PPSC JE 2021: Written Examination, Junior Engineer (Mechanical/Electrical), Advt. 202012
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Booklet Sr. No.
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JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–1)
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SECTION A 5. A high resistance cannot be measured
by simple ammeter-voltmeter principle
1. Core loss in a DC machine occurs in
because
(a) armature only
(a) voltmeter rating will be too high
(b) pole shoe only
(b) ammeter rating will be too low
(c) yoke only (c) leakage current cannot be
(d) All of the above neglected
(d) power loss will be high
2. An electromagnetic field is radiated
6. Which one of the following transducers
from
is an active transducer?
(a) a stationary point charge
(b) a capacitor with a dc voltage (a) Piezoelectric pressure transducer
(c) a conductor carrying a dc current (b) Metallic strain gauge
(d) an oscillating dipole
(c) Semi-conductor strain gauge
(d) Platinum resistance thermometer
3. The magnetic field required to reduce
the residual magnetization to zero is
7. The strain gauge should have low
called
(a) gauge factor
(a) retentivity
(b) resistance temperature coefficient
(b) coercivity
(c) resistance
(c) hysteresis
(d) saturation magnetization (d) All of the above
8. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is
4. Piezoelectric effect is generally normally of the order of
observed in
(a) 1 to 1·5
(a) insulators
(b) 1·5 to 2·0
(b) insulators and semiconductors
(c) conductors and superconductors (c) 0·5 to 1
(d) conductors and semiconductors (d) 5 to 10
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–2)
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9. In an LVDT, there are two secondary 12. For a transistor, turn-off time is
coils which are connected for a single (a) sum of storage time and fall time
output. Which one of the following is (b) maximum value of storage time
correct ?
(c) maximum value of fall time
(a) The coils are in series and in (d) sum of rise time and fall time
phase opposition
13. If capacitor value increases in a
(b) The coils are in parallel and in
capacitor filter, then the ripple factor
phase opposition
(a) increases
(c) The coils are in series and in the (b) becomes zero
same phase condition (c) decreases
(d) The coils are in parallel and in (d) None of the above
the same phase condition
14. When we apply reverse bias to a
junction diode, it
10. Type of dc generator used for arc (a) lowers the potential barrier
welding purposes is a
(b) raises the potential barrier
(a) series generator
(c) greatly decreases the minority
(b) shunt generator
carrier current
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) greatly increases the majority
generator
carrier current
(d) differentially compounded
generator
15. The angular momentum of the electron
in an orbit is always an integral
11. When the positive voltage on the gate multiple of
of a p-channel JFET is increased, its
(a) Boltzmann’s constant
drain current
(a) increases (b) Planck’s constant
(b) decreases
(c) Rayleigh’s constant
(c) remains the same
(d) None of the above (d) Brillouin’s constant
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–3)
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16. Which one of the following will serve 19. The materials to be used in the
as a donor impurity in silicon ? manufacture of a standard resistance
should be of
(a) Boron
(a) high resistivity and low
(b) Indium
temperature coefficient
(c) Germanium
(b) low resistivity
(d) Antimony
(c) high temperature coefficient
(d) low resistivity and high
temperature coefficient
17. Fermi level is the
(a) highest occupied energy level at
0K 20. Transformer will operate at maximum
(b) highest occupied energy level at efficiency when
0C (a) hysteresis loss = eddy current
loss
(c) energy level at which electron
emission occurs (b) eddy current loss = copper loss
(d) minimum energy level in the (c) copper loss = iron loss
conduction band (d) hysteresis loss = copper loss
18. The disadvantage of PMMC 21. While determining RTH of a circuit
instrument is (a) voltage and current sources
should be left as they are
(a) high power consumption
(b) all sources should be replaced by
(b) high cost relative to moving iron
their source resistances
instruments
(c) all independent current and
(c) low torque/weight ratio voltage sources are
short-circuited
(d) absence of effective and efficient
(d) None of the above
eddy current damping
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–4)
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22. Which of the following statements is 25. When the power transferred to the
incorrect ? load is maximum, the efficiency of
power transfer is
(a) Resistance is a passive element
(a) 25%
(b) Inductor is a passive element (b) 75%
(c) Current source is a passive (c) 50%
element (d) 100%
(d) Voltage source is an active
26. Under the condition of maximum
element
power transfer from an AC source to a
variable load
(a) the load impedance must also be
23. Ohm’s law is applicable to
inductive, if the generator
(a) semiconductors impedance is inductive
(b) the sum of the source and the
(b) vacuum tubes
load impedance is zero
(c) electrolytes
(c) the sum of the source reactance
(d) None of the above and load reactance is zero
(d) the load impedance has the same
phase angle as the generator
24. A network has 4 nodes and impedance
3 independent loops. What is the
number of branches in the network ? 27. The measured value of a capacitor is
205·5 µF; whereas its true value is
(a) 5 202·4 µF. The relative error is
(a) 1·87%
(b) 6
(b) 1·94%
(c) 7 (c) 1·53%
(d) 1·73%
(d) 8
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–5)
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28. Which of the following does not have 31. N-channel FETs are superior to
the same units as the others ? (The P-channel FETs because they have
symbols have their usual meanings) (a) lower switching time
(b) lower pinch-off voltage
L
(a) (c) higher input impedance
R
(d) mobility of electrons in N-channel
(b) RC is greater than mobility of holes
in P-channel
(c) LC
1 32. Transient current in an R-L-C circuit
(d)
LC is oscillatory when
(a) R=0
1 L
29. The quantity in SI units has (b) R2
C
ε 0μ 0
the L
(c) R2
C
(a) value of 330 m/s
L
(b) value 1·73 104 (d) R2
C
(c) dimensions LT–1
33. What is the series resistance
(d) None of the above required to extend 0 – 100 V range of a
20,000 /V meter to 0 – 1000 V ?
(a) 10 M
(b) 16 M
30. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is
allowed to run continuously for (c) 18 M
24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of (d) 20 M
energy does it consume ?
34. Light travels along the optical fibers
(a) 21·6 kWh by which mechanism ?
(b) 201·6 kWh (a) Refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) 2·01 kWh
(c) Scattering
(d) 8·4 kWh (d) Total internal reflection
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–6)
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35. A 60 W electric light bulb is connected 38. Find the value of the load resistor RL
to a 240 V supply. Determine the shown in the figure that gives
current flowing in the bulb and the maximum power dissipation and
resistance of the bulb. determine the value of this power.
(a) 0·25 A, 960
(b) 0·50 A, 960
(c) 0·25 A, 1000
(d) 0·50 A, 1000
36. Find the current I.
I (a) 15 , 2·4 W
(b) 48 , 7·5 W
(c) 2·4 , 15 W
(d) 1·2 , 30 W
(a) 3·6 A 39. Find I in the circuit of the given figure.
(b) 0·9 A
(c) 2A
(d) 1·8 A
37. For the bridge network shown in the
figure, determine the current in 3
resistor.
(a) 0·50 A
I (b) 0·75 A
(c) 0·25 A
(d) 1·25 A
40. Calculate the phase angle between
1 = – 10 cos (t + 50) and
2 = 12 sin (t – 10).
(a) 3A (a) 30
(b) 5A (b) 40
(c) 1A
(c) 50
(d) 4A
(d) 60
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–7)
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41. Determine amplitude of current at 44. Calculate the emf induced in a coil of
upper half-power frequency. inductance 12 H by a current changing
Given, R = 2 , L = 1 mH, and at the rate of 4 A/s.
C = 0·4 μH
(a) – 48V
(b) – 49V
(c) – 50V
(d) – 51V
45. A 1-mA movement with internal
(a) 7·071 A
resistance of 100 is to be converted
(b) 7·710 A
into a 0 – 100 mA ammeter. Calculate
(c) 7·170 A the value of shunt resistance required.
(d) 7·701 A
(a) 1·01
42. A 25-kW 125-V separately-excited DC (b) 1·02
machine. The armature resistance is
(c) 1·03
0·02 , with the field-current
maintained constant at the value that (d) 1·04
would produce a terminal voltage of
125 V at a speed of 3000 r/min. The 46. A semiconductor gauge having
machine is observed to be operating as resistance of 1000 and a gauge factor
a motor with a terminal voltage of of – 133 is subjected to compressive
123 V and with a terminal power of
strain of 500 micron. Calculate new
21·9 kW. Calculate the speed of the
value of resistance of the gauge.
motor.
(a) 2566 rpm (a) 1066·5
(b) 2666 rpm (b) 1076·5
(c) 2766 rpm (c) 1086·5
(d) 2866 rpm
(d) 1096·5
43. A magnetic pole face has a rectangular
section having dimensions 200 mm by 47. A transducer has an output impedance
100 mm. If the total flux emerging of 1 and a load resistance of 1 K, it
from the pole is 150 µWb, calculate the behaves as
flux density.
(a) Constant current source
(a) 4·5 mT
(b) 5·5 mT (b) Constant voltage source
(c) 6·5 mT (c) Constant power source
(d) 7·5 mT (d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–8)
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48. Which of the following is not an 53. For a simply supported beam of span L
intensive property of a thermodynamic carrying a point load W at its
system ? mid-span, the maximum bending
(a) Pressure moment is
(b) Temperature
WL2
(c) Volume (a)
2
(d) Density
WL2
(b)
49. The dryness fraction (quality) of steam 4
which has 1·5 kg of water in
suspension with 50 kg of steam will be WL
(c)
2
(a) 0·0791
(b) 0·791 WL
(d)
(c) 0·0971 4
(d) 0·971
54. A solid steel shaft is to transmit a
50. Cochran boiler is torque of 100000 N-m. If the shearing
(a) horizontal drum axis stress is not to exceed 45 N/m2, the
(b) single tube minimum diameter of the shaft will be
(c) high pressure
(a) 22·45 mm
(d) natural circulation
(b) 224·5 mm
51. Materials which have the same (c) 42·25 mm
mechanical properties in all directions
(d) 422·5 mm
at an arbitrary point are called
(a) Homogeneous
55. The maximum torque transmitted by a
(b) Heterogeneous
circular solid shaft is given by
(c) Anisotropic
π
(d) Isotropic (a) τD3
16
52. The ratio of lateral strain to linear π 3
(b) τD
4
strain is known as
(a) Poisson’s ratio π
(c) τD 2
16
(b) Young’s modulus
(c) Bulk modulus π 2
(d) τD
4
(d) Modulus of rigidity
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (A–9)
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56. Central deflection of the leaf spring is 60. Which of the following rolling defects
given by is a structural defect ?
σl (a) Folds
(a)
Et (b) Rusting
(c) Scaling
σ l2
(b) (d) Surface cracks
Et
σl
(c) 61. A 160 mm long 15 mm diameter rod is
4Et
reduced to 14 mm diameter in a single
σ l2 pass straight turning. If the spindle
(d)
4Et speed is 450 rpm and feed rate is
225 mm/min., then what will be the
57. Fresh moulding sand prepared in the cutting time ?
foundry has (a) 0·611 minutes
(a) approximately 5 – 10% of silica (b) 0·711 minutes
(b) approximately 35% of silica (c) 0·811 minutes
(d) 0·911 minutes
(c) approximately 55% of silica
(d) approximately 75% of silica 62. In general, the spark gap to be
adjusted during the EDM process is to
58. Which of the following is not a be
classification of gas welding (a) 0·01 mm to 0·1 mm
technique ?
(b) 0·2 mm to 0·5 mm
(a) Leftward welding (c) 0·5 mm to 0·75 mm
(b) Rightward welding (d) 0·75 mm to 1·0 mm
(c) Centre welding
63. In case of body-centered cubic (BCC)
(d) Forehand welding crystal structure, unit cell length a and
atomic radius R are related through
59. The usual values of biting angles
4R
employed in industry for hot rolling of (a) a=
3
sheets and strips are
(a) 15 – 20 (b) a = 4R 3
(b) 2 – 10 2R
(c) a=
2
(c) 24 – 30
(d) Above 30 (d) a = 2R 2
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 10 )
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64. Axial relationship for a cubic crystal 69. CRM process begins
system is given by (a) after purchase
(a) a=bc (b) after sales and before sales
(b) ab=c (c) before purchase
(c) abc (d) after purchase and before
(d) a=b=c purchase
65. Which of the following is not an 70. Root Cause Analysis relates to
example of network polymer ? (a) Quality Audits
(a) Epoxies (b) Quality Control Measurements
(b) Polyurethanes (c) Performance Measurements
(c) Phenol-formaldehyde (d) Process Analysis
(d) Rubber
71. Following is a basic definition of ethics
66. Least Preferred Co-worker (LPC) (a) Moral guidelines for behaviour
model of leadership was developed by (b) Rules for acknowledging the
(a) Fred Fielder spirit of the law
(b) Robert House (c) Principles for legal and moral
(c) Whetton development
(d) Martin Evans (d) Rules or principles that define
right and wrong conduct
67. Which of the following is not a form of
autocratic leader ? 72. Sprinkling irrigation and drip
irrigation conserve water by
(a) Benevolent
(a) 30 – 50%
(b) Incompetent
(b) 20 – 40%
(c) Strict
(c) 50 – 70%
(d) Free-rein
(d) 70 – 90%
68. The Equity Theory of Motivation was
developed by 73. Out of the total water resources of the
world, salty water (marine) is about
(a) Stacey Adams
(a) 97·4%
(b) Porter Lawler
(b) 79·4%
(c) Vroom
(c) 47·9%
(d) McClelland (d) 49·7%
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 11 )
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74. From among the following, identify the 78. Stiffness of the spring can be increased
thermodynamic process where there is by
no heat exchange with the (a) increasing the number of turns
surroundings
(b) increasing the free length
(a) Isobaric
(c) decreasing the number of turns
(b) Adiabatic
(c) Isotropic (d) decreasing the spring wire
diameter
(d) Isothermal
79. Two concentric springs with stiffness
75. Third law of thermodynamics was
equal to 100 N/mm and 80 N/mm
formulated by
respectively, when subjected to a load
(a) Walther Nernst
of 900 N will deflect by
(b) Kelvin Plank
(a) 9 mm
(c) Rudolf Clausius
(b) 11·25 mm
(d) William Thompson
(c) 5 mm
76. The water tubes in a Babcock and (d) 31·5 mm
Wilcox boiler are
(a) horizontal 80. A helical spring has spring constant K.
(b) vertical If the wire diameter, spring diameter
and the number of coils is all doubled
(c) inclined
then the spring constant of the new
(d) horizontal and inclined
spring becomes
77. The close-coiled helical springs ‘S1’ and (a) K/2
‘S2’ are of same material, same coil (b) K
diameter, same wire diameter and (c) 8K
subjected to same load. If the number
(d) 16 K
of turns of spring ‘S1’ is half that of
spring ‘S2’, the ratio of deflection of
spring ‘S1’ to spring ‘S2’ is 81. Which of the following has higher
thermal conductivity ?
1
(a)
2 (a) Water
(b) 1 (b) Steam
(c) 2 (c) Solid ice
(d) 4 (d) Melting ice
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 12 )
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82. A solid circular shaft of diameter D 86. The process by which solder molecules
carries an axial load W. If the same combine with the molecules of the
load is applied axially on a hollow metal being soldered is called
circular shaft of inner diameter D/2,
(a) soldering
the ratio of stress in a solid shaft to a
hollow one is (b) desoldering
(a) 1:2
(c) tinning
(b) 1:4
(c) 4:3 (d) wetting
(d) 3:4
87. In Direct Current Straight Polarity
83. In a simply supported beam of span (DCSP) arc welding, base metal is
3 m, a point load of 60 kN acts at a connected to the
distance of 1 m from left support, the (a) negative terminal
shear force at 1 m from right support
is (b) negative and positive terminals
(a) 20 kN (c) negative or positive terminal
(b) 40 kN
(d) positive terminal
(c) 60 kN
(d) 80 kN
88. In a turning process using orthogonal
tool geometry, a chip length of 100 mm
84. In which welding process is
is obtained for an uncut chip length of
consumable electrode used ?
250 mm. The chip thickness ratio is
(a) Carbon arc welding
(b) Submerged arc welding (a) 0·2
(c) MIG arc welding (b) 0·1
(d) TIG arc welding
(c) 0·25
85. In resistance spot welding, if the (d) 0·4
current required is 10,000 A for a weld
time of 0·2 sec and the contact 89. A good cutting fluid should have
resistance at the interface between the
two sheets is 0·0001 , what is the (a) low thermal conductivity
heat generated ? (b) high specific heat
(a) 2000 J
(c) high viscosity
(b) 3000 J
(c) 4000 J (d) high density
(d) 5000 J
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 13 )
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90. A rolling mill is used to reduce the 93. The α form of iron is known as
thickness of a plate from 100 mm to
(a) Ferrite
50 mm. The roll diameter is 800 mm
and the coefficient of friction is 0·1. It (b) Cementite
is required that the reduction in
thickness in each pass is same. (c) Pearlite
Assuming no front and back tensions, (d) Austenite
the minimum number of passes
required in the rolling are
(a) 11 94. Under the Payment of Wages Act,
1936, _______ is not included under the
(b) 12 definition of wages.
(c) 13 (a) Incentive
(d) 14 (b) Gratuity
(c) Dearness Allowance
(d) Basic wage
91. The defect which is not associated
with the welding process is
95. ________ is not a legal welfare
(a) hydrogen embrittlement provision under the Factories
Act, 1948.
(b) angular distortion
(a) First-aid boxes
(c) earring (b) Canteen
(d) hot tear (c) Crèche
(d) Drinking water
92. Tensile strength of an alloy steel can 96. The minimum number of persons to be
be improved by adding employed in an establishment for
PF Act to be applicable is
(a) Nickel
(a) 20
(b) Vanadium
(b) 30
(c) Manganese (c) 40
(d) Titanium (d) 50
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 14 )
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97. Which one of the following is not a tax SECTION B
saving investment?
101. Match the following :
(a) Life insurance premium
Solar Power State
Project
(b) Public Provident Fund (PPF)
A. Pavagada 1. Madhya Pradesh
(c) Home loan principal repayment
B. Bhadla 2. Karnataka
(d) Fixed Deposit (FD) C. Rewa 3. Andhra Pradesh
D. N P Kunta 4. Rajasthan
98. Which of the following tax is imposed
by the Central Government but the
State Government collects it ? A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(a) Income tax
(b) 1 3 4 2
(b) Stamp duty
(c) 2 4 1 3
(c) Corporation tax
(d) 1 3 2 4
(d) VAT
102. Which items are not covered under
99. When did the Factories Act come into Public Distribution System in India ?
force ?
(a) Rice
(a) 12th September, 1948
(b) Wheat
(b) 4th April, 1949
(c) Kerosene
(c) 1st April, 1949 (d) Bajra
(d) 23rd September, 1948
103. Which of the following language
100. According to the Minimum Wages Act, was added to the Eighth Schedule
1948, a “Child” means a person who by the Constitution (Twenty-first
has not completed his amendment) Act ?
(a) 10th year of age (a) Manipuri
(b) 12th year of age (b) Konkani
(c) 14th year of age (c) Assamese
(d) 16th year of age (d) Sindhi
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 15 )
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104. The Central Institute of Post-Harvest 107. The Nobel Prize for Literature in 2021
Engineering and Technology is located was awarded to
at
(a) Peter Handke
(a) Abohar (Punjab)
(b) Bob Dylan
(b) Ludhiana (Punjab)
(c) Abdulrazak Gurnah
(c) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(d) Svetlana Alexievich
(d) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
108. The first automated, driverless train
105. 1. Geostationary satellites are used
was launched in 2021 in
to reflect TV signals and telecast
TV programmes from one part of (a) Germany
the world to another.
(b) China
2. Polar satellites are used for
weather forecast. (c) Russia
Which of the statement(s) given above (d) Netherlands
is/are correct ?
109. Operation Samudra Setu II by the
(c) Both 1 and 2
Indian Navy is about
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) shipment of vaccines
(c) Only 1
(b) bringing Indians back during
(d) Only 2 Covid
(c) protection to ONGC for
106. Acid rains are produced by exploration in South China Sea
(a) Excess NO2 and SO2 from (d) shipment of oxygen containers
burning fossil fuels
(b) Excess production of NH3 by 110. Which one of the following teams won
industry and coal gas
the Durand Cup, 2021 ?
(c) Excess release of carbon
(a) FC Mohun Bagan
monoxide by incomplete
combustion (b) FC Goa
(d) Excess formation of CO2 by (c) FC East Bengal
combustion and animal
(d) FC Jalandhar
respiration
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 16 )
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111. Which number replaces the question 114. An equilateral triangular plate is to be
mark in the given figure ? cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which of
the following can be the possible value
of n ?
(a) 196
(b) 216
(a) 4
(c) 256
(b) 5
(d) 296
(c) 7
(d) 9 115. Choose the option that most closely
resembles the water-image of the given
112. A train completed half a trip at options :
30 miles per hour and the other half at
60 miles per hour. If the whole trip
was of 20 miles, then how much time
did the train take to complete the
(a) 4
trip ?
(b) 3
(a) 90 minutes
(c) 2
(b) 60 minutes
(d) 1
(c) 45 minutes
(d) 30 minutes 116. A boy runs 20 m towards East and
turns to the right, runs 10 m and turns
113. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in to the right, runs 9 m and again turns
every 24 hours. The clock was set right to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left,
to show the correct time at 8 : 00 am runs 12 m and finally turns to left and
on Monday. When the clock shows the runs 6 m. The boy is now facing
time 6 : 00 pm on Wednesday, what ________ direction.
was the correct time ?
(a) South
(a) 5 : 36 pm
(b) 5 : 30 pm (b) North
(c) 5 : 24 pm (c) West
(d) 5 : 18 pm (d) East
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 17 )
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117. The percentage increase in the area of 119. A student has to get 40% marks to
a rectangle, if each of its sides is pass in an examination. Suppose he
increased by 20% is gets 30 marks and fails by 30 marks,
(a) 55% then what are the maximum marks in
the examination ?
(b) 33%
(a) 100
(c) 22%
(b) 120
(d) 44%
(c) 150
118. If RAMON is written as 12345 and (d) 300
DINESH is written as 675849, then
HAMAM will be written as 120. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a
(a) 92233 tank in 7 days, then how many extra
pumps will be required to fill the tank
(b) 92323
in 5 days ?
(c) 93322
(a) 6
(d) 93232
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 21
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 18 )
Text of page 19
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 19 )
Text of page 20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( A – 20 )
Text of page 21
Booklet Sr. No.
*0B*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–1)
Text of page 22
SECTION A 5. A 60 W electric light bulb is connected
to a 240 V supply. Determine the
1. N-channel FETs are superior to current flowing in the bulb and the
P-channel FETs because they have resistance of the bulb.
(a) lower switching time (a) 0·25 A, 960
(b) lower pinch-off voltage (b) 0·50 A, 960
(c) higher input impedance (c) 0·25 A, 1000
(d) mobility of electrons in N-channel (d) 0·50 A, 1000
is greater than mobility of holes
in P-channel 6. Find the current I.
2. Transient current in an R-L-C circuit I
is oscillatory when
(a) R=0
L
(b) R2
C
(a) 3·6 A
L (b) 0·9 A
(c) R2
C (c) 2A
(d) 1·8 A
L
(d) R2
C
7. For the bridge network shown in the
3. What is the series resistance figure, determine the current in 3
required to extend 0 – 100 V range of a resistor.
20,000 /V meter to 0 – 1000 V ?
(a) 10 M I
(b) 16 M
(c) 18 M
(d) 20 M
4. Light travels along the optical fibers
by which mechanism ?
(a) Refraction
(a) 3A
(b) Reflection (b) 5A
(c) Scattering (c) 1A
(d) Total internal reflection (d) 4A
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–2)
Text of page 23
8. Find the value of the load resistor RL 11. Determine amplitude of current at
shown in the figure that gives upper half-power frequency.
maximum power dissipation and Given, R = 2 , L = 1 mH, and
determine the value of this power. C = 0·4 μH
(a) 7·071 A
(a) 15 , 2·4 W (b) 7·710 A
(b) 48 , 7·5 W (c) 7·170 A
(c) 2·4 , 15 W (d) 7·701 A
(d) 1·2 , 30 W 12. A 25-kW 125-V separately-excited DC
machine. The armature resistance is
9. Find I in the circuit of the given figure. 0·02 , with the field-current
maintained constant at the value that
would produce a terminal voltage of
125 V at a speed of 3000 r/min. The
machine is observed to be operating as
a motor with a terminal voltage of
123 V and with a terminal power of
21·9 kW. Calculate the speed of the
motor.
(a) 0·50 A
(a) 2566 rpm
(b) 0·75 A (b) 2666 rpm
(c) 0·25 A (c) 2766 rpm
(d) 1·25 A (d) 2866 rpm
13. A magnetic pole face has a rectangular
10. Calculate the phase angle between section having dimensions 200 mm by
1 = – 10 cos (t + 50) and
100 mm. If the total flux emerging
2 = 12 sin (t – 10). from the pole is 150 µWb, calculate the
(a) 30 flux density.
(a) 4·5 mT
(b) 40
(b) 5·5 mT
(c) 50 (c) 6·5 mT
(d) 60 (d) 7·5 mT
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–3)
Text of page 24
14. Calculate the emf induced in a coil of 18. Which of the following is not an
inductance 12 H by a current changing intensive property of a thermodynamic
at the rate of 4 A/s. system ?
(a) – 48V (a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(b) – 49V
(c) Volume
(c) – 50V (d) Density
(d) – 51V
19. The dryness fraction (quality) of steam
15. A 1-mA movement with internal which has 1·5 kg of water in
resistance of 100 is to be converted suspension with 50 kg of steam will be
into a 0 – 100 mA ammeter. Calculate (a) 0·0791
the value of shunt resistance required. (b) 0·791
(a) 1·01 (c) 0·0971
(d) 0·971
(b) 1·02
(c) 1·03
20. Cochran boiler is
(d) 1·04 (a) horizontal drum axis
(b) single tube
16. A semiconductor gauge having (c) high pressure
resistance of 1000 and a gauge factor (d) natural circulation
of – 133 is subjected to compressive
strain of 500 micron. Calculate new
21. Materials which have the same
value of resistance of the gauge.
mechanical properties in all directions
(a) 1066·5 at an arbitrary point are called
(b) 1076·5 (a) Homogeneous
(c) 1086·5 (b) Heterogeneous
(d) 1096·5 (c) Anisotropic
(d) Isotropic
17. A transducer has an output impedance
of 1 and a load resistance of 1 K, it 22. The ratio of lateral strain to linear
behaves as strain is known as
(a) Constant current source (a) Poisson’s ratio
(b) Constant voltage source (b) Young’s modulus
(c) Bulk modulus
(c) Constant power source
(d) Modulus of rigidity
(d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–4)
Text of page 25
23. For a simply supported beam of span L 26. Central deflection of the leaf spring is
carrying a point load W at its given by
mid-span, the maximum bending σl
moment is (a)
Et
WL2 σ l2
(a) (b)
2 Et
σl
WL2 (c)
(b) 4Et
4
σ l2
WL (d)
(c) 4Et
2
WL 27. Fresh moulding sand prepared in the
(d)
4 foundry has
(a) approximately 5 – 10% of silica
24. A solid steel shaft is to transmit a (b) approximately 35% of silica
torque of 100000 N-m. If the shearing
(c) approximately 55% of silica
stress is not to exceed 45 N/m2, the
minimum diameter of the shaft will be (d) approximately 75% of silica
(a) 22·45 mm
28. Which of the following is not a
(b) 224·5 mm classification of gas welding
(c) 42·25 mm technique ?
(d) 422·5 mm (a) Leftward welding
(b) Rightward welding
25. The maximum torque transmitted by a (c) Centre welding
circular solid shaft is given by
(d) Forehand welding
π
(a) τD3
16
29. The usual values of biting angles
π 3 employed in industry for hot rolling of
(b) τD
4 sheets and strips are
π (a) 15 – 20
(c) τD 2
16
(b) 2 – 10
π 2
(d) τD (c) 24 – 30
4
(d) Above 30
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–5)
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30. Which of the following rolling defects 34. Axial relationship for a cubic crystal
is a structural defect ? system is given by
(a) Folds (a) a=bc
(b) Rusting (b) ab=c
(c) Scaling
(c) abc
(d) Surface cracks
(d) a=b=c
31. A 160 mm long 15 mm diameter rod is
35. Which of the following is not an
reduced to 14 mm diameter in a single
example of network polymer ?
pass straight turning. If the spindle
speed is 450 rpm and feed rate is (a) Epoxies
225 mm/min., then what will be the (b) Polyurethanes
cutting time ? (c) Phenol-formaldehyde
(a) 0·611 minutes (d) Rubber
(b) 0·711 minutes
(c) 0·811 minutes 36. Least Preferred Co-worker (LPC)
(d) 0·911 minutes model of leadership was developed by
(a) Fred Fielder
32. In general, the spark gap to be (b) Robert House
adjusted during the EDM process is to (c) Whetton
be (d) Martin Evans
(a) 0·01 mm to 0·1 mm
(b) 0·2 mm to 0·5 mm 37. Which of the following is not a form of
(c) 0·5 mm to 0·75 mm autocratic leader ?
(d) 0·75 mm to 1·0 mm (a) Benevolent
(b) Incompetent
33. In case of body-centered cubic (BCC)
(c) Strict
crystal structure, unit cell length a and
atomic radius R are related through (d) Free-rein
4R
(a) a= 38. The Equity Theory of Motivation was
3
developed by
(b) a = 4R 3 (a) Stacey Adams
2R (b) Porter Lawler
(c) a=
2 (c) Vroom
(d) a = 2R 2 (d) McClelland
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–6)
Text of page 27
39. CRM process begins 44. From among the following, identify the
(a) after purchase thermodynamic process where there is
no heat exchange with the
(b) after sales and before sales
surroundings
(c) before purchase
(a) Isobaric
(d) after purchase and before
purchase (b) Adiabatic
(c) Isotropic
40. Root Cause Analysis relates to (d) Isothermal
(a) Quality Audits
(b) Quality Control Measurements 45. Third law of thermodynamics was
formulated by
(c) Performance Measurements
(a) Walther Nernst
(d) Process Analysis
(b) Kelvin Plank
41. Following is a basic definition of ethics (c) Rudolf Clausius
(a) Moral guidelines for behaviour (d) William Thompson
(b) Rules for acknowledging the
spirit of the law 46. The water tubes in a Babcock and
Wilcox boiler are
(c) Principles for legal and moral
development (a) horizontal
(d) Rules or principles that define (b) vertical
right and wrong conduct (c) inclined
(d) horizontal and inclined
42. Sprinkling irrigation and drip
irrigation conserve water by 47. The close-coiled helical springs ‘S1’ and
(a) 30 – 50% ‘S2’ are of same material, same coil
(b) 20 – 40% diameter, same wire diameter and
(c) 50 – 70% subjected to same load. If the number
of turns of spring ‘S1’ is half that of
(d) 70 – 90%
spring ‘S2’, the ratio of deflection of
spring ‘S1’ to spring ‘S2’ is
43. Out of the total water resources of the
1
world, salty water (marine) is about (a)
2
(a) 97·4%
(b) 1
(b) 79·4%
(c) 2
(c) 47·9%
(d) 49·7% (d) 4
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–7)
Text of page 28
48. Stiffness of the spring can be increased 52. A solid circular shaft of diameter D
by carries an axial load W. If the same
(a) increasing the number of turns load is applied axially on a hollow
circular shaft of inner diameter D/2,
(b) increasing the free length
the ratio of stress in a solid shaft to a
(c) decreasing the number of turns hollow one is
(d) decreasing the spring wire (a) 1:2
diameter (b) 1:4
(c) 4:3
49. Two concentric springs with stiffness (d) 3:4
equal to 100 N/mm and 80 N/mm
respectively, when subjected to a load 53. In a simply supported beam of span
of 900 N will deflect by 3 m, a point load of 60 kN acts at a
distance of 1 m from left support, the
(a) 9 mm
shear force at 1 m from right support
(b) 11·25 mm is
(c) 5 mm (a) 20 kN
(d) 31·5 mm (b) 40 kN
(c) 60 kN
(d) 80 kN
50. A helical spring has spring constant K.
If the wire diameter, spring diameter
and the number of coils is all doubled 54. In which welding process is
then the spring constant of the new consumable electrode used ?
spring becomes (a) Carbon arc welding
(b) Submerged arc welding
(a) K/2
(c) MIG arc welding
(b) K
(d) TIG arc welding
(c) 8K
(d) 16 K 55. In resistance spot welding, if the
current required is 10,000 A for a weld
51. Which of the following has higher time of 0·2 sec and the contact
thermal conductivity ? resistance at the interface between the
two sheets is 0·0001 , what is the
(a) Water
heat generated ?
(b) Steam (a) 2000 J
(c) Solid ice (b) 3000 J
(c) 4000 J
(d) Melting ice
(d) 5000 J
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–8)
Text of page 29
56. The process by which solder molecules 60. A rolling mill is used to reduce the
combine with the molecules of the thickness of a plate from 100 mm to
metal being soldered is called 50 mm. The roll diameter is 800 mm
and the coefficient of friction is 0·1. It
(a) soldering
is required that the reduction in
(b) desoldering thickness in each pass is same.
Assuming no front and back tensions,
(c) tinning
the minimum number of passes
(d) wetting required in the rolling are
(a) 11
57. In Direct Current Straight Polarity
(DCSP) arc welding, base metal is (b) 12
connected to the
(c) 13
(a) negative terminal
(d) 14
(b) negative and positive terminals
(c) negative or positive terminal
(d) positive terminal
61. The defect which is not associated
with the welding process is
58. In a turning process using orthogonal
tool geometry, a chip length of 100 mm (a) hydrogen embrittlement
is obtained for an uncut chip length of
(b) angular distortion
250 mm. The chip thickness ratio is
(a) 0·2 (c) earring
(b) 0·1 (d) hot tear
(c) 0·25
(d) 0·4
62. Tensile strength of an alloy steel can
59. A good cutting fluid should have be improved by adding
(a) low thermal conductivity (a) Nickel
(b) high specific heat (b) Vanadium
(c) high viscosity (c) Manganese
(d) high density
(d) Titanium
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (B–9)
Text of page 30
63. The α form of iron is known as 67. Which one of the following is not a tax
saving investment?
(a) Ferrite
(a) Life insurance premium
(b) Cementite
(b) Public Provident Fund (PPF)
(c) Pearlite
(c) Home loan principal repayment
(d) Austenite
(d) Fixed Deposit (FD)
64. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 68. Which of the following tax is imposed
1936, _______ is not included under the by the Central Government but the
definition of wages. State Government collects it ?
(a) Incentive (a) Income tax
(b) Gratuity (b) Stamp duty
(c) Dearness Allowance
(c) Corporation tax
(d) Basic wage
(d) VAT
65. ________ is not a legal welfare 69. When did the Factories Act come into
provision under the Factories force ?
Act, 1948.
(a) 12th September, 1948
(a) First-aid boxes
(b) 4th April, 1949
(b) Canteen
(c) Crèche (c) 1st April, 1949
(d) Drinking water (d) 23rd September, 1948
70. According to the Minimum Wages Act,
66. The minimum number of persons to be
1948, a “Child” means a person who
employed in an establishment for
has not completed his
PF Act to be applicable is
(a) 20 (a) 10th year of age
(b) 30 (b) 12th year of age
(c) 40 (c) 14th year of age
(d) 50
(d) 16th year of age
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 10 )
Text of page 31
71. Core loss in a DC machine occurs in 75. A high resistance cannot be measured
(a) armature only by simple ammeter-voltmeter principle
because
(b) pole shoe only
(a) voltmeter rating will be too high
(c) yoke only
(b) ammeter rating will be too low
(d) All of the above
(c) leakage current cannot be
neglected
72. An electromagnetic field is radiated (d) power loss will be high
from
(a) a stationary point charge 76. Which one of the following transducers
(b) a capacitor with a dc voltage is an active transducer?
(c) a conductor carrying a dc current (a) Piezoelectric pressure transducer
(d) an oscillating dipole
(b) Metallic strain gauge
(c) Semi-conductor strain gauge
73. The magnetic field required to reduce
the residual magnetization to zero is (d) Platinum resistance thermometer
called
77. The strain gauge should have low
(a) retentivity
(b) coercivity (a) gauge factor
(c) hysteresis (b) resistance temperature coefficient
(d) saturation magnetization (c) resistance
(d) All of the above
74. Piezoelectric effect is generally
78. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is
observed in
normally of the order of
(a) insulators
(a) 1 to 1·5
(b) insulators and semiconductors
(b) 1·5 to 2·0
(c) conductors and superconductors
(c) 0·5 to 1
(d) conductors and semiconductors
(d) 5 to 10
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 11 )
Text of page 32
79. In an LVDT, there are two secondary 82. For a transistor, turn-off time is
coils which are connected for a single (a) sum of storage time and fall time
output. Which one of the following is (b) maximum value of storage time
correct ?
(c) maximum value of fall time
(a) The coils are in series and in (d) sum of rise time and fall time
phase opposition
83. If capacitor value increases in a
(b) The coils are in parallel and in
capacitor filter, then the ripple factor
phase opposition
(a) increases
(c) The coils are in series and in the (b) becomes zero
same phase condition (c) decreases
(d) The coils are in parallel and in (d) None of the above
the same phase condition
84. When we apply reverse bias to a
junction diode, it
80. Type of dc generator used for arc (a) lowers the potential barrier
welding purposes is a
(b) raises the potential barrier
(a) series generator
(c) greatly decreases the minority
(b) shunt generator
carrier current
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) greatly increases the majority
generator
carrier current
(d) differentially compounded
generator
85. The angular momentum of the electron
in an orbit is always an integral
81. When the positive voltage on the gate multiple of
of a p-channel JFET is increased, its
(a) Boltzmann’s constant
drain current
(a) increases (b) Planck’s constant
(b) decreases
(c) Rayleigh’s constant
(c) remains the same
(d) None of the above (d) Brillouin’s constant
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 12 )
Text of page 33
86. Which one of the following will serve 89. The materials to be used in the
as a donor impurity in silicon ? manufacture of a standard resistance
should be of
(a) Boron
(a) high resistivity and low
(b) Indium
temperature coefficient
(c) Germanium
(b) low resistivity
(d) Antimony
(c) high temperature coefficient
(d) low resistivity and high
temperature coefficient
87. Fermi level is the
(a) highest occupied energy level at
0K 90. Transformer will operate at maximum
(b) highest occupied energy level at efficiency when
0C (a) hysteresis loss = eddy current
loss
(c) energy level at which electron
emission occurs (b) eddy current loss = copper loss
(d) minimum energy level in the (c) copper loss = iron loss
conduction band (d) hysteresis loss = copper loss
88. The disadvantage of PMMC 91. While determining RTH of a circuit
instrument is (a) voltage and current sources
should be left as they are
(a) high power consumption
(b) all sources should be replaced by
(b) high cost relative to moving iron
their source resistances
instruments
(c) all independent current and
(c) low torque/weight ratio voltage sources are
short-circuited
(d) absence of effective and efficient
(d) None of the above
eddy current damping
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 13 )
Text of page 34
92. Which of the following statements is 95. When the power transferred to the
incorrect ? load is maximum, the efficiency of
power transfer is
(a) Resistance is a passive element
(a) 25%
(b) Inductor is a passive element (b) 75%
(c) Current source is a passive (c) 50%
element (d) 100%
(d) Voltage source is an active
96. Under the condition of maximum
element
power transfer from an AC source to a
variable load
(a) the load impedance must also be
93. Ohm’s law is applicable to
inductive, if the generator
(a) semiconductors impedance is inductive
(b) the sum of the source and the
(b) vacuum tubes
load impedance is zero
(c) electrolytes
(c) the sum of the source reactance
(d) None of the above and load reactance is zero
(d) the load impedance has the same
phase angle as the generator
94. A network has 4 nodes and impedance
3 independent loops. What is the
number of branches in the network ? 97. The measured value of a capacitor is
205·5 µF; whereas its true value is
(a) 5 202·4 µF. The relative error is
(a) 1·87%
(b) 6
(b) 1·94%
(c) 7 (c) 1·53%
(d) 1·73%
(d) 8
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 14 )
Text of page 35
98. Which of the following does not have SECTION B
the same units as the others ? (The
symbols have their usual meanings) 101. The Nobel Prize for Literature in 2021
was awarded to
L
(a)
R (a) Peter Handke
(b) RC (b) Bob Dylan
(c) LC (c) Abdulrazak Gurnah
1 (d) Svetlana Alexievich
(d)
LC
102. The first automated, driverless train
was launched in 2021 in
1 (a) Germany
99. The quantity in SI units has
ε 0μ 0 (b) China
the (c) Russia
(a) value of 330 m/s (d) Netherlands
(b) value 1·73 104 103. Operation Samudra Setu II by the
Indian Navy is about
(c) dimensions LT–1
(a) shipment of vaccines
(d) None of the above
(b) bringing Indians back during
Covid
(c) protection to ONGC for
100. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is
exploration in South China Sea
allowed to run continuously for
24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of (d) shipment of oxygen containers
energy does it consume ?
104. Which one of the following teams won
(a) 21·6 kWh the Durand Cup, 2021 ?
(b) 201·6 kWh (a) FC Mohun Bagan
(b) FC Goa
(c) 2·01 kWh
(c) FC East Bengal
(d) 8·4 kWh
(d) FC Jalandhar
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 15 )
Text of page 36
105. Which number replaces the question 108. An equilateral triangular plate is to be
mark in the given figure ? cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which of
the following can be the possible value
of n ?
(a) 196
(b) 216
(a) 4
(c) 256
(b) 5
(d) 296
(c) 7
(d) 9 109. Choose the option that most closely
resembles the water-image of the given
106. A train completed half a trip at options :
30 miles per hour and the other half at
60 miles per hour. If the whole trip
was of 20 miles, then how much time
did the train take to complete the
(a) 4
trip ?
(b) 3
(a) 90 minutes
(c) 2
(b) 60 minutes
(d) 1
(c) 45 minutes
(d) 30 minutes 110. A boy runs 20 m towards East and
turns to the right, runs 10 m and turns
107. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in to the right, runs 9 m and again turns
every 24 hours. The clock was set right to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left,
to show the correct time at 8 : 00 am runs 12 m and finally turns to left and
on Monday. When the clock shows the runs 6 m. The boy is now facing
time 6 : 00 pm on Wednesday, what ________ direction.
was the correct time ?
(a) South
(a) 5 : 36 pm
(b) 5 : 30 pm (b) North
(c) 5 : 24 pm (c) West
(d) 5 : 18 pm (d) East
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 16 )
Text of page 37
111. The percentage increase in the area of 115. Match the following :
a rectangle, if each of its sides is Solar Power State
increased by 20% is Project
(a) 55% A. Pavagada 1. Madhya Pradesh
(b) 33% B. Bhadla 2. Karnataka
(c) 22% C. Rewa 3. Andhra Pradesh
(d) 44% D. N P Kunta 4. Rajasthan
112. If RAMON is written as 12345 and A B C D
DINESH is written as 675849, then
HAMAM will be written as (a) 3 4 2 1
(a) 92233 (b) 1 3 4 2
(b) 92323 (c) 2 4 1 3
(c) 93322 (d) 1 3 2 4
(d) 93232
113. A student has to get 40% marks to 116. Which items are not covered under
pass in an examination. Suppose he Public Distribution System in India ?
gets 30 marks and fails by 30 marks,
then what are the maximum marks in (a) Rice
the examination ? (b) Wheat
(a) 100
(c) Kerosene
(b) 120
(d) Bajra
(c) 150
(d) 300
117. Which of the following language
was added to the Eighth Schedule
114. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a
by the Constitution (Twenty-first
tank in 7 days, then how many extra
amendment) Act ?
pumps will be required to fill the tank
in 5 days ? (a) Manipuri
(a) 6 (b) Konkani
(b) 14 (c) Assamese
(c) 7
(d) Sindhi
(d) 21
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 17 )
Text of page 38
118. The Central Institute of Post-Harvest
Engineering and Technology is located 120. Acid rains are produced by
at
(a) Excess NO2 and SO2 from
(a) Abohar (Punjab) burning fossil fuels
(b) Ludhiana (Punjab) (b) Excess production of NH3 by
industry and coal gas
(c) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(c) Excess release of carbon
(d) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
monoxide by incomplete
119. 1. Geostationary satellites are used combustion
to reflect TV signals and telecast (d) Excess formation of CO2 by
TV programmes from one part of
combustion and animal
the world to another.
respiration
2. Polar satellites are used for
weather forecast.
Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 18 )
Text of page 39
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 19 )
Text of page 40
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( B – 20 )
Text of page 41
Booklet Sr. No.
*0C*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–1)
Text of page 42
SECTION A 5. Which of the following rolling defects
is a structural defect ?
1. Central deflection of the leaf spring is (a) Folds
given by (b) Rusting
σl (c) Scaling
(a)
Et (d) Surface cracks
σ l2
(b) 6. A 160 mm long 15 mm diameter rod is
Et
reduced to 14 mm diameter in a single
σl
(c) pass straight turning. If the spindle
4Et
speed is 450 rpm and feed rate is
σ l2 225 mm/min., then what will be the
(d)
4Et cutting time ?
(a) 0·611 minutes
2. Fresh moulding sand prepared in the (b) 0·711 minutes
foundry has
(c) 0·811 minutes
(a) approximately 5 – 10% of silica
(d) 0·911 minutes
(b) approximately 35% of silica
(c) approximately 55% of silica 7. In general, the spark gap to be
(d) approximately 75% of silica adjusted during the EDM process is to
be
3. Which of the following is not a (a) 0·01 mm to 0·1 mm
classification of gas welding (b) 0·2 mm to 0·5 mm
technique ?
(c) 0·5 mm to 0·75 mm
(a) Leftward welding
(d) 0·75 mm to 1·0 mm
(b) Rightward welding
(c) Centre welding 8. In case of body-centered cubic (BCC)
crystal structure, unit cell length a and
(d) Forehand welding
atomic radius R are related through
4. The usual values of biting angles 4R
(a) a=
employed in industry for hot rolling of 3
sheets and strips are
(b) a = 4R 3
(a) 15 – 20
(b) 2 – 10 2R
(c) a=
2
(c) 24 – 30
(d) a = 2R 2
(d) Above 30
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–2)
Text of page 43
9. Axial relationship for a cubic crystal 14. CRM process begins
system is given by (a) after purchase
(a) a=bc (b) after sales and before sales
(b) ab=c (c) before purchase
(c) abc (d) after purchase and before
(d) a=b=c purchase
10. Which of the following is not an 15. Root Cause Analysis relates to
example of network polymer ? (a) Quality Audits
(a) Epoxies (b) Quality Control Measurements
(b) Polyurethanes (c) Performance Measurements
(c) Phenol-formaldehyde (d) Process Analysis
(d) Rubber
16. Following is a basic definition of ethics
11. Least Preferred Co-worker (LPC) (a) Moral guidelines for behaviour
model of leadership was developed by (b) Rules for acknowledging the
(a) Fred Fielder spirit of the law
(b) Robert House (c) Principles for legal and moral
(c) Whetton development
(d) Martin Evans (d) Rules or principles that define
right and wrong conduct
12. Which of the following is not a form of
autocratic leader ? 17. Sprinkling irrigation and drip
irrigation conserve water by
(a) Benevolent
(a) 30 – 50%
(b) Incompetent
(b) 20 – 40%
(c) Strict
(c) 50 – 70%
(d) Free-rein
(d) 70 – 90%
13. The Equity Theory of Motivation was
developed by 18. Out of the total water resources of the
world, salty water (marine) is about
(a) Stacey Adams
(a) 97·4%
(b) Porter Lawler
(b) 79·4%
(c) Vroom
(c) 47·9%
(d) McClelland (d) 49·7%
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–3)
Text of page 44
19. From among the following, identify the 23. Stiffness of the spring can be increased
thermodynamic process where there is by
no heat exchange with the (a) increasing the number of turns
surroundings
(b) increasing the free length
(a) Isobaric
(c) decreasing the number of turns
(b) Adiabatic
(c) Isotropic (d) decreasing the spring wire
diameter
(d) Isothermal
24. Two concentric springs with stiffness
20. Third law of thermodynamics was
equal to 100 N/mm and 80 N/mm
formulated by
respectively, when subjected to a load
(a) Walther Nernst
of 900 N will deflect by
(b) Kelvin Plank
(a) 9 mm
(c) Rudolf Clausius
(b) 11·25 mm
(d) William Thompson
(c) 5 mm
21. The water tubes in a Babcock and (d) 31·5 mm
Wilcox boiler are
(a) horizontal 25. A helical spring has spring constant K.
(b) vertical If the wire diameter, spring diameter
and the number of coils is all doubled
(c) inclined
then the spring constant of the new
(d) horizontal and inclined
spring becomes
22. The close-coiled helical springs ‘S1’ and (a) K/2
‘S2’ are of same material, same coil (b) K
diameter, same wire diameter and (c) 8K
subjected to same load. If the number
(d) 16 K
of turns of spring ‘S1’ is half that of
spring ‘S2’, the ratio of deflection of
spring ‘S1’ to spring ‘S2’ is 26. Which of the following has higher
thermal conductivity ?
1
(a)
2 (a) Water
(b) 1 (b) Steam
(c) 2 (c) Solid ice
(d) 4 (d) Melting ice
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–4)
Text of page 45
27. A solid circular shaft of diameter D 31. The process by which solder molecules
carries an axial load W. If the same combine with the molecules of the
load is applied axially on a hollow metal being soldered is called
circular shaft of inner diameter D/2,
(a) soldering
the ratio of stress in a solid shaft to a
hollow one is (b) desoldering
(a) 1:2
(c) tinning
(b) 1:4
(c) 4:3 (d) wetting
(d) 3:4
32. In Direct Current Straight Polarity
28. In a simply supported beam of span (DCSP) arc welding, base metal is
3 m, a point load of 60 kN acts at a connected to the
distance of 1 m from left support, the (a) negative terminal
shear force at 1 m from right support
is (b) negative and positive terminals
(a) 20 kN (c) negative or positive terminal
(b) 40 kN
(d) positive terminal
(c) 60 kN
(d) 80 kN
33. In a turning process using orthogonal
tool geometry, a chip length of 100 mm
29. In which welding process is
is obtained for an uncut chip length of
consumable electrode used ?
250 mm. The chip thickness ratio is
(a) Carbon arc welding
(b) Submerged arc welding (a) 0·2
(c) MIG arc welding (b) 0·1
(d) TIG arc welding
(c) 0·25
30. In resistance spot welding, if the (d) 0·4
current required is 10,000 A for a weld
time of 0·2 sec and the contact 34. A good cutting fluid should have
resistance at the interface between the
two sheets is 0·0001 , what is the (a) low thermal conductivity
heat generated ? (b) high specific heat
(a) 2000 J
(c) high viscosity
(b) 3000 J
(c) 4000 J (d) high density
(d) 5000 J
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–5)
Text of page 46
35. A rolling mill is used to reduce the 38. The α form of iron is known as
thickness of a plate from 100 mm to
(a) Ferrite
50 mm. The roll diameter is 800 mm
and the coefficient of friction is 0·1. It (b) Cementite
is required that the reduction in
thickness in each pass is same. (c) Pearlite
Assuming no front and back tensions, (d) Austenite
the minimum number of passes
required in the rolling are
(a) 11 39. Under the Payment of Wages Act,
1936, _______ is not included under the
(b) 12 definition of wages.
(c) 13 (a) Incentive
(d) 14 (b) Gratuity
(c) Dearness Allowance
(d) Basic wage
36. The defect which is not associated
with the welding process is
40. ________ is not a legal welfare
(a) hydrogen embrittlement provision under the Factories
Act, 1948.
(b) angular distortion
(a) First-aid boxes
(c) earring (b) Canteen
(d) hot tear (c) Crèche
(d) Drinking water
37. Tensile strength of an alloy steel can 41. The minimum number of persons to be
be improved by adding employed in an establishment for
PF Act to be applicable is
(a) Nickel
(a) 20
(b) Vanadium
(b) 30
(c) Manganese (c) 40
(d) Titanium (d) 50
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–6)
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42. Which one of the following is not a tax 46. Core loss in a DC machine occurs in
saving investment?
(a) armature only
(a) Life insurance premium
(b) pole shoe only
(b) Public Provident Fund (PPF) (c) yoke only
(c) Home loan principal repayment (d) All of the above
(d) Fixed Deposit (FD)
47. An electromagnetic field is radiated
43. Which of the following tax is imposed
from
by the Central Government but the
State Government collects it ? (a) a stationary point charge
(a) Income tax (b) a capacitor with a dc voltage
(b) Stamp duty (c) a conductor carrying a dc current
(c) Corporation tax (d) an oscillating dipole
(d) VAT
44. When did the Factories Act come into 48. The magnetic field required to reduce
force ? the residual magnetization to zero is
called
(a) 12th September, 1948
(a) retentivity
(b) 4th April, 1949
(b) coercivity
(c) 1st April, 1949 (c) hysteresis
(d) 23rd September, 1948 (d) saturation magnetization
45. According to the Minimum Wages Act,
1948, a “Child” means a person who 49. Piezoelectric effect is generally
has not completed his observed in
(a) 10th year of age (a) insulators
(b) 12th year of age (b) insulators and semiconductors
(c) 14th year of age (c) conductors and superconductors
(d) 16th year of age (d) conductors and semiconductors
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–7)
Text of page 48
50. A high resistance cannot be measured 54. In an LVDT, there are two secondary
by simple ammeter-voltmeter principle coils which are connected for a single
because output. Which one of the following is
(a) voltmeter rating will be too high correct ?
(b) ammeter rating will be too low (a) The coils are in series and in
(c) leakage current cannot be phase opposition
neglected
(b) The coils are in parallel and in
(d) power loss will be high
phase opposition
51. Which one of the following transducers (c) The coils are in series and in the
is an active transducer? same phase condition
(a) Piezoelectric pressure transducer (d) The coils are in parallel and in
the same phase condition
(b) Metallic strain gauge
(c) Semi-conductor strain gauge
55. Type of dc generator used for arc
(d) Platinum resistance thermometer welding purposes is a
(a) series generator
52. The strain gauge should have low
(b) shunt generator
(a) gauge factor (c) cumulatively compounded
(b) resistance temperature coefficient generator
(c) resistance (d) differentially compounded
(d) All of the above generator
53. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is
56. When the positive voltage on the gate
normally of the order of
of a p-channel JFET is increased, its
(a) 1 to 1·5 drain current
(a) increases
(b) 1·5 to 2·0
(b) decreases
(c) 0·5 to 1
(c) remains the same
(d) 5 to 10 (d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–8)
Text of page 49
57. For a transistor, turn-off time is 61. Which one of the following will serve
(a) sum of storage time and fall time as a donor impurity in silicon ?
(b) maximum value of storage time (a) Boron
(c) maximum value of fall time
(b) Indium
(d) sum of rise time and fall time
(c) Germanium
58. If capacitor value increases in a
(d) Antimony
capacitor filter, then the ripple factor
(a) increases
(b) becomes zero
62. Fermi level is the
(c) decreases
(a) highest occupied energy level at
(d) None of the above
0K
59. When we apply reverse bias to a (b) highest occupied energy level at
junction diode, it 0C
(a) lowers the potential barrier
(c) energy level at which electron
(b) raises the potential barrier emission occurs
(c) greatly decreases the minority
(d) minimum energy level in the
carrier current
conduction band
(d) greatly increases the majority
carrier current
63. The disadvantage of PMMC
60. The angular momentum of the electron
instrument is
in an orbit is always an integral
multiple of (a) high power consumption
(a) Boltzmann’s constant (b) high cost relative to moving iron
instruments
(b) Planck’s constant
(c) low torque/weight ratio
(c) Rayleigh’s constant
(d) absence of effective and efficient
(d) Brillouin’s constant
eddy current damping
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (C–9)
Text of page 50
64. The materials to be used in the 67. Which of the following statements is
manufacture of a standard resistance incorrect ?
should be of
(a) Resistance is a passive element
(a) high resistivity and low
temperature coefficient (b) Inductor is a passive element
(b) low resistivity
(c) Current source is a passive
(c) high temperature coefficient element
(d) low resistivity and high
(d) Voltage source is an active
temperature coefficient
element
65. Transformer will operate at maximum
68. Ohm’s law is applicable to
efficiency when
(a) hysteresis loss = eddy current (a) semiconductors
loss
(b) vacuum tubes
(b) eddy current loss = copper loss
(c) electrolytes
(c) copper loss = iron loss
(d) hysteresis loss = copper loss (d) None of the above
66. While determining RTH of a circuit 69. A network has 4 nodes and
3 independent loops. What is the
(a) voltage and current sources
number of branches in the network ?
should be left as they are
(b) all sources should be replaced by
(a) 5
their source resistances
(c) all independent current and (b) 6
voltage sources are
short-circuited (c) 7
(d) None of the above
(d) 8
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 10 )
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70. When the power transferred to the 73. Which of the following does not have
the same units as the others ? (The
load is maximum, the efficiency of
symbols have their usual meanings)
power transfer is
L
(a) 25% (a)
R
(b) 75%
(b) RC
(c) 50%
(c) LC
(d) 100%
1
(d)
LC
71. Under the condition of maximum
power transfer from an AC source to a
variable load
1
74. The quantity in SI units has
(a) the load impedance must also be
ε 0μ 0
inductive, if the generator
the
impedance is inductive
(a) value of 330 m/s
(b) the sum of the source and the
load impedance is zero (b) value 1·73 104
(c) the sum of the source reactance (c) dimensions LT–1
and load reactance is zero
(d) None of the above
(d) the load impedance has the same
phase angle as the generator
impedance 75. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is
allowed to run continuously for
72. The measured value of a capacitor is 24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of
205·5 µF; whereas its true value is energy does it consume ?
202·4 µF. The relative error is
(a) 21·6 kWh
(a) 1·87%
(b) 201·6 kWh
(b) 1·94%
(c) 2·01 kWh
(c) 1·53%
(d) 1·73% (d) 8·4 kWh
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 11 )
Text of page 52
76. N-channel FETs are superior to 80. A 60 W electric light bulb is connected
P-channel FETs because they have to a 240 V supply. Determine the
(a) lower switching time current flowing in the bulb and the
(b) lower pinch-off voltage resistance of the bulb.
(c) higher input impedance (a) 0·25 A, 960
(d) mobility of electrons in N-channel (b) 0·50 A, 960
is greater than mobility of holes (c) 0·25 A, 1000
in P-channel (d) 0·50 A, 1000
77. Transient current in an R-L-C circuit 81. Find the current I.
is oscillatory when I
(a) R=0
L
(b) R2
C
L
(c) R2 (a) 3·6 A
C
(b) 0·9 A
L (c) 2A
(d) R2
C (d) 1·8 A
78. What is the series resistance 82. For the bridge network shown in the
required to extend 0 – 100 V range of a figure, determine the current in 3
20,000 /V meter to 0 – 1000 V ? resistor.
(a) 10 M
I
(b) 16 M
(c) 18 M
(d) 20 M
79. Light travels along the optical fibers
by which mechanism ?
(a) Refraction
(a) 3A
(b) Reflection
(b) 5A
(c) Scattering (c) 1A
(d) Total internal reflection (d) 4A
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 12 )
Text of page 53
83. Find the value of the load resistor RL 86. Determine amplitude of current at
shown in the figure that gives upper half-power frequency.
maximum power dissipation and Given, R = 2 , L = 1 mH, and
determine the value of this power. C = 0·4 μH
(a) 7·071 A
(a) 15 , 2·4 W (b) 7·710 A
(b) 48 , 7·5 W (c) 7·170 A
(c) 2·4 , 15 W (d) 7·701 A
(d) 1·2 , 30 W 87. A 25-kW 125-V separately-excited DC
machine. The armature resistance is
84. Find I in the circuit of the given figure. 0·02 , with the field-current
maintained constant at the value that
would produce a terminal voltage of
125 V at a speed of 3000 r/min. The
machine is observed to be operating as
a motor with a terminal voltage of
123 V and with a terminal power of
21·9 kW. Calculate the speed of the
motor.
(a) 0·50 A
(a) 2566 rpm
(b) 0·75 A (b) 2666 rpm
(c) 0·25 A (c) 2766 rpm
(d) 1·25 A (d) 2866 rpm
88. A magnetic pole face has a rectangular
85. Calculate the phase angle between section having dimensions 200 mm by
1 = – 10 cos (t + 50) and
100 mm. If the total flux emerging
2 = 12 sin (t – 10). from the pole is 150 µWb, calculate the
(a) 30 flux density.
(a) 4·5 mT
(b) 40
(b) 5·5 mT
(c) 50 (c) 6·5 mT
(d) 60 (d) 7·5 mT
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 13 )
Text of page 54
89. Calculate the emf induced in a coil of 93. Which of the following is not an
inductance 12 H by a current changing intensive property of a thermodynamic
at the rate of 4 A/s. system ?
(a) – 48V (a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(b) – 49V
(c) Volume
(c) – 50V (d) Density
(d) – 51V
94. The dryness fraction (quality) of steam
90. A 1-mA movement with internal which has 1·5 kg of water in
resistance of 100 is to be converted suspension with 50 kg of steam will be
into a 0 – 100 mA ammeter. Calculate (a) 0·0791
the value of shunt resistance required. (b) 0·791
(a) 1·01 (c) 0·0971
(d) 0·971
(b) 1·02
(c) 1·03
95. Cochran boiler is
(d) 1·04 (a) horizontal drum axis
(b) single tube
91. A semiconductor gauge having (c) high pressure
resistance of 1000 and a gauge factor (d) natural circulation
of – 133 is subjected to compressive
strain of 500 micron. Calculate new
96. Materials which have the same
value of resistance of the gauge.
mechanical properties in all directions
(a) 1066·5 at an arbitrary point are called
(b) 1076·5 (a) Homogeneous
(c) 1086·5 (b) Heterogeneous
(d) 1096·5 (c) Anisotropic
(d) Isotropic
92. A transducer has an output impedance
of 1 and a load resistance of 1 K, it 97. The ratio of lateral strain to linear
behaves as strain is known as
(a) Constant current source (a) Poisson’s ratio
(b) Constant voltage source (b) Young’s modulus
(c) Bulk modulus
(c) Constant power source
(d) Modulus of rigidity
(d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 14 )
Text of page 55
98. For a simply supported beam of span L SECTION B
carrying a point load W at its
mid-span, the maximum bending 101. An equilateral triangular plate is to be
moment is cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which of
WL2
(a) the following can be the possible value
2
of n ?
WL2 (a) 196
(b)
4
(b) 216
WL
(c)
2 (c) 256
WL (d) 296
(d)
4
102. Choose the option that most closely
resembles the water-image of the given
99. A solid steel shaft is to transmit a
options :
torque of 100000 N-m. If the shearing
stress is not to exceed 45 N/m2, the
minimum diameter of the shaft will be
(a) 22·45 mm
(a) 4
(b) 224·5 mm
(b) 3
(c) 42·25 mm
(d) 422·5 mm (c) 2
(d) 1
100. The maximum torque transmitted by a
circular solid shaft is given by 103. A boy runs 20 m towards East and
turns to the right, runs 10 m and turns
π
(a) τD3 to the right, runs 9 m and again turns
16
to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left,
π 3 runs 12 m and finally turns to left and
(b) τD
4 runs 6 m. The boy is now facing
π ________ direction.
(c) τD 2
16 (a) South
π 2 (b) North
(d) τD
4 (c) West
(d) East
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 15 )
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104. The percentage increase in the area of 108. Match the following :
a rectangle, if each of its sides is Solar Power State
increased by 20% is Project
(a) 55% A. Pavagada 1. Madhya Pradesh
(b) 33% B. Bhadla 2. Karnataka
(c) 22% C. Rewa 3. Andhra Pradesh
(d) 44% D. N P Kunta 4. Rajasthan
105. If RAMON is written as 12345 and A B C D
DINESH is written as 675849, then
HAMAM will be written as (a) 3 4 2 1
(a) 92233 (b) 1 3 4 2
(b) 92323 (c) 2 4 1 3
(c) 93322 (d) 1 3 2 4
(d) 93232
106. A student has to get 40% marks to 109. Which items are not covered under
pass in an examination. Suppose he Public Distribution System in India ?
gets 30 marks and fails by 30 marks,
then what are the maximum marks in (a) Rice
the examination ? (b) Wheat
(a) 100
(c) Kerosene
(b) 120
(d) Bajra
(c) 150
(d) 300
110. Which of the following language
was added to the Eighth Schedule
107. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a
by the Constitution (Twenty-first
tank in 7 days, then how many extra
amendment) Act ?
pumps will be required to fill the tank
in 5 days ? (a) Manipuri
(a) 6 (b) Konkani
(b) 14 (c) Assamese
(c) 7
(d) Sindhi
(d) 21
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 16 )
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111. The Central Institute of Post-Harvest 114. The Nobel Prize for Literature in 2021
Engineering and Technology is located was awarded to
at
(a) Peter Handke
(a) Abohar (Punjab)
(b) Bob Dylan
(b) Ludhiana (Punjab)
(c) Abdulrazak Gurnah
(c) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(d) Svetlana Alexievich
(d) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
115. The first automated, driverless train
112. 1. Geostationary satellites are used
was launched in 2021 in
to reflect TV signals and telecast
TV programmes from one part of (a) Germany
the world to another.
(b) China
2. Polar satellites are used for
weather forecast. (c) Russia
Which of the statement(s) given above (d) Netherlands
is/are correct ?
116. Operation Samudra Setu II by the
(c) Both 1 and 2
Indian Navy is about
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) shipment of vaccines
(c) Only 1
(b) bringing Indians back during
(d) Only 2 Covid
(c) protection to ONGC for
113. Acid rains are produced by exploration in South China Sea
(a) Excess NO2 and SO2 from (d) shipment of oxygen containers
burning fossil fuels
(b) Excess production of NH3 by 117. Which one of the following teams won
industry and coal gas
the Durand Cup, 2021 ?
(c) Excess release of carbon
(a) FC Mohun Bagan
monoxide by incomplete
combustion (b) FC Goa
(d) Excess formation of CO2 by (c) FC East Bengal
combustion and animal
(d) FC Jalandhar
respiration
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 17 )
Text of page 58
118. Which number replaces the question
mark in the given figure ? 120. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in
every 24 hours. The clock was set right
to show the correct time at 8 : 00 am
on Monday. When the clock shows the
time 6 : 00 pm on Wednesday, what
was the correct time ?
(a) 4 (a) 5 : 36 pm
(b) 5 : 30 pm
(b) 5
(c) 5 : 24 pm
(c) 7
(d) 5 : 18 pm
(d) 9
119. A train completed half a trip at
30 miles per hour and the other half at
60 miles per hour. If the whole trip
was of 20 miles, then how much time
did the train take to complete the
trip ?
(a) 90 minutes
(b) 60 minutes
(c) 45 minutes
(d) 30 minutes
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 18 )
Text of page 59
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 19 )
Text of page 60
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( C – 20 )
Text of page 61
Booklet Sr. No.
*0D*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–1)
Text of page 62
SECTION A 5. A rolling mill is used to reduce the
thickness of a plate from 100 mm to
1. The process by which solder molecules 50 mm. The roll diameter is 800 mm
combine with the molecules of the and the coefficient of friction is 0·1. It
metal being soldered is called is required that the reduction in
(a) soldering thickness in each pass is same.
(b) desoldering Assuming no front and back tensions,
the minimum number of passes
(c) tinning
required in the rolling are
(d) wetting
(a) 11
2. In Direct Current Straight Polarity
(DCSP) arc welding, base metal is (b) 12
connected to the (c) 13
(a) negative terminal
(d) 14
(b) negative and positive terminals
(c) negative or positive terminal
(d) positive terminal 6. The defect which is not associated
with the welding process is
3. In a turning process using orthogonal
(a) hydrogen embrittlement
tool geometry, a chip length of 100 mm
is obtained for an uncut chip length of (b) angular distortion
250 mm. The chip thickness ratio is
(c) earring
(a) 0·2
(d) hot tear
(b) 0·1
(c) 0·25
(d) 0·4 7. Tensile strength of an alloy steel can
be improved by adding
4. A good cutting fluid should have
(a) Nickel
(a) low thermal conductivity
(b) Vanadium
(b) high specific heat
(c) high viscosity (c) Manganese
(d) high density (d) Titanium
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–2)
Text of page 63
8. The α form of iron is known as 12. Which one of the following is not a tax
saving investment?
(a) Ferrite
(a) Life insurance premium
(b) Cementite
(b) Public Provident Fund (PPF)
(c) Pearlite
(c) Home loan principal repayment
(d) Austenite
(d) Fixed Deposit (FD)
9. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 13. Which of the following tax is imposed
1936, _______ is not included under the by the Central Government but the
definition of wages. State Government collects it ?
(a) Incentive (a) Income tax
(b) Gratuity (b) Stamp duty
(c) Dearness Allowance
(c) Corporation tax
(d) Basic wage
(d) VAT
10. ________ is not a legal welfare 14. When did the Factories Act come into
provision under the Factories force ?
Act, 1948.
(a) 12th September, 1948
(a) First-aid boxes
(b) 4th April, 1949
(b) Canteen
(c) Crèche (c) 1st April, 1949
(d) Drinking water (d) 23rd September, 1948
15. According to the Minimum Wages Act,
11. The minimum number of persons to be
1948, a “Child” means a person who
employed in an establishment for
has not completed his
PF Act to be applicable is
(a) 20 (a) 10th year of age
(b) 30 (b) 12th year of age
(c) 40 (c) 14th year of age
(d) 50
(d) 16th year of age
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–3)
Text of page 64
16. Core loss in a DC machine occurs in 20. A high resistance cannot be measured
(a) armature only by simple ammeter-voltmeter principle
because
(b) pole shoe only
(a) voltmeter rating will be too high
(c) yoke only
(b) ammeter rating will be too low
(d) All of the above
(c) leakage current cannot be
neglected
17. An electromagnetic field is radiated (d) power loss will be high
from
(a) a stationary point charge 21. Which one of the following transducers
(b) a capacitor with a dc voltage is an active transducer?
(c) a conductor carrying a dc current (a) Piezoelectric pressure transducer
(d) an oscillating dipole
(b) Metallic strain gauge
(c) Semi-conductor strain gauge
18. The magnetic field required to reduce
the residual magnetization to zero is (d) Platinum resistance thermometer
called
22. The strain gauge should have low
(a) retentivity
(b) coercivity (a) gauge factor
(c) hysteresis (b) resistance temperature coefficient
(d) saturation magnetization (c) resistance
(d) All of the above
19. Piezoelectric effect is generally
23. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is
observed in
normally of the order of
(a) insulators
(a) 1 to 1·5
(b) insulators and semiconductors
(b) 1·5 to 2·0
(c) conductors and superconductors
(c) 0·5 to 1
(d) conductors and semiconductors
(d) 5 to 10
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–4)
Text of page 65
24. In an LVDT, there are two secondary 27. For a transistor, turn-off time is
coils which are connected for a single (a) sum of storage time and fall time
output. Which one of the following is (b) maximum value of storage time
correct ?
(c) maximum value of fall time
(a) The coils are in series and in (d) sum of rise time and fall time
phase opposition
28. If capacitor value increases in a
(b) The coils are in parallel and in
capacitor filter, then the ripple factor
phase opposition
(a) increases
(c) The coils are in series and in the (b) becomes zero
same phase condition (c) decreases
(d) The coils are in parallel and in (d) None of the above
the same phase condition
29. When we apply reverse bias to a
junction diode, it
25. Type of dc generator used for arc (a) lowers the potential barrier
welding purposes is a
(b) raises the potential barrier
(a) series generator
(c) greatly decreases the minority
(b) shunt generator
carrier current
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) greatly increases the majority
generator
carrier current
(d) differentially compounded
generator
30. The angular momentum of the electron
in an orbit is always an integral
26. When the positive voltage on the gate multiple of
of a p-channel JFET is increased, its
(a) Boltzmann’s constant
drain current
(a) increases (b) Planck’s constant
(b) decreases
(c) Rayleigh’s constant
(c) remains the same
(d) None of the above (d) Brillouin’s constant
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–5)
Text of page 66
31. Which one of the following will serve 34. The materials to be used in the
as a donor impurity in silicon ? manufacture of a standard resistance
should be of
(a) Boron
(a) high resistivity and low
(b) Indium
temperature coefficient
(c) Germanium
(b) low resistivity
(d) Antimony
(c) high temperature coefficient
(d) low resistivity and high
temperature coefficient
32. Fermi level is the
(a) highest occupied energy level at
0K 35. Transformer will operate at maximum
(b) highest occupied energy level at efficiency when
0C (a) hysteresis loss = eddy current
loss
(c) energy level at which electron
emission occurs (b) eddy current loss = copper loss
(d) minimum energy level in the (c) copper loss = iron loss
conduction band (d) hysteresis loss = copper loss
33. The disadvantage of PMMC 36. While determining RTH of a circuit
instrument is (a) voltage and current sources
should be left as they are
(a) high power consumption
(b) all sources should be replaced by
(b) high cost relative to moving iron
their source resistances
instruments
(c) all independent current and
(c) low torque/weight ratio voltage sources are
short-circuited
(d) absence of effective and efficient
(d) None of the above
eddy current damping
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–6)
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37. Which of the following statements is 40. When the power transferred to the
incorrect ? load is maximum, the efficiency of
power transfer is
(a) Resistance is a passive element
(a) 25%
(b) Inductor is a passive element (b) 75%
(c) Current source is a passive (c) 50%
element (d) 100%
(d) Voltage source is an active
41. Under the condition of maximum
element
power transfer from an AC source to a
variable load
(a) the load impedance must also be
38. Ohm’s law is applicable to
inductive, if the generator
(a) semiconductors impedance is inductive
(b) the sum of the source and the
(b) vacuum tubes
load impedance is zero
(c) electrolytes
(c) the sum of the source reactance
(d) None of the above and load reactance is zero
(d) the load impedance has the same
phase angle as the generator
39. A network has 4 nodes and impedance
3 independent loops. What is the
number of branches in the network ? 42. The measured value of a capacitor is
205·5 µF; whereas its true value is
(a) 5 202·4 µF. The relative error is
(a) 1·87%
(b) 6
(b) 1·94%
(c) 7 (c) 1·53%
(d) 1·73%
(d) 8
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–7)
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43. Which of the following does not have 46. N-channel FETs are superior to
the same units as the others ? (The P-channel FETs because they have
symbols have their usual meanings) (a) lower switching time
(b) lower pinch-off voltage
L
(a) (c) higher input impedance
R
(d) mobility of electrons in N-channel
(b) RC is greater than mobility of holes
in P-channel
(c) LC
1 47. Transient current in an R-L-C circuit
(d)
LC is oscillatory when
(a) R=0
1 L
44. The quantity in SI units has (b) R2
C
ε 0μ 0
the L
(c) R2
C
(a) value of 330 m/s
L
(b) value 1·73 104 (d) R2
C
(c) dimensions LT–1
48. What is the series resistance
(d) None of the above required to extend 0 – 100 V range of a
20,000 /V meter to 0 – 1000 V ?
(a) 10 M
(b) 16 M
45. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is
allowed to run continuously for (c) 18 M
24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of (d) 20 M
energy does it consume ?
49. Light travels along the optical fibers
(a) 21·6 kWh by which mechanism ?
(b) 201·6 kWh (a) Refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) 2·01 kWh
(c) Scattering
(d) 8·4 kWh (d) Total internal reflection
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–8)
Text of page 69
50. A 60 W electric light bulb is connected 53. Find the value of the load resistor RL
to a 240 V supply. Determine the shown in the figure that gives
current flowing in the bulb and the maximum power dissipation and
resistance of the bulb. determine the value of this power.
(a) 0·25 A, 960
(b) 0·50 A, 960
(c) 0·25 A, 1000
(d) 0·50 A, 1000
51. Find the current I.
I (a) 15 , 2·4 W
(b) 48 , 7·5 W
(c) 2·4 , 15 W
(d) 1·2 , 30 W
(a) 3·6 A 54. Find I in the circuit of the given figure.
(b) 0·9 A
(c) 2A
(d) 1·8 A
52. For the bridge network shown in the
figure, determine the current in 3
resistor.
(a) 0·50 A
I (b) 0·75 A
(c) 0·25 A
(d) 1·25 A
55. Calculate the phase angle between
1 = – 10 cos (t + 50) and
2 = 12 sin (t – 10).
(a) 3A (a) 30
(b) 5A (b) 40
(c) 1A
(c) 50
(d) 4A
(d) 60
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 (D–9)
Text of page 70
56. Determine amplitude of current at 59. Calculate the emf induced in a coil of
upper half-power frequency. inductance 12 H by a current changing
Given, R = 2 , L = 1 mH, and at the rate of 4 A/s.
C = 0·4 μH
(a) – 48V
(b) – 49V
(c) – 50V
(d) – 51V
60. A 1-mA movement with internal
(a) 7·071 A
resistance of 100 is to be converted
(b) 7·710 A
into a 0 – 100 mA ammeter. Calculate
(c) 7·170 A the value of shunt resistance required.
(d) 7·701 A
(a) 1·01
57. A 25-kW 125-V separately-excited DC (b) 1·02
machine. The armature resistance is
(c) 1·03
0·02 , with the field-current
maintained constant at the value that (d) 1·04
would produce a terminal voltage of
125 V at a speed of 3000 r/min. The 61. A semiconductor gauge having
machine is observed to be operating as resistance of 1000 and a gauge factor
a motor with a terminal voltage of of – 133 is subjected to compressive
123 V and with a terminal power of
strain of 500 micron. Calculate new
21·9 kW. Calculate the speed of the
value of resistance of the gauge.
motor.
(a) 2566 rpm (a) 1066·5
(b) 2666 rpm (b) 1076·5
(c) 2766 rpm (c) 1086·5
(d) 2866 rpm
(d) 1096·5
58. A magnetic pole face has a rectangular
section having dimensions 200 mm by 62. A transducer has an output impedance
100 mm. If the total flux emerging of 1 and a load resistance of 1 K, it
from the pole is 150 µWb, calculate the behaves as
flux density.
(a) Constant current source
(a) 4·5 mT
(b) 5·5 mT (b) Constant voltage source
(c) 6·5 mT (c) Constant power source
(d) 7·5 mT (d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 10 )
Text of page 71
63. Which of the following is not an 68. For a simply supported beam of span L
intensive property of a thermodynamic carrying a point load W at its
system ? mid-span, the maximum bending
(a) Pressure moment is
(b) Temperature
WL2
(c) Volume (a)
2
(d) Density
WL2
(b)
64. The dryness fraction (quality) of steam 4
which has 1·5 kg of water in
suspension with 50 kg of steam will be WL
(c)
2
(a) 0·0791
(b) 0·791 WL
(d)
(c) 0·0971 4
(d) 0·971
69. A solid steel shaft is to transmit a
65. Cochran boiler is torque of 100000 N-m. If the shearing
(a) horizontal drum axis stress is not to exceed 45 N/m2, the
(b) single tube minimum diameter of the shaft will be
(c) high pressure
(a) 22·45 mm
(d) natural circulation
(b) 224·5 mm
66. Materials which have the same (c) 42·25 mm
mechanical properties in all directions
(d) 422·5 mm
at an arbitrary point are called
(a) Homogeneous
70. The maximum torque transmitted by a
(b) Heterogeneous
circular solid shaft is given by
(c) Anisotropic
π
(d) Isotropic (a) τD3
16
67. The ratio of lateral strain to linear π 3
(b) τD
4
strain is known as
(a) Poisson’s ratio π
(c) τD 2
16
(b) Young’s modulus
(c) Bulk modulus π 2
(d) τD
4
(d) Modulus of rigidity
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 11 )
Text of page 72
71. Central deflection of the leaf spring is 75. Which of the following rolling defects
given by is a structural defect ?
σl (a) Folds
(a)
Et (b) Rusting
(c) Scaling
σ l2
(b) (d) Surface cracks
Et
σl
(c) 76. A 160 mm long 15 mm diameter rod is
4Et
reduced to 14 mm diameter in a single
σ l2 pass straight turning. If the spindle
(d)
4Et speed is 450 rpm and feed rate is
225 mm/min., then what will be the
72. Fresh moulding sand prepared in the cutting time ?
foundry has (a) 0·611 minutes
(a) approximately 5 – 10% of silica (b) 0·711 minutes
(b) approximately 35% of silica (c) 0·811 minutes
(d) 0·911 minutes
(c) approximately 55% of silica
(d) approximately 75% of silica 77. In general, the spark gap to be
adjusted during the EDM process is to
73. Which of the following is not a be
classification of gas welding (a) 0·01 mm to 0·1 mm
technique ?
(b) 0·2 mm to 0·5 mm
(a) Leftward welding (c) 0·5 mm to 0·75 mm
(b) Rightward welding (d) 0·75 mm to 1·0 mm
(c) Centre welding
78. In case of body-centered cubic (BCC)
(d) Forehand welding crystal structure, unit cell length a and
atomic radius R are related through
74. The usual values of biting angles
4R
employed in industry for hot rolling of (a) a=
3
sheets and strips are
(a) 15 – 20 (b) a = 4R 3
(b) 2 – 10 2R
(c) a=
2
(c) 24 – 30
(d) Above 30 (d) a = 2R 2
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 12 )
Text of page 73
79. Axial relationship for a cubic crystal 84. CRM process begins
system is given by (a) after purchase
(a) a=bc (b) after sales and before sales
(b) ab=c (c) before purchase
(c) abc (d) after purchase and before
(d) a=b=c purchase
80. Which of the following is not an 85. Root Cause Analysis relates to
example of network polymer ? (a) Quality Audits
(a) Epoxies (b) Quality Control Measurements
(b) Polyurethanes (c) Performance Measurements
(c) Phenol-formaldehyde (d) Process Analysis
(d) Rubber
86. Following is a basic definition of ethics
81. Least Preferred Co-worker (LPC) (a) Moral guidelines for behaviour
model of leadership was developed by (b) Rules for acknowledging the
(a) Fred Fielder spirit of the law
(b) Robert House (c) Principles for legal and moral
(c) Whetton development
(d) Martin Evans (d) Rules or principles that define
right and wrong conduct
82. Which of the following is not a form of
autocratic leader ? 87. Sprinkling irrigation and drip
irrigation conserve water by
(a) Benevolent
(a) 30 – 50%
(b) Incompetent
(b) 20 – 40%
(c) Strict
(c) 50 – 70%
(d) Free-rein
(d) 70 – 90%
83. The Equity Theory of Motivation was
developed by 88. Out of the total water resources of the
world, salty water (marine) is about
(a) Stacey Adams
(a) 97·4%
(b) Porter Lawler
(b) 79·4%
(c) Vroom
(c) 47·9%
(d) McClelland (d) 49·7%
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 13 )
Text of page 74
89. From among the following, identify the 93. Stiffness of the spring can be increased
thermodynamic process where there is by
no heat exchange with the (a) increasing the number of turns
surroundings
(b) increasing the free length
(a) Isobaric
(c) decreasing the number of turns
(b) Adiabatic
(c) Isotropic (d) decreasing the spring wire
diameter
(d) Isothermal
94. Two concentric springs with stiffness
90. Third law of thermodynamics was
equal to 100 N/mm and 80 N/mm
formulated by
respectively, when subjected to a load
(a) Walther Nernst
of 900 N will deflect by
(b) Kelvin Plank
(a) 9 mm
(c) Rudolf Clausius
(b) 11·25 mm
(d) William Thompson
(c) 5 mm
91. The water tubes in a Babcock and (d) 31·5 mm
Wilcox boiler are
(a) horizontal 95. A helical spring has spring constant K.
(b) vertical If the wire diameter, spring diameter
and the number of coils is all doubled
(c) inclined
then the spring constant of the new
(d) horizontal and inclined
spring becomes
92. The close-coiled helical springs ‘S1’ and (a) K/2
‘S2’ are of same material, same coil (b) K
diameter, same wire diameter and (c) 8K
subjected to same load. If the number
(d) 16 K
of turns of spring ‘S1’ is half that of
spring ‘S2’, the ratio of deflection of
spring ‘S1’ to spring ‘S2’ is 96. Which of the following has higher
thermal conductivity ?
1
(a)
2 (a) Water
(b) 1 (b) Steam
(c) 2 (c) Solid ice
(d) 4 (d) Melting ice
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 14 )
Text of page 75
97. A solid circular shaft of diameter D SECTION B
carries an axial load W. If the same
load is applied axially on a hollow 101. The percentage increase in the area of
circular shaft of inner diameter D/2, a rectangle, if each of its sides is
the ratio of stress in a solid shaft to a increased by 20% is
hollow one is
(a) 55%
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:4 (b) 33%
(c) 4:3 (c) 22%
(d) 3:4 (d) 44%
98. In a simply supported beam of span 102. If RAMON is written as 12345 and
3 m, a point load of 60 kN acts at a DINESH is written as 675849, then
distance of 1 m from left support, the HAMAM will be written as
shear force at 1 m from right support
(a) 92233
is
(a) 20 kN (b) 92323
(b) 40 kN (c) 93322
(c) 60 kN (d) 93232
(d) 80 kN 103. A student has to get 40% marks to
pass in an examination. Suppose he
99. In which welding process is gets 30 marks and fails by 30 marks,
consumable electrode used ? then what are the maximum marks in
(a) Carbon arc welding the examination ?
(b) Submerged arc welding (a) 100
(c) MIG arc welding
(b) 120
(d) TIG arc welding
(c) 150
100. In resistance spot welding, if the (d) 300
current required is 10,000 A for a weld
104. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a
time of 0·2 sec and the contact
tank in 7 days, then how many extra
resistance at the interface between the
pumps will be required to fill the tank
two sheets is 0·0001 , what is the
in 5 days ?
heat generated ?
(a) 6
(a) 2000 J
(b) 14
(b) 3000 J
(c) 7
(c) 4000 J
(d) 21
(d) 5000 J
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 15 )
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105. Match the following : 108. The Central Institute of Post-Harvest
Solar Power State Engineering and Technology is located
Project at
A. Pavagada 1. Madhya Pradesh
(a) Abohar (Punjab)
B. Bhadla 2. Karnataka
(b) Ludhiana (Punjab)
C. Rewa 3. Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bangalore (Karnataka)
D. N P Kunta 4. Rajasthan
(d) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
A B C D 109. 1. Geostationary satellites are used
(a) 3 4 2 1 to reflect TV signals and telecast
TV programmes from one part of
(b) 1 3 4 2 the world to another.
(c) 2 4 1 3
2. Polar satellites are used for
(d) 1 3 2 4 weather forecast.
Which of the statement(s) given above
106. Which items are not covered under is/are correct ?
Public Distribution System in India ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Rice
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Wheat
(c) Only 1
(c) Kerosene
(d) Only 2
(d) Bajra
110. Acid rains are produced by
107. Which of the following language
(a) Excess NO2 and SO2 from
was added to the Eighth Schedule
burning fossil fuels
by the Constitution (Twenty-first
amendment) Act ? (b) Excess production of NH3 by
industry and coal gas
(a) Manipuri
(c) Excess release of carbon
(b) Konkani
monoxide by incomplete
(c) Assamese combustion
(d) Sindhi (d) Excess formation of CO2 by
combustion and animal
respiration
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 16 )
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111. The Nobel Prize for Literature in 2021 115. Which number replaces the question
was awarded to mark in the given figure ?
(a) Peter Handke
(b) Bob Dylan
(c) Abdulrazak Gurnah
(d) Svetlana Alexievich
(a) 4
112. The first automated, driverless train (b) 5
was launched in 2021 in (c) 7
(a) Germany (d) 9
(b) China
116. A train completed half a trip at
(c) Russia
30 miles per hour and the other half at
(d) Netherlands 60 miles per hour. If the whole trip
was of 20 miles, then how much time
did the train take to complete the
113. Operation Samudra Setu II by the
trip ?
Indian Navy is about
(a) 90 minutes
(a) shipment of vaccines
(b) 60 minutes
(b) bringing Indians back during
Covid (c) 45 minutes
(c) protection to ONGC for (d) 30 minutes
exploration in South China Sea
(d) shipment of oxygen containers 117. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in
every 24 hours. The clock was set right
to show the correct time at 8 : 00 am
114. Which one of the following teams won on Monday. When the clock shows the
the Durand Cup, 2021 ? time 6 : 00 pm on Wednesday, what
was the correct time ?
(a) FC Mohun Bagan
(a) 5 : 36 pm
(b) FC Goa
(b) 5 : 30 pm
(c) FC East Bengal (c) 5 : 24 pm
(d) FC Jalandhar (d) 5 : 18 pm
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 17 )
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118. An equilateral triangular plate is to be
cut into n number of identical small 120. A boy runs 20 m towards East and
equilateral triangular plates. Which of turns to the right, runs 10 m and turns
the following can be the possible value to the right, runs 9 m and again turns
of n ? to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left,
runs 12 m and finally turns to left and
(a) 196
runs 6 m. The boy is now facing
(b) 216 ________ direction.
(c) 256 (a) South
(d) 296 (b) North
(c) West
119. Choose the option that most closely
resembles the water-image of the given (d) East
options :
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 18 )
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 19 )
Text of page 80
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical/Electrical) 2021 ( D – 20 )
Text of page 1
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO 04 POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL/ELECTRICAL)
IN THE DEPARTMENT OF WATER SUPPLY AND SANITATION, PUNJAB.
EXAM DATE: 18/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [A]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 D 61 B 91 C
2 D 32 C 62 A 92 A
3 B 33 C 63 A 93 A
4 A 34 D 64 D 94 B
5 C 35 A 65 D 95 D
6 A 36 D 66 A 96 A
7 B 37 D 67 D 97 D
8 B 38 C 68 A 98 B
9 A 39 B 69 B 99 C
10 D 40 A 70 D 100 C
11 B 41 A 71 D 101 C
12 A 42 D 72 A 102 D
13 C 43 D 73 A 103 D
14 B 44 A 74 B 104 B
15 B 45 A 75 A 105 *
16 D 46 A 76 C 106 A
17 A 47 B 77 A 107 C
18 B 48 C 78 C 108 A
19 A 49 D 79 C 109 D
20 C 50 D 80 B 110 B
21 B 51 D 81 C 111 C
22 C 52 A 82 D 112 D
23 D 53 D 83 A 113 A
24 B 54 B 84 C 114 C
25 C 55 A 85 A 115 B
26 C 56 D 86 D 116 B
27 C 57 D 87 D 117 D
28 D 58 C 88 D 118 B
29 C 59 A 89 B 119 C
30 B 60 A 90 C 120 A
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 2
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO 04 POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL/ELECTRICAL)
IN THE DEPARTMENT OF WATER SUPPLY AND SANITATION, PUNJAB.
EXAM DATE: 18/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [B]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 B 61 C 91 B
2 C 32 A 62 A 92 C
3 C 33 A 63 A 93 D
4 D 34 D 64 B 94 B
5 A 35 D 65 D 95 C
6 D 36 A 66 A 96 C
7 D 37 D 67 D 97 C
8 C 38 A 68 B 98 D
9 B 39 B 69 C 99 C
10 A 40 D 70 C 100 B
11 A 41 D 71 A 101 C
12 D 42 A 72 D 102 A
13 D 43 A 73 B 103 D
14 A 44 B 74 A 104 B
15 A 45 A 75 C 105 C
16 A 46 C 76 A 106 D
17 B 47 A 77 B 107 A
18 C 48 C 78 B 108 C
19 D 49 C 79 A 109 B
20 D 50 B 80 D 110 B
21 D 51 C 81 B 111 D
22 A 52 D 82 A 112 B
23 D 53 A 83 C 113 C
24 B 54 C 84 B 114 A
25 A 55 A 85 B 115 C
26 D 56 D 86 D 116 D
27 D 57 D 87 A 117 D
28 C 58 D 88 B 118 B
29 A 59 B 89 A 119 *
30 A 60 C 90 C 120 A
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 3
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO 04 POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL/ELECTRICAL)
IN THE DEPARTMENT OF WATER SUPPLY AND SANITATION, PUNJAB.
EXAM DATE: 18/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [C]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 D 61 D 91 A
2 D 32 D 62 A 92 B
3 C 33 D 63 B 93 C
4 A 34 B 64 A 94 D
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 D
6 B 36 C 66 B 96 D
7 A 37 A 67 C 97 A
8 A 38 A 68 D 98 D
9 D 39 B 69 B 99 B
10 D 40 D 70 C 100 A
11 A 41 A 71 C 101 C
12 D 42 D 72 C 102 B
13 A 43 B 73 D 103 B
14 B 44 C 74 C 104 D
15 D 45 C 75 B 105 B
16 D 46 A 76 D 106 C
17 A 47 D 77 C 107 A
18 A 48 B 78 C 108 C
19 B 49 A 79 D 109 D
20 A 50 C 80 A 110 D
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 B
22 A 52 B 82 D 112 *
23 C 53 B 83 C 113 A
24 C 54 A 84 B 114 C
25 B 55 D 85 A 115 A
26 C 56 B 86 A 116 D
27 D 57 A 87 D 117 B
28 A 58 C 88 D 118 C
29 C 59 B 89 A 119 D
30 A 60 B 90 A 120 A
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 4
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO 04 POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL/ELECTRICAL)
IN THE DEPARTMENT OF WATER SUPPLY AND SANITATION, PUNJAB.
EXAM DATE: 18/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [D]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 D 61 A 91 C
2 D 32 A 62 B 92 A
3 D 33 B 63 C 93 C
4 B 34 A 64 D 94 C
5 C 35 C 65 D 95 B
6 C 36 B 66 D 96 C
7 A 37 C 67 A 97 D
8 A 38 D 68 D 98 A
9 B 39 B 69 B 99 C
10 D 40 C 70 A 100 A
11 A 41 C 71 D 101 D
12 D 42 C 72 D 102 B
13 B 43 D 73 C 103 C
14 C 44 C 74 A 104 A
15 C 45 B 75 A 105 C
16 A 46 D 76 B 106 D
17 D 47 C 77 A 107 D
18 B 48 C 78 A 108 B
19 A 49 D 79 D 109 *
20 C 50 A 80 D 110 A
21 A 51 D 81 A 111 C
22 B 52 D 82 D 112 A
23 B 53 C 83 A 113 D
24 A 54 B 84 B 114 B
25 D 55 A 85 D 115 C
26 B 56 A 86 D 116 D
27 A 57 D 87 A 117 A
28 C 58 D 88 A 118 C
29 B 59 A 89 B 119 B
30 B 60 A 90 A 120 B
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]Page 1 of 80
Source: Punjab Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Punjab Public Service Commission.