MPSC AE 2017: Maharashtra Civil Engineering Services Main Examination, Paper 2
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1. The dimensions of dynamic viscosity are
(1) L2/T (2) r n T
2. If the velocity potential function @ = 5 (x2- y2), the velocity components a t the points
(4,5)will be
(1) u = - 35, v = 40
(2) u = - 40, v = 55
- - - - - -
3. Printer's ink is a n example of
(1) Newtonian fluid
(2) Non-Newtonian fluid
(3) Thixotropic substance
(4) Elastic solid
4. Dynamic Viscosity of a gas
(1) Increases as temperature decreases
(2) Increases as temperature increases
(3) Is independent of temperature
(4) May increase or decrease with increase in temperature, depending on the
nature of gas
5. According t o Froude's model law
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6. For a hydrostatic pressure measurement in fluids at rest,
(1) The shear stress depends upon the coefficient of viscosity
(2) The shear stress is maximum on a plane inclined 45" t o horizontal
(3) The shear stress is zero
(4) The shear stress is zero only on horizontal plane
2
7. v + z = constant between any two points, flow must be
P +-
If in a flow field -
Y 2g
(1) Steady, compressible and irrotational
(2) Unsteady, incompressible and irrotational
(3) Steady, incompressible and irrotational
(4) Steady, compressible and along a stream line
8. For a centrifugal pump, suction lift head is the
(1) Vertical distance between the top surface of liquid level in the discharge tank
and pump centre line
(2) Vertical distance between free surface of liquid level in the sump and pump
centre line
(3) Head for overcoming friction loss in the suction pipe, entry loss at entrance to
the friction pipe and running fluid in the suction pipe
(4) None of the above
9. The centre of buoyancy of a submerged body
(1) Coincides with the centre of gravity of the body
(2) Coincides with the centroid of the displaced volume of the fluid
(3) Is always below the centre of gravity of the body
(4) Is always above the centroid of the displaced volume of the liquid
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10. What is the range of the speed ratio for a Francis Turbine ?
(1) 0.10 to 0.30 (2) 0.60 to 0.90
(3) 0.85 to 0.90 (4) 1.40 to 2.25
11. For high head, the suitable turbine is
(1) Pelton (2) Francis
(3) Kaplan (4) None of the above
12. The discharge through a single-acting reciprocating pump is
ALN
(1) Q = -
60
13. The specific speed (N,) of a pump is given by the expression
14. Jet ratio (m) is defined as the ratio of
(1) Diameter of the jet of water to diameter of the Pelton wheel
(2) Velocity of vane to velocity of the jet of water
(3) Velocity of flow to velocity of the jet of water
(4) Diameter of Pelton wheel to diameter of the jet of water
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15. A graph between the pressure head in the cylinder and the distance travelled by the
piston from inner dead centre for one complete revolution of crank in known as
(1) Slip diagram
(2) Crank diagram
(3) Polar diagram
(4) Indicator diagram
16. A turbine is called impulse if at the inlet of the turbine
(1) Total energy is only kinetic energy
(2) Total energy is only pressure energy
(3) Total energy is the sum of kinetic energy and pressure energy
(4) None of the above
17. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Curves at constant speed are called main characteristics curves.
(2) Curves at constant head are called main characteristic curves.
(3) Curves a t constant efficiency are called operating characteristic curves.
(4) Curves a t constant efficiency are called main characteristic curves.
18. The manometer head (H,) of a centrifugal pump is given by
(1) Pressure head at outlet of pump - pressure head at inlet
(2) Total head at inlet t o t a l head at outlet
(3) Total head at outlet - total head at inlet
(4) None of the above
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19. The Goodrich method is used for
(1) Determining reservoir capacity
(2) Flood routing
(3) Reservoir sediment evaluation
(4) Trap efficiency
20. The extent by which the inflow hydrograph gets modified due to the reservoir
storage can be computed by a process known as
(1) River routing (2) Channel routing
(3) S hydrograph (4) Flood routing or reservoir routing
21. A permeable stratum which is capable of yielding appreciable quantities of
groundwater under gravity is known alan
(1) Well (2) Artesian well
(3) Aquifer (4) Aquiclude
-- - -
22. In routing a flood through a reach, the point of intersection of inflow and outflow
hydrographs coincides with the peak of outflow hydrograph
(1) In all cases of flood routing
(2) In channel routing only
(3) In all cases of reservoir routing
(4) When the inflow is into a reservoir with an uncontrolled outlet
23. The volume of groundwater extracted by gravity drainage from a saturated water
bearing material is known as
(1) Field capacity (2) Specific retention
(3) Specific capacity (4) Yield
-
24. The distance from the centre of a pumped well to the point, where the drawdown is
zero or is inappreciable, is known as
(1) Drawdown
(2) Cone of pressure
(3) Radius of influence
(4) Piezometric surface
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25. The well yield per unit drawdown is known as
(1) Specific capacity of a well (2) Efficiency of a well
(3) Retention of a well (4) Well loss
26. If within a zone of saturation, an impervious deposit below a pervious deposit is
found to support a body of saturated material, then this body of saturated material
is known as
(1) Flowing well (2) Aquiclude
(3) Artesian aquifer (4) Perched aquifer
27. If Sy =.Specificyield and S, = Specific retention, then
(1) S, + S, = 0.50 (2) Sy + S, = Porosity
(3) S, + S, = 1.0 (4) Sy+ Sr = Permeability
28. is an example of a non-rigid dam.
(1) Arch dam (2) Timber dam
(3) Steel dam (4) Rockfill darn
- - - - - - - - ~
29. 'Bank storage' in a dam rcservoir
(11 Decreases the computed reservoir capacity
(2) Increases the computed reservoir capacity
(3) Sometimes decreases and sometimes increases the computed reservoir
capacity
(4) Has no effect on reservoir capacity
30. In case of gravity dams, the factor of safety against over turning should not be less
than
(1) 1.00 (2) 1.10 (3) 1.25 (4) 1.50
31. Sharper crest of an ogee spillway
(1) Increases the value of coefficient of discharge
(2) Decreases the effective head
(3) Increases stability of crest due to hydrostatic pressure
(4) Has no effect on any one of the above
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32. A land is known as waterlogged when
(1) Gravity drainage has ceased
(2) Permanent wilting point is reached
(3) The soil becomes completely saturated
(4) Capillary fringe reaches the root zone of the plants
33. Seepage failure of earth-filled dam is due to
( 1) Toe erosion (2) Wave erosion
(3) Gullying (4) Sloughing
34. Auxiliary devices in stilling basins are provided
(1) To stabilise the flow
(2) To reduce the length of the basin
(3) As additional measure to control jump
(4) All of the above
35. Which of the following structures is constructed to separate under sluices from the
main weir ?
(1) Marginal bund (2) Divide wall
(3) Head regulator (4) None of the above
36. The crest of an emergency spillway is placed
(1) Below the designed minimum reservoir water level
(2) At the designed minimum reservoir water level
(3) At or above the designed minimum reser-voir water level
(4) None of the above
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37. The road length of National Highway by Third Road Plan Formulae, in a certain
district in India having its area as 13,400 sq.m will be
(1) 134km (2) 268 km (3) 402 km (4) 1340 km
38. For the purpose of measuring the stopping sight distance, IRC had suggested the
height of eye level of driver and the height of the object above the road surface as
(1) 1.5 m and 0.15 m (2) 1.2 m and 0.12 m
(3) 1.2 m and 0.15 m (4) 1.5 m and 0.12 m
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39. A vertical summit curve is formed a t the intersection of two gradients, + 5% and
- 5%. The length of summit curve needed to provide a stopping sight distance of
100 m will be
(1) 227 m (2) 0 m (3) 327m (4) 197m
40. The maximum utility system is based on the concept of
(1) Maximum utility per unit cost of road
(2) Maximum utility per unit length of road
(3) Maximum utility per unit population
(4) None of the above
41. Match the following :
a. Primary survey I. Collect general characteristics of a n area
6. Map study 11. Improvement in horizontal and vertical alignments
c. Realignment of 111. Collect physical information
highway
d. Reconnaissance IV. Alignment avoiding valleys, ponds or lakes
a b c d
(1) I IV I1 I11
(2) 111 I1 rv I
(3) I I1 rv I11
(4) I11 IV I1 I
42. Determine the safe stopping sight distance for design speed of 14 mls for two-way
traffic on a two lane road assuming the coefficient of friction as 0.28 and a reaction
time of 2 seconds.
(1) 63.67 m (2) 61.47 m (3) 53.27 m (4) 73.57 m
43. As per the modified classification of road system by the Third Road Development
Plan, 1981 - 2001, the roads in the country under 'Primary System' of road network
consist of
(1) Expressways and National Highways
(2) State Highways (SH) and Major District Roads (MDR)
(3) Other District Roads (ODR) and Village Roads (VR)
(4) All of the above
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44. The Benkelman Beam Deflection method is used for
(1) Flexible overlay on flexible pavement
(2) Rigid overlay on rigid pavement
(3) Flexible overlay on rigid pavement
(4) Rigid overlay on flexible pavement
45. The width of camageway for various classes of roads standardised by the Indian
Road Congress (IRC) for two lanes without raised kerbs is
(1) 3.75 m
(2) 7.00 m
(3) 7.50 m
46. The strength of a bridge is termed as MBG loading of 1987. MBG refers to
(1) Model Broad Gauge
(2) Modified Broad Gauge
(3) Modified Budget Grant
(4) Main Broad Gauge
47. The centrifugal force is assumed to act a t a height of above the level of
the carriageway of the bridge.
(1) 1m (2) 1.2 m
(3) 1.5 m (4) 1.75 m
48. For all parts of bridge floors accessible only to pedestrains and for all footways,
loading should be
(1) 2 0 o k g / ~ ~ (2) 300 kgtrn2
(3) 400 kg/m2 (4) 500 kg/m2
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49. loading is adopted on all roads on which permanent bridges and culverts
are constructed.
(1) IRC Class A
(2) IRC Class AA
(3) IRC Class B
(4) IRC Class AB
50. According to the criteria recommended by IRC for Girder Bridges, the limiting load
should not cause a deflection more than - of the span.
(1) 111000 (2) 111200
(3) 111500 (4) 112000
51. The centre-to-centre distance between any two adjacent supports is called the
of a bridge.
(1) span (2) clear span
( 3 ) nominal span (4) effective span
52. The scour velocity of the stream is the
(1) Average velocity
(2) Maximum velocity a t any time during the year
(3) Velocity which can move the particles of bed materials
(4) Velocity a t which a highway bridge is liable to be damaged
53. The bridge structure having a gross length of 6 m or less between the faces of the
abatement or extreme vintage boundaries is known as
(1) Causeway (2) Culvert
(3) Short span bridge (4) None of the above
54. In case of navigable rivers, the minimum free board provided is usually
(4) 1.0 m
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55. NATM method of tunnelling is suitable for
a. Subway construction
b. Abnormal geological conditions
c. Soils at medium of shallow depth
d. Tunnelling large sections in very difficult ground
Answer options :
(1) a and b only (2) b and d only
(3) a, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d
66. Which one of the following shapes is suitable for the construction of tunnel in
non-cohesive soils 7
(1) Rectangular (2) Horse-shoe
(3) Egg-shaped (4) Circular
57. The tunnels that are made to shortcut minor local obstacles are called
(1) Spiral tunnels (2) Short tunnels
(3) Off-spur tunnels (4) Saddle tunnels
58. Which among the following is not a part of shield equipment ?
( 1 ) Graveltank (2) Trailing dam
(3) Nipper car (4) Chute
59. The following operations are generally employed for the Needle Beam Method of
tunnelling :
a. A trench jack is placed on the centre line of the needle beam to support the
segment.
b. A monkey drift is driven for a short distance.
c. Drift is widened sideways and supported by lagging segments.
d. The roof of the monkey drift is supported by lagging.
e. The needle beam is slowly skidded forward into the monkey drift.
The correct sequence of operations is
(1) c - d - e - a - b (2) a-b-c-d-e
(3) b - d - e - a - c (4) b - a - e - d - c
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60. Which of the following is a serious health issue in case of workers involved in
tunnelling operations ?
(1) Pneumonia (2) Deafness
(3) Silicosis (4) Jaundice
61. The amount of fresh air required to maintain ventilation for workers inside the
tunnel should be
(1) 1 - 5 m3/minute
(2) 6 - 14 m3/minute
(3) 20 - 30 m3/minute
(4) 30 - 50 m3/minute
62. The method used to control the amount of dust, where use of water while drilling
may be impracticable or undesirable is
(1) Dry system
(2) Vacuum hood system
(3) Control system
(4) Absorption system
63. In compressed air tunnelling, the amount of air required per minute per m2 of face
area is
(1) 1 m3/min/m" (2) 6 m3/min/m2
(3) 10 m3/min/m2 (4) 20 m3/min/m2
64. The correct pair showing percentage of total solids in cow-dung and night soil is
Cow-dung Night Soil
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65. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(1). Dead end system - Hardy-Cross method
(2) Residual pressure a t ferrule point in rural area - 5 m
(3) Distribution reservoir - Central location
(4) Gridiron system - More number of valves
66. Consider the following statements pertaining to the sources of supply :
a. Groundwater has low organic content and high dissolved oxygen.
b. Lake water at the bottom has silt and bacteria.
c. River water in floods has low dissolved oxygen and colour.
Which of the above statements islare correct ?
(1) aonly
(2) b only
(3) conly
(4) a, band c
67. As per I.S. 10500, acceptable limit for chlorides in mgll in drinking water is
(1) 100mgll (2) 250 mgll
(3) 500mgd (4) 1500 mgll
68. Activated sludge process is an
(1) Aerobic attached growth system
(2) Anaerobic attached growth system
(3) Anaerobic suspended growth system
(4) Aerobic suspended system
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69. 'If B.O.D. of waste water sample after 5 days incubation a t 20°C is 100 mgll,
deoxygenation rate constant a t 20°C is 0.1 per day, ultimate B.O.D. will be
(1) 120.20 mgll
(2) 146.25mgll
(3) 200.45mgll
(4) 225.60 mgll
70. Which one of the following is the purpose of providing surge tank in pipelines
carrying water ?
(1) To store water
(2) To increase pressure in the pipeline
(3) To store overflowing water
(4) To protect the pipeline against water hammer
71. In the activated sludge process, sludge volume index is used to decide
(1) Quality of raw sewage
(2) Quality of final effluent
(3) Recirculation ration of sludge
(4) Rate of aeration
72. An appurtenance used to connect high level branch sewer to low level branch sewer
is
(1) Mahhole
(2) Drop manhole
(3) Inverted siphon
(4) Catch basin
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73. The maximum tolerances in overall length of a 20 m and 30 m metric chain should
be respectively
(1) + 2 m m , f 8 m m
(2) f 3 m m , f 5 m m
(3) f 5 mm, f 8 mm
(4) + 8 mm, f 5 mm
74. Closed contour lines with one or more higher value contours inside it represent
(1) Ahill (2) A depression
(3) A cliff (4) A valley
75. The lines joining points of equal dip are called
(1) Aclinic lines (2) Isogonic lines
(3) Agonic lines (4) Isoclinic lines
76. The magnetic bearing of the sun at noon is 178". The magnetic declination at the
place is
(1) 2O W (2) 2" E (3) 2" N (4) 2" S
77. If the lower clamp is tightened and the upper clamp is loosened, the theodolite may
be turned
(1) With a relative motion between vernier and graduated scales of the lower plate
(2) Without a relative motion between vernier and graduated scales of the lower
plate
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) About the horizontal axis
78. Total station is used for
(1) Remote object height determination
(2) Establishing horizontal control
(3) Establishing vertical control
(4) All of the above
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79. Sensitivity of a level tube increases with
a. An increase in radius of curvature of the bubble tube.
b. Smoothness of finish of the inner surface of the bubble tube.
Answer options :
(1) Only a is correct (2) Only b is correct
(3) Both are correct (4) None is correct
80. If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed as 0.75 m from a tacheometer with the
line of sight horizontal, fitted with anallatic lens, the horizontal distance between
the tacheometer and the staff station is
(1) 0.75m (2) 7.5 m (3) 75 m (4) 750 m
81. Froude's transition curve is
(1) Cubic spiral (2) Cubic parabola
(3) Bernoulli's lemniscate (4) Ellipse
82. A triangulation station selected close to the main station for avoiding intervening
obstruction is called
(1) Tie station (2) Eccentric station
(3) Pivot station (4) Satellite station
83. An owner of a building requires 7 15,000 to repair his building aRer 5 years. What
sum should the owner have to invest now in order to recieve the required amount of
money a t a rate of compound interest 8%?
(1) f 10,207.50 (2) f 10,720.50
(3) 7 10,270.50 (4) f 10,072.50
84. While writing specifications, the following principles shall be adopted :
a. Description of materials
b. Workmanship, tools and plants
c. Protection of new work
d. Clauses of the specifications
e. Expression
Answer options :
(1) a , b a n d e (2) a, b, e, d and e
(3) b and e ( 4 ) a, d and e
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85. Purposes of rate analysis are
a. To determine the current rate per unit of an item a t the locality
b. To examine the viability of rates offered by contractors
c. To calculate the quantity of materials and labour strength required for project
planning
d. To fix labour contract rates
Answer options :
(1) a , b a n d d (2) b, c and d
(3) a, band c (4) a, b, c, and d
-
86. The usual practice of bending of a bar near a support is a t an angle of
(1) 30" (2) 45" (3) 60" (4) 15"
87. For painting corrugated steel sheet, surfaces shall be measured flat and the area
worked out shall be increased by
(1) 10% (2) 12% (3) 14% (4) 20%
88. Which of the following specifications are not correct with reference to a brickwork ?
a. Brickwork shall be done in such a way that all joints are full of mortar.
b. For all exposed brickworks, double scaffolding having two sets of vertical
supports shall be provided.
c. Bricks required for brick masonry with mud mortar need not be soaked.
Answer options :
(1) a and b only (2) a a n d c only
(3) b and c only (4) None of the above
89. The nominal lead and lift allowed for earthwork in excavations of foundations are
(1) 30 m and 1.5 m (2) 20 m and 2.0 m
(3) 15 m and 3.0 m (4) 10 m and 4.5 m
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90. Which method of depreciation is suitable for finding depreciation of a building
having a life of 100 years ?
(1) Constant percentage method
(2) Straight-line method
(3) Sinking fund method
(4) Quantity survey method
- - -
91. For 1 cumec of cement concrete proportion with stone chips 1 : 2 : 4, the required
number of cement bags is
(1) 6.34 (2) 6.0
(3) 5.5 (4) 4.5
92. In a typical compaction curve as indicated in the diagram, points 'A' and 'B' have
same dry densities. Choose the most appropriate statement from the following :
& OMC D
% moisture
content
(1) Soil a t 'A' will have more swelling potential and less shrinking upon moisture
variation, compared to 'B'.
(2) Soil at 'A' will have same swelling and shrinking potential as soil at 'B'.
(3) Soil at 'A' will have less swelling potential and higher shrinking potential
compared with soil a t 'B'.
(4) The swelling-shrinking potential for soil a t 'A' and 'B' cannot be predicted with
the given data.
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93. Select the appropriate alternative from the following :
Soil deposit is called as 'over-consolidated', if
where Po is the present effective overburden pressure and PC is preconsolidation
pressure.
94. Following are the statements about the major differences between Terzaghi's
analysis ('T')and Meyerhof's analysis ('M') of bearing capacity :
a. 'T' is for homogeneous and isotropic soils but 'M' accounts for non-isotropy.
b. In T',the failure surfaces form upto founding level but in 'M', they are
extended upto ground level.
c. In 'T', the angle of wedge formed beneath the foundation is assumed to be equal
to the angle of internal friction of the soil but in 'M', it varies.
d. In 'T', the load acting on the foundation is concentric and vertical but in 'M', it
is assumed as eccentric.
Ascertain the correctness of the above statements and write the correct code.
(1) Statement a is the only correct statement
(2) Statements a and b are correct
(3) Statements b and c are correct
(4) Statements a and d are correct
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95. A 10 m deep canal is constructed in purely cohesive soil having c = 0.2 kg/cm2,
$ = Oo, G = 2.5, e = 0.5. The stability number is 0.1. In a canal running in full
condition, the factor of safety w.r.t. cohesion against failure of side slopes will be
96. Statement A : Terzaghi's bearing capacity theory assumes strip foundation in the
analysis.
Statement B :Terzaghi's theory does not consider development of shear resistance in
the soil mass above founding level.
(1) Both the statements A and B are true
(2) Statement A is true but B is false
(3) Statement A is false but B is true
(4) Both the statements A and B are false
97. Statement A :Plate load test is a short duration test and is not suitablein cohesive
soils.
Statement B : Plate load test does not record the total settlement of the test plate in
clayey soils.
(1) Both the statements A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A
(2) Statement A is true but B is false
(3) Statement A is false but B is true
(4) Both the statements A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A
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98. A soft saturated clayey soil tested unconfined gave an axial stress of 50 kN/m2 at
failure. The shear strength of the soil is
(4) None of the above
99. Match the following :
a. Electro-osmosis I. Provide water free area for work
b. Under reamed pile 11. Elliminate differential settlement
c. Cellular cofferdam 111. Dewatering of fine grained soil
d. Raft foundation IV. Foundation for expansive soil
a b c d
(1) I11 I1 lv I
(2) 1'11 rv I I1
(3) N I11 I I1
(4) I IV I11 I1
100. A wall 6 m high has a smooth vertical back and retained sand as a backfill which is
submerged. The sand has ysat = 20 w / m 3 and 41 = 30". The total active earth
pressure is
(1) 90 kN/m2
(2) 60 W m 2
(3) 120kNlm2
(4) None of the above
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Source: Maharashtra Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Maharashtra Public Service Commission.