MPSC AE 2017: Maharashtra Engineering Services Preliminary Examination, Question paper
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- Code : M09
BOOKLET No. 6 y 9W,'La\7
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11. Match the following sentences with correct prepositions to fill in the blanks :
a. to I. The river flowed a bridge.
b. after 11. The repairs the roof were completed quickly.
c. with 111. the party we did a lot of washing-up.
d. under IV. The bad-tempered man replied a grunt,
12. Match the following :
a. Come again I. to advance, develop or improve
b. Come about 11. to obtain or receive
c. Come by 111. to happen
d. Come along N. What did you say ?
a b c d
(1) I I1 I11 IV
(2) IV I11 I1 I
(3) I11 IV I1 I
(4) 11 I IV I11
13. I met unexpectedly an old friend yesterday at the bus station.
Select the correct alternative that could replace the underlined part meaningfully.
(1) caught a t (2) came across
(3) waited on (4) went by
14. parents sat up half the night.
Which one of the following correctly fills the blank in the above sentence ?
(1) Both of (2) Both the
(3) The both (4) Both
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15. a. The accident was put down to bad luck.
b. Ireally love being given presents.
c. Tom was liked to be there.
d. She is being treated in hospital.
Identify the correct passive sentencds.
(1) Only a (2) Only a, b and c
(3) Only b, c and d (4) Only a, c and d
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 16 to 20 :
A person who takes the trouble to form his own opinions and beliefs, will feel
that he owes no responsibility to the majority for his conclusions. If he is a genuine
lover of truth, if he is inspired by a passion for seeing things as they are and an
adherrence of holding ideas which do not conform to facts, he will be wholly
independent of the assent of those around him. When he proceeds to apply his beliefs
in the practical conduct of life, the position is different. There are then good reasons
why his attitude should be less inflexible. The society in which he is placed is an
ancient and composite growth. The people from whom he dissents have not come by
their opinions, customs and by a process of mere haphazard. These opinions and
customs, all had their origin in a certain real supposed fitness. They have certain
depth of root in the lives of a proportion of the existing generation. Their congruity
with one another may have come to an end. That is only one side of the truth. The
most zealous propagandism cannot penetrate to them. In common language, we
speak of a generation a s something possessed of a kind of exact unity, with all its
parts and members homogeneous. Yet, plainly it is not this. I t is a whole but a whole
in a state of constant flux; its factors and elements are eternally shifting. It is not
one but many generations. Each of the seven ages of man is neighbour to all the rest.
The column of the veterans is already sinking into the last abyss, while the column
of the newest recruits is forming its tradition, its tendency and its possibilities. Only
a proportion of each can have nerve enough to grasp the banner of a new truth and
endurance to bear it along rugged and untrodden ways. Thus we must remember the
stuff of which life is made. We must consider what a n overwhelming preponderance
of the most tenacious energies and most concentrated interests of a society must be
absorbed between material cares and the solitude of the affections. It is obviously
unreasonable to lose patience and quarrel with one's time because it is tardy in
throwing off its institutions and beliefs and slow to achieve the transformation
which is the problem in front of it. Men and women have to live. The task for most of
us is arduous enough to make us well pleased with even such imperfect shelter as we
find in daily use and wont. To insist on whole community being made at once to
submit to the reign of new practices and ideas that have just begun to commend
themselves to the most advanced speculative intelligence of the time, this even if it
were a possible process, would do hurry on social dissolution.
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16. select the correct antonym from the passage to
miscellaneous
(1) whole (2) homogeneous
(3) tenacious (4) different
17. 'rugged and untrodden ways' in the passage means
(1) rough and outdated
(2) difficult and inexperienced
(3) hard and worn out
(4) strong and strange
18. What is the hard task the author refers to in the above passage ?
a. To discard old beliefs for transformation.
b. To accept new practices and ideas.
c. To be absorbed between material cares and solitude of affection.
Select the correct answer.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only b and c
(4) All a, b and c
19. An overnight change in social setting is not desirable because
a. The society in which the person lives is an ancient and of composite growth.
b. The opinions and customs in the society are deep rooted.
Select the correct alternative to complete the sentence.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Both a and b are incorrect
20. According to the passage, customs and traditions originate from
(1) lives of ancient people in the society.
(2) the traditional society.
(3) largely in previous generations.
(4) real and flawless connectivity among the majority of the members of existing
society.
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There is a degradation of natural forest and soil due to this method used by the
tribals for farming :
(1) Terrace farming (2) Slash and burn
(3) Agro-forestry (4) Subsistence agriculture
Which one of the following does not include in the concept of conservation of
resources ?
(1) Careful use (2) Rational use
(3) Not to use (4) Preservation from destruction
23. G l T d ? d & h ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ?
(1) dftm alpm (2) &$mh
(3) w m (4)
Which of the following is not a factor of index ?
(1) Life Expectancy (2) Road and Rural Development
(3) Literacy (4) Infant Mortality
Consider the following statements :
a. India Trade Promotion Organisation was set up in January 1992.
b. State ~ r a d i n ~
Corporation was set up primarily to deal in trade with
inter-states.
c. The Indian Institute of Packaging undertakes research on raw materials for the
packaging industry.
Which of the statements given above idare incorrect ?
(1) Only a and b (2) Only b
(3) Onlv c (4) Onlv a and c
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25. ~ W i W J F i & h ~ d ' d h@?
h
(1) m a ; r r m ~ , ~ & l * ~ ~ ~ .
(2) ma;n w m r m 3 T i m * m a ; r r r n & ~ .
(3) m a ; r r m F r ~ ~ ~ J r w z r ; h ~ + .
(4) ma;rr~*+maamm?R;rftaFlTi.r;Rm*m.
Which of the following statements regarding call money market is not correct ?
(1) Call money market is centred in Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.
(2) Call money market is also known as Inter bank market.
(3) Call money market is the most appropriate indicator of liquidity position of
money market.
(4) Borrowingllending transactions in call money market are camed out for three
days.
26. 2012 - 13 d (OPEC) $Tfl 3T19m ?A
M.
(1) 30 (2) 38.6 (3) 29 (4) 25
India's import from Petroleum Export Countries (OPEC) was percent (%) in
the year 2012 - 13.
Consider the following statements :
a. The wholesale price index is thus a measure of inflation on an economy wide
scale.
b. The consumer price index is the retail price average of a basket of goods and
services directly consumed by the people.
c. GDP deflators which distinguishes between personal growth in income and
price rise.
Which of the statements given above islare incorrect ?
( 1) Only a and b (2) Only c
(3) 0niy a (4) only b and c
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IV. lm 1999
Match the following pairs :
A B
(Yojana) (Est. Year)
a. Swarna Jayanti Gram I. December 1997
Swarozgar Yojana
b. Jawahar Gram 11. September 2005
Samridhi Yojana
c. National Rural 111. April 1999
Employment Guarantee Act
d. The Swarna Jayanti N. 1 April 1999
Shahari Rozgar Yojana
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Consider the following statements :
a. The State Reorganisation Commission was established by the Central
Government in 1953.
b. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act was approved by the Indian
Parliament in 2014.
c. Telangana is the 2gth State of India.
d. Telangana State was established on 2ndJune 2014.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c
(3) Only c and d (4) a, b, c and d
so. a-i&aw****?
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
A B
(Amendment) (Subject)
a. 52ndAmendment - Anti-defection Law
b. 56th Amendment - Statehood for Goa
c. 5gth Amendment - Emergency in Punjab
d. 62ndAmendment - Reservation for SCs and STs
(1) a, band d (2) a, b and c
(3) c and d (4) a, b, c and d
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31. ~~$Mt+m~JIW;Trift+mrnm3~mw???
(1) 53 +m (2) **dm*
Irn +m
(3) T (4) m+R ;rrft
Which one of the following schemes is not recognized as Prime Minister's Scheme ?
(1) Mudra Yojana (2) Jivan Jyoti Bima Yojana
(3) Jan Dhan Yojana (4) None of the above
Consider the following statements :
a. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar was awarded with Bharat Ratna posthumously.
b. Mahatma Gandhi was awarded Bharat Ratna.
c. Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2016.
d. Sachin Tendulkar was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2014.
Which of the statements giren above islare incorrect ?
(1) Only a (2) Only d
(3) Only b and c (4) Only a and d
What is the ranking of Navi Mumbai and Pune cities as per the Swachha
Samekshan 2017 ?
(1) 08 and 13 (2) 29 and 32
(3) 40 and 45 (4) 56 and 72
- -
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(3) n W@I r +iM (4) ~ ~ ; l l e
The wmmitteels regarding the electoral reformls idare
a. Dinesh Goswami Committee
b. Indrajit Gupta Committee
(1) Only a (2) Only b
(3) Both a and b (4) None of the above
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r. '*3im;W3M&N
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s. '&-47'3 a+ii
(1) n , r *, 3,s y (2) r , 5 *, 3 , s 9~
(3) r , 3 f i s * , n - (4) wl
Mikhael Kalashnichov passed away, who was he ?
*
a. Honoured by 'Stalin Prize'
b. Honoured by 'Order of Lenin'
c. Honoured by 'Hero of Socialist Labour'
d. Father of 'AK-47'
(1) a, b are correct, c, d are false (2) b, c are correct, a, d are false
(3) b, c and d are correct, a is false (4) All are correct
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@I?~ ~ ~ ~
(1) *riMitFTFTIm&*.
(2) wrnd*.
(3) mTm~rn@t*fm=2*.
(4) w m u ; r f i r ~ ~ ~ .
Which of the following features of the first phase of monorail is not correct ?
(1) Every monorail has four coaches.
(2) Total stations are seven.
(3) Total time of journey is twenty minutes.
(4) One wach is reserved for ladies only.
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What was the subject of the conference organised by the United Nations in 1977 at
Nairobi ?
(1) Protection of wildlife
(2) Water pollution
(3) Desertification
(4) Depletion of ozone
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notification was published for the environmental
protection of coastal areas.
Which of the following CRZ notifications is applicable to Andaman .and Nicobar
islands ?
(1) Coastal Regulation Zone Notification-I
(2) Coastal Regulation Zone Notification-I1
(3) Coastal Regulation Zone Notification-I11
(4) Coastal Regulation Zone Notification-IV
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39. *m :
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3. I.
-@ 11.
. * & 111.
s. R.q. rn IV.
3I 9 T
(1) IV 111 I1
(2) I I1 111
(3) 11 IV I
(4) 111 I IV
Match the pairs :
A B
a. Behramaji Malbari I. Saktiche Vaidhavya
b. Karandas Moolji 11. Satya Prakash
c. Shivram Kamble 111. Somvanshiya Mitra
d. V.D. Savarkar IV. Jatyuchhedak Nibandh
a b C d
(1) IV 111 I1 I
(2) I I1 111 IV
(3) I1 IV I 111
(4) 111 I rv I1
The SAARC Summit held in witnessed the signing of the SAARC Regional
Convention on Suppression of Terrorism.
(1) Kualalumpur (2) Kathmandu
(3) Bangalore (4) Colombo
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41. A railway engine of mass 60 tonnes is moving in a circular track of radius 200 m
with a velocity of 36 kmph. What is the force exerted on the rails towards the centre
of the circle ?
(1) 3OkN (2) 180 kN (3) 3 kN (4) 300 kN
42. What is the translatory effect of couple ?
(1) Zero (2) Equal to rotation
(3) Force x distance (4) None of these
43. If the two bodies, before impact, are not moving along the line of impact, t h e collision
is called
(1) Direct Impact (2) Indirect Impact
(3) Parallel Impact (4) None of these
44. The mass moment of inertia of a cylinder having radius 'R' and mass 'm' about its
axis is equal to
45. If a body is supported by more constraints than required, then it is statically
(I) indeterminate (2) fixed
(3) unbalanced (4) None of these
46. If '0' is the angle of contact between rope and drum, then the relation between
tension 'TI'on flock side and tension 'T,'on tight side is given by
(1) T, = Tl eZe (2) T, = Tl eZu
(3) T, = Tl eZue (4) T, = T, eue
47. If the volume of a homogeneous body possesses two planes of symmetry, then its
centroid must lie along
(1) any plane
(2) both the planes
(3) line of intersection of the two planes
(4) anywhere in the space
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48. A small ball is shot vertically upward from the top of a building 25 m above ground
with initial velocity 9.81 mlsec. Determine the maximum height the ball will reach.
/I) 29.9 m (2) 40 m
(3) 38.9 m (4) 7 m
49. In moment summation, the riloment of the resultant force about point 0 is equal to
the sum of
(1) all the couple moments in the system
(2) moment of the forces in the system about point 0
(3) Both (1) and (2) points above
(4) None of these
50. Two trains 'A' and 'B' are moving on parallel tracks in opposite directions. The
velocity of 'A' is twice that of 'B'. They take 18 seconds to cross each other. What are
the velocities of trains A and B ? Take length of train A as 240 m and that of B as
300 m.
(1) Velocity of A is 72 kmph and velocity of B is 36 kmph
(2) Velocity of A is 80 kmph and velocity of B is 40 kmph
(3) Velocity of A is 36 kmph and velocity of B is 18 kmph
(4) Velocity of A is 29 kmph and velocity of B is 58 kmph
51. Experiments with sliding block indicate that the magnitude of the kinetic friction
force is to the magnitude of the resultant normal force.
(1) directly proportional (2) inversely proportional
(3) equal (4) None of these
52. states that the algebraic sum of moments of two unequal forces about
any point in their plane is equal to the moment of their resultant about that point.
(1) Lami's theorem (2) Varignon's theorem
(3) D' Alembert's theorem (4) Polygon law of forces
53. In dry friction, the frictional force acts to the contacting surfaces in a direction
opposed to the motion or tendency for motion of one surface relative to another.
(1) tangent - '(2) normal
(3) tangent and normal (4) None of these
54. Kinetic energy during collision is lost due to
(1) Heat generation (2) Sound generation
(3) Vibration of colliding bodies (4) All of the above
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55. A projecting stone which is usually provided to serve as support for roof truss, beam,
weather shed, etc. is known as
(1) String Course (2) Coping
(3) Cornice (4) Corbel
56. If tensile stresses in concrete are neutralised by introducing initial compressive
stresses, such concrete is known as
(1) Reinforced cement concrete
(2) Prestressed cement concrete
(3) Fibre-reinforced cement concrete
(4) Prefabricated cement concrete
57. The maximum eccentricity in a rectangular foundation of width 'b' for no tension in
masonry should not exceed
(1) W2 (2) bl3
58. The key word to GIs technology is
(1) Geography (2) Geology
(3) Geomorphology (4) Geometeorology
59. The primary need for automation on construction sites is
(1) Fierce competition among construction contractors
(2) Concerns for short term profits
(3) Protect humans from safety and health hazards
(4) Easy availability of computer technology
60. A surveyor measured the distance between two points (A and B) on the plan drawn
to a scale of 1 an = 30 m and the result was 512 m. Later, however, he discovered
that he used a scale of 1 cm = 10 m. Find the true distance between points A and B.
(1) 1024m (2) 1250 m
(3) 1536 m (4) 2048 m
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M09 20 A
61. The number of different plain scales recommended by IS 1491 - 1959 for the use of
engineers are
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
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62. Contour lines of different elevations can unite to form one line only in the case
of
(1) Ridge
(2) Valley
(3) Vertical cliff
(4) Hill
63. When it is not possible to set up the levelling instrument between the points, the
type of levelling to be used is
(1) Fly levelling
(2) Differential levelling
(3) Reciprocal levelling
(4) Profile levelling
64. A level is set up in between two'points A and B. Elevation of point A is 201.100 m
(i.e. B.M.). If the B.S. reading taken on point A is 2.225 m and F.S. reading taken on
point B is 1,895 m, then what is the elevation of point B ?
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66. In modem terminology, the performance of refrigerators and air-conditioners is
expressed in terms of Energy Efficiency Rating (EER). The relation between EER
and Coefficient of Performance (COP) is
(1) EER = 4.312 COP (2) COP = 4.312 EER
(3) EER = 3.412 COP (4) COP = 3.412 EER
66. Heat transfer by conduction takes place according to
(1) Fourier's law
(2) Newton's law of heating
(3) First law of thermodynamics
(4) Stefan-Boltzmann law
67. A heavy nucleus split into two or more lighter nuclei is known as
(1) Fusion (2) Fission
(3) Radioactivity (4) None of the above
68. Thrust ball bearing carries
(1) radial load only (2) thrust load only
(3) radial and thrust load (4) None of the above
69. In hydroelectric power plants, provides an accelerating head which
increases the velocity of flow in the pipeline corresponding to the increased demand
by the turbine.
a. Spillways
b. Surge tanks
c. Forebay
d. Penstock
Which of the above islare correct ?
(1) Only a (2) Only b or c
(3) Only d (4) Only a and d
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M09 22 A
70. Which of the following are the inversions of double Slider Crank Chain mechanism ?
a. Scotch yoke and Oscillating cylinder engine
b. Oldham's coupling and Hand pump
c. Elliptical trammel and Oldham's coupling
d. Whitworth quick-return mechanism and Scotch yoke
Which of the above islare correct ?
(1) O n l y a a n d b (2) Only d
(3) Only c (4) Only c and d
71. Material selection criteria for the connecting rod of a n I.C. engine capable to
withstand fluctuating stresses is
(1) Endurance limit (2) Yield strength
(3) Ultimate strength (4) None of the above
72. Which casting defect occur due to excess moisture content in moulding sand ?
(1) P O M S ~ ~ Y (2) Shrinkage
(3) Blow holes (4) Inclusions
73. is the best cutting angle of twist drill used for drilling brass material
workpiece.
(1) 125" (2) 111"
(3) 118" (4) 120"
74. The amount of taper in a workpiece is usually specified by the ratio of
(1) Large diameter of taper to its length
(2) Small diameter of taper to its length
(3) Difference in diameters of taper to its length
'
(4) None of the above
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A 23
75. Thevenin's theorem can be applied to networks containing
(1) Passive elements only
(2) Active elements only
(3) Linear elements only
(4) All of these
76. When a Q-factor of a circuit is low, then
(1) power factor of the circuit is low
(2) impedance to resistance ratio of the circuit is low
(3) bandwidth is zero
(4) None of the above
77. In a balanced star-connected system, line voltages are ahead of their
respective phaie voltage.
(1) 30" (2) 60"
(3) 120" (4) None of the above
78. The superposition theorem is essentially based on
(1) Reciprocity (2) Linearity
(3) Duality (4) None of the above
79. The purpose of oil in high rating transformer is for
a. lubrication of core.
b. insulation.
c. cooling of transformer.
d. providing fuel for operation.
Which of the above statements idare correct ?
(1) Only a and b (2) Only b, c and d
(3) Only b (4) Only b and c
d
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80. While measuring the power in a three-phase load by two-wattmeter method, the
readings of the wattmeters will be equal and opposite when
(1) the power factor is unity
(2) the load is balanced
(3) the phase angle is between 60" and 90"
(4) the load is purely inductive
81. The iron loss in a 10 kVA transformer is 1 kW and the full load copper losses are
2 kW. The maximum efficiency occurs a t a load of
(1) 14.1 kVA
(2) 7.07 kVA
(3) 5kVA
(4) 7.07 kW
82. The power in a three-phase circuit is measured by the two-wattmeter method. The
reading indicated on the two wattmeters are W1 and W,. The total power in the
circuit is not given by
(1) W1 + W, (2) W, - W,
(3) &vLIL cos I$ (4) 3 Vph Iph COO
83. The equation for 25 cycles per second current sine wave having RMS value of
30 Ampere, will be
(1) 30 sin (25t) (2) 30 sin (25nt)
(3) 42.4 sin (25nt) (4) 42.4 sin (50nt)
84. How is the form factor for sinusoidal alternating quantities with I, as the peak
value expressed ?
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85. The area enclosed between the straight line y = x and the parabola y = x2 in the
x-y plane is
- -
86. The quadratic appmxirnation of Ax) = x3 - 3x2 - 5 at the point x = 0 is
(1) 3x2- 6 x - 5 (2) - 3x2 - 5
(3) - 3x2 + 6x + 5 (4) 3x2 - 5
87. A cubic polynomial with real coefficients
(I) can possibly have no extrema and non-zero crossings
(2) may have up to three extrema 'and up to 2 zero crossings
(3) cannot have more than two extrema and more than three zero crossings
(4) will always have an equal number of extrema and zero crossings
88. As x varies from -1 to 3, which one of the following describes the behaviour of the
function Ax) = x3 - 3x2 + 1?
(1) Ax) increases monotonically
(2) Ax) increases, then decreases and increases again
(3) Ax) decreases, then increases and decreases again
(4) Ax) increases and then decreases
az az
89. If z = eax by f (ax - by), then b -
+ +a - equals to
%
(1) 2abz (2) - 2abz
(3) - 2az (4) abz
90. Let A be an n x n matrix with rank r (0 < r < n). Then AX = 0 has p independent
solutions, where p is
(1) r (2) n
(3) n-r (4) n + r
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91. How is the crest factor of alternating quantities expressed ?
--
92. The value of
I
C
p.& for F = 3 x 2 i + (2x2 - y) 3+zk passing through the straight
line joining (0, 0, 0) and (2, 1,3) is
(1) 24 (2) 16
(3) 12 (4) 32
93. Expansion of (1+ x)lIxup to the term containing x2 is given as
94. The minimum value of xy + a3
[: + -;I
- 1s
95. Find for what value of k, the set of equations
2~-3~+6~-5t=3
y-4z+t=l
4x-5y+82-9t=k
has an infinite number of solutions for equal to
(1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 6
96.
[ : :)-[ -:
If x = eUtan v, y = eUsec v, then the value of x - + y - + -
x y
:)is
(1) Zero (2) Unity
(3) One and half (4) Half
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97. Cauchy's homogeneous linear differential form is given as
dy + 5y = x2 sin (log x), then the particular integral will be
x2 d2y - 3x -
dx 2 dx
1
(1) 1
2
e-2z z cos z (2) - eZZcos z
2
1 1
(3) - - eZZz cos z (4) - - e-2z cos z
2 2
98. For ( D +~ 4D + 3) y = 3e2x, the particular integral is
100. The volume bf the region enclosed by the cone z = and paraboloid
z = x 2 + y 2 is
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Source: Maharashtra Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Maharashtra Public Service Commission.