MPSC AE 2014: Maharashtra Engineering (Mechanical) Services, Gr-B Main Examination, Paper 2
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Code : 203
BOOKLET No.
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FOR ROUGH WORK
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1. The portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the kinetic energies of
the molecules is called
(1) Latent energy (2) Sensible energy
(3) Potential energy (4) Flow energy
2. The heat absorbed or rejected during a polytropic process is
(1) (5) x work done
(3) [ 112
x workdone (4) 5) 3
xwork done
3. The first law of thermodynamics is essentially an expression of
(1) conservation of mass principle
(2) conservation of momentum principle
(3) conservation of energy principle
(4) conservation of air principle
4. In a reversible cycle, the entropy of the system
( 1) increases (2) decreases
(3) does not change (4) first increases and then decreases
5. The loci of saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line meet at
(1) critical point (2) boiling point
(3) ice point (4) triple point
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6. "The cyclic integral at 68/Tis always less than zero" is called 'Clausis Inequality' and
is valid for
(1) all cycles, reversible and irreversible
(2) only reversible cycles
(3) only irreversible cycles
(4) None of the above
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7. Availability Function is expressed as
(1) a = (U + PoV - ToS) (2) a = (U + PodV + TodS)
(3) a = ( d U + P o d V - TodS) (4) a = (U + PoV + ToS)
8. Multistage compression with inter-cooling is especially attractive when a gas is to
be compressed a t
(1) very low pressure (2) normal pressure
(3) very high pressure (4) None of the above
9. If tapered bar is subjected to tensile load, where diameter of rod varies from (D + a)
to (D - a), the percentage error involved in calculation of Young's modulus using
mean diameter is
10. A simply supported beam of length 'L' is subjected to uniformly varying load whose
intensity varies from zero at one support to W' a t the other. Maximum bending
moment in the beam is
11. Simply supported beam of length 'L' is subjected to central point load 'W'. What is
the strain energy stored in the beam, when 'E' is modulus of elasticity and 'I' is
moment of inertia of section ?
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12. When body is subjected to two mutually perpendicular like stresses ox and oy, then
centre of the Mohr's circle from vertical axis is a t
13. A beam of circular section is subjected to shear force. Theq maximum shear stress
across the section of beam is greater than mean stress.
(1) 24% (2) 29%
(3) 30.33% (4) 33.33%
14. A beam of uniform section and length 'L' simply supported a t ends carries point load
'L'
W. At a distance - from one end, maximum deflection in beam' is
3
15. There are two shafts of same material, one shaft is solid with diameter 'D' while the
'D'
other is hollow with external diameter 'D' and internal diameter T. Length of both
A
shafts is equal and are used to transmit same torque. What is the ratio of angle of
twist for hollow shaft to solid shaft ?
16. Principal stresses a t a point in elastic material are '1.5 f ' (tensile), 'f' (tensile) and
1
'- f ' (compressive). If elastic limit in simple tension is 200 N/mm2, what is the value
2
of 'f' a t failure according to maximum shear stress theory ?
(1) 200 Nlmm 2 (2) 150 Nlmm 2
(3) 125 N/mm2 (4) 100 Nlmm 2
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17. When cantilever is loaded at its free end, then variation of bending stress across the
section is
(1) L'in ear^ (2) Parabolic
(3) Hyperbolic (4) Elliptic
18. Which of the following techniques does not require quenching to obtain final case
hardness ?
(1) Flame hardening (2) Induction hardening
(3) Nitriding (4) Carburizing
19. As compared to the engineering stress - engineering strain curve, the true
stress - strain curve for a given material
(1) lies above and to the left
(2) lies below and to the right
(3) crosses the engineering stress - strain curve
(4) is identical
20. Regarding recrystallization, which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Higher the amount of cold work, lower is the recrystallization temperature.
(2) Higher the recovery, higher is the recrystallization.
(3) Higher is the temperature of cold work, higher is the recrystallization
temperature.
(4) Finer the initial grain size, higher is the recrystallization temperature.
21. The microstructure of eutectoid steel is at room temperature.
(1) ferrite and pearlite (2) pearlite
(3) ferrite and austenite (4) cementite
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2:2. The molten metal is forced through an orifice into a stream of high velocity air in
(1) sintering (2) granulation
(3) atomization (4) electrolysis
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23. Muntz metal is an alloy of
(1) zinc and lead (2) copper and zinc
(3) tin and zinc (4) lead and white metal
24. Creep is specially taken care of while designing
(1) turbine rotor and casing (2) drilling machines
(3) shapers (4) refrigeratorq ,
25. In white cast iron, carbon is present as
(1) graphite flakes (2) graphite nodules
(3) combined cementite (4) carbon does not exist
26. If the thermal conductivity is observed in decreasing order, which of the following
lists is correct ?
(1) Copper, Aluminium, Silver, Iron
(2) Silver, Copper, Aluminium, Iron
(3) Aluminium, Iron, Silver, Copper
(4) Iron, Silver, Copper, Aluminium
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27. Convective heat transfer coefficient depends
(1) only on thermodynamic and transport property of carrier fluid
(2) only on nature of fluid flow
(3) only on geometry of surface and prevailing thermal conditions
(4) All of the above
28. Time required to cool a heated copper ball depends on which of the following
properties of copper ball ?
(1) Thermal conductivity only
(2) Thermal conductivity and specific heat
(3) Specific heat only
(4) Thermal conductivity or specific heat
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29. Real surface in radiation heat transfer is
(1) black body
(2) gray body
(3) having emissivity dependence on the wavelength of radiation
(4) None of the above
30. If a heated plate is kept vertical in atmospheric air, its thermal boundary layer
formation will be from
(1) top end (2) bottom end ,
(3) mid point of plate (4) simultaneously from both ends
31. Plate heat exchanger does not have the following feature :
(1) Very high film conductance on both sides of plate
(2) Requires much lower floor area as compared to shell and tube heat exchanger
(3) Less costly than shell and tube type for costly construction material
(4) Difficult to clean
32. Which statement is not true about Fick's law of mass transfer ?
(1) Mass diffusion is due to concentration gradient.
(2) The movement of a diffusion substance is in the direction of increasing
concentration.
(3) Diffusion constant for ideal gases is assumed constant.
(4) Law is valid for all states of matter.
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33. Ratio of thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity is designated by a non-dimensionless
number, known as
(1) Schmidt number (2) Sherwood number
(3) Lewis number (4) Stanton number
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34. In the design of machine-parts, specific stiffness is an important parameter. This is
given by which of the following expressions ?
Strength Young's modulus
(1) (2)
Density Density
Density Density
(3) (4)
Young's modulus Strength
35. The ability of a material to absorb energy per unit volume without fracture is known
as
(1) Toughness (2) Resilience
(3) Stiffness (4) Yield strength
36. For ductile materials, design of shaft is based on which of the following failure
theories ?
(1) Maximum normal stress theory
(2) Maximum shear stress theory
(3) Distortion energy theory
(4) Von Mises theory
37. The combined spring rate for springs connected in parallel having individual spring
rates kl, k2, k3 is given by
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38. In the design of a solid circular shaR of diameter "d" and moment "M;' based on
torsional load condition, the torsional stress (dis given by
39. A system of rotating masses is in dynamic balance, when there does not exist any
(1) resultant centrifugal force
(2) resultant couple
(3) resultant centrifugal force as well as resultant couple
(4) unbalanced mass
40. How many degrees of freedom will a double pendulum as shown in the figure have ?
(3) 2 (4) Infinite
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41. The equation of vibration of the water column in a U-tube as shown in figure is given
by
42. In case of large guns, to achieve minimum return time, the damping coefficient is
kept
(1) greater than one (2) equal to one
(3) less than one (4) equal to two
43. When the shaft is bent alternately, and tensile and compressive stresses due to
bending are developed, the vibrations in shaft are said to be
(1) longitudinal (2) torsional
(3) whirling (4) transverse
44. Which of the following specialised industrial devices is used for interfacing to and
controlling analog and digital devices ?
(1) PID controller (2) Adaptive control system
(3) Programmable logic controller (4) PD controller
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46. "Microprocessors" which have memory and various inputiout arrangements on the
same chip are called
( 1) buses (2) registers
(3) micro controllers (4) attenuators
46. Which of the following registers are used in microprocessor for temporary storage of
operands or intermediate data in calculations ?
(1) Instruction registers (2) General purpose registers
(3) Stack pointers (4) None of the above
47. Because of high power-to-weight ratio, the hydraulic systems find a wide range of
use in
(1) Machine tools (2) Speed governing systems
(3) Position control systems (4) All of the above
48. For majority of the plant and process control actions in petroleum, petrochemical,
textile and food industries, which of the following systems is preferably employed ?
( 1) Hydraulic (2) Pneumatic
(3) Electrical (4) None of the above
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49. Which of the following methods permits accurate computations of time-domain
response in addition to yielding readily available frequency response information ?
(1) Nyquist method (2) Nichols chart
(3) Root locus method (4) None of the above
50. The transient response of a system is mainly due to
(1) inertia forces (2) internal forces
(3) stored energy (4) friction
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51. Programmable logic controllers (PLC's) consist of CPU, memory and
circuitry as main components.
(1) optical sensors (2) inpuidoutput
(3) position control system (4) None of the above
52. The correct velocity triangle for the given slider-crank mechanism is shown by which
of the following options ?
G
Fig. for Q 52
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53. The number of instantaneous centers of rotation (ICR) for a mechanism with 'n' links
is given by
54. For the slider crank mechanism shown in figure, the centripetal component of
acceleration of connecting link AB (B with respect to A) is acting
A
(1) along AB, directed from B to A (2) along AB, directed from A to B
(3) perpendicular to AB a t A (4) perpendicular to AB a t B
55. For a cam-follower mechanism, having disc cam with roller follower, the follower has
constant acceleration and retardation motion. The velocity diagram for this motion is
represented as,
t
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56. Two spur gears have a velocity ratio of -. The driven gear has 72 teeth of 8 mm
3
module and rotates a t 300 rpm. Then, the speed of driver gear is
(1) 100 rpm (2) 300 rpm
(3) 900 rpm (4) 600 rpm
57. For the differential band brake shown in figure, the direction of externally applied
force F is upwards for which of the following conditions ?
(1) a = b = 100 mm
(2) a = 125 mm, b = 100 mm
(3) a = 75 mm, b = 100 mm
(4) a = 200 mm, b = 100 mm
,
58. The variation in the speed of the wheels along a curvature, for a four wheeled
passenger car, is accomplished by which of the following ?
(1) Sliding mesh gear box (2) Synchromesh gear box
(3) Differential gear box (4) Preselective gear box
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59. Which type of gear train is shown in figure ?
Gear 2 n
Gear 1
Gear 4
(1) Simple gear train (2) Epicyclic gear train
(3) Reverted gear train (4) Differential gear train
60. For a pair of gears in contact, contact ratio is
Arc of contact Arc of contact
(1) (2)
Circular pitch Module
Path of contact
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Path of contact
(3) (4)
Module Circular pitch
61. Which of the following governors is mostly used to drive a gramophone ?
( 1) Pickering governor (2) Watt governor
(3) Porter governor (4) None of the above
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62. A Hartnell governor is a
(1) pendulum type governor (2) spring loaded governor
(3) dead weight governor (4) inertia governor
63. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in a clockwise direction, when seen from the tail
end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on
the aeroplane will be
(1) to dip the nose and tail (2) to raise the nose and tail
(3) to dip the nose and raise the tail (4) to raise the nose and dip the tail
64. A disc is spinning with an angular velocity w radfsec about the axis of spin. The
couple applied to the disc causing precession will be
Where I = Mass moment of inertia of disc
w = Angular velocity of precession of axis of spin.
P
65. If the speed of the engine controlled by the governor fluctuates continuously above
and below the mean speed, the governor is said to be
(1) stable (2) unstable
(3) isochronous (4) hunting
66. Hammer blow is the maximum amplitude of the unbalanced force at an angle
with the line of stroke.
(1) 0" (2) 45" (3) 90" (4) 180"
0
67. Transmissibility is equal to one, at - =
On
(1) 1.414 (‘2) 1 (3) 1.313 (4) 1-57
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68. The relation between free and damped natural frequencies is given as
,where 5 (zeta) is the damping ratio.
69. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the
crank with the line of stroke is equal to -
(1) 25"and 115" (2) 60"and 150"
(3) 120"and 310" (49 45"and 225"
70. Direct and Reverse crank method makes the analysis of forces simple in case of
(1) V-engine (2) In-line engine
(3) Radial engine (4) None of the above
71. The tractive force is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the
crank with the line of stroke is equal to
(1) 90°and 135" (2) 135"and 315"
(3) 45"and 135" (4) 135"and 180"
(0
72. What is the logarithmic decrement if 2 = 1.021 and 5 = 0.2 ? (5 = zeta)
Od
(1) 1.31 (2) 1-28 (3) 1.41 (4) 1.37
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73. The most common method of obtaining rich mixture during cold starting is
(1) Acceleration pump system (2) Main metering system
(3) Idling system (4) Application of choke
74. Which one of the following lubricating systems is used for two stroke IC engines ?
(1) Wet sump lubricating system (2) Dry sump lubricating system
(3) Mist lubricating system (4) Splash lubricating system
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75. The second stage of combustion in C.I. engines after the delay period, is the period of
(1) physical delay (2) uncontrolled combustion
(3) controlled combustion (4) after burning
76. The cooling system cannot be used in high output engines due to its
inability to meet the requirement of large flow rates of water.
(1) evaporative
(2) thermo-syphon
(3) cooling with thermostatic regulator
(4) pump cooling
77. The ignition of the homogeneous mixture in the cylinder, before the timed ignition
spark occurs, is known as
(1) Delay period (2) Pre-ignition
(3) Post ignition (4) None of the above
78. The ignition lag time in SI Engine is normally about
(1) 0.01 seconds (2) 0.0015 seconds
(3) 0.1 seconds (4) 1.1seconds
79. Dissociation refers to disintegration of burnt gases at high temperatures and it is
alan
(1) reversible process (2) irreversible process
(3) quasi-static process (4) None of the above
80. The air standard efficiency of Otto cycle is given by
81. Whicbone of the following is true for fuel air cycles ?
(a) There is no chemical change in either fuel or air prior to combustion.
(b) Subsequent to combustion, the charge is always in chemical equilibrium.
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of the above
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82. Which one of the following describes turbochargers of the engines ?
(a) Centrifugal compressors driven by the exhaust gas turbines.
(b) Turbochargers will not draw upon the engine power.
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of the above
83. Which of the following casting processes is widely used for making ornamental
objects ?
(1) Centrifugal casting (2) Slush casting
(3) Investment casting (4) Gravity die casting
84. If the hot working is completed much above the recrystallization temperature, then
(1) the grain size starts decreasing and final grain size will be smaller than at
starting.
(2) the resulting grain size will be fine.
.
(3) the grain size starts increasing and finally may end up as coarse grain size.
(4) the grain size is reduced and a large number of nucleation sites are developed
for new crystals to form.
85. In Resistance welding, the factor R (Resistance of joint) is composed of
(i) Resistance of electrodes
(ii) Contact resistance between the electrode and the work-piece
(iii) Contact resistance between the two work-piece plates
(iv) Resistance of work-piece plates
(1) Only (i) and (ii) (2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (i) and (iv) (4) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
86. The powder metallurgy technique is applicable for
(1) Job type production (2) Batch type production
(3) Mass type production (4) None of the above
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87. Polymers usually consist of carbon plus one or more other elements, such as
(i) Hydrogen
(ii) Nitrogen
(iii) Oxygen
(iv) Chlorine
(1) Only (i) and (iii) (2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (i) and (iv) (4) A1 (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
88. In a CNC program block
NO02 GO2 G91 X40 240 ...,
GO2 and G91 refer to
(1) circular interpolation in counter-clockwise direction and incremental dimension
(2) circular interpolation in counter-clockwise direction and absolute dimension
(3) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
(4) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
89. In orthogonal cutting, shear angle is the angle between
(1) shear plane and the direction of tool travel
(2) shear plane and the rake plane
(3) shear plane and the vertical direction
(4) shear plane and the direction of elongation of crystals in the chip
90. Chipping of the tool may occur
(i) due to tool material being too brittle
(ii) as a result of crack in the tool
(iii) due to excessive static loading of the tool
(iv) due to weak design of the tool
(1) Only (i)and (ii) (2) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) Only (ii) and (iii) (4) Only (i) and (iii)
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91. Two components of velocity in an incompressible fluid flow are given by u = x3 - y3
and v = z3 - y3. If origin is a stagnation point and F(x, y) = 0, the third velocity
component will be
- - - - - - - - -
92. Subsonic diffuser section is
( 1) divergent (2) divergent-convergent
(3) convergent (4) convergent-divergent
93,. At sonic speed, Mach angle is
(1) 0" (2) 90"
(3) 30" (4) 60"
94,- The assumption not made in the derivation of Bernoulli equation is
(1) inviscid flow (2) steady flow
(3) two-dimensional flow (4) uniform flow
95. In laminar flow, the value of momentum thickness is generally taken as
(1) th of displacement thickness
7
(2) 1 r d of boundary layer thickness
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3
(3) I
7
th of boundary layer thickness
(4) I3 dof displacement thickness
96. The number of buckets for Pelton wheel with 30 cm runner diameter and 5 cm jet
diameter is
(1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 24
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97. Minimum speed for starting delivery in a centrifugal pump depends on
(1) overall efficiency (2) mechanical efficiency
(3) volumetric efficiency (4) manometric efficiency
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98. The volumetic efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor depends on
(1) pressure ratio only
(2) clearance ratio only
(3) both pressure ratio and clearance ratio
(4) clearance volume
99. Slip in the case of a centrifugal pump
(1) reduces the flow rate (2) reduces the energy transfer
(3) reduces the speed (4) increases cavitation
100. In a measurement system, which of the following static characteristics are
desirable ?
(1) Accuracy (2) Sensitivity
(3) Reproducibility (4) All of the above
101. Linear Variable Differential Transformer (LVDT) can be used to measure
displacement ranging from
(2) 260 mm to 270 mm
(4) All of the above
102. Dummy strain gauges are used for
(1) compensation of temperature changes
(2) calibration of strain gauge
(3) increasing the sensitivity of bridge circuit in which they are included
(4) None of the above
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103. The hand speed indicators can be used up to the speed of 20,000 rpm to 30,000 rpm
with an accuracy of
(1) 0.15 percent (2) 0-25 percent
(3) 0.35 percent (4) 1.0 percent
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104. Variable reluctance transducers are ideally suitable for low pressure measurement
as their sensitivity is
(1) high (2) low
(3) zero (4) None of the above
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105. Vacuum Pressure is
(1) equal to gauge pressure
(2) equal to atmospheric pressure
(3) lower than atmospheric pressure
(4) equal to absolute pressure
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106. Mercury is used in liquid filled system as it gives
(1) high sensitivity
(2) wide temperature range
(3) wide temperature range and almost linear scale
(4) All of the above
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107. Potentiometric Accelerometer is useful only for
(1) low frequency application
(2) high frequency application
(3) both high and low frequency application
(4) None of the above
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1108. W3ich part classification and coding system uses the following digit sequence ?
12345 6789 ABCD
( 1 Code System (2) M I Class System
(3) Opitz System (4) All of the above
109. In CNC Programming, M30 stands for
(1) end of program (2) end of block
(3) end of tape and rewind (4) coolant onloff
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110. C" Continuity used in curves refers to
( 1) common curvature (2) common normal
(3) common points (4) common tangents
111. The screen is scanned l e e to right and top to bottom all the time to generate
graphics by
(1) Vector scan (2) Random scan
(3) Raster scan (4) Stroke writing
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112. Which of the following algorithms are polygon clipping algorithms ?
A. Liang - Barsky
B. Sutherland - Hodgman
C. Cohen - Sutherland
D. Weiler - Atherton
(1) B a n d D (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) A and C
113. Which one of the following is not a graphic standard ?
(1) GKS (2) STEP
(3) Dm (4) UNM
114. To reflect any object about arbitrary line, composite transformation uses the
following combination of transformations :
(1) Translation + Shear + Rotation
(2) Translation + Rotation + Scaling
(3) Translation + Reflection + Scaling
(4) Translation + Rotation + Reflection
116. In APT, to specify feeds and speeds and to actuate other features of machine,
statement type used is
(1) Geometry statement (2) Auxiliary statement
(3) Post Process statement (4) Motion statement
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116. Which thermodynamics law governs refrigerator ?
(1) First Law of Thermodynamics
(2) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
(3) Second Law of Thermodynamics
(4) None of the above
117. If coefficient of performance of refrigerating machine is 4, what will be the
temperature ratio Thigher/ Tlower?
(1) 0.8 (2) 1.25 (3) 4 (4) 2
118. Aircraft air refrigeration is used for
(1) coding cabin air
(2) maintaining cabin air pressure to 1 bar
(3) maintaining cabin temperature
(4) All of the above
11.9. Simple air refrigeration system is useful for
(1) ground surface cooling and for low flight speed
(2) high flight speed in sonic range
(3) all conditions of aircraft
(4) None of the above
120. Standard vapour compression refrigeration system uses throttling device instead of
expansion turbine due to
(1) higher thermodynamic advantage
(2) low cost of compression
(3) None of the above
(4) thermodynamic disadvantage is circumvented by cost reduction advantage
121. What are the components of vapour absorption refrigeration cycle ?
(1) Compressor, condenser, throttle valve and evaporator
(2) Compressor, condenser, expander and evaporator
(3) Absorber, generator, condenser, throttle valve and evaporator
(4) Absorber, pump, generator, valve, condenser, throttle valve and evaporator
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122. The function of rectifier in vapour absorption refrigeration system of ammonia-water
system is
(1) remove traces of water from ammonia before it reaches to condenser
(2) cost reduction of plant
(3) absorbing more refrigerant
(4) reducing corrosion
123. Which of the following statements is not true, in case of Water-LiBr system used in
water chiller ?
(1) It is more suitable involving low temperature heat source such as solar energy,
waste heat.
(2) Both generator and absorber run under high vacuum.
(3) Absorption chillers are available in capacities from 100 TR to 7500 TR.
(4) COP is more than unity.
124. What is the psychrometric process most commonly used for air-conditioning in hot
and dry weather conditions ?
(1) Heating and humidification (2) Dehumidification and cooling
(3) Adiabatic saturation process (4) None of the above
125. Maximum fenestration (solar heat gain) heat load at 3 - 6 P.M. occurs from glass
work in the wall/window facing . (During Indian hot season May - June)
(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South
126. Long-term forecasts are made for the purpose of
(1) product diversification (2) sales and advertising budgets
(3) capacity planning (4) All of the above
127. The Hungarian Method for solving assignment problem requires
(1) Square matrix (2) 3 x 2 matrix
(3) Both of the above (4) None of the above
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128. If critical ratio is less than one, then
(1) job is critical (2) job is ahead of the schedule
(3) job is just on schedule (4) None of the above
129. Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) takes into account
(1) Optimistic time (2) Most likely time
(3) Pessimistic time (4) All of the above
134). Critical Path Method (CPM)is
(1) activity oriented (2) one time estimate
(3) a planning device (4) All of the above
131. Basic elements of Just-in-Time (JIT) are
(1) Flow layout (2) Buffer stock removal
(3) Kanban card (4) All of the above
-
132. Output of material requirement planning can be
( 1) order release requirement (2) order rescheduling
(3) planned orders (4) All of the above
133. Principles of scheduling focus on
(1) Optimum task size (2) Optimum production plan
(3) Optimum sequence (4) All of the above
13.4. Casual Forecasting can be done by
(1) Regression and correlation analysis
(2) Input - Output analysis
(3) End use analysis
(4) All of the above
135. Aggregate production planning determines
( 1) Regular time production (2) Overtime production
(3) Subcontracting (4) All of the above
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136. A thin planar body subjected to in-plane loading at its edge surface is said to be in
(1) Plane stress (2) Plane strain
(3) Both (1)and (2) (4) Neither (1)nor (2)
137. In elements, the same interpolation function used to define the element
geometry are also used to describe the variation of the field variable within the
element.
(1) parametric (2) isoparametric
(3) quadratic (4) cubic
138. If determinant of a square matrix A is equal to zero, then the matrix A is called
, for which the inverse is
(1) non-singular, not defined (2) singular, defined
(3) singular, not defined (4) non-singular, defined
139. The term finite element was first coined and used by in 1960.
(1) Turner (2) Argyris
(3) Zienkiewicz (4) Clough
140. Maximum kinetic energy during motion is equated to the maximum potential energy
in method.
(1) Galerkin's (2) Separation of variables'
(3) Laplace's (4) Rayleigh's
141. The three-dimensional simplex element is a flat-faced with
nodes.
(1) tetrahedron, three (2) tetrahedron, four
(3) cube, eight (4) square-pyramid, five
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142. Evaluate the shape functions N1, N2 and N3 a t the interior point P for the triangular
element shown in the figure below.
(1) 0.3,0.2,0.5 (2) 0.2,0.3,0.5
(3) 0.2, 0.4,0.4 (4) 0.3,O-4,0.3
-
143. Ratio of maximum to minimum characteristic dimensions is called as
(1) characteristic ratio (2) aspect ratio
(3) element ratio (4) parametric ratio
-
144. If the interpolation functions in the natural (local) coordinates satisfy continuity of
within the element and between adjacent elements, the compatibility
requirement will be satisfied in the global coordinates.
(1) geometry (2) field variable
(3) geometry and field variable (4) geometry or field variable
145. The of the overall or global characteristic matrix depends on the node
numbering scheme and the number of degrees of freedom considered per node.
(1) range (2) band width (3) rank (4) order
146. Estimate how many observations are needed (approx) if an assembly line has 10%of
idle time. The expected accuracy in work sampling is k 4% for a 99.7%of confidence
level. Assume k = 3 for 99.7%confidence level.
(1) 506 (2) 510 (3) 502 (4) 512
Z f W F f dGlTT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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147. Consider a time study of a product manufacturing by an operator of machine, whose
rating is 95%. The data is as follows :
Observed time = 20 mins
Personal allowance = 4%,
Fatigue allowance = 2.5% of Basic time
Contingency delay allowance = 1%of Basic time
Contingency work Basic time = 2%of Basic time.
Determine work content time.
(1) 13.5 minutes (2) 14.65 minutes
(3) 14.78 minutes (4) 14.85 minutes
148. Method Time Measurement time study uses unit of time in
(1) Nano seconds (2) Pico seconds
(3) (4) Fermi
149. The demand of spur gear produced by a company is uniform a t 50 unitdday.
It is estimated that each time a production is set the company incurs P 100 as fixed
cost. Production cost is P 10, carrying cost is f 2 per unit per day and shortage cost
is P 6 per unit per day. Estimate optimal production quantity (approximate).
150. Arrange sequence of Data flow in manufacturing modules of ERP (Enterprise
. Resource Planning) :
(a) Material Requirements Planning (MRP)
(b) Aggregate planning
(c) Master Production Scheduling (MPS)
(dl Shop Floor Control (SFC)
(1) (a), (b), (c), (4
(2) (dl, (c), (a), (b)
(3) (b), (c), (a), (dl
(4) (b), (c), (dl, (a)
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3. 35. 201. The Catch varies inversely with the size of the
(1) nozzle (2) droplet
(3) obstruction (4) sprayer
$IT TRd h JaT "(3) obstruction" $ 4.FT$ Ti 3% "(3)" *,W
~ m 3 f ; . 2 o i ~ " m - ~@ " w
*-4.
sr.35. 201. @ @ @
mmnndt SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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परीक्षे चे नांव : सहायक ाध्यापक, यं तर् अिभयांितर्की, अ वायत्त शासकीय अिभयांितर्की महािवद्यालय,
महारा टर् अिभयांितर्की महािवद्यालयीन िशक्षक सेवा, गट -अ, चाळणी परीक्षा-2014
परीक्षे चा िदनांक : 27 जुलै, 2014
महारा टर् लोकसेवा आयोगामाफर्त सहायक ाध्यापक, यंतर् अिभयांितर्की, अ वाय शासकीय अिभयांितर्की महािव ालय, महारा टर् अिभयांितर्की महािव ालयीन िशक्षक
सेवा, गट -अ, चाळणी परीक्षा-2014 या चाळणी परीक्षेच्या नपितर्केची उ रतािलका उमेदवारांच्या मािहतीसाठी संकेत थळावर िसध्द करण्यात आली होती.
उमेदवारांनी अिध मािणत (Authentic) प टीकरण / संदभर् दे ऊन पाठिवलेली ले खी िनवेदने, तसेच तज्ज्ञांचे अिभ ाय िवचारात घे ऊन आयोगाने उ रतािलका सुधािरत
केली आहे . या उ रतािलकेतील उ रे अंितम समजण्यात येतील. यासंदभार्त आले ली िनवेदने िवचारात घे तली जाणार नाहीत व त्याबाबत कोणताही पतर् यवहार केला
जाणार नाही, याची कृ पया न द घ्यावी.
उत्तरतािलका - KEY
Text of page 2
Maharashtra Public Service Commission
Notations :
Question Paper Name: Assistant Professor Mechanical ACTUAL
Subject Name: Assistant Professor Mechanical
Creation Date: 2014-07-23 14:12:27.0
Cut Off: 10
Duration: 60
Number of Questions: 100
Group 1
Group Number : 1
Group Id : 86
Group Maximum Duration : 0
Group Minimum Duration : 60
Revisit allowed for view? : No
Revisit allowed for edit? : No
Break time: 0
Assistant Professor Mechanical
Section Id : 116
Section Number : 1
Section type : Online
Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory
Number of Questions: 100
Number of Questions to be attempted: 100
Sub-Section Number: 1
Sub-Section Id: 126
Question Shuffling Allowed : No
Question Number : 1 Question Id : 10113 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
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Question Number : 2 Question Id : 10114 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 3 Question Id : 10115 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 4 Question Id : 10116 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 5 Question Id : 10117 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 6 Question Id : 10118 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 7 Question Id : 10119 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 8 Question Id : 10120 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 9 Question Id : 10121 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 10 Question Id : 10122 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
Question Number : 11 Question Id : 10123 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
In the middle
Question Number : 12 Question Id : 10124 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
Question Number : 13 Question Id : 10125 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
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Question Number : 14 Question Id : 10126 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 15 Question Id : 10127 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 16 Question Id : 10128 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 17 Question Id : 10129 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
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Options : Question Number : 18 Question Id : 10130 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 19 Question Id : 10131 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 20 Question Id : 10132 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 21 Question Id : 10133 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
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Options : Question Number : 22 Question Id : 10134 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 23 Question Id : 10135 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 24 Question Id : 10136 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 25 Question Id : 10137 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 26 Question Id : 10138 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 27 Question Id : 10139 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 28 Question Id : 10140 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 29 Question Id : 10141 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Text of page 10
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 30 Question Id : 10142 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 31 Question Id : 10143 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 32 Question Id : 10144 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 33 Question Id : 10145 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 34 Question Id : 10146 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 35 Question Id : 10147 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 36 Question Id : 10148 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 37 Question Id : 10149 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 38 Question Id : 10150 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 39 Question Id : 10151 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 40 Question Id : 10152 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
Text of page 13
Question Number : 41 Question Id : 10153 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 42 Question Id : 10154 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 43 Question Id : 10155 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 44 Question Id : 10156 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
Text of page 14
Question Number : 45 Question Id : 10157 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 46 Question Id : 10158 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 47 Question Id : 10159 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 48 Question Id : 10160 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 49 Question Id : 10161 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 50 Question Id : 10162 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 51 Question Id : 10163 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 52 Question Id : 10164 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 53 Question Id : 10165 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 54 Question Id : 10166 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 55 Question Id : 10167 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 56 Question Id : 10168 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 57 Question Id : 10169 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 58 Question Id : 10170 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 59 Question Id : 10171 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 60 Question Id : 10172 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 61 Question Id : 10173 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 62 Question Id : 10174 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 63 Question Id : 10175 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 64 Question Id : 10176 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 65 Question Id : 10177 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 66 Question Id : 10178 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 67 Question Id : 10179 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 68 Question Id : 10180 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 69 Question Id : 10181 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 70 Question Id : 10182 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 71 Question Id : 10183 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 72 Question Id : 10184 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
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Options : Question Number : 73 Question Id : 10185 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 74 Question Id : 10186 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 75 Question Id : 10187 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 76 Question Id : 10188 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
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Options : Question Number : 77 Question Id : 10189 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 78 Question Id : 10190 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 79 Question Id : 10191 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 80 Question Id : 10192 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Text of page 23
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
Question Number : 81 Question Id : 10193 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
QUESTION
QUESTIONCANCELLED
CANCELLED
For the above question, User had specified 'ignore' during keys upload.
Question Number : 82 Question Id : 10194 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
Question Number : 83 Question Id : 10195 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No
Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0
Options :
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Question Number : 84 Question Id : 10196 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 85 Question Id : 10197 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 86 Question Id : 10198 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 87 Question Id : 10199 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 88 Question Id : 10200 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 89 Question Id : 10201 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 90 Question Id : 10202 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 91 Question Id : 10203 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 92 Question Id : 10204 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 93 Question Id : 10205 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 94 Question Id : 10206 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 95 Question Id : 10207 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 96 Question Id : 10208 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 97 Question Id : 10209 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 98 Question Id : 10210 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options : Question Number : 99 Question Id : 10211 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Question Number : 100 Question Id : 10212 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 2.0 Wrong : 0.0 Options :
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Source: Maharashtra Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Maharashtra Public Service Commission.