Odisha SSB PGT 2023: Post Graduate Teacher recruitment for non-government aided higher secondary schools, Commerce
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTILYOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET
Sl. No: 15{0
Subject Code: 04 Subject: COMMERCE
WRITTEN TEST FOR RECRUITMENT OF POST GRADUATE TEACHERS FOR
NON.GOVT. AIDED HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOLS OF ODISHA
TimeAllowed:2Hours Moximum Marks: 750
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P.T,O.
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I There is a great demand for reservation injobs for.economically weaker sections ofthe
society. Identifu the type of dimension of business environment mentioned.
(A) 'Technological Environment (B) Political Environment
(C) Legal Environment (D) Social Environment
2. A business has to offer a wider choice in purchasing enhanced.quality of goods and
services in order to maintain an edge over its competitors. The implementation of the
new economic policy with liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation has posed
various challenges for the corporate sector. One of the important challenges is explained
in the above lines. Identify it.
(A) Increasing competition (B) More demanding customers
(C) Necessity for change (D) Market orientation
J According to a report by the India Staffing Federation (lSF), India has emerged as the
Fifth largest market worldwide in Flexi-staffrng in 2018 and the country would have a
6.1 million Flexi-workforce by 202l.It showed that Haryana, Gujarat, Kamataka,
Madhya Pradesh, and Telangana are the states with high growth potential for Flexi-
staffing, but Andhra Pradesh tops the list of states with favourable business
environments. Identiff the features ofthe business environment being discussed above.
(A) Relativity (B) Dynamic nature
(C) Uncertainty (D) [nterrelatedness
4. According to the World Health Organisation,39%o of adults are overweight. Over the
last 40 years, the prevalence of obesity has tripled around the world. With over half of
consumers drinking at least one sugary drink on a given day, regulations towards the
beverage sector are likely to become increasingly onerous. In the U.K., for example, a
sugar tax was introduced in 2018 on beverages containing more than 5o/o sugar.Identiff
the related dimensions of the business environment.
(A) Legal dimension and Social dimension
(B) Social dimension and Technological dimension
(C) Technological dimension and Legal dimension
(D) Political dimension and Technological dimension
5. Read the following statements ofAssertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct
alternative:
Assertion (A) -Economic uncertainty, low brand loyalry and market division and
subdivision are just a few symbols that can be used to define the business environment.
Reason (R) - Business environment is getting dynamic where changes are taking place
at a slow pace.
(A) Both A aird R are correct
(B) A is correct R is incorrect
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of R
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of R
Commerce (Code : 04) 2 Contd
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a
6. consider the following statements and identi& the right ones.
i. The 1980 industrial policy emphasized "economic federalism,,
ii. Liberal license policies were advocated for agro-based industries
(A) i only (B) ii only
(C) both (D) none
7. Which of the following is not an organization working for consumer protection?
(A) Consumer VOICE (B) Consumer forum
(C) The bureau of Indian standard (D) Consumer utility & trust society
8. which of the following statements is true about liberalisation?
(A) It involves the reduction of government controls and deregulation along with
greater autonomy for the private investments
(B) [t refers to contracting some of the activities performed within the organisation
to third parties
(C) Both a and b are correct
(D) Both a and b are incorrect
9- Industrial policy resolution of l94g divided industries into:
(A) 3 categories (B) 4 categories
(C) 5 categories (D) 6 categories
10. Assertion (A). The new Industrial policy was announced on July 24,1991.
Reason (R). The new industrial policy was announced by the V.p.
Singh Government.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true end (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Il ' Assertion (A)- Industrialisation of an economy is considered synonymous
with growth.
Reason (R). The transfer of resources from agriculture to industry
may be capital or
labour or both.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct expranation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Term) (Qts application)
a. Depreciation I. Wasting assets
b. Depletion II. Intangible assets
c. Amortisation ru. Fixed assets
d. Dilapidation ry. Damage due to a building or other property during
tenancy
Commerce (Code: 04) 3 P.T.O
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(A) a bcd (B) abcd
TIIII I IV III I II IV
(C) a b cd (D) a b c d
MIv II I IIIIV I il
13. Which Indian accounting standard deals with Intangible Assets?
(A) IndAS-l5 (B) IndAS-I8
(C) IndAS-22 (D) IndAS-38
14. Match List I with List II and select correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
a. Endowment Fund I. Posted to the credit side of the income dnd expenditure
account
b. Entrance Fee II. Any income or loss adjusted inthe income and expenditure
account
c. Sale of old assets III. Sometimes capitalized and sometimes treated as revenue
income
d. Sale of newspaper IV. Permanent means of support
(A) a b cd (B) a b cd
NIII II I I II MIV
(C) a b cd (D)a b cd
III TV I II IIIIV II I
15. When the proprietor withdraws or takes away some goods from the business for his
personal use or consumption, he records the withdrawals at
(A) Silling price
(B) Cost price
(C) Selling price or cost price whichever is higher
(D) Selling price or cost price whichever is lower
16. What are the ways of creating secret reserves?
l. By charging excessive depreciation
2. By overvaluing stock in trade and goodwill
3. ' BY suPPressing sales
4. By showing a contingent liability as a real liability
5. By grouping free reserves as creditors
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) and5
1,2,4 (B)
1,3,4 and 5
(C) 2,3 ands (D) 1,2and4
4 Contd
Commerce (Code:04)
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t7 Match List I with List II and select correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
a. Depreciation I. Loss of usefulness arising from factors such as technological
changes, improvement in production methods, change in market
demand for the product etc.
b. Depletion II. Process of writing down the long-term investments in
intangibles such as lease holds, patents, copyrights, trademarks
etc.
c. Amortization III. Process of measuring and recording the exhaustion of natural
resources such as ore deposits, oil wells, timber stands, quarries,
etc.
d. Obsolescence IV. Accounting process of converting the cost of fixed assets to
expense:
(A) a b cd (B) a b cd
IV III III IIIryIII
(C)ab cd (D)a b cd
IV III III I IIMIV
18' Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List-I List_II
(Particulars) lSection)
a. Liability of a partner for acts of the firm I. Sec 3l
b. Admission of a partner IJ. Sec. 25
c. Retirement of apartner [I.Sec. 34
d.Insolvency of a partner ry. Sec.32 .
(A) a b cd (B)a b cd
I IIIIIIV I IIIVTII
(c) abcd (D)a b cd
ilIIIIIV . il IryM
19. which Indian accounting standard deals with Faiivatue
Measurement?
(A) IndAS-103 (B) IndAS-1ll
(c) IndAS-12 (D) Ind AS-l 13
20. A bought goods costing 2,00,000 and sold 4/5th
of goods for Rs.2,50,000. Balance
goods were taken over by B at cost less20%o.
Find out profit on venture:
(A) Rs.82,000 (B) Rs.90,000
(C) Rs.50,000 @) Rs.72,000
Commerce (Code: 04) 5
P.T.O
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21. Mr. Aissued several cheques totalling Rs.20,000 in March 2022 out of which cheques
worth Rs.5, 000 only were presented for payment by 31st March, 2022. Balance as per
pass book was Rs.25, 000. what would be balance as per cash book?
(A) Rs.5,000 (B) Rs.10,000
(C) Rs.15,000 (D) Rs.20,000
22. The opening inventory ofthe current year is overstated by Rs.5,000 and closing inventory
is overstated by Rs.12,000. These errors will cause the net income for the current year
by:
(A) Rs.17,000 (understated) (B) Rs.17,000 (overstated)
(C) Rs.7,000 (overstated) (D) No effect in net income
23. Which of the following differences between Cost accounting and Management
Accounting is not conect?
(A) The purpose of Cost Accounting is the ascertainment of cost but the purpose of
ManagementAccounting is to provide information to the management for decision
making.
(B) The reports of the Management Accounting are useful both to the internal and
extemal parties whereas that of CostAccounting are useful only for the internal
parties.
(C) Cost Accounting data are derived basically from financial accounts whereas
ManagementAccounting data are derived from both Cost Accounts and Financial
Accounts.
(D) CostAccounting is mainly concerned with short-term planning but Management
Accounting is concerned with short term as well as long term planning.
24. Match the following:
A. Price variance I. Measures the difference between the actual quantity
of materials used and the standard quantity allowed
for the actual level of outPut-
B. Quantity variance II. Measures the difference between the actual cost of
materials used and the standard cost of the actual
quantity of materials used-
C. Material cost variance lll.Measures the differonce between the actual price
paid fqr materials-and the standard price specified
for the actual quantity of materials purchase'
D. Labour efficiencY variance IV.Measures the difference between the actual hours
worked and the standard hours allowed for the
actual level of outPut.
(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (B) A-III, B-I, C-lI, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (D) A-III, B-I, C-lV, D-I
b Contd.
Commerce (Code:04)
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25. A manufacturing enterprise monthly consumes 1,350 units of raw material at the cost
of Rs. 20 per unit. Determine its economic order quantity given the annual ordering
cost of Rs. 2,400 and carrying cost of inventory being 30 percent of the price paid.
(A) 3,600 units (B) 2,400 units
(C) 4,800 units (D) 2,700 units
26. From the following information about a firm, what will be the contribution to sales (c/s)
ratio and the profit?
Sales : t 100,000
Fixed Cost: { 20,000
Break-even Point: t 40,000
(A) C/S: 25Yo and Profit: (60,000 (B) c/s: 50% andprofit: (60,000
(C) C/S : 50o/o and Profit: {30,000 (D) C/S: 60% andprofit: (30,000
27 . Product A requires 10 kg of material at the rate of Rs. 5 per kg. The actual consumption
of material for the manufacturing of product A comes to l2kgof material at the rate of
Rs. 6 per kg. Direct material cost variance is
(A) Rs.22 (favourable) (B) Rs.22 (unfavourable)
(C) Rs. 12 (favourable) (D) Rs. 12 (unfavourable)
28- Calculate cost of sales from the following:
Net Work cost: Rs. 2,00,000
Office & Administration Overheads: Rs. 1,00,000
Opening stock of WIP: Rs. 10,000
Closing Stock of WIP: Rs. 20,000
Closing stock of finished goods,: Rs. 30,000
There was no opening stock of finished goods.
Selling overheads: Rs. 10,000
(A) Rs.2,70,000 (B) Rs.2,80,000
(C) Rs. 3,00,000 (D) Rs.3,20,000
29. Calculate the value of closing stock from the following according to FIFO method:
lst January 2022: Opening balance: 50 units @ Rs. 4
Receipts:
5th January 2022:100 units @ Rs. 5
l2th January 2022:200 units @ Rs. 4.50
Issues:
2nd January 2022:30 units
l8th January 2022:150 units
(A) Rs.765 (B) Rs.805
(C) Rs.786 (D) Rs.700
Commerce (Code : 04) 7 P.T.O
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30 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
l. A materials requisition note is used to record the issue of direct material to a
specific job
2. A typical job cost will contain actual costs for material, labour and production
overheads, and non -production overheads are often added as a percentage of
total production cost
3. The job costing method can be applied in costing batches
(A) (l) only (B) (1) and (2) only
(C) (l) and (3) only (D) (2) and (3) only
31. A job is budgeted to require 3,300 productive hours after having25% idle time. If the
total labour cost budgeted for the job is Rs36,300. What is the labour cost per hour ( to
the nearest cent)?
(A) Rs 8.25 (B) Rs 8.80
(C) Rs 11.00 (D) Rs 14.67
32 A company manufactures a single product for which cost and selling price data are as
follows:
Selling price per unit - Rs. 12
V.ariable cost per unit - Rs. 8
Fixed cost for a period - Rs. 98,000
Budgeted sales for a period - 30,000 units
The margin of safety, expressed as a percentage of btidgeted sales is:
I
(A) t8 1% or 18.33% (B) 2s%
(c) 73% (D) t2s%
33. is a summary of all functional budgets in a capsule form.
(A) Functional Budget (B) Master Budget
(C) Long Period Budget (D) Flexible Budget
34. Following information is available of XYZ Limited for quarter ended June,2023
Fixed cost Rs.5,00,000
Variable cost Rs.l0 per unit
Selling price Rs. 15 per unit
Output level 1,50,000 units
What will be amount of profit eamed during the quarter using the marginal costing
technique?
(A) Rs.2,50,000 (B) Rs. 10,00,000
(C) Rs.5,00,000 (D) Rs. 17,50,000
Commerce (Code: 04) I Contd.
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35. FollowingffirmationisavailableofPQRforyearendedMarcb"2D3:4,000unitsinprocess,
3,800 units output,lDyoofinput is normal wastage, Rs. 2.50 perunit is scrap value and Rs.
46,000 incurred towards total process cost then amount on account ofabnormal gain to be
transferred to Costing P&L will be:-
(A) Rs.2,500 (B) Rs.2,000
(C) Rs.4,000 (D) Rs.3,500
36 Inthe element-wise classificationofoverheads, whichone ofthe following is not included?
(A) Fixed overheads (B) Indirect labour
(C) Indirectmaterials (D) Indirectexpenditure
37. The theorist that advocated standard methodology for doing a task and suggesed that workers
were motivated by pay according to output (piecework) is
(A) EltonMayo (B) MaxWeber
(C) FrederickMnslowThylor @) HenriFayol
38 Which ofthe following tests measure an individual's ability to leam a givenjob, when adequate
training is givenand do nottestthe knowlgdge orproficiency possessed by the individual?
(A) Interesttests @) Achievementtests
(C) Situationaltess (D) Aptitudetests .
39 Whichofthefollowingtechniquesofdownsizingdoesanorganizationadoptwhenthedemand
for their products or services comes down, and the supply cannot be maintained at the
exising levels?
(A) Ouplacement (B) Leaveofabsencewithoutpa
(C) Worksharing (D) t^ay-offs
40. Which one of the following is the taining technique which duplicates the actual work
environment?
(A) ComputerModelling (B) hogmmmedinstuction
(C) Intemship (D) VestibuleTraining
4t Many big organisations maintain a close liaison with the universities, vocational schools, and
management institutes to recruit qualified personnel for various jobs. This is known as
(A) Placement agencies and management consultants
(B) Directrecruitrnent
(C) Labourcontactors
(D) Campusrecruitnent
42. suggested the product, pricing, place, and promotions in the company represent
the "Market Mix" or "Marketing Mix,?
(A) PhilipKofler (B) NeilBorden
(C) KevinlaneKeller (D) GeraldZaltnan
Commerce (Code : 04) 9 P.T.O
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43. Working capital requirements are lowwhen anorganisationhas-
(A) hightechnolory (B) highdebtors'
(C) highinventory (D) highcreditors
44. In deciding the appropriate level of current assets for the firm, management is confronted
with -
(A) a trade offbetween profitability and risk
(B) a trade offbetween liquidity and profitability
(C) a trade offbetween equity and debt
(D) a trade offbetween short term versus long term burrowing
45 . Given below are two statements -one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R:
Statement I: Distribution channels are sets of interdependent organisations participating
in the process of making a product available for consumption.
Statement tI : All marketing channels have the potential for conflict and competition
resulting from goal incompatibility.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(A) Both statement I and statement I[ are true
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true
46. Insurance is best suited to risk with
(A) high frequency and low loss severity.
(B) low frequency and high loss severity.
(C) minimum frequency and no loss severity.
(D) high frequency and high loss severity.
47. Gang plank is concemed about
(A) Contact not allowed (B) Direct contact
(C) Indirect contact (D) Contact before application
48. Following are the steps followed by finance manager in procurement of a loan for
working capital. Arrange them in a proper sequence.
A. Co-ordinating the verification of assets
B. Submission of loan proposal
C. Estimation of working capital requirements.
D. Creation of charge on assets
E. Document execution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A,D,B,C,E (B) C,B,A,E,D
(c) A,B,E,C,D (D) B,A,E,C,D
Commerce (Code: 04) 10 Contd.
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49 . Which ofthe following is NOT a source ofworking capital?
(A) Commercialpaper (B) Bankoverdraft
(C) Discountingofbills (D) Unsecured term loans
50. Which measure ofdispersion does not have the unit ofmeasurement:
(A) Range (B) Standarddeviation
(C) CoefficientofVariance (D) Meandeviation
51. Forasymmenicaldisnibution:
(A) Mean=0 (B) Median=0
(C) Mode = 0 (D) Skewness = 0
52. Graph ofvariables having linear relation will be :
(A) Curved (B) Hyperbola
(C) Staightline (D) Verticalline
53. Whenthe available population is . we use a statified sample.
(A) Unknown (B) verylarge
(C) (D) heterogeneous
54. Homogeneous subsets inthe sampling are called:
(A) Clusters (B) Samples
(C) Samplesizes (D) Stata
55 . Name the graphical method which helps us to investigate the dispersion?
(A) KinkedCurvemethod (B) Meandeviation
(C) Standarddeviation (D) LorenzCurvemethod
56. Find the value ofthe third quartile when the first quartile is 104 and the quartile deviation is 8.
(A) 136 (B) 146
(c) 120 (D) 130
57 . Which one ofthe following statements about the correlation coefficient is correct?
(A) The correlationcoefficientis unaffected by scale changes.
(B) Both the change of scale and the change of origin have no effect on the correlation
coefficient.
(c) The correlation coefficient is unaffected by the change oforigin.
(D) Thecorrelationcoefficientiszeroto infinite.
58. Whatis the value ofthecorrelation coefficient ifthe coefficientofdetermination is 0.gl ?
(A) Mustbepositive (B) 0.656
(C) Either+0.9or-0.9 (D) Mustbenegative
59. Which ofthe following is defined as the rule or formula to test a Null Hypothesis?
(A) Teststatisric (B) populationstatisic
(c) variance statistic (D) Nulr statistic
Commerce (Code : 04) 11 p.T.O.
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60. Assertion: Aone-tailed (one-sided) test is used when the alternative hypothesis predicts a
difference or change in a specific direction.
Reason: Aone-tailed test provides more statistical power compared to a two-tailed test.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(B) Boththe assertion andreasonare true, butthe reason isNOT the correct explanation
,ofthe assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true
. Using a goodness-of-fit test, we can assess whether a set of observed frequencies differ from
61
a set of_ frequencies
(A) Mean (B) Actual
(C) Predicted (D) Expected
62. A manbuys Rs. 20 preference shares payngg/odividend. The manwants to have an interest
of l2Yo on his money. The market value ofthe share is:
(A) Rs. 12 (B) Rs. 15
(C) Rs. l8 (D) Rs.21
63. A man invested Rs. 4455 in Rs. l0 shares quoted at Rs. 8.25. Ifthe rate ofdividend k lzoh,
his annual income is:
(A) Rs.207.40 (B) Rs.534.60
(C) Rs.648 (D) Rs.655.60
64. With respect to a bill ofexchange, which ofthe following statemsnts are correct?
(r) A bill of exchange can be passed on to another person by endorsement.
(i) Endorsementonabillofexchange is madeexactly as itis done inthe case ofacheque.
CrD The primary liability on a bill ofexchange is that ofthe acceptor.
G") Ifthe acceptor does not pay, a holder cannot recover the amount from any ofthe
previous endorsers orthe drawee
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iD (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i),(ii)and(iii) (D) (ii)and(iii)
65. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 =0.4771,the value of lo96 is:
(A) 0.7781 (B) 7.7781
(c) 3.8762 q) 3.et2o
66. Rs. 2 I 00 is lent at compound interest of S%oper annum for 2 years. Find the amount after
. two years.
(A) Rs.2300 (B) Rs.23l5'25
(C) Rs.2310 (D) Rs' 2320
Commerce (Code : 04) 12 Contd.
Text of page 13
67. Find the compound interest on Rs. 1000 at the rate of2lYoper annum for 18 month when
interest is compounded half yearly.
(A) Rs.33l (B) Rs. 1331
(C) Rs.320 (D) Rs.32s
68. Considerthefollowingstatements:
I IfA= {x: xisanevennaturalnumber) andB = {y: yisanatural number},AzubsetB.
II: Number of subsets for the given setA = (5,6, 7, 8) is 15.
III: Number of proper subsets for the given setA = (5, 6, 7, 8) is 15.
Which ofthe following statement(s) iVare correct?
(A) I and II (B) tI and III
(C) I and III (D) 4. None ofthe above
69. IfAis a square matrix oforder 3 and lAl = 5, thenthe value of lZa'l is
(A) - 10 (B) l0
(c) -40 (D) 40
2
70. I0 *2 d*=
z
(A) 2 (B)
3
8 4
(c) (D)
3 3
2
7t. If J 2x dx = (x) + C, then (x) is:
(A) 2' (B) 2'log_2
2x 2x+l
(c)
log"2 (D) x.l .
72. If oPs = 6on- lPr,the value of n is :
(A) 6 (B) l0
(c) 12 (D) t6
73 The number of squares that can be formed on a chessboard is:
(A) 64 (B) 160
(c) 204 (D) 224
74 which ofthe following is not an assumption according to theory X,
(A) Employees inherenfly dislike work and, wlrenever possible will attempt to avoid it.
(B) Since employees dislike work, they must be coerced, controlled, or threatened with
punishment to achieve goals.
Commerce (Code : 04) 13 P.T.O
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(C) Employees will avoid responsibilities and seek formal direction whenever possible.
(D) Most worliers place self-actualisation above all other facto(s associated with work
and are highly ambitious.
75 . Grapevine is another teim used to describe :
(A) Formalorganization (B) Informalorganization
(C) Productorganization (D) Projectorganization
76. Contingency theory of leadership are based on the beliefthat :
(A) There is no single style ofleadership appropriate to all situations
(B) There isa single style ofleadershipappropriateto all situations
(C) There isa single style ofleadership appropriate to all managers
(D) it is an autocratic style of leadership
77 . Company policy, administatiorL supenrisiorq interpersonal relations, working conditions, and
salary are characterized as:
(A) Achievementfactors (B) Growthfactors
(C) Motivatingfactors (D) Hygienefactors
78 . What comprises the decoding stage of the communication model?
(A) Perception;retention.
(B) Attention;perception;retention
(C) Receiving; processing and stonng information
(D) Shorttermmemory; decoding; longtermmemory.
79. Which ofthe following theories does say that 'motivation alone cannot ensure successful
performance of a taik, the employee should have a clear perception of his role and the
required skills and abilities' ?
(A) fuuitytlreory (B) ThePorter-Lawlermodel
(C) Attibutiontheory (D) Thecontinuummodel
8.0 According to Blake and Moutons' managerial gd{ which ofthe following managerial styles
is known as 'organizational management?'
(A) Impoverishedmanagement (B) Middleoftheroadmanagement
(c) countyclubmanagement (D) Teammanagement
14 Contd
Commerce (Code:04)
Text of page 15
. The decision which is taken within the purview of the policy ofthe organization is_.
81
(A) Programmeddecision (B) Non-programmeddecision
(C) Majordecision (D) Minordecision
82. _is primarily concerned withthe identification ofthe project demand potential and
the selection ofthe optimal technolory.
(A) Techno-economicanalysis (B) Feasibilityanalysis
(C) Inputanalysis (D) Finarrcialanalysis
perceived high reward projects.
(A) Fixedcapital (B) Currentcapital
(C) Seedcapital (D) Venturecapital
84. Asrnalrnanufacturingenterpriseisoneinwhichthema,ximurninvesfinentinplantandnrachirrry
is_
(A) 2 crores (B) 5 crores
(C) l0 crores (D) 50 crores
85. Identify the correct sequenoe ofthe steps involved inthe staffing process.
(A) Recruitnent, Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Placement and Orientation"
Selection .
(B) Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Selection, Placement, and Orientation,
' Recruitment
(C) Selection, Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Recruiftnent, Placement, and
Orientation
(D) Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Recruitment, Selection, Placement, and
Orientation
86. In line organisation, business activities are divided into following three types -
(A) Accounts, Production, Sales (B) production, euality, Sales
(C) Production, Quality, Maintenance (D) Production, Maintenance, Sales
Commerce (Code: 04) 15 P.T.O.
Text of page 16
87 . Under which ofthe following conditions can a proposal be revoked according to the Indian
ContractAct 1872?
A. By the communication ofnotice ofrevocation by the proposerto the otherparty
B. By the failure ofthe acceptorto fulfil acondition ofproposal
C. By the deathor insanity ofthe proposer
D. By the lapse ofthe time prescribed
E. By notice ofrevocationafterthe acceptance is communicated.
(A) A, B and D only (B) B, C, D and E only
(C) A, B, C and D only (D) AllA, B, C, D, E
88 Under which section oflndian Contact Actl872 is 'Contingent Contract defined?
(A) Section32 @) Section3l
(C) Section3T @) . Section3g
89 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion: Acontract made under coercion is voidable at the option ofthe party whose
consent was so obtained.
Reason: Coercion renders contract void ab initio.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(A) BothAssertion and Reason are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(B) BothAssertion and Reason are tue, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
ofAssertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is True, but Reason (R) is False )
(D) Assertion (A) is False, but Reason (R) is True
90. Which of the following is the odd one out?
(A) Specific goods (B) Un-ascertained goods
(C) Future goods (D) Ascertained goods
91. Match List I with List II:
List I-Legal Latin Phrase List II - Description
(A) Consensus ad idem (r) Something in return
(B) Quid pro quo (ID As much as earned
(c) Quantum meruit (ID Buyerbeware
(D) Caveate emptor GV) Meeting of minds
a
Commerce (Code : 04) 16 Contd
Text of page 17
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) - (l), (B) - (rrr), (c) - (N), (D) - (II)
(B) (A) - (N), (B) - (l), (C) - (r), (D) - (m)
(c) (A)-(ll), (B) (l), (c) - (m), (D) - (IV)
(D) (A) (r), (B) - (IV), (c) - (II), (D) - (lII)
92. [n case ofawarranty, the buyer can:
(A) Repudiatethecontact (B) Claimdamagesonly
(C) Retumthegoods (D) Refusetopaytheprice
93. Surety stands discharged:
(A) by an agreementbetweenthe creditorandthe principal debtor
(B) by an agreement between the creditor & a third party for'not to sue the principal
debtor
(c) both(A) & ((B) above
(D) Neither ((A) nor ((B).
94 $ssllsn of Indian contactAct defines a contact of Indemnity.
(A) Section 127 (B) Section 124
-
(C) Section 125 (D) Section 130
95. Bailmentmeans
(A) The goods delivered to bi retumed by way of an equivalent in other commodities
(B) The goods deliveredto be retumedby way ofanequivalent inmoney
(C) The goods is delivered by one person to another for some purpose to be specifically
returned or otherwise disposed ofasperthe orderofthe bailor
(D) The goods are delivered on payment of cash
Commerce (Code : M) 17 P.T.O.
Text of page 18
a
96. Commodatum is a one type of Bailrrrent in which
(A) no consideration is charged (B) considerationischarged
(C) expenses are reimbursed (D) counterofferismade
97 . Which one ofthe following statements is incorrect?
(A) An agency relationship may be createdthroughnecessity.
(B) An agency relationshipmay be createdthrough estoppel.
(C) All agents are entitled to be paid fortheir services.
(D) An agent creates a legal relationship benreen a third party and a principal.
98 X Ltdhastwodirectors, Jai andHarish. Neitherofthedirectorshaveauthority to individually
enter contacts on behalfofthe company. In practice, Jai (with Harish's acquiescence) enters
into all the contacts onbehalfofthecompany. Whattypeofagencyhasbeencreatedwhen
a third party acting in good faith enters into a contract with Jai who states he is acting
on
behalfofXLtd?
(A) Anexpressagency. (B) Anagencybyestoppel.
(c) Anagencybyratification. (D) Anagencyofnecessity.
gg. Which is not a feature ofa partrership business?
(A) Easeofformation (B) Limitedliabiliry
(C) Limitedlife (D) Mrsualagency
I 00. Which ofthe partnership firm's accounts cannot record rent paid to partrrers?
(A) DepreciationAccount (B) ExpensesAccount
(C) Profit&LossAccount (D) SalaryAccount
Commerce (Code:04) 18 Contd.
a
Text of page 19
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Commerce (Code:04) 19 P.T.O
Text of page 20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Commerce (Code: O4) 20 -c
Text of page 1
STATE SELECTION BOARD
DEPARTMENT OF HIGHER EDUCATION
UNIT _ II, ASHOK NAGAR
BHUBANESWAR_09
ssB (Ex) 07 12023 /SSB, Dated 0 .23
NOTICE
It is for information of all candidates that the subject-wise Answer Keys to individual questions of
the written examination for recruitment of Post Graduate Teachers for Non-Govt. Aided Higher
Secondary Schools pursuant to Advertisement No.0l/2023 have been uploaded in the official website of
State Selection Board: wwwssbodisha.ac.in . Objections to the said Answer Keys, if any, are invited
from the candidates with supporting documentary proofso as to reach this omce through the registered
mail of the candidate by 21.09.2023(5.00 P.M). Further, the candidates have to pay Rs.200/- per
objection per question in shape of Bank Draft drawn in favour of State Selection Board payable at
Bhubaneswar. While sending the objections, the scanned copy ofthe Bank Draft may also be sent to the
e-mail of State Selection Board. The Bank Draft in original should be sent to the Secretary, State
Selection Board, Unit-II, Ashok Nagar, Bhubaneswar-75 1009 along with the filled in proforma given
below. Any complaints received after the due date and time and not accompanied with requisite
amount of fee shall not be entertained. The objections may be sent to the e-mail Id of State Selection
Board: ssbdeptolhe@smail.com . No objection in physical mode will be accepted. If the objections
received through e-mail are not followed by Bank Draft ofrequisite amount, that will not be considered.
It may be noted that if the objection(s) are sustained, the amount so deposited shall be
refunded. Otherwise, the candidate shall forfeit the amount.
PROFORMA
l. Name ofthe candidate-
2. Roll No.-
3. Complete postal address with Mobile No. and E-mail lD-
4. Subject-
5. Serial No. ofthe Question(s) against which objection(s) have been raised-
8. Bank Draft No.. Date and Amount-
9. Whether documentary proofhas been attached with objection-
10. Signature of the candidate with date-
By order the President
SeC f90 Itr zr
Text of page 2
ANTHROPOLOGY
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No, No. No.
I B 26. D 51. A 76. A
2 C )'1 A 52. D '7'l C
3 C 28. B 53 A 7E. A
4. D 29. B 54. C 79 D
5 A 30 D 55. D E0. A
6 A 31. C 56 D 81. B
7 A 32. D 57. A E2 C
8 A 33. C 58. A 83 A
9 D 34. C 59 A 84. C
10. A 35. D 60 A E5. B
11. C 36. C 61. A 86. C
12. B 37. C 62. B 87. A
13. D 38. C 63 C EE C
14. C 39 C 64. A E9 A
15. c 40 D 65. D 90 A
16. B 41. B 66. A 91. B
17. A 42. A 67. D o't B
18. A 43 A 68 D 93 D
19. B 44. A 69 A 94. A
20. A 45. C 70 C 95. A
21. D 46. C 71. A 96. A
,', C 47. C 72 C 97 C
23 A 46 B 73. B 98 D
24 D 49. D 74. A 99. D
25. B 50. B 75. B 100. C
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Text of page 3
BOTAIYY
Question, Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I A 26. C 51. A 76. A
) C 27. B 52 C 77 B
3 B 28. B 53 D 78. A
4. A 29. C 54. D 79 D
5 C 30 D 55. A 80 D
6 B 31. C 56. B 81. A
7 A 32. A 57. A 82 B
6 D 33. D 5E C E3 C
9 B 34. A 59 C 84 C
10. C 35. C 60 B 85 D
ll. B 36. D 61. D 86 D
12. C 37. A 62. C 87. B
13. D 38. D 63 B 88. A
14. A 39. C 64. B 89. B
15. C 40. B 65 D 90. A
16. A 41. A 66. C 91. B
17, B 42. B 67. B 92. A
1E. A 43 A 6E D 93. B
19. D 44. D 69 B 94. A
20 A 45. A 70 A 95. C
21. A 46. C 71. B 96. B
22. B 47. B 1) B 97. C
23 A 48. C 73 A 98. A
24. D 49. B 74. B 99 C
25. A 50 D 75. B 100. B
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Text of page 4
CHEn/trSTRY
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I A 26 A 51. B 76. B
2 B 27. C 52. C 77. B
3 B 28 A 53 B 78. D
4. C 29. D 54. C 79 D
5 C 30. D 55. D EO C
6. C 31. B 56. C E1. B
7 D 32. A 57. B E2 A
E D 33. A 5E. D E3 C
9 C 34. B 59 B 84. C
10. D 35. c 60 D E5. D
ll. B 36. A 61. C E6. D
12, B 37. B 62 A E7. A
13. B 38. A 63 B 88. D
14. C 39. D 64 C 89. C
15. A 40. c 65. B 90 C
16. B 41. C 66. A 91. B
17. B 42. C 67. A 92. A
18. C 43 B 68. A 93. D
19. D 44. A 69. B 94. C
20. C 45 C 70. A 95 C
21. D 46. C 71. B 96 D
,, B 47. C 1) D 97 B
23 B 4E. B 73 D 9E. A
24 D 49. D 74. C 99. D
25. C 50. B /J. B 100. D
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Text of page 5
COMMERCE
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No, No.
I D 26 c 51. D 76. A
) A 27. B 52. C 1',1 C
3 A 28. B 53. D 7E. B
4. A ,o A 54. D 79 B
5 B 30 C 55. D t0 B
6. C 31. A 56. C El. A
7 B 32, A 57. B E2 A
t C 33 B 5E. C 83 D
9 B 34. A 59. A E4. C
r0. A 35. A 60. A 85 D
il. B 36. A 61. D 86 A
t2. B 37. C 62. B 87. C
13. D 38. D 63 C EE B
14. A 39. D 64. C E9. C
15. B 40. D 65. A 90. C
16. D 41. D 66 B 91. B
17, A 42. B 67. A 92. B
18. D 43 D 6E. C 93. A
19. D 44. B 69. D 94. B
20 A 45. A 70. C 95. C
21. B 46 B 71. C 96. A
,, C 47. B 11 B 97 C
,1 B 48. B 73. C 98. B
24. B 49. D 74. D 99 B
25. A 50 C 75. B r00. C
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Text of page 6
ECONOMICS
Question Key Question Key Question Key Question K"y
No. No. No. No.
I B 26 A 5l C 76 B
2 D a1 D 52 B 77 A
3 A 28 C 53 A 78 A
4 B 29 A 54 A 79 C
5 B 30 B 55 A EO B
6 C 3l A 56 B EI C
7 A 32 A 57 C E2 A
8 C 33 C 5E B E3 B
9 D 34 B 59 D 84 C
l0 C 35 C 60 B 85 D
l1 A 36 B 6l B 86 A
t2 D 37 B 62 C 87 D
13 C 3E D 63 A 88 B
t4 D 39 A 64 B 89 B
15 A 40 B 65 C 90 A
l6 D 4t B 66 C 91 D
t7 A 42 D 67 D 92 C
l8 A 43 C 6E B 93 A
l9 B 44 B 69 B 94 D
20 B 45 A 70 A 95 A
2t D 46 c 7t D 96 B
)) D 47 B 11 D 97 A
23 B 48 C 73 C 98 C
24 D 49 A 74 C 99 B
25 B 50 D 75 D 100 B
lc.'n' ,-7
Text of page 7
EDUCAT ION
Question, Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I B 26. B 51. c 76. C
2 A ,1 D 52 D 77 D
3 c 28. C 53 A 78, A
4 B 29. B 54 B 79. B
5 c 30. B 55. A 80. C
6. A 31. C 56. C 81. B
7 c 32. D <1 c E2 B
8. B 33 D 58. C E3 D
9 c 34. C 59. D E4. A
10. C 35. A 60. A 85. A
ll. A 36. B 61. C 86. B
12. B 37. B 62. D 87. D
13. D 3E. C 63 C EE D
14. A 39. D 64. C 89. B
15. c 40. A 65. A 90. D
16. A 41. B 66 C 91. C
17. C 42. D 67. C o, B
18. D 43 C 6E. A 93 B
19. C 44 B 69. B 94. A
20. C 45. B 70, C 95. C
21. B 46. C 71. D 96. B
,,, A 't)
47. B D 97 C
,l C 48 D 73. B 9E C
24. B 49. B 74. B 99 B
25. D 50. B 75. A 100. C
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Text of page 8
ENGLISH
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question, Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I D 26. C 51. B 76. C
2 A 27. B <, B 77 B
3 C 28. D 53 D 78. D
4 A 29. B 54 C 79. A
5 D 30. A 55 D 80 C
6 D 31. C 56. B 81. B
7 B l, D 57 c E2. C
8 C 33 A 58. B E3. A
9 D 34. B 59 D 84. B
10. B 35. C 60 A 85. D
11. C 36. A 61. c 86. C
12. D 37. B 62. B 87. A
13. A 3E. D 63. D EE C
14. A 39 B 64. A 89 D
15. C 40 A 65. B 90 B
16. D 41. A 66. B 91. C
17. B 42. C 67. C 92 B
18. C 43 B 68. A 93. D
19. D 44. D 69 B 94. B
20. A 45. B 70. C 95. D
21. D 46. C 71. A 96. C
22. A 47. B 72 D 97. D
23. C 4E. B 73 B 98 A
24. B 49. B 74. C 99 C
25. B 50 A 75. A 100. A
o 4 -'2)
Text of page 9
GEOGRAPHY
Question K"y Question Key Question Key Question Key
No. No. No. No.
I C 26 C 5t C 76 D
) C 11 C <, C 77 C
3 B 28 D 53 C 7E D
4 B 29 A 54 A 79 D
5 D 30 C 55 A 80 B
6 B 31 B 56 C E1 B
7 D 32 C 57 B 82 A
8 D 33 D 5t B E3 C
9 B 34 C 59 B E4 B
t0 C 35 B 60 C 85 B
11 C 36 D 6l B E6 B
t2 D 31 B 62 C E7 D
13 C 38 A 63 C 8E C
t4 B 39 B 64 C 89 C
l5 D 40 B 65 C 90 A
l6 B 4l B 66 A 9l D
t1 B 42 D 67 C 92 B
l8 D 43 B 68 C 93 C
19 D 44 C 69 B 94 D
20 A 45 A 70 D 95 B
2l D 46 D 7t C 96 B
22 A 47 D A 97 D
,l D 48 D 73 B 9E A
24 C 49 A 74 B 99 C
,< A 50 B 75 D r00 B
ia 'a "';
Text of page 10
GEOLOGY
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I C 26. C 51. C 76. B
2 A 27. A 52. C 77 B
3 B 28. C 53 B 78. A
4 C 29. D 54 B 79. D
5 D 30. A 55. B 80, B
6 B 31. C 56. C E1. A
7 A 32. C D E2. A
E B JJ. B 58 A E3 D
9 A 34. A 59 A 84. A
10. B 35. B 60. A 85. B
ll. A 36. B 61. C E6 C
12. C 37. C 62. B 81 A
t3. C 3E. C 63. B EE. C
14. B 39 D 64. A 89 B
15. B 40 A 65. D 90 D
16. A 41. D 66 A 91. B
17. D 42. A 67. D 92. C
18. A 43. C 68. D 93. B
19. C 44. D 69. B 94. A
20. D 45. B 70. C 95. D
21. D 46 C 71. A 96 c
,) C 47. B '1',1 D 97 A
23. C 48. A 73. A 98. B
24. A 49. C 74. A 99 C
25. B 50. D 75, C 100. C
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Text of page 11
HIIIDI
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question, Answer
No. No. No. No.
I B 26. B 51. C 76. C
) ,,1
C D 52 B 77 A
3 B 28. A 53 A 7E. B
4 C 29. C 54. B 79- C
5 C 30. A 55. C 80. B
6 D 31. B 56. C E1. B
7 B 32. B 57 A 82. D
E A 33 D 5E D 83 A
9 C 34. C 59. C 84 A
t0. D 35. C 60. B E5. D
ll. B 36. A 61. B 86. A
12. A 37. D 62 D E7 B
13. B 38. B 63 D 88 B
14. D 39. A 64. B 89. D
15. C 40 B 65. C 90. C
16. B 41. D 66 D 91. C
17. D 42. C 67. B ot A
18. B 43 A 6E. C 93. B
19. A 44 B 69. A 94 B
20. A 45. A 70. D 95. D
21. C 46. C 71. C 96 B
)) A 47. D 1'' D 97 D
23 B 4E. C 73. B 9E. A
24. D 49. D 74. D 99. B
25. A 50. D 75. B 100. D
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Text of page 12
HISTORY
Question. Answer Question, Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I B 26 D 51. A 76. C
2 C )1 C <, C 77. D
3 D 24. B 53 D 78. B
4. C 29. B 54. D 79 D
5 B 30 C 55. B 80 D
6 C 31. B 56 A 81. B
7 D 32. C 57. B 82 B
8 A 33. B 58. D 83 C
9 B 34. D 59 A 84. D
10. C 35. A 60 C 85. C
ll. C 36. B 61. A 86. B
12. B 37. C 62. C 87. A
13. C 3E. A 63. B 88. A
14. C 39 B 64. C 89 B
15. C 40 D o5. A 90 A
16. B 41. B 66 D 9t. C
17. C 42 C 67, A 92 B
18. B 43. D 68. B 93. C
19. A 44. A 69 D 94. C
20. B 45. D 70. A 95. A
2t. C 46. C 71. C 96 C
,, B 47. B 1'l D 97. C
23. A 48. B 73. D 98. B
24. D 49. D 74. D 99 B
25. C 50. B tJ. C 100. B
n'tt
Text of page 13
HOME SCIENCE
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No, No. No.
I C 26. A 51. D 76. A
, C )1 C 52. C 77. D
3 C 2E C 53. A 78. B
4. D 29. B 54. D 79 D
5 C 30 C 55. C EO A
6 B 31. B 56. D El. B
7 D 32. C 57. D 82 A
8 A 33. C 5E. A 83 C
9 C 34. B 59 B E4. B
10. C 35. C 60 B 85. C
11. D 36. C 61. D 86. D
12. B 37. C 62. B 87. B
13. B 3E B 63. A 88. D
14. D 39. D 64. D E9 B
15. B 40 A 65. B 90 A
16. C 41. B 66. A 91. C
17. B 42. A 67. C 92 B
18. B 43. C 68. A 93. C
19. C 44. A 69 A 94. A
20 B 45. A 70. C 95. D
21. C 46 B 71. C 96. B
)) D 47. C 11 D 97 D
23. B 48. A 73. C 9t A
24. C 49. B 74. C 99 C
25. C 50. A 75. D 100. D
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Text of page 14
IRPM
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No, No. No. No.
I C 26. C 51. B 76. A
2 C )1 D 52. D 77 B
3 D 28. D 53 D 78. C
4 B 29. C 54 A 79 D
5 C 30. D 55. B 80 C
6 A 31. B 56. C 81. A
7 C 32. B sl C 82. B
E D 33. C 58. B 83. C
9 B 34. C 59 B 84. C
10. B 35. D 60 C 85. D
11. A 36 B 61. B 86. A
12. B 3t. B 62. B 87 D
13. D 38. D 63 C E8. C
14. C 39. D 64. B 89 D
t5. A 40 A 65. C 90 B
16. B 41. C 66 D 91. D
17. B 42. A 67. B o, B
18. B 43 B 6E. B 93. B
19. B 44 D 69. C 94 B
20. C 45. C 70. B 95. A
21. D 46. A 71. B 96. B
), C 47. C 1',' B 97 B
23 B 48 A 73. A 9E C
24 B 49. A 74. C 99. C
25. B 50. A 75. D 100. B
oq. ry
Text of page 15
LOGIC & PHILOSOPHY
Question. Answer Question, Answer Question. Answer Question, Answer
No. No. No. No,
I A 26. B 51. A 76. D
.,
C 27. C 52. A 77 C
3 D 2E. B 53 B 78 A
4 B 29. A 54. A 79. C
5 C 30. B 55. D 80. A
6 A 31. B 56. B 81. D
7 C 32. C 57. C 82. B
8 B 33 D 58 A E3. C
9 D 34. B 59 B 84. C
10. C 35. A 60 D E5. A
ll. D 36. B 61. C E6. C
t2. A 37. C 62. A 87. A
13. D 38 C 63 B 8E B
14. C 39 B 64. D E9 D
15. B 40 A 65. A 90 C
16. A 41. C 66 D 91. A
17. D 42. B 67. B 92 C
18. C 43 B 68 B 93. B
19. B 44. B 69 D 94. D
20. C 45. B 70. C 95. C
21. A 46. D 71. D 96. D
't, B 47. C
.,.,
C 97. B
23 D 48 D 73. B 9E. C
24. C 49. D 74. D 99 B
25. D 50 A /5. A 100. A
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Text of page 16
MATHEMATICS
Question Key Question Key Question Key Question Key
No. No. No. No.
I B 26 B 5t B 76 B
2 A 27 D (, A 77 D
3 C 28 B 53 C 78 C
4 D 29 D 54 B 79 C
5 C 30 C 55 D 80 B
6 A 3l B 56 B 8l A
7 C 32 C 57 D 82 D
E C 33 D 58 C E3 A
9 B 34 C 59 D E4 C
10 A 35 B 60 C 85 A
ll B 36 C 6l A 86 B
t2 A 37 B 62 D 87 C
l3 D 38 D 63 A E8 D
t4 B 39 A 64 B E9 B
l5 C 40 B 65 c 90 B
l6 D 4t C 66 B 9l A
t7 C 42 A 67 D 92 B
l8 B 43 C 68 A 93 D
t9 A 44 D 69 B 94 C
20 B 45 B 70 A 95 C
2t C 46 A 7t B 96 D
'r) A 47 C 72 C 97 A
23 B 48 B 73 B 9E B
24 A 49 D 74 A 99 A
25 C 50 A 75 D 100 D
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Text of page 17
ODIA
Question K"y Question Key Question Key Question Key
No. No. No. No.
t D 26 C 5l D 76 B
) C 27 D 52 A 77 C
3 B 28 A 53 B 78 D
4 C 29 D 54 C 79 A
f A 30 C 55 D 80 B
6 B 3l B 56 A EI C
7 C 32 A 57 C 82 B
E C 33 C 5E D 83 C
9 D 34 D 59 C 84 A
10 B 35 D 60 B 85 D
ll B 36 B 61 A 86 B
t2 A 37 B 62 C E7 C
l3 D 3E A 63 D E8 D
t4 C 39 C 64 A 89 A
15 C 40 A 65 A 90 B
l6 A 4t B 66 D 91 D
17 B 42 C 67 B 92 C
18 A 43 D 68 C 93 A
t9 D 44 C 69 C 94 C
20 C 45 B 70 B 95 B
2l B 46 A 7t C 96 D
.,, 1)
C 47 A A 97 C
23 D 4E C 73 C 98 A
24 A 49 D 74 D 99 C
25 B 50 B 75 B 100 B
Text of page 18
PHYSICS
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I C 26. B 51. C 76, C
) A 27. D 52. C 77. B
3 B 28. C 53 B 78, A
4 C 29. D 54 C 79. D
5 C 30. B 55. A 80. A
6. B 31. A 56. B 81. C
7 A 32. D t/. C 82 D
8. C 33 D 58. D E3 C
9 D 34, C 59. C 84. A
10. C 35. B 60. B 85 B
11. B 36. C 61. B 86. D
12. A 37. B 62 A 87. C
t3. A 3E. B 63 A 8E B
14. D 39. C 64. D 89. A
15. C 40. D 65. C 90. C
16. D 41. A 66. C 91. A
17. A 42. C 67. B 92. B
tE. B 43 D 68. D 93. A
19. C 44 B 69. B 94 B
20. D 45. A 70. A 95. C
21. A 46. C 71. C 96. D
)) A 47. A 11 A 97 A
23 B 4E B 73. D 98 B
24. C 49. D 74. B 99. B
25. D 50. B 75. D 100. C
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Text of page 19
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Question K"y Question K"y Question Key Question Key
No. No. No. No.
I B 26 A 5r C 76 A
, C ,1 A 52 D 77 D
3 D 28 C 53 B 78 B
4 A 29 C 54 A 79 C
5 A 30 A 55 B 80 D
6 B 3l B 56 C 8t D
7 B 32 C 57 D 82 B
8 B 33 A 58 D 83 D
9 A 34 B 59 B 84 B
t0 D 35 D 60 C E5 C
11 A 36 C 6t C 86 B
t2 B 37 B 62 D 87 D
l3 C 38 C 63 C 8E D
t4 B 39 B 64 D 89 B
15 B 40 C o5 C 90 C
t6 C 4t C 66 B 9l A
t7 D 42 A 67 C 92 C
18 A 43 D 68 B 93 A
l9 C 44 D 69 C 94 B
20 C 45 B 70 B 95 B
2t B 46 A 7t C 96 B
)) A 47 C 72 B 97 C
23 D 48 B 73 D 98 A
24 B 49 C 74 C 99 B
25 C 50 B 75 C 100 C
o c'4
Text of page 20
PSYCHOLOGY
Question. Answer Question, Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No, No. No. No.
I B 26. D 51. A 76. C
,, )1
B C 52. C 77 C
3 D 28. D 53 A 78. B
4 C 29. A 54 B 79 C
5 A 30. C 55. D 80 B
6 C 31. D 56. A 81. D
7 B 32. A 57. B 82. A
8 C 33 A 5E C E3. D
9 B 34. B 59. C 84. D
10. A 35. A 60. D 85. A
11. A 36. B 61. C E6. D
12. B 37. A 62 B 87 D
13. A 38 D 63 D 88 B
14. B 39. D 64. B 89. B
15. B 40. C 65 A 90 A
16. D 41. B 66 C 91. C
17. B 42. A 67. D 92. B
18. B 43 D 68. A 93. D
19. C 44 B 69. A 94. B
20. B 45. C 70. B 95. A
21, B 46 D 71. D 96 C
)) B 47. C 72 B 97. A
,1 C 48. C 73 A 98. C
24. D 49. C 74. D 99. A
25. C 50 B 75. C 100. A
q->
Text of page 21
SANSKRIT
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question, Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
I A 26 B 51. B 76. D
, C )1 A 52. A 77. B
3 D 28. C 53. B 78. A
4. C 29. D 54. A 79. C
5. D 30 B 55. C 80 D
6. D 3r. A 56. D E1. B
7 B 32. B 5 /. B E2. c
8. D 33 A 58. c E3 A
9 B 34. A 59. A E4. C
10. D 35. B 60. C 85. B
11. B 36. C 61. D 86. C
12. D 37. C 62 C 87. A
l3 C 38. C 63 D 88. B
14. B 39. B 64. B 89 D
15. C 40. C o5 C 90 A
16. B 41. A 66. B 91. C
17. D 42. B 67. C 92. B
1E. C 43. D 68. D 93. A
19. B 44. C 69. C 94. B
20. A 45. D 70. D 95. C
27. D 46. B 71. B 96. D
22. C 47. C 72 D 97. A
23 B 48. B 73. C 98. B
24. A 49. C 74. B 99 D
25. B 50 D /f,. C 100. C
n'Y,
Text of page 22
SOCIOLOGY
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No, No.
I D 26. B 51. D 76. B
2 B 27. B 52 D 77 D
3 A 28. A 53 A 78. A
4 B 29. C 54. B 79 B
5 c 30. D 55. C 80 C
6 D 31. B 56. C 81. B
7 B 32. A 57 B E2. A
E A 33. B 58. D E3. B
9 C 34, C 59 A 84. C
10. A 35. D 60 B 85. C
ll. B 36. A 61. A 86. B
12. D 37. C 62. B 87. C
13. c 3E. B 63. C EE D
t4. A 39 B 64. A 89 D
15. B 40 A 65. D 90 A
16. C 41. B 66. C 91. D
17. D 42. A 67. A 92 C
18. B 43 D 68. B 93. B
19. D 44. A 69 D 94. A
20. C 45. C 70. C 95. C
21. C 46. C 71. C 96. A
,, D 47. D 72 A 97. C
23. B 4E C 73. D 98. B
24. D 49. B 74. B 99 B
25. A 50 C /5, C 100. A
ct -'r-)
Text of page 23
STATISTICS
Question Key Question Key Question Key Question K"y
No. No. No. No.
I B 26 A 5l A 76 B
.,
A 27 C 52 B 77 C
3 C 28 B 53 B 78 B
4 B 29 C 54 C 79 C
5 A 30 D 55 B 80 D
6 B 3l C 56 A 81 B
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 D
E C 33 A 58 B 83 B
9 C 34 A 59 C E4 A
t0 C 35 B 60 B E5 B
ll A 36 A 61 B 86 C
t2 D 37 B 62 A 87 A
l3 B 38 D 63 A 8E B
t4 B 39 A 64 B 89 A
l5 A 40 A 65 C 90 C
l6 D 4t B 66 B 91 D
t7 A 42 A 67 C 92 B
l8 C 43 C 68 B 93 D
l9 C 44 A 69 A 94 B
20 B 45 C 70 B 95 A
2l A 46 B 7t C 96 C
't', D 47 B 72 C 97 A
23 D 48 D 73 B 98 B
l
24 D 49 B 74 B 99 A
25 B 50 C /5 B r00 D
o q'yt
Text of page 24
TELUGU
Question. Answer Question, Answer Question. Answer Question, Answer
No. No. No. No.
I C 26. B 51. C 76. D
2 A 27. D <, B 77 C
3 C 28. D 53 B 78 D
4 D 29. D 54. A 79. C
5 C 30. A 55. B 80. C
6 A 31. A 56. D 81. C
7 A 32. B 57 D t2. A
8 B 33. D 5E. A 83 A
9 A 34. C 59 A E4. A
10. C 35. B 60 A 85. C
1t. A 36. B 61. B 86. C
12. C 37. B 62. C 87. A
13. A 3E. A 63 D EE. C
14. C 39 A 64. D E9 C
15. C 40 B 65. A 90 B
16. C 41. B 66. B 91. B
17. C 42. D 67. B 92 C
18. B 43 B 68 C 93. C
19. C 44. C 69 B 94. D
20. C 45. C 70. D 95. C
21. A 46. B 71. A 96. C
)', D 47. C 1' B 97. B
23 C 48. B 73. D 98. A
24. A 49, C 74. C 99 C
25. D 50 B /5. C 100. A
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Text of page 25
URDU
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No' No. No. No.
I B 26. C 51. C 76. C
) D 'r1 D 52 B 77 A
3 A 28. B 53 A 78. A
4 B 29. D 54 B 79, D
5 C 30. A 55 A 80. D
6 B 31. B 56. D 81. C
7 A 32. D 57. D 82 C
8. D 33 D 5E. B 83 B
9 A 34 B 59. A E4 D
10. D 35. A 60. A 85 A
ll. A 36. A 61. B E6. C
12. C 37. C 62. C 87. A
13. B 3E. A 63 B 8E B
14. B 39. B 64. A E9. C
15. B 40. C 65 C 90. C
t6. B 41. D 66 A 91. A
17. B 42. D 67. B o, B
18. D 43 A 68. C 93. D
19. B 44. B 69, B 94. D
20. C 45. A 70. B 95. B
21. B 46 C 71. C 96 B
22 C 47. C 1' C 97. B
23 A 48. A 73 A 98. C
24. A 49. D 74. B 99. A
25. B 50 C 75. D 100. A
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Text of page 26
ZOOLOGY
Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer Question. Answer
No. No. No. No.
1 c 26. C 51. C 76. B
2 D 27. A 52. D 77 C
3 A 28. D 53 A 1a. C
4 B 29. D 54 D 79 B
5 B 30. D 55. B 80 C
6 D 31. A 56. D 81. B
7 B 32. c 57. A 82. A
8 A 33. C 5E. B 83. B
9 B 34. D 59 A E4. B
10. C 35. C 60 D 85. C
1t. D 36. B 61. C 86. B
12. A 37. C 62. B 87. B
13. C 3E D 63. A 88. C
14, B 39 B 64. C 89 D
15. A 40 B 65. C 90 B
16. D 41. A 66. B 91. C
17. B 42. B 67. C 92 A
1E. A 43. A 68. C 93. B
19. B 44. B 69 A 94. C
20 C 45. A 70. D 95. C
21. A 46. C 71. A 96. A
,) B 47. A 1',' D 97. A
23. B 48. D 73. A 98. A
24. D 49. A 74. B 99 B
25. B 50. B 75. C 100. B
r-gPage 1 of 20
Source: State Selection Board. Question paper published by State Selection Board.