stress factor
'K' is given by-
A. A vertical angle between sun's
rays and a line parallel to the (where C is spring index)
horizontal plane through the
point. A. 4C-4 0.615
B. A vertical angle between sun's to
4C-l'^ r2
rays and a line perpendicular to
the horizontal plane through the ^4C-l^ 0.615
point. 4C-4J C
C. The angle between the inclined
slope and the horizontal plane C. 4C-1 0.615
through the point. 4C-4"^ C
Ol
D. The angle between sun's rays and
D.
its projection on horizontal plane 4C-1 0.615
hO +
through the point. 4C-4
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 26
89. In linear programming problem 92. Why does steady-state radial
involving more than two variables conduction in a hollow cylinder result
£"0
cannot be graphed and it might not be in a logarithmic temperature
readily known, when model is distribution, unlike the linear
CO
constructed, that problem has . distribution observed in a plane wall
under similar conditions?
A. Multiple optimal solutions
cn
B. Two phase solutions Ca3
A. The temperature changes in a
C. Various feasible solutions Jo
straight line (linear) in a cylinder,
D. No feasible solution CO
just like in a flat wall, because
CO
90. If a system exist at the dead state its heat flows the same way in all
exergy is— shapes.
Select the correct option from below
to fill blank space of above sentence. B. The temperature distribution is
exponential because heat builds
A. Positive
up faster near the outer surface.
B. Negative
C. Zero C?i
C. Because heat spreads over a
CO
D. One larger area as you move outward,
91. Viscosity ofthe gases with the unlike a flat wall where it
CO
increase in temperature CO
changes evenly.
A. Increases
D. A flat wall has a curved
B. Decreases
CO temperature distribution, while a
C. Remain same cylinder has a straight line one.
D. Does not effect 00
RSAE/2024/1V1 oqOQ 26 OOoo 11 Set A
Text of page 27
93. Two steel plates, 120 mm wide and cn 95. The Brayton cycle consist of
12.5 mm thick are joined together by Select correct option from below to
means of double transverse fillet complete above statement.
weld. Both upper and lower plates are
A. One reversible isobaric and one
subjected to a tensile pull of'P' N.
00 reversible adiabatic process.
The maximum tensile stress for the
plate is 110 N / mm^. The strength of B. One irreversible isobaric and one
irreversible adiabatic process.
the weld is equal to the strength of ort
the plate. The required length ofthe C. Two irreversible isobaric and two
weld, is- irreversible adiabatic process.
K)
A. 80.12 mm D. Two reversible isobaric and two
CO
OS reversible adiabatic process.
B. 74.87 mm
96. State the mechanism that is not
C. 80.54 cm
covered under the heat treatment to
D. 84.87 mm increase the metals strength-
A. Strain hardening
94. Margin of Safety Ratio(MoSR)is
calculated with below equation- B. Recrystallization
Actual Sales - Break even Sales C. Precipitation hardening
(i) MoSR = X100
Actual Sales
D. Dispersion hardening
Actual Sales - Break even Sales 00
(ii) MoSR = X100 ^ 97
Break even Sales Tool life criterion normally limits on
the following wears-
A. Only equation (i) is correct
A. Average crater wear
B. Only equation (ii) is correct
B. Average flank wear
C. Both equation (i) and (ii) are
CJt C. Average crater wear and Average
correct CO
flank wear
D. Both equation (i) and (ii) are ro
D. Average crater wear and Average
incorrect
OJ nose wear
CO
RSAE/2024/M 27 QOoo 11 Set A
Text of page 28
98. Earle Buckingham's equation gives Q'] 101. In Queuing systems, the following
SIRS
wear strength of the gear tooth, is distribution is used to describe the
based on- •I V
interarrival time in the pure birth
A. Rankine Theory of contact -.A model and the inter departure time in
stresses
the pure death model-
B. St. Venant Theory of wear A. Exponential distribution
B. General distribution
C. Lewis Theory of wear
D. Hertz Theory of contact stresses
C/",' C. p -distribution
V ."i
D. Pure distribution
99. Psychrometric charts are typically
constructed for a standard 102. Which of the following statements
atmospheric pressure of 1.01325 bar. CO fii about the energy storage through
Which two properties are most capacitors is TRUE?
commonly used as the x and y A. The capacitors store electrical
coordinates in such charts?
energy at low voltage and high
A. Temperature and relative current.
humidity B. The capacitors store electrical
B. Temperature and humidity ratio energy at low voltage and low
C. Enthalpy and specific volume current.
D. Dew point temperature and wet- C. The capacitors store electrical
bulb temperature energy at high voltage and high
current.
100. For complete balancing of a rotating
D. The capacitors store electrical
mass system which of the following
energy at high voltage and low
conditions must be satisfied?
current.
A. Only the algebraic sum of the
centrifugal forces must be zero 103. In steel, pearlite phase is made up of
B. Only the algebraic sum of the alternative layers of-
couples due to the centrifugal V/.
A. Ferrite and cementite
forces must be zero
B. Ferrite and martensite
C. Both A and B
C. Cementite and martensite
D. Only the largest centrifugal force
D. Cementite and bainite
needs to be balanced
RSAE/2024/1VI 11 Set A
Text of page 29
104. The maximum speed of an electric 106. The ratio of the change in output
CO
vehicle can be expressed in terms of m signal to the change in input signal at
maximum allowed RPM of traction KS
steady state conditions is-
motor (Niiiax)j gearratio of A. Reproducibility
to
transmission ^ig^, gear ratio offinal CO B. Sensitivity
drive (io) and radius of the driven C. Repeatability
wheels, as-
D. Readability
107. If water in a pan is heated by
A. _ ^^max^d -A
ymax supplying 15kJ of heat to water from
EU
^0 ig min ^0 heating element and 3kJ of it is lost
CO from water to surrounding air, then
CO inereases in energy of water will be
B.
ymax equal to —
^0 ig min^o
Select the correct option from below
to fill blank space of above sentence.
V _ ^^max''d
*max A. 15kJ
^0 ig min^o
B. 12kJ
1^* min^o C. 03kJ
^max ~
14max ^d D. 18kJ
105. Oldham's coupling is used to connect 5^ it Unit discharge fm /s^ ofthe turbine
two shans- is given by-
ho
A.
A. Which are perfectly aligned 3/4
B. Which are aligned satisfactorily B.
3/2
C. Which have lateral misalignment C.
5/2
D. Whose axes intersect it a small
D.
angle 1/2
OJ
CO
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 30
109. From the following data, what will be 112. The curve generated by a point on the
CO ^0
the standard time based on standard m circumference of a circle rolling
time calculation for an operation
without slipping on a fixed straight
- The total observed time for an
0.5 line is called-
operation of assembling an electric
switch is 1.00 min
A. an involute
- The rating is 120%
- Allowance of 10% is allowed for
B. a cycloid
CTJ
the operation CO C. an epicycloid
A. 1.42 min
D. a hypocycloid
B. 1.68 min
113.
C. 1.32 min CO 0^ An Increase of Carbon percentage in
0^ Carbon steel decreases the property-
D. 1.20 min
A. Brittleness
110. Consider the following statement for
free flout in project management- B. Hardness
(i) Free flout = total flout - Head
C. Tensile strength
slack
(ii) Free flout = total flout- Tail D. Toughness
slack
114. In the entrepreneur undertakes
A. Only option (i) is correct
0^ activities which could be conducted
B. Only option (ii) is correct
by leased employee or workers
C. Both options (i) and (ii) are
correct
-^4 without reducing the overall labour
D. None ofthe above is correct
productivity.
111, Bezier curve- A. Social entrepreneurship
BS0
0^ A. Lacks local control B. Employee entrepreneurship
CO
B. Does not lack local control C. Pure entrepreneurship
FO
C. Sometimes lacks local control
D. Collaborative entrepreneurship
00
D. Pass through all the control points 00
RSAE/2024/M OOOO30OOOO 11 Set A
Text of page 31
115. A Small Scale unit if registered under 117. Who is the inventor of Artificial
Ml
National Small Industries (!]% Intelligence?
Corporation (NSIC), the following ^5 A. Andrew Ng
benefit they get-
B. Geoffrey Hinton
A. Issue of tender sets at minimum
C. Juergen Schmidhuber
cost
D. John McCarthy
B. Exemption from payment of
^ 118. The centroid of a quarter-circle of
earnest money Oi ts«a
radius 'r' lies at from its
C. Security deposits into the centre.
monetary limit
A. 371 4n
D. Price preference will not be given 4r'^
B. 4r 4r
116. If the refrigeration cycle is to be
3k'3tz
made open at the warm end, the
pressure at the cold end will be below^H C. 47t 4r
atmospheric. Whatis a.key
implication of this design? D. 3tz 3ti
A. The system requires less
maintenance due to natural
119. Which mechanism is involved for the
pressure equalization.
if3lr heat transfer process in conduction?
B. The system must be leak-proof to A. Energy transfer by
prevent air ingress and requires to
electromagnetic waves.
more maintenance.
B. Diffusion of energy due to
to
C. The refrigeration efficiency random molecular motion plus
improves significantly due to energy transfer due to bulk
lower cold-end pressure. tn
motion (advection).
CO
D. The warm end automatically C. Diffusion of energy due to
adjusts to atmospheric pressure, ro
random molecular motion.
reducing energy consumption. D. None of the above
CO
CO
RSAE/2024/M •0000 310000 II Set A
Text of page 32
120. A ship is pitching (oscillating about a 122. The current ratio in financial ratio
transverse axis). If the rotor of the analysis can be expressed as-
ship's turbine spins in the clockwise f-O
A. Current Ratio = Total cash/total
direction when viewed from the stem
assets
and the ship pitches upwards, the
Wj
effect of the gyroscopic couple will B. Current Ratio = Total
be to cause the ship to- inventory/total assets
C. Current Ratio = Total
A. Tum to the starboard side CO
liabilities/total assets
B. Tum to the port side D. Current Ratio = Total current
CO assets/total current liabilities
c-0
C. Have no effect on the tuming
123. A turbine develops 7225 kW power
under a head of 25 metres at 135 rpm.
D. Increase the pitching amplitude Calculate the specific speed of
turbine-
121 Find the head lost due to friction in
A. 205.28 unit
pipe of diameter 300 mm and length
100 m by using Dracy-Weisbach B. 20.5 unit
equations. The water is flowing at a
C. 198 unit
rate of 3 m/sec. Take the co-efficient
of friction 2.56x10"^ CO D. 202.8 unit
124. The main gaseous products of
A. 1.536 m
biomass pyrolysis are-
CO
B. 1.566 m A. C02,02andH2
B. C02,N2andC0
C. 1.491 m
C. CH4,H2jCO and CO2
D. 2.381 m
D. N2,02andC02
W'3
RSAE/2024/1M 0OOO32C>Ooo 11 Set A
Text of page 33
125. Which ofthe following support does 128. The extensive properties per unit
CO
not offer horizontal reaction? (i.e. mass (i.e. specific extensive
parallel to the axis of beam) properties) are
A. Hinge support Select the correct option from below
w
B. Fixed support 00
to fill blank space of above sentence.
C. Roller support A. Extensive properties
D. None of the above B. Intensive properties
on
126. In reciprocating engine mechanism, CO
C. Adverse properties
the link that rotates fully is called the-
D. Induced properties
A. Connecting rod -4
CO
B. Slider 129. In case of internal combustion engine
CO m\si
C. Crank m during the cruising range of throttle
operation
D. Frame
Select correct option from below to
127. Two heat exchangers (parallel flow
complete the above statement's-
and counter flow), are designed with
A. Enriched air-fuel mixture is
the same U, A, and inlet
temperatures. Why does the counter- required.
flow configuration typically achieve a B. Air-fuel mixture is not required
higher heat transfer rate? (Where 'U' for engine operation.
is overall heat transfer coefficient cn
CO
C. Lean air-fuel mixture is required.
between two fluids &'A' is effective
heat transfer Area). D. 50% air-fuel mixture is required.
A. Because it has a lower LMTD
130. Differential manometer is used to
than parallel flow configuration.
CO
measure-
B. Because it maintains a more
uniform temperature difference A.
along the length. <Sl
B.
u>
C. Because it has higher LMTD than
C.
parallel flow configuration. ho
D.
D. Because it has a higher pressure CO
drop. two points
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 34
The speed at which the rotating shaft U'j m. Which of the following code will
becomes dynamically unstable due to .=,:s give the end of the program data?
resonance with its natural transverse
vibration frequency is known as its-
A. M04
A. Damping coefficient v-2
B. Critical speed
B. M08
C. Whirling frequency
Co
D. Forced frequency
C. M30
132. A state of plane stress exist at a point
with normal stresses and Oy and Ca) D. M09
shear stress T^y Th® center of
Mohr's circle for this state of stress is
135. The cylinder head of a steam engine
located at-
is subjected to a steam pressure of
A.
(•^xi'^'xy) 0.7 N / mm . It is held in position by
B.
('^x~'^xy) using 12 bolts. The effective diameter
C.
(l/2(ax+C7y),0j of cylinder head is 300 mm.The total
force acting on the 12 bolts is-
D.
(0,2(xj^-ax)) Sf*'
A. 4125N
133. In the Bernoulli's equation,
M P ,
h — +z= constant, each term B. 46500N
Pg 2g
represents-
C. 49500N
A. Energy per unit weight Ui
B. Energy per unit volume
D. 8250N
C. Energy per unit mass
Ifi
D. None of these
RSAE/2024/M 34 11 Set A
Text of page 35
136. The torsional shear stress induced in 138. A two wheeled vehicle stabilizes
a transmission shaft, when subjected itself by while taking a turn to
to an external torque is- K5 nullify the effect of gyroscopic
couple and the centrifugal force.
A. Inversely proportional to applied
Cw A. braking the vehicle
torque and polar moment of
inertia of the cross-section. B. increasing the speed of the
vehicle
B. Directly proportional to applied C. tilting towards inside
torque and inversely proportional CO
D. tilting towards outside
to the polar moment of inertia of
the cross-section. 139. For the given assembly : 25 H7/g8;
m match Group 'A' with Group 'B'-
C. Directly proportional to the polar Group 'A' Group 'B'
moment of inertia of the shaft and
(a) H (i) Shaft Type
inversely proportional to the (b) IT8 (ii) Hole Type
applied torque.
(c) IT7 (iii) Hole Tolerance
Grade
D. Directly proportional to the
square of the applied torque. (d) g (iv) Shaft Tolerance
Grade
137. As per first law of thermodynamics A. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
gwfil
the change in total energy during an B. a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
adiabatic process must be the
C. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
net work done.
D. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Select the correct option from below
-.4 140. The ability of materials to absorb and
to fill blank space of above sentence.
CO* ^1^
Sa)
release elastic strain energy is called-
A. independent of
A. Toughness
B. more than
crt B. Resilience
to
C. less than C. Hardness
K)
D. equal to D. Impact energy
CO
CO
RSAE/2024/M •oo00 35C}Ooo 11 Set A
Text of page 36
141, The losses are covered under the 144. The shape factor in radiative heat
t'X:
minor losses category in pipe flow —N
transfer is defined as-
except-
"•vj
A. Loss due to sudden contraction
A. The fraction of thermal energy
B. Losses due to various pipe fittings (j'j emitted by a surface that escapes
C. Loss due to sudden expansion to the environment.
D. Loss due to friction between pipe B. The fraction of radiative energy
en
and fluid CO
that is diffused from one surface
142. Match the following-
nas element and strikes the other
■m (a) Cartesian (1) Three rotary axes
c.-.)
surface directly with no
robot
(b) Cylindrical (2) One linear axis, intervening reflections.
robot two rotary axes
C. A temperature dependent
(c) Spherical (3) Three linear axes
robot parameter that determines heat
(d) Revolute or (4) Two linear axis, transfer rate between surfaces.
Articulate one rotary axis
robot D. The ratio of a surface's emissivity
A. a-l,b-2,c-3,d-4 to its absorptivity for thermal
B. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 radiation.
.n
C. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
145. Which of the following is NOT a
D. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
basic classification category for heat
143. When the point (10,5) is rotated
exchangers?
counter-clockwise by 30 degree, the
resultant point is obtained as- A. Flow arrangement
A. [9.33 6.16]
B. Construction type
B. [6.16 9.33]
C. Relative direction of fluid motion
C. [9.05 6.05]
D. Fluid colour
D. [6.05 9.05]
RSAE/2024/M 11 Set A
Text of page 37
146. A shaft having of diameter of60 mm 149_
Choose the Correct Pairs-
Ov? Egg
is subjected to a shear stress of (i) Expert (a) Allows user to use
40 MPa and has an angle of twist K)
systems native language
equal to 0.01 radian. The length of instead of English
the shaft is- ^G =0.8xl0^MPaj (ii) NLP (b) Human knowledge
stored on machine
A. 550.45 mm for use in prob-
CTr solving
B. 600 mm
..A (iii) Neural (c) Investigations of
C. 650.25 mm Networks new strategies
combined with
D. 650 mm £.0
heuristics
147. Find the surface tension in a soap (iv) Game (d) Mathematical
^ bubble of60 mm diameter when the playing models simulating
9
fimctional human
inside pressure is 3N / m above the
brain
atmospheric pressure-
A. i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
A. 0.045 N/m
B. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
B. 0.090 N/m
C. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
C. 0.0225 N/m
D. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D. 0.0125 N/m (./J
150. The tip-speed ratio of a 8 m
so
148. For welding thin foils of aluminium diameter turbine rotor, having
^ the following welding process is rotation of 18 RPM at wind speed
preferred- of4 m/s, is-
A. Manual Metal Arc Welding A. 1.11
B. Gas Metal Arc Welding B. 1.22
Oi
C. 1.44
C. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding 50
D. 1.88
D. Submerged Arc Welding
CO
RSAE/2024/M •ooOC:}37C>o»t> 11 Set A
Text of page 38
Space For Rough Worlc/
ijv.1
''.'J
'kJ'.
'','5
I.- .
c:
'A
n]
RSAE/2024/M O0OO38OOOO 11 Set A
Text of page 39
Space For Rough Work / RSAE/2024/M •t>o00 39 00»<»* 11 Set A
Text of page 40
space For Rough Work / RSAE/2024/M OOOO40OOOO' 11 Set A
Text of page 2
M.P. PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2024
Final Answer Key
Subject General Studies & Civil Engineering
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
47 26 21 31 c 129 65 114 54 B 64 88 123 96 B
35 34 29 23 B 87 98 61 129 B 97 64 89 73 D
10 18 37 39 C 105 138 102 121 B 109 56 139 106 C
20 42 31 20 A 114 149 143 100 C 117 94 90 76 B
7 28 3 40 A 92 100 95 88 B 134 124 99 142 B
4 44 43 17 B 124 92 108 97 D 85 95 84 143 A
11 39 36 12 A 60 96 59 90 A 121 135 81 81 D
3 8 14 34 D 83 62 60 85 B 72 131 135 87 B
46 10 35 36 B 122 148 146 93 A 118 121 92 63 A
19 16 17 30 B 61 142 79 53 B 150 132 74 132 D
6 6 44 1 C 76 107 83 58 D 143 82 119 . 68 C
38 29 5 48 D 84 147 69 135 C 78 69 117 98 D
45 32 34 25 C 93 89 106 125 B 135 85 88 139 B
.40 49 47 14 B 126 118 66 108 D 62 150 101 147 B
27 31 12 15 A 138 70 82 134 C 108 57 85 67 C
43 45 45 4 D 94 130 149 59 C 103 111 57 72 B
28 30 19 3 A 96 81 100 102 B 145 79 110 95 A
15 1 16 13 B 120 84 54 110 B 67 86 87 51 C
25 47 22 41 C 139 106 122 146 C 90 136 134 61 D
12 41 49 16 D 110 97 115 107 C 149 91 52 127 D
8 35 27 35 C 127 51 121 94 C 95 146 63 74 A
32 37 6 46 C 141 112 141 112 D 51 78 73 66 D
30 43 33 44 A 77 133 71 122 C 73 127 147 62 B
39 12 32 21 B 80 110 109 145 D 86 122 111 128 A,D
49 33 38 19 B 98 68 75 116 B 131 59 86 131 C
22 38 50 10 B 75 137 67 '■ 92 C 119 58 131 119 D
16 22 18 49 C 128 120 53 69 A,B,D 70 104 140 52 C
42 50 13 38 C 53 102 127 123 A 82 139 91 101 C
5 24 23 11 A 116 103 112 126 B 68 117 55 64 B
21 9 , 7 47 A 66 75 136 111 B 142 129 138 118 C
23 48 11 8 B 88 140 56 109 C 112 63 118 103 B
34 4 25 50 B 133 145 142 144 C 137 134 96 71 C
1 5 9 42 C 125 108 72 149 D 111 90 51 138 B
■ 24 14 30 28 B 107 125 58 130 D 74 143 105 114 C
44 13 48 6 D 69 128 70 140 D 81 126 144 70 A,B,C
9 11 39 5 C 101 77 129 60 B 54 76 120 133 B
26 15 46 18 C 136 141 104 83 A 55 67 68 136 D
29 46 8 2 B 71 61 77 150 D 100 72 64 86 C
48 7 41 24 C 130 93 137 99 B 123 66 128 105 C
13 40 4 27 B 56 144 62 78 A 104 55 150 120 C
18 25 2 37 B 63 109 107 56 D 52 73 80 137 A
14 17 10 9 C 115 74 125 57 D 106 119 116 77 B
37 19 24 32 D 140 52 93 115 A 58 114 98 82 C
17 3 40 7 C 89 113 94 80 B 91 101 148 75 D
50 23 20 29 B 146 123 132 84 D 113 115 130 55 B
33 21 42 45 A 132 105 126 89 C 59 116 97 124 B
2 36 28 43 C 65 53 103 104 B,D 148 87 113 117 A
36 27 15 33 A 79 83 124 113 D 147 54 65 65 D
41 2 26 22 A 57 '99 78 91 B 102 71 145 79 C
31 20 1 26 A 99 80 76 141 A 144 60 133 148 D
Exam Controller
Text of page 3
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2024
Final Answer Key
Subject General Studies & Mechanical Engineering
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
47 26 ■ 21 31 C 140 120 147 58 B 128 150 90 149 B
35 34 29 23 B 103 85 127 67 A 80 149 53 86 C
10 18 37 39 C 54 71 115 112 D 137 51 94 121 D
20 42 31 20 A 60 84 139 118 C 107 93 106 85 B
7 28 3 40 A 83 131 141 90 B 58 139 117 84 C
4 44 43 17 B 82 147 144 93 D 90 126 149 81 C
11 39 36 12 A 96 54 145 94 B 95 105 58 131 D
3 8 14 34 D 113 111 130 70 D 53 116 59 142 B
46 10 35 36 B 106 99 113 89 B 129 118 123 56 C
19 16 17 30 B 56 107 109 136 D 64 140 80 122 A
6 6 44 1 C 118 58 103 135 B 91 95 75 101 A
38 29 5 48 D 132 103 71 107 C 147 69 70 96 C
45 32 34 25 C 125 90 137 97 C 130 56 129 117 D
40 49 47 14 B 52 79 132 144 C 77 98 93 54 B
27 31 12 15 A 112 104 116 147 B 133 141 142 116 A
43 45 45 4 D 131 114 82 77 B 85 81 102 64 A
28 30 19 3 A 126 146 134 126 C 121 129 110 125 B
15 1 16 13 B 100 74 73 133 C 141 117 135 88 D
25 47 22 41 C 120 82 83 57 A 123 121 85 63 A
12 41 49 16 D 138 73 91 60 C 108 65 57 65 D
8 35 27 35 C 136 70 136 115 B 119 133 138 92 C
32 37 6 46 C 72 64 81 74 A 92 145 104 106 C
30 43 33 44 A 135 83 78 51 C 67 89 92 99 B
39 12 32 21 B 93 67 60 104 D 144 142 54 79 B
49 33 38 19 B 146 63 79 91 B 127 136 52 148 C
22 38 50 10 B 98 115 101 62 D 145 87 107 53 " D
16 22 18 49 C 105 77 150 141 C 116 72 67 76 B
42 50 13 38 C 88 62 51 124 C 61 125 148 129 B
5 24 23 11 A 57 132 126 100 C 71 80 64 68 B
21 9 7 47 A 55 78 77 105 B 99 124 114 75 B
23 48 11 8 B 148 138 88 138 C 86 91 112 110 ■ B
34 4 25 50 B 97 110 140 146 B 59 135 89 66 C
1 5 9 42 C 84 96 119 109 Delete 68 112 61 130 A
24 14 30 28 B 87 144 84 114 B 81 86 99 59 C
44 13 48 6 D 79 61 68 120 D 150 143 62 143 D
9 11 39 5 C 62 52 105 137 Delete 124 102 65 128 C
26 15 46 18 C 139 76 121 98 D' 69 88 74 52 D
29 46 8 2 B 75 ^ 113 128 78 C 104 137 55 72 B
48 7 41 24 C 76 130 96 134 D 63 60 66 140 D
13 40 4 27 B 73 100 133 127 B 102 148 146 132 D
18 25 2 37 B 101 53 118 113 A 143 123 131 61 B
14 17 10 9 C 115 75 100 69 B 111 68 122 82 A
37 19 24 32 D 109 59 111 71 C 70 108 108 139 A
17 3 40 7 C 65 119 125 123 B 134 92 76 87 C
50 23 20 29 B 114 134 95 102 B ■ 78 66 63 145 C
33 21 42 45 A 89 127 56 55 D 142 94 72 95 B
2 36 28 43 C 94 128 120 80 A 66 97 86 119 Delete
74. 109 124 103 C
36 27 15 33 A 110 101 69 111 A
41 2 26 22 A 51 55 97 150 C 117 57 98 108 D
31 20 1 26 A 122 106 87 73 D 149 122 143 83 D
Exam Controller
Text of page 4
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2024
Final Answer Key
Subject General Studies & Electrical Engineering
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
47 26 21 31 c 125 135 126 69 D 75 110 63 98 D
35 34 29 23 B 122 67 95 99 C 52 127 91 132 C
10 18 37 39 C 55 131 71 61 A 118 99 78 54 C
20 42 31 , 20 A 70 124 120 108 B 106 128 140 64 B
7 28 3 40 A 114 83 127 117 B 68 117 77 59 C
4 44 43 17 B 133 150 136 94 D 76 93 125 106 C
11 39 36 12 A 144 87 98 149 B 105 122 69 128 D
3 8 14 34 D 107 106 142 81 D 86 90 130 113 A
46 10 35 36 B 102 109 76 58 C 100 82 137 51 B
19 16 17 30 B 147 107 57 143 B 97 140 102 67 D
6 6 44 1 C 67 69 79 150 A 92 68 54 105 C
38 29 5 48 D 108 129 82 56 C 94 144 66 86 D
45 32 34 25 C 89 96 146 125 B 90 137 143 ■ 77 C
40 49 47 14 B 140 136 73 136 A 148 54 74 89 C
27 31 12 15 A 139 101 133 111 D 124 72 84 134 A
43 45 45 4 D 110 119 59 121 B 137 58 70 63 D
28 30 19 3 A 99 146 88 135 B 132 130 144 138 C
15 1 16 13 B 116 94 116 84 D 149 80 83 109 D
25 47 22 41 C 98 57 112 112 A 54 52 75 75 D
12 41 49 16 D 136 92 86 74 C 117 59 114 122 C
8 35 27 35 C 77 6,0 150 139 A 111 62 117 65 B
32 37 6 46 C 138 142 99 87 C 58 147 121 93 A
30 43 33 44 A 131 148 96 142 C 79 149 87 57 D
39 12 32 21 B ^ 53 77 65 146 C 143 65 90 123 A
49 33 38 19 B 142 79 51 72 B 113 76 105 137 A
22 38 50 10 B 145 104 92 85 A 73 73 103 124 B
16 22 18 49 C 123 51 60 148 C 72 56 68 110 C
42 50 13 38 C 62 61 147 126 A 83 126 100 120 C
5 24 23 11 A 65 105 106 66 C 128 112 64 133 A
21 9 7 47 A 85 115 81 82 A 141 86 110 55 D
23 48 11 8 B 134 138 108 119 D 59 63 129 95 A
34 4 25 50 B 69 120 67 130 D 103 89 111 140 C
1 5 9 42 C 129 53 89 88 B 126 143 80 129 B
24 14 30 28 B 71 145 61 141 B 61 139 132 145 A
44 13 48 6 D 84 121 122 114 C 81 116 94 144 C
9 11 39 5 C 80 74 107 91 B 109 55 149 53 C
26 15 46 18 C 63 118 113 118 B 56 91 139 116 C
29 46 8 2 B 96 113 131 76 C 88 64 128 104 C
48 7 41 24 C 119 102 135 73 C 127 100 138 147 D
13 40 4 27 B 120 134 115 102 A 121 103 124 97 B
18 25 2 37 B 87 84 56 60 A 78 141 52 100 D
14 17 10 9 C 93 75 72 70 B 82 88 101 127 C
37 19 24 32 D 51 78 109 71 A 150 123 104 107 D
17 3 40 7 C 57 81 93 115 B 101 97 58 78 B
50 23 20 29 B 135 132 145 92 A 112 66 62 68 C
33 21 42 45 A 64 98 141 62 A 91 70 148 79 B
2 36 28 43 C 146 85 123 131 C 66 114 53 80 D
36 27 15 33 A 115 95 119 83 B 104 108 85 96 D
41 2 26 22 A 74 133 134 90 B 130 111 118 52 C
31 20 1 26 A 60 71 55 103 D 95 125 97 101 C
Exam ControllerPage 1 of 40
Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.