REET 2025: REET 2024 Level 1 (Paper code PL-1), Shift 1
Text of page 1
Question Booklet No.
PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Series Code :
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There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following five Sections : Section – I,
II, III, IV and V of 30 – 30 questions each. The candidate has to attempt all sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be deducted
for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
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PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Sections Contents
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 12
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the 30 31 60
Online Application Form as language-I from the languages
given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 13 18
English 30 31 60 19 22
Sanskrit 30 31 60 23 26
Urdu 30 31 60 27 32
Sindhi 30 31 60 33 36
Punjabi 30 31 60 37 40
Gujarati 30 31 60 41 44
Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Langauge-II (other than the
(III) 30 61 90
Language-I) in the Online Application Form from the Languages
given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 45 48
English 30 61 90 49 52
Sanskrit 30 61 90 53 56
Urdu 30 61 90 57 60
Sindhi 30 61 90 61 64
Punjabi 30 61 90 65 68
Gujarati 30 61 90 69 72
(IV) Mathematics 30 91 120 73 80
(V) Environmental Studies 30 121 150 81 90
Note : In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in
the Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question Booklet.
PL-1 A *PL1A* (1)
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SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. The correct passive voice of ‘He draws a sketch everyday.’ is
(A) A sketch is drawn everyday.
(B) A sketch was drawn everyday.
(C) A sketch is being drawn everyday.
(D) A sketch was being drawn by him everyday.
32. The phonetic transcription of the word ‘description’ is
(A) /deskripsΛn/ (B) /discr∂p∫en/
(C) /dɪ'skrɪpθn/ (D) /diskrip∫n/
33. _________ is a drawback in the implementation of the direct method in teaching of
English.
(A) Use of mother tongue (B) Familiar texts
(C) Lack of facilities (D) Charts
Passage (For Q. Nos. 34 to 40) :
The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer. He loved his work and did not want
to change it for any other work in the world. For days together, the man worked continuously
without taking rest. His one desire was to finish the sculpture which would be his last. He worked
till his hands began to tremble and his shoulders started to ache. His arms grew heavy and his
eyes grew tired. And then he couldn’t see anymore.
34. ___________ is a noun.
(A) Picked (B) Desired
(C) Chisel (D) Tremble
35. In the phrase ‘... any other work in the world’, the word ‘other’ is
(A) noun (B) subject (C) object (D) determiner
36. ‘Continuously’ is
(A) adverb (B) noun
(C) adjective (D) conjunction
(19) A
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37. The sentence that is incorrect due to the use of wrong determiner is
(A) He worked till their hands began to tremble.
(B) He loved his work.
(C) His arms grew heavy.
(D) The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer.
38. ____________ is that incorrect sentence.
(A) He loved his work.
(B) It would be his last work.
(C) His arms grown heavy.
(D) He worked till hands began to tremble.
39. Cotton is ___________ than wood. Choose the correct adjective.
(A) heavier (B) lighter (C) heavy (D) light
40. The comparative degree of ‘heavy’ is
(A) more heavy (B) most heavy
(C) heavier (D) heaviest
41. The correct word with this symbol (ð) sound is
(A) brother (B) laughter
(C) great (D) higher
42. ‘Unit of teaching is a word’ is a feature of
(A) direct method
(B) indirect method
(C) grammar cum translation method
(D) communicative approach
43. ‘Reading is a process of sight, sound and scene.’ is quoted by
(A) P.B. Ballard (B) Dr. West
(C) W.S. Gray (D) Jesperson
44. ‘They will not help their needy neighbour.’ The correct question for the sentence is
(A) What did he do ? (B) Why will the neighbour not help ?
(C) Who will they not help ? (D) What did the neighbour do ?
45. In learning English as L2, the following skill is acquired independently
(A) vocabulary (B) listening
(C) none (D) all
A (20)
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46. In CCE, the focus remains on
(A) progress, process and product
(B) course, test, performance
(C) time, process, assessment
(D) formats, product, record
47. ‘When we learn a second language, we tend to filter the universe through the
language already known.’ is a principle of
(A) Using mother tongue (B) Exposure
(C) Habit formation (D) Motivation
48. The communicative Approach develops
(A) the speech and expression ability (B) grammar skills
(C) knowledge (D) vision of learning
49. The use of multimedia aids such as T.V., radio, computer etc. in teaching is also
known as _________ approach.
(A) visual (B) software
(C) audio (D) hardware
50. ‘The doctor has given her a good treatment.’ The passive voice of this sentence is
(A) She was given a good treatment.
(B) She gave the doctor a good treatment.
(C) A good treatment was given to her by the doctor.
(D) A good treatment has been given to her by the doctor.
Passage (For Q. Nos. 51 to 57) :
He began to believe that most of the diseases were caused by bacteria. Many other scientists
also treated bacteria as the enemy of man. They could not be seen but are present everywhere to
cause mischief. Dr. Jenner in England had already discovered vaccination for small-pox. Here
Pasteur was trying to discover a cure for a terrible disease called anthrax. It killed lots of cows
and sheeps in France. He tried to give the cows and sheeps some weak germs of the same disease
to make them safe against disease for the future. It must have seemed a very dangerous idea in
those days. Many scientists were angry about it.
51. ‘...... but are present everywhere......’ According to the passage, the underlined word
means
(A) sold (B) lost (C) found (D) forgot
(21) A
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52. The correct spelling is
(A) Mischievus (B) Mischievous
(C) Mischeivous (D) Mischieous
53. The noun form of the word ‘discover’ is
(A) invention (B) discovery
(C) discovered (D) invented
54. The word opposite in meaning of ‘present’ is
(A) everywhere (B) absent
(C) attendance (D) gift
55. ‘danger-dangerous’ is a pair of
(A) noun-adjective (B) noun-pronoun
(C) noun-adverb (D) adjective-noun
56. ‘To act or behave in a certain way towards somebody’ is
(A) treat (B) inject
(C) cure (D) vaccinate
57. One word for ‘illness of body or mind’ is
(A) disease (B) healthy
(C) bacteria (D) vaccination
58. There are tests in education system
(A) to fail the learners
(B) to pass the learners
(C) to grade and rank the learners
(D) to detain the learners
59. ‘I am sick.’ The correct question tag for this sentence is
(A) Aren’t I ? (B) Are you ?
(C) Am I ? (D) Am you ?
60. One of the features of the portfolio in CCE is
(A) Objective tests
(B) It promotes diversity in the assessment method
(C) Partiality
(D) Record maintenance
A (22)
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SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
Poem (For Q. Nos. 61 – 67) :
Sticks and stones may break my bones
But words can also hurt me.
Stones and sticks break only skin
While words are ghosts that haunt me.
Slant and curved the word sword fall
To pierce and stick inside me.
Bats and bricks may ache through bones
But words can mortify me.
Pain from words has left its scar
On mind and heart that’s tender.
Cuts and bruises have now healed;
It’s words that I remember.
61. The correct example of alliteration is
(A) Bats and Bricks (B) Slant and Curved
(C) Cuts and Bruises (D) Mind and Heart
62. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Slant and curved the word sword fall’.
(A) Personification (B) Assonance
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
63. ‘The words fall like swords,’ the device used in this line is a
(A) Alliteration (B) Simile
(C) Personification (D) Hyperbole
64. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Stones and sticks break only skin’.
(A) Simile (B) Metaphor
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
65. The rhyming words in the poem are
(A) Tender-Remember (B) Fall-Bones
(C) Bones-Skin (D) Scar-Healed
(49) A
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66. ‘While words are ghosts that haunt me’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) Metaphor (B) Simile
(C) Alliteration (D) Assonance
67. ‘Pain from words has left its scar’ is an example of
(A) Simile (B) Personification
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
68. __________ is an example of cluster-sound.
(A) L (B) sk (C) s (D) k
69. Ours is a country of many languages, so ___________ is the suitable approach
for teaching of English.
(A) Project approach (B) Communicative approach
(C) Multilingual approach (D) Situational approach
70. The officer is keenly __________ the murder mystry.
(A) looking into (B) looking after
(C) looking for (D) looking out
71. According to the nature of obstruction, the following are the fricative sounds
(A) p, b, t (B) m, n (C) f, r, s (D) tʃ, dʒ, ʃ
72. ___________ is a merit of objective type test.
(A) Deeper surface knowledge (B) Answers are short and definite
(C) Short term preparation (D) Descriptive answers
73. You ________ pay your debts.
(A) will (B) can (C) ought to (D) may
Passage (For Q. Nos. 74 – 80) :
For better relationship the first and foremost factor is mutual interaction and regular
communication among the members of a family because through communication only we can
understand each other’s aspirations, expectations, desires, strengths and weaknesses in a better
way. It is essential that parents should spend time with their children. They should give them
freedom and opportunities to express themselves. Parents should give them respect and due
attention to boost their self esteem and self confidence. Children don’t like when parents/elders
thrust their view point and decision on them. This attitude curbs their free thinking, creativity,
independent decision making ability, in other words the spontaneous development of personality
A (50)
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gets hampered. Another important factor affecting relationship is that each member-child or
parents should feel the necessity of fulfilling responsibilities towards one another. Otherwise
things don’t work and there cannot be mutual understanding and comfortable atmosphere in the
family.
Choose the appropriate option :
74. Mutual understanding __________ an important step in building healthy relationship.
(A) have (B) has (C) are (D) is
75. The parents __________ the needs of their children.
(A) are fulfilling (B) fulfil
(C) has fulfilled (D) is fulfilled
76. A number of factors __________ for better relationship.
(A) make (B) need (C) contribute (D) makes
77. The suitable title of the passage is
(A) Good family
(B) Healthy family
(C) Necessities of a better relationship
(D) Making peace
78. It is the imposed decision of the parents that __________ responsible to spoil the
child’s free thinking.
(A) can (B) is (C) held (D) would
79. If the parents lack to fulfil their responsibilities, they cannot expect the same from their
children __________.
(A) either (B) neither (C) or (D) nor
80. Mutual interaction and regular communication can make __________ atmosphere in
the family.
(A) needful (B) developing
(C) comfortable (D) sad
81. The correct transcription of ‘soon’ is
(A) /∫un/ (B) /su:n/ (C) /sͻn/ (D) /s^:n/
82. I don’t think I _________ be able to go there.
(A) can (B) shall (C) must (D) should
(51) A
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83. The following is not an objective of remedial teaching.
(A) to segregate the students
(B) to prepare suitable assignments including easy to difficult tasks
(C) to prepare items to test the learning that should take place
(D) to highlight the weaknesses of the students
84. In order to learn a foreign language
(A) One must adopt many approaches judiciously and rationally
(B) One must master many foreign languages
(C) One must select the students
(D) One must be subjective
85. The robbers __________ the defenceless travellers.
(A) set up (B) set upon
(C) set in (D) set out
86. The remedial teaching strategies include
(A) Peer support programme
(B) Reward scheme
(C) Feed back to the students, parents and teachers
(D) All the three
87. ___________ is an example of velar sound.
(A) z (B) ð (C) h (D) ŋ
88. A sonnet is a short poem of _______ lines.
(A) fourteen (B) sixteen
(C) thirteen (D) fifteen
89. While working with communicative approach, the Indian students lack
(A) Confidence
(B) Adequate exposure to the target language
(C) Facilities
(D) Audio visual aids
90. ‘In the nick of the time’ means
(A) when the time was over (B) when they needed time
(C) just at the right moment (D) just after the accident
A (52)
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III –
II –
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(59) A
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PL-1
.83
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.84
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.86
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.87
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.88
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.89
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.90
(D) (C) (B) (A)
A (60)
Text of page 61
PL-1
– iiI
> – II
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(61) A
Text of page 62
PL-1
65.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (62)
Text of page 63
PL-1
74.
(A) 1853 (B) 1947 (C) 1967 (D) 1950
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(63) A
Text of page 64
PL-1
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A (64)
Text of page 65
PL-1
> – iiI
– II
(n§Om~r)
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(65) A
Text of page 66
PL-1
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A (66)
Text of page 67
PL-1
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(67) A
Text of page 68
PL-1
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A (68)
Text of page 69
PL-1
– iII
– II
(JwOamVr)
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(69) A
Text of page 70
PL-1
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A (70)
Text of page 71
PL-1
76.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(71) A
Text of page 72
PL-1
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
89.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (72)
Text of page 75
PL-1
99. The numerical form of five crore fifty two lakh twenty one thousand three hundred
five is
(A) 52521305 (B) 55221305
(C) 53052125 (D) 52152305
nm±M H$amo‹S> ~mdZ bmI BŠH$sg hOma VrZ gm¡ nm±M H$m A§H$s` ê$n h¡
(A) 52521305 (B) 55221305
(C) 53052125 (D) 52152305
100. In how many years, a sum will triple itself at the rate of 10% simple interest per
annum ?
(A) 20 years (B) 15 years
(C) 10 years (D) 25 years
10% dm{f©H$ gmYmaU ã`mO H$s Xa go H$moB© YZ {H$VZo dfm] _| VrZ JwZm hmo OmEJm ?
(A) 20 df© (B) 15 df©
(C) 10 df© (D) 25 df©
101. If the cost of four dozen pens is ` 120, then how many pens can be purchased for
` 35 ?
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 24 (D) 14
`{X Mma XO©Z noZ H$m _yë` ` 120 h¡, Vmo ` 35 _| {H$VZo noZ IarXo Om gH$Vo h¢ ?
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 24 (D) 14
102. If 12 packets of the pencil are priced at 362 rupees 76 paise, then the price of
a packet of pencil is
(A) 30 rupees 23 paise
(B) 33 rupees 30 paise
(C) 23 rupees 30 paise
(D) 13 rupees 23 paise
`{X 12 n¡Ho$Q> n|{gb H$m _yë` 362 én`o 76 n¡go hmo, Vmo EH$ n¡Ho$Q> n|{gb H$m _yë` h¡
(A) 30 én`o 23 n¡go
(B) 33 én`o 30 n¡go
(C) 23 én`o 30 n¡go
(D) 13 én`o 23 n¡go
(75) A
Text of page 78
PL-1
111. The evaluation process has been displayed triangularly by
(A) I. K. Davis (B) Dr. Bloom
(C) Skinner (D) Ross
_yë`m§H$Z à{H«$`m H$mo {ÌH$moUmË_H$ ê$n go {H$gHo$ Ûmam àX{e©V {H$`m J`m h¡ ?
(A) AmB©. Ho$. S>o{dg (B) S>m°. ãby_
(C) pñH$Za (D) am°g
112. In the given figure, the value of ∠AOD is
A
B
–2
5x 3x
2
x+
D C
O
(A) 60° (B) 90°
(C) 100° (D) 20°
{X`o J`o {MÌ _| ∠AOD H$m _mZ h¡
A
B
–2
5x 3x
2
x+
D C
O
(A) 60° (B) 90°
(C) 100° (D) 20°
13 15 17 19
113. Which fraction among , , and is the largest fraction ?
15 17 19 21
19 13 17 15
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21 15 19 17
13 15 17 19
, , VWm _| go H$m¡Z-gr {^ÝZ g~go ~‹S>r {^ÝZ h¡ ?
15 17 19 21
19 13 17 15
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21 15 19 17
A (78)
Text of page 84
PL-1
130. Wild cock is the main wild animal of which wildlife sanctuary ?
(A) Sariska – Alwar
(B) Mount Abu – Sirohi
(C) Talchhapper – Churu
(D) Kailadevi – Karauli
O§Jbr _wJ} H$m¡Z-go dÝ`Ord A^`maÊ` H$m à_wI O§Jbr Ord h¡ ?
(A) g[añH$m - Abda
(B) _mCÊQ> Am~y - {gamohr
(C) VmbN>mna - Myé
(D) H¡$bmXodr - H$am¡br
131. Which is the largest planet of our solar system ?
(A) Uranus (B) Neptune
(C) Jupiter (D) Saturn
h_mao gm¡a _ÊS>b H$m g~go ~‹S>m J«h H$m¡Z-gm h¡ ?
(A) AéU (B) déU
(C) ~¥hñn{V (D) e{Z
132. Select the festival from the following, which is celebrated on new moon of the
Kartika month.
(A) Holi
(B) Diwali
(C) Dussehra
(D) Raksha Bandhan
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go Cg Ë`m¡hma H$mo Mw{ZE, Omo H$m{V©H$ _mg H$s A_mdñ`m H$mo _Zm`m OmVm h¡ &
(A) hmobr
(B) {Xdmbr
(C) Xeham
(D) ajm~§YZ
A (84)
Text of page 90
PL-1
147. Disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin – D is
(A) Night blindness (B) Beri-Beri
(C) Scurvy (D) Rickets
{dQ>m{_Z – D H$s H$_r go hmoZo dmbm amoJ h¡
(A) aVm¢Yr (B) ~oar-~oar
(C) ñH$du (D) [aHo$Q²>g
148. Which of the following is a component of man made environment ?
(A) Lithosphere (B) Industry
(C) Community (D) Hydrosphere
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm _mZd {Z{_©V n`m©daU H$m KQ>H$ h¡ ?
(A) ñWb_§S>b (B) CÚmoJ
(C) g_wXm` (D) Ob_§S>b
149. Which of the following is a good breed of goat ?
(A) Murrah (B) Gir
(C) Sahiwal (D) Jamunapari
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gr ~H$ar H$s AÀN>r Zñb h¡ ?
(A) _wam© (B) {Ja
(C) gm{hdmb (D) O_wZmnar
150. Which chemist’s philosophy became famous by the name of ‘Nihilism’ ?
(A) Neils Bore
(B) Dmitri Mendeleev
(C) Acharya Prafull Chand Ray
(D) Nagarjuna
{H$g agm`ZemñÌr H$m Xe©Z "eyÝ`dmX' Ho$ Zm_ go à{gÕ hþAm ?
(A) Zrëg ~moa
(B) {X{_Ì _|S>obrd
(C) AmMm`© à\w$ëb M§X ao
(D) ZmJmOw©Z
A (90)
Text of page 95
DO
NO
T
(95) WR
IT
EH
ER
E
A PL-1
Text of page 97
Question Booklet No.
PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Series Code :
B
grarµO H$moS> :
Write this code in OMR Answer Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR AmÝga erQ> _| A§{H$V H$a| &
1. Roll No./ amob Z§. 2. OMR Answer Sheet No./ Amo.E_.Ama. AmÝga erQ> H«$_m§H$
* 3. Candidate’s Name/ Aä`Wu H$m Zm_ * 4. _¢Zo n¥îR> ^mJ na {X`o J`o g^r {ZX}em| H$mo n‹T> {b`m h¡ &
A
B
Candidate’s Signature/ Aä`Wu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form./ O¡gm AmdoXZ nÌ _| A§{H$V {H$`m h¡ &
Invigilators’ Signature/ (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet /
H«$_m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© ñd`§ Aä`Wu Ûmam H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m _| Hw$b n¥îR> : 96
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following five Sections : Section – I,
II, III, IV and V of 30 – 30 questions each. The candidate has to attempt all sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be deducted
for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
Bg àíZ-nÌ _| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR> ~hþM`ZmË_H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b nm±M IÊS>m| _| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ & àË`oH$ IÊS>-I, II, III,
IV VWm V _| 30 – 30 àíZ h¢ VWm àË`oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {b`o H$moB© A§H$ H$mQ>o Zht Om`|Jo & AZwÎm[aV àíZm| Ho$ gå~ÝY _| nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V_
n¥îR> na {X`o J`o _hËdnyU© {ZX}em] _| H«$_ g§»`m 4 XoI| &
SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025
PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Sections Contents
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 12
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the 30 31 60
Online Application Form as language-I from the languages
given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 13 18
English 30 31 60 19 22
Sanskrit 30 31 60 23 26
Urdu 30 31 60 27 32
Sindhi 30 31 60 33 36
Punjabi 30 31 60 37 40
Gujarati 30 31 60 41 44
Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Langauge-II (other than the
(III) 30 61 90
Language-I) in the Online Application Form from the Languages
given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 45 48
English 30 61 90 49 52
Sanskrit 30 61 90 53 56
Urdu 30 61 90 57 60
Sindhi 30 61 90 61 64
Punjabi 30 61 90 65 68
Gujarati 30 61 90 69 72
(IV) Mathematics 30 91 120 73 80
(V) Environmental Studies 30 121 150 81 90
Note : In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in
the Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question Booklet.
PL-1 B *PL1B* (1)
Text of page 115
PL-1
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. ‘Unit of teaching is a word’ is a feature of
(A) direct method
(B) indirect method
(C) grammar cum translation method
(D) communicative approach
32. The correct passive voice of ‘He draws a sketch everyday.’ is
(A) A sketch is drawn everyday.
(B) A sketch was drawn everyday.
(C) A sketch is being drawn everyday.
(D) A sketch was being drawn by him everyday.
33. In learning English as L2, the following skill is acquired independently
(A) vocabulary (B) listening
(C) none (D) all
34. There are tests in education system
(A) to fail the learners
(B) to pass the learners
(C) to grade and rank the learners
(D) to detain the learners
35. ‘The doctor has given her a good treatment.’ The passive voice of this sentence is
(A) She was given a good treatment.
(B) She gave the doctor a good treatment.
(C) A good treatment was given to her by the doctor.
(D) A good treatment has been given to her by the doctor.
36. ‘When we learn a second language, we tend to filter the universe through the language
already known.’ is a principle of
(A) Using mother tongue (B) Exposure
(C) Habit formation (D) Motivation
(19) B
Text of page 116
PL-1
37. The use of multimedia aids such as T.V., radio, computer etc. in teaching is also
known as _________ approach.
(A) visual (B) software
(C) audio (D) hardware
38. ‘I am sick.’ The correct question tag for this sentence is
(A) Aren’t I ? (B) Are you ? (C) Am I ? (D) Am you ?
39. The communicative Approach develops
(A) the speech and expression ability
(B) grammar skills
(C) knowledge
(D) vision of learning
40. One of the features of the portfolio in CCE is
(A) Objective tests
(B) It promotes diversity in the assessment method
(C) Partiality
(D) Record maintenance
Passage (For Q. Nos. 41 to 47) :
He began to believe that most of the diseases were caused by bacteria. Many other scientists
also treated bacteria as the enemy of man. They could not be seen but are present everywhere to
cause mischief. Dr. Jenner in England had already discovered vaccination for small-pox. Here
Pasteur was trying to discover a cure for a terrible disease called anthrax. It killed lots of cows
and sheeps in France. He tried to give the cows and sheeps some weak germs of the same disease
to make them safe against disease for the future. It must have seemed a very dangerous idea in
those days. Many scientists were angry about it.
41. ‘...... but are present everywhere......’ According to the passage, the underlined word
means
(A) sold (B) lost
(C) found (D) forgot
42. ‘To act or behave in a certain way towards somebody’ is
(A) treat (B) inject (C) cure (D) vaccinate
B (20)
Text of page 117
PL-1
43. The word opposite in meaning of ‘present’ is
(A) everywhere (B) absent (C) attendance (D) gift
44. The correct spelling is
(A) Mischievus (B) Mischievous
(C) Mischeivous (D) Mischieous
45. One word for ‘illness of body or mind’ is
(A) disease (B) healthy (C) bacteria (D) vaccination
46. ‘danger-dangerous’ is a pair of
(A) noun-adjective (B) noun-pronoun
(C) noun-adverb (D) adjective-noun
47. The noun form of the word ‘discover’ is
(A) invention (B) discovery
(C) discovered (D) invented
48. The phonetic transcription of the word ‘description’ is
(A) /deskripsΛn/ (B) /discr∂p∫en/
(C) /dɪ'skrɪpθn/ (D) /diskrip∫n/
49. _________ is a drawback in the implementation of the direct method in teaching of
English.
(A) Use of mother tongue (B) Familiar texts
(C) Lack of facilities (D) Charts
50. ‘Reading is a process of sight, sound and scene.’ is quoted by
(A) P.B. Ballard (B) Dr. West (C) W.S. Gray (D) Jesperson
51. ‘They will not help their needy neighbour.’ The correct question for the sentence is
(A) What did he do ? (B) Why will the neighbour not help ?
(C) Who will they not help ? (D) What did the neighbour do ?
52. In CCE, the focus remains on
(A) progress, process and product (B) course, test, performance
(C) time, process, assessment (D) formats, product, record
53. The correct word with this symbol (ð) sound is
(A) brother (B) laughter
(C) great (D) higher
(21) B
Text of page 118
PL-1
Passage (For Q. Nos. 54 to 60) :
The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer. He loved his work and did not want
to change it for any other work in the world. For days together, the man worked continuously
without taking rest. His one desire was to finish the sculpture which would be his last. He worked
till his hands began to tremble and his shoulders started to ache. His arms grew heavy and his
eyes grew tired. And then he couldn’t see anymore.
54. ‘Continuously’ is
(A) adverb (B) noun
(C) adjective (D) conjunction
55. The sentence that is incorrect due to the use of wrong determiner is
(A) He worked till their hands began to tremble.
(B) He loved his work.
(C) His arms grew heavy.
(D) The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer.
56. The comparative degree of ‘heavy’ is
(A) more heavy
(B) most heavy
(C) heavier
(D) heaviest
57. Cotton is ___________ than wood. Choose the correct adjective.
(A) heavier (B) lighter
(C) heavy (D) light
58. ___________ is a noun.
(A) Picked (B) Desired
(C) Chisel (D) Tremble
59. In the phrase ‘... any other work in the world’, the word ‘other’ is
(A) noun (B) subject
(C) object (D) determiner
60. ____________ is that incorrect sentence.
(A) He loved his work.
(B) It would be his last work.
(C) His arms grown heavy.
(D) He worked till hands began to tremble.
B (22)
Text of page 123
PL-1
II –
I–
(CXÿ© )
.31
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.32
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.33
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.34
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.35
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(27) B
Text of page 124
PL-1
.36
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.37
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.38
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.39
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.40
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
B (28)
Text of page 125
PL-1
.41
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.42
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.43
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.44
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(29) B
Text of page 126
PL-1
.45
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.46
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.47
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.48
(D) (C) (B) (A)
B (30)
Text of page 127
PL-1
.49
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.50
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.51
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.52
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.53
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.54
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.55
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(31) B
Text of page 128
PL-1
.56
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.57
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.58
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.59
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.60
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
B (32)
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> – ii
–i
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(33) B
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35.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (34)
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45.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
50.
(A) 1644 (B) 1568 (C) 1544 (D) 1602
(35) B
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51.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
58.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (36)
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– ii
–i
(n§Om~r)
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(37) B
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40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (38)
Text of page 135
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47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(39) B
Text of page 136
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56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (40)
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– iI
–i
(JwOamVr)
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
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(C) (D)
34.
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(C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
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(C) (D)
37.
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38.
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39.
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40.
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(41) B
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41.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
42.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
45.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (42)
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46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
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(C) (D)
51.
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(C) (D)
52.
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(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A) (–) (B) (:) (C) (;) (D) (" ")
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(43) B
Text of page 140
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56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
B (44)
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SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. According to the nature of obstruction, the following are the fricative sounds
(A) p, b, t (B) m, n (C) f, r, s (D) tʃ, dʒ, ʃ
62. The correct transcription of ‘soon’ is
(A) /∫un/ (B) /su:n/ (C) /sͻn/ (D) /s^:n/
63. A sonnet is a short poem of _______ lines.
(A) fourteen (B) sixteen (C) thirteen (D) fifteen
64. The following is not an objective of remedial teaching.
(A) to segregate the students
(B) to prepare suitable assignments including easy to difficult tasks
(C) to prepare items to test the learning that should take place
(D) to highlight the weaknesses of the students
65. The robbers __________ the defenceless travellers.
(A) set up (B) set upon
(C) set in (D) set out
66. In order to learn a foreign language
(A) One must adopt many approaches judiciously and rationally
(B) One must master many foreign languages
(C) One must select the students
(D) One must be subjective
67. ___________ is an example of velar sound.
(A) z (B) ð (C) h (D) ŋ
68. While working with communicative approach, the Indian students lack
(A) Confidence
(B) Adequate exposure to the target language
(C) Facilities
(D) Audio visual aids
(49) B
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69. I don’t think I _________ be able to go there.
(A) can (B) shall (C) must (D) should
70. ___________ is a merit of objective type test.
(A) Deeper surface knowledge (B) Answers are short and definite
(C) Short term preparation (D) Descriptive answers
Poem (For Q. Nos. 71 – 77) :
Sticks and stones may break my bones
But words can also hurt me.
Stones and sticks break only skin
While words are ghosts that haunt me.
Slant and curved the word sword fall
To pierce and stick inside me.
Bats and bricks may ache through bones
But words can mortify me.
Pain from words has left its scar
On mind and heart that’s tender.
Cuts and bruises have now healed;
It’s words that I remember.
71. The correct example of alliteration is
(A) Bats and Bricks (B) Slant and Curved
(C) Cuts and Bruises (D) Mind and Heart
72. The rhyming words in the poem are
(A) Tender-Remember
(B) Fall-Bones
(C) Bones-Skin
(D) Scar-Healed
73. ‘The words fall like swords,’ the device used in this line is a
(A) Alliteration (B) Simile
(C) Personification (D) Hyperbole
74. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Stones and sticks break only skin’.
(A) Simile (B) Metaphor
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
B (50)
Text of page 147
PL-1
75. ‘While words are ghosts that haunt me’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) Metaphor (B) Simile
(C) Alliteration (D) Assonance
76. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Slant and curved the word sword fall’.
(A) Personification (B) Assonance
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
77. ‘Pain from words has left its scar’ is an example of
(A) Simile (B) Personification
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
78. ‘In the nick of the time’ means
(A) when the time was over (B) when they needed time
(C) just at the right moment (D) just after the accident
79. The remedial teaching strategies include
(A) Peer support programme
(B) Reward scheme
(C) Feed back to the students, parents and teachers
(D) All the three
80. The officer is keenly __________ the murder mystry.
(A) looking into (B) looking after
(C) looking for (D) looking out
81. __________ is an example of cluster-sound.
(A) L (B) sk
(C) s (D) k
82. Ours is a country of many languages, so ___________ is the suitable approach for
teaching of English.
(A) Project approach (B) Communicative approach
(C) Multilingual approach (D) Situational approach
83. You ________ pay your debts.
(A) will (B) can
(C) ought to (D) may
(51) B
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Passage (For Q. Nos. 84 – 90) :
For better relationship the first and foremost factor is mutual interaction and regular
communication among the members of a family because through communication only we can
understand each other’s aspirations, expectations, desires, strengths and weaknesses in a better
way. It is essential that parents should spend time with their children. They should give them
freedom and opportunities to express themselves. Parents should give them respect and due
attention to boost their self esteem and self confidence. Children don’t like when parents/elders
thrust their view point and decision on them. This attitude curbs their free thinking, creativity,
independent decision making ability, in other words the spontaneous development of personality
gets hampered. Another important factor affecting relationship is that each member-child or
parents should feel the necessity of fulfilling responsibilities towards one another. Otherwise
things don’t work and there cannot be mutual understanding and comfortable atmosphere in the
family.
Choose the appropriate option :
84. The parents __________ the needs of their children.
(A) are fulfilling (B) fulfil
(C) has fulfilled (D) is fulfilled
85. A number of factors __________ for better relationship.
(A) make (B) need (C) contribute (D) makes
86. Mutual interaction and regular communication can make __________ atmosphere in
the family.
(A) needful (B) developing (C) comfortable (D) sad
87. If the parents lack to fulfil their responsibilities, they cannot expect the same from their
children __________.
(A) either (B) neither (C) or (D) nor
88. The suitable title of the passage is
(A) Good family
(B) Healthy family
(C) Necessities of a better relationship
(D) Making peace
89. It is the imposed decision of the parents that __________ responsible to spoil the
child’s free thinking.
(A) can (B) is (C) held (D) would
90. Mutual understanding __________ an important step in building healthy relationship.
(A) have (B) has (C) are (D) is
B (52)
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III –
II –
(CXÿ© )
.61
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.62
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.63
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.64
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.65
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.66
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.67
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(57) B
Text of page 154
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.68
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.69
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.70
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.71
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.72
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.73
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.74
(D) (C) (B) (A)
B (58)
Text of page 155
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.75
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.76
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.77
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.78
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.79
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.80
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.81
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.82
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.83
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(59) B
Text of page 156
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.84
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.86
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.87
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.88
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.89
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.90
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
B (60)
Text of page 157
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– iiI
> – II
61.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(61) B
Text of page 158
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67.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (62)
Text of page 159
PL-1
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
80.
(A) 1853 (B) 1947 (C) 1967 (D) 1950
(63) B
Text of page 160
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81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (64)
Text of page 161
PL-1
> – iiI
– II
(n§Om~r)
61.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(65) B
Text of page 162
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66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (66)
Text of page 163
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73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(67) B
Text of page 164
PL-1
82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (68)
Text of page 165
PL-1
– iII
– II
(JwOamVr)
61.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(69) B
Text of page 166
PL-1
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (70)
Text of page 167
PL-1
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(71) B
Text of page 168
PL-1
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (72)
Text of page 171
PL-1
98. In the given figure, the value of ∠AOD is
A
B
x –2
5x 3
2
x+
D C
O
(A) 60° (B) 90°
(C) 100° (D) 20°
{X`o J`o {MÌ _| ∠AOD H$m _mZ h¡
A
B
–2
5x 3x
2
x+
D C
O
(A) 60° (B) 90°
(C) 100° (D) 20°
99. In mid-day meal, at the rate of 150 gm wheat and 100 gm rice per child per day,
the total quantity of wheat and rice for 30 days for 60 children is
(A) 450 kg (B) 180 kg (C) 270 kg (D) 400 kg
_Ü`m• ^moOZ _| à{V {XZ à{V ~mbH$ 150 J«m_ Joh±ÿ VWm 100 J«m_ Mmdb Ho$ {hgm~ go 60 ~ÀMm| Ho$
{bE 30 {XZ Ho$ {bE Joh±ÿ d Mmdb H$s Hw$b _mÌm h¡
(A) 450 {H$J«m (B) 180 {H$J«m (C) 270 {H$J«m (D) 400 {H$J«m
100. ‘Param mitra ank’ of 5 is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 10
5 H$m "na_ {_Ì A§H$' h¡
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 10
(75) B
Text of page 181
PL-1
133. Which of the following tools is the best use in ICT for visually impaired students ?
(A) Text to speech
(B) Projection Screen
(C) Social Networking
(D) Video conferencing
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm CnH$aU ÑpîQ>~m{YV N>mÌm| Ho$ {bE ICT _| g~go AÀN>m Cn`moJ h¡ ?
(A) Q>oŠñQ> Qy> ñnrM
(B) àmoOoŠeZ ñH«$sZ
(C) gmoeb ZoQ>d{Hª$J
(D) dr{S>`mo H$m°Ý\$ao§qgJ
134. Select the festival from the following, which is celebrated on new moon
of the Kartika month.
(A) Holi
(B) Diwali
(C) Dussehra
(D) Raksha Bandhan
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go Cg Ë`m¡hma H$mo Mw{ZE, Omo H$m{V©H$ _mg H$s A_mdñ`m H$mo _Zm`m OmVm h¡ &
(A) hmobr
(B) {Xdmbr
(C) Xeham
(D) ajm~§YZ
135. Which of the following material is most important to be carried by a mountaineer ?
(A) Sleeping bag
(B) Oxygen kit
(C) Blanket
(D) Torch
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gr gm_J«r EH$ nd©Vmamohr Ûmam bo OmZm g~go _hËdnyU© h¡ ?
(A) ñbrqnJ ~¡J
(B) Am°ŠgrOZ {H$Q>
(C) H§$~b
(D) Q>m°M©
(85) B
Text of page 191
DO
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Text of page 193
Question Booklet No.
PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Series Code :
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grarµO H$moS> :
Write this code in OMR Answer Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR AmÝga erQ> _| A§{H$V H$a| &
1. Roll No./ amob Z§. 2. OMR Answer Sheet No./ Amo.E_.Ama. AmÝga erQ> H«$_m§H$
* 3. Candidate’s Name/ Aä`Wu H$m Zm_ * 4. _¢Zo n¥îR> ^mJ na {X`o J`o g^r {ZX}em| H$mo n‹T> {b`m h¡ &
Candidate’s Signature/ Aä`Wu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form./ O¡gm AmdoXZ nÌ _| A§{H$V {H$`m h¡ &
Invigilators’ Signature/ (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet /
A
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There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following five Sections : Section – I,
II, III, IV and V of 30 – 30 questions each. The candidate has to attempt all sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be deducted
for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
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PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Sections Contents
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 12
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the 30 31 60
Online Application Form as language-I from the languages
given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 13 18
English 30 31 60 19 22
Sanskrit 30 31 60 23 26
Urdu 30 31 60 27 32
Sindhi 30 31 60 33 36
Punjabi 30 31 60 37 40
Gujarati 30 31 60 41 44
Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Langauge-II (other than the
(III) 30 61 90
Language-I) in the Online Application Form from the Languages
given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 45 48
English 30 61 90 49 52
Sanskrit 30 61 90 53 56
Urdu 30 61 90 57 60
Sindhi 30 61 90 61 64
Punjabi 30 61 90 65 68
Gujarati 30 61 90 69 72
(IV) Mathematics 30 91 120 73 80
(V) Environmental Studies 30 121 150 81 90
Note : In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in
the Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question Booklet.
PL-1 C *PL1C* (1)
Text of page 211
PL-1
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. ‘The doctor has given her a good treatment.’ The passive voice of this sentence is
(A) She was given a good treatment.
(B) She gave the doctor a good treatment.
(C) A good treatment was given to her by the doctor.
(D) A good treatment has been given to her by the doctor.
32. ‘When we learn a second language, we tend to filter the universe through the language
already known.’ is a principle of
(A) Using mother tongue (B) Exposure
(C) Habit formation (D) Motivation
33. ‘Reading is a process of sight, sound and scene.’ is quoted by
(A) P.B. Ballard (B) Dr. West
(C) W.S. Gray (D) Jesperson
34. ‘I am sick.’ The correct question tag for this sentence is
(A) Aren’t I ? (B) Are you ? (C) Am I ? (D) Am you ?
35. _________ is a drawback in the implementation of the direct method in teaching
of English.
(A) Use of mother tongue (B) Familiar texts
(C) Lack of facilities (D) Charts
36. One of the features of the portfolio in CCE is
(A) Objective tests
(B) It promotes diversity in the assessment method
(C) Partiality
(D) Record maintenance
37. The correct passive voice of ‘He draws a sketch everyday.’ is
(A) A sketch is drawn everyday.
(B) A sketch was drawn everyday.
(C) A sketch is being drawn everyday.
(D) A sketch was being drawn by him everyday.
(19) C
Text of page 212
PL-1
38. In learning English as L2, the following skill is acquired independently
(A) vocabulary (B) listening
(C) none (D) all
39. The phonetic transcription of the word ‘description’ is
(A) /deskripsΛn/ (B) /discr∂p∫en/
(C) /dɪ'skrɪpθn/ (D) /diskrip∫n/
40. In CCE, the focus remains on
(A) progress, process and product
(B) course, test, performance
(C) time, process, assessment
(D) formats, product, record
41. The communicative Approach develops
(A) the speech and expression ability
(B) grammar skills
(C) knowledge
(D) vision of learning
42. There are tests in education system
(A) to fail the learners
(B) to pass the learners
(C) to grade and rank the learners
(D) to detain the learners
Passage (For Q. Nos. 43 to 49) :
The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer. He loved his work and did not want
to change it for any other work in the world. For days together, the man worked continuously
without taking rest. His one desire was to finish the sculpture which would be his last. He worked
till his hands began to tremble and his shoulders started to ache. His arms grew heavy and his
eyes grew tired. And then he couldn’t see anymore.
43. The comparative degree of ‘heavy’ is
(A) more heavy (B) most heavy
(C) heavier (D) heaviest
44. ___________ is a noun.
(A) Picked (B) Desired
(C) Chisel (D) Tremble
C (20)
Text of page 213
PL-1
45. The sentence that is incorrect due to the use of wrong determiner is
(A) He worked till their hands began to tremble.
(B) He loved his work.
(C) His arms grew heavy.
(D) The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer.
46. In the phrase ‘... any other work in the world’, the word ‘other’ is
(A) noun (B) subject
(C) object (D) determiner
47. ____________ is that incorrect sentence.
(A) He loved his work.
(B) It would be his last work.
(C) His arms grown heavy.
(D) He worked till hands began to tremble.
48. ‘Continuously’ is
(A) adverb (B) noun
(C) adjective (D) conjunction
49. Cotton is ___________ than wood. Choose the correct adjective.
(A) heavier (B) lighter
(C) heavy (D) light
50. The correct word with this symbol (ð) sound is
(A) brother (B) laughter
(C) great (D) higher
51. ‘Unit of teaching is a word’ is a feature of
(A) direct method
(B) indirect method
(C) grammar cum translation method
(D) communicative approach
52. ‘They will not help their needy neighbour.’ The correct question for the sentence is
(A) What did he do ?
(B) Why will the neighbour not help ?
(C) Who will they not help ?
(D) What did the neighbour do ?
(21) C
Text of page 214
PL-1
53. The use of multimedia aids such as T.V., radio, computer etc. in teaching is also
known as _________ approach.
(A) visual (B) software
(C) audio (D) hardware
Passage (For Q. Nos. 54 to 60) :
He began to believe that most of the diseases were caused by bacteria. Many other scientists
also treated bacteria as the enemy of man. They could not be seen but are present everywhere to
cause mischief. Dr. Jenner in England had already discovered vaccination for small-pox. Here
Pasteur was trying to discover a cure for a terrible disease called anthrax. It killed lots of cows
and sheeps in France. He tried to give the cows and sheeps some weak germs of the same disease
to make them safe against disease for the future. It must have seemed a very dangerous idea in
those days. Many scientists were angry about it.
54. ‘danger-dangerous’ is a pair of
(A) noun-adjective (B) noun-pronoun
(C) noun-adverb (D) adjective-noun
55. The noun form of the word ‘discover’ is
(A) invention (B) discovery
(C) discovered (D) invented
56. The correct spelling is
(A) Mischievus (B) Mischievous
(C) Mischeivous (D) Mischieous
57. ‘To act or behave in a certain way towards somebody’ is
(A) treat (B) inject (C) cure (D) vaccinate
58. One word for ‘illness of body or mind’ is
(A) disease (B) healthy
(C) bacteria (D) vaccination
59. The word opposite in meaning of ‘present’ is
(A) everywhere (B) absent (C) attendance (D) gift
60. ‘...... but are present everywhere......’ According to the passage, the underlined
word means
(A) sold (B) lost (C) found (D) forgot
C (22)
Text of page 219
PL-1
II –
I–
(CXÿ© )
.31
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.32
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.33
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.34
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(27) C
Text of page 220
PL-1
.35
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.36
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.37
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.38
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
C (28)
Text of page 221
PL-1
.39
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.40
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.41
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.42
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.43
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.44
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(29) C
Text of page 222
PL-1
.45
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.46
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.47
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.48
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.49
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.50
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
C (30)
Text of page 223
PL-1
.51
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.52
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.53
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.54
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.55
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(31) C
Text of page 224
PL-1
.56
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.57
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.58
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.59
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.60
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
C (32)
Text of page 225
PL-1
> – ii
–i
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(33) C
Text of page 226
PL-1
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (34)
Text of page 227
PL-1
46.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
51.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(35) C
Text of page 228
PL-1
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) 1644 (B) 1568 (C) 1544 (D) 1602
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (36)
Text of page 229
PL-1
– ii
–i
(n§Om~r)
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(37) C
Text of page 230
PL-1
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C (38)
Text of page 231
PL-1
46.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
50.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(39) C
Text of page 232
PL-1
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (40)
Text of page 233
PL-1
– iI
–i
(JwOamVr)
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(41) C
Text of page 234
PL-1
35.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (42)
Text of page 235
PL-1
40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41.
(A) (–) (B) (:) (C) (;) (D) (" ")
42.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(43) C
Text of page 236
PL-1
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (44)
Text of page 241
PL-1
SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. In order to learn a foreign language
(A) One must adopt many approaches judiciously and rationally
(B) One must master many foreign languages
(C) One must select the students
(D) One must be subjective
62. ‘In the nick of the time’ means
(A) when the time was over (B) when they needed time
(C) just at the right moment (D) just after the accident
Passage (For Q. Nos. 63 – 69) :
For better relationship the first and foremost factor is mutual interaction and regular
communication among the members of a family because through communication only we can
understand each other’s aspirations, expectations, desires, strengths and weaknesses in a better
way. It is essential that parents should spend time with their children. They should give them
freedom and opportunities to express themselves. Parents should give them respect and due
attention to boost their self esteem and self confidence. Children don’t like when parents/elders
thrust their view point and decision on them. This attitude curbs their free thinking, creativity,
independent decision making ability, in other words the spontaneous development of personality
gets hampered. Another important factor affecting relationship is that each member-child or
parents should feel the necessity of fulfilling responsibilities towards one another. Otherwise
things don’t work and there cannot be mutual understanding and comfortable atmosphere in the
family.
Choose the appropriate option :
63. The suitable title of the passage is
(A) Good family
(B) Healthy family
(C) Necessities of a better relationship
(D) Making peace
64. If the parents lack to fulfil their responsibilities, they cannot expect the same from their
children __________.
(A) either (B) neither (C) or (D) nor
(49) C
Text of page 242
PL-1
65. Mutual interaction and regular communication can make __________ atmosphere in
the family.
(A) needful (B) developing (C) comfortable (D) sad
66. A number of factors __________ for better relationship.
(A) make (B) need (C) contribute (D) makes
67. Mutual understanding __________ an important step in building healthy relationship.
(A) have (B) has (C) are (D) is
68. The parents __________ the needs of their children.
(A) are fulfilling (B) fulfil
(C) has fulfilled (D) is fulfilled
69. It is the imposed decision of the parents that __________ responsible to spoil the
child’s free thinking.
(A) can (B) is (C) held (D) would
70. According to the nature of obstruction, the following are the fricative sounds
(A) p, b, t (B) m, n (C) f, r, s (D) tʃ, dʒ, ʃ
71. You ________ pay your debts.
(A) will (B) can (C) ought to (D) may
72. The following is not an objective of remedial teaching.
(A) to segregate the students
(B) to prepare suitable assignments including easy to difficult tasks
(C) to prepare items to test the learning that should take place
(D) to highlight the weaknesses of the students
73. __________ is an example of cluster-sound.
(A) L (B) sk (C) s (D) k
74. The correct transcription of ‘soon’ is
(A) /∫un/ (B) /su:n/ (C) /sͻn/ (D) /s^:n/
75. The robbers __________ the defenceless travellers.
(A) set up (B) set upon
(C) set in (D) set out
C (50)
Text of page 243
PL-1
76. The remedial teaching strategies include
(A) Peer support programme
(B) Reward scheme
(C) Feed back to the students, parents and teachers
(D) All the three
77. A sonnet is a short poem of _______ lines.
(A) fourteen (B) sixteen (C) thirteen (D) fifteen
78. ___________ is an example of velar sound.
(A) z (B) ð (C) h (D) ŋ
79. While working with communicative approach, the Indian students lack
(A) Confidence
(B) Adequate exposure to the target language
(C) Facilities
(D) Audio visual aids
Poem (For Q. Nos. 80 – 86) :
Sticks and stones may break my bones
But words can also hurt me.
Stones and sticks break only skin
While words are ghosts that haunt me.
Slant and curved the word sword fall
To pierce and stick inside me.
Bats and bricks may ache through bones
But words can mortify me.
Pain from words has left its scar
On mind and heart that’s tender.
Cuts and bruises have now healed;
It’s words that I remember.
80. ‘While words are ghosts that haunt me’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) Metaphor (B) Simile
(C) Alliteration (D) Assonance
81. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Slant and curved the word sword fall’.
(A) Personification (B) Assonance
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
(51) C
Text of page 244
PL-1
82. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Stones and sticks break only skin’.
(A) Simile (B) Metaphor
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
83. The correct example of alliteration is
(A) Bats and Bricks (B) Slant and Curved
(C) Cuts and Bruises (D) Mind and Heart
84. ‘The words fall like swords,’ the device used in this line is a
(A) Alliteration (B) Simile
(C) Personification (D) Hyperbole
85. The rhyming words in the poem are
(A) Tender-Remember
(B) Fall-Bones
(C) Bones-Skin
(D) Scar-Healed
86. ‘Pain from words has left its scar’ is an example of
(A) Simile (B) Personification
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
87. Ours is a country of many languages, so ___________ is the suitable approach for
teaching of English.
(A) Project approach (B) Communicative approach
(C) Multilingual approach (D) Situational approach
88. The officer is keenly __________ the murder mystry.
(A) looking into (B) looking after
(C) looking for (D) looking out
89. ___________ is a merit of objective type test.
(A) Deeper surface knowledge (B) Answers are short and definite
(C) Short term preparation (D) Descriptive answers
90. I don’t think I _________ be able to go there.
(A) can (B) shall (C) must (D) should
C (52)
Text of page 249
PL-1
III –
II –
(CXÿ© )
.61
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.62
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.63
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.64
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.65
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.66
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(57) C
Text of page 250
PL-1
.67
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.68
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.69
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.70
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.71
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.72
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.73
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.74
(D) (C) (B) (A)
C (58)
Text of page 251
PL-1
.75
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.76
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.77
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.78
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.79
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.80
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.81
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(59) C
Text of page 252
PL-1
.82
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.83
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.84
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.86
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.87
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.88
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.89
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.90
(D) (C) (B) (A)
C (60)
Text of page 253
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– iiI
> – II
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(61) C
Text of page 254
PL-1
67.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
C (62)
Text of page 255
PL-1
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(63) C
Text of page 256
PL-1
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) 1853 (B) 1947 (C) 1967 (D) 1950
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C (64)
Text of page 257
PL-1
> – iiI
– II
(n§Om~r)
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(65) C
Text of page 258
PL-1
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (66)
Text of page 259
PL-1
76.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
80.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(67) C
Text of page 260
PL-1
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
C (68)
Text of page 261
PL-1
– iII
– II
(JwOamVr)
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(69) C
Text of page 262
PL-1
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C (70)
Text of page 263
PL-1
77.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
83.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(71) C
Text of page 264
PL-1
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (72)
Text of page 271
PL-1
114. If 12 packets of the pencil are priced at 362 rupees 76 paise, then the price of a packet
of pencil is
(A) 30 rupees 23 paise
(B) 33 rupees 30 paise
(C) 23 rupees 30 paise
(D) 13 rupees 23 paise
`{X 12 n¡Ho$Q> n|{gb H$m _yë` 362 én`o 76 n¡go hmo, Vmo EH$ n¡Ho$Q> n|{gb H$m _yë` h¡
(A) 30 én`o 23 n¡go
(B) 33 én`o 30 n¡go
(C) 23 én`o 30 n¡go
(D) 13 én`o 23 n¡go
115. In which of the following mathematics teaching methods, the ‘Principle of learning by
doing’ was given importance ?
(A) Demonstration method
(B) Lecture method
(C) Laboratory method
(D) Heuristic method
{ZåZ _| go {H$g J{UV {ejU {d{Y _| "H$aHo$ grIZo Ho$ {gÕmÝV' H$mo _hËd {X`m J`m ?
(A) àXe©Z {d{Y
(B) ì`m»`mZ {d{Y
(C) à`moJembm {d{Y
(D) hçy[apñQ>H$ {d{Y
116. ‘Param mitra ank’ of 5 is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 10
5 H$m "na_ {_Ì A§H$' h¡
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 10
(79) C
Text of page 273
PL-1
SECTION – V/ IÊS> – V
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES/ n`m©daU AÜ``Z
There are 30 questions in all in this section.
All questions are compulsory.
Bg IÊS> _| Hw$b 30 àíZ h¢ &
g^r àíZ A{Zdm`© h¢ &
121. In how many directions faces of lion are present in National Symbol of Ashok’s pillar ?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
amîQ´>r` {M• AemoH$ ñVå^ _| {H$VZr {XemAm| _| qgh Ho$ _wI h¢ ?
(A) EH$ (B) Xmo
(C) VrZ (D) Mma
122. Wild cock is the main wild animal of which wildlife sanctuary ?
(A) Sariska – Alwar
(B) Mount Abu – Sirohi
(C) Talchhapper – Churu
(D) Kailadevi – Karauli
O§Jbr _wJ} H$m¡Z-go dÝ`Ord A^`maÊ` H$m à_wI O§Jbr Ord h¡ ?
(A) g[añH$m - Abda
(B) _mCÊQ> Am~y - {gamohr
(C) VmbN>mna - Myé
(D) H¡$bmXodr - H$am¡br
123. Where is the pandupol fair held ?
(A) Jaipur (B) Ajmer
(C) Alwar (D) Pander
nm§Sw>nmob _obm H$hm± bJVm h¡ ?
(A) O`nwa (B) AO_oa
(C) Abda (D) nÊS>oa
(81) C
Text of page 287
DO
NO
T
(95) WR
IT
EH
ER
E
C PL-1
Text of page 289
Question Booklet No.
PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Series Code :
D
grarµO H$moS> :
Write this code in OMR Answer Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR AmÝga erQ> _| A§{H$V H$a| &
1. Roll No./ amob Z§. 2. OMR Answer Sheet No./ Amo.E_.Ama. AmÝga erQ> H«$_m§H$
* 3. Candidate’s Name/ Aä`Wu H$m Zm_ * 4. _¢Zo n¥îR> ^mJ na {X`o J`o g^r {ZX}em| H$mo n‹T> {b`m h¡ &
Candidate’s Signature/ Aä`Wu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form./ O¡gm AmdoXZ nÌ _| A§{H$V {H$`m h¡ &
Invigilators’ Signature/ (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet /
H«$_m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© ñd`§ Aä`Wu Ûmam H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m _| Hw$b n¥îR> : 96
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following five Sections : Section – I,
II, III, IV and V of 30 – 30 questions each. The candidate has to attempt all sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be deducted
for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
Bg àíZ-nÌ _| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR> ~hþM`ZmË_H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b nm±M IÊS>m| _| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ & àË`oH$ IÊS>-I, II, III,
IV VWm V _| 30 – 30 àíZ h¢ VWm àË`oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {b`o H$moB© A§H$ H$mQ>o Zht Om`|Jo & AZwÎm[aV àíZm| Ho$ gå~ÝY _| nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V_
n¥îR> na {X`o J`o _hËdnyU© {ZX}em] _| H«$_ g§»`m 4 XoI| &
A
D SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025SHIFT1-2025
PAPER CODE : PL-1 (SHIFT – 1)
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Sections Contents
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 12
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the 30 31 60
Online Application Form as language-I from the languages
given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 13 18
English 30 31 60 19 22
Sanskrit 30 31 60 23 26
Urdu 30 31 60 27 32
Sindhi 30 31 60 33 36
Punjabi 30 31 60 37 40
Gujarati 30 31 60 41 44
Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Langauge-II (other than the
(III) 30 61 90
Language-I) in the Online Application Form from the Languages
given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 45 48
English 30 61 90 49 52
Sanskrit 30 61 90 53 56
Urdu 30 61 90 57 60
Sindhi 30 61 90 61 64
Punjabi 30 61 90 65 68
Gujarati 30 61 90 69 72
(IV) Mathematics 30 91 120 73 80
(V) Environmental Studies 30 121 150 81 90
Note : In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in
the Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question Booklet.
PL-1 D *PL1D* (1)
Text of page 307
PL-1
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. In CCE, the focus remains on
(A) progress, process and product (B) course, test, performance
(C) time, process, assessment (D) formats, product, record
32. _________ is a drawback in the implementation of the direct method in teaching of
English.
(A) Use of mother tongue (B) Familiar texts
(C) Lack of facilities (D) Charts
33. ‘The doctor has given her a good treatment.’ The passive voice of this sentence is
(A) She was given a good treatment.
(B) She gave the doctor a good treatment.
(C) A good treatment was given to her by the doctor.
(D) A good treatment has been given to her by the doctor.
34. The use of multimedia aids such as T.V., radio, computer etc. in teaching is also
known as _________ approach.
(A) visual (B) software
(C) audio (D) hardware
Passage (For Q. Nos. 35 to 41) :
He began to believe that most of the diseases were caused by bacteria. Many other scientists
also treated bacteria as the enemy of man. They could not be seen but are present everywhere to
cause mischief. Dr. Jenner in England had already discovered vaccination for small-pox. Here
Pasteur was trying to discover a cure for a terrible disease called anthrax. It killed lots of cows
and sheeps in France. He tried to give the cows and sheeps some weak germs of the same disease
to make them safe against disease for the future. It must have seemed a very dangerous idea in
those days. Many scientists were angry about it.
35. The word opposite in meaning of ‘present’ is
(A) everywhere (B) absent (C) attendance (D) gift
(19) D
Text of page 308
PL-1
36. ‘danger-dangerous’ is a pair of
(A) noun-adjective (B) noun-pronoun
(C) noun-adverb (D) adjective-noun
37. The noun form of the word ‘discover’ is
(A) invention (B) discovery (C) discovered (D) invented
38. The correct spelling is
(A) Mischievus (B) Mischievous
(C) Mischeivous (D) Mischieous
39. ‘...... but are present everywhere......’ According to the passage, the underlined
word means
(A) sold (B) lost (C) found (D) forgot
40. ‘To act or behave in a certain way towards somebody’ is
(A) treat (B) inject (C) cure (D) vaccinate
41. One word for ‘illness of body or mind’ is
(A) disease (B) healthy (C) bacteria (D) vaccination
42. ‘When we learn a second language, we tend to filter the universe through the language
already known.’ is a principle of
(A) Using mother tongue (B) Exposure
(C) Habit formation (D) Motivation
43. One of the features of the portfolio in CCE is
(A) Objective tests
(B) It promotes diversity in the assessment method
(C) Partiality
(D) Record maintenance
44. The correct word with this symbol (ð) sound is
(A) brother (B) laughter
(C) great (D) higher
45. ‘Reading is a process of sight, sound and scene.’ is quoted by
(A) P.B. Ballard (B) Dr. West
(C) W.S. Gray (D) Jesperson
D (20)
Text of page 309
PL-1
Passage (For Q. Nos. 46 to 52) :
The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer. He loved his work and did not want
to change it for any other work in the world. For days together, the man worked continuously
without taking rest. His one desire was to finish the sculpture which would be his last. He worked
till his hands began to tremble and his shoulders started to ache. His arms grew heavy and his
eyes grew tired. And then he couldn’t see anymore.
46. ‘Continuously’ is
(A) adverb (B) noun
(C) adjective (D) conjunction
47. The comparative degree of ‘heavy’ is
(A) more heavy (B) most heavy
(C) heavier (D) heaviest
48. The sentence that is incorrect due to the use of wrong determiner is
(A) He worked till their hands began to tremble.
(B) He loved his work.
(C) His arms grew heavy.
(D) The old man sighed and picked up the chisel and the hammer.
49. ____________ is that incorrect sentence.
(A) He loved his work.
(B) It would be his last work.
(C) His arms grown heavy.
(D) He worked till hands began to tremble.
50. Cotton is ___________ than wood. Choose the correct adjective.
(A) heavier (B) lighter
(C) heavy (D) light
51. In the phrase ‘... any other work in the world’, the word ‘other’ is
(A) noun (B) subject
(C) object (D) determiner
52. ___________ is a noun.
(A) Picked (B) Desired
(C) Chisel (D) Tremble
(21) D
Text of page 310
PL-1
53. There are tests in education system
(A) to fail the learners
(B) to pass the learners
(C) to grade and rank the learners
(D) to detain the learners
54. The phonetic transcription of the word ‘description’ is
(A) /deskripsΛn/ (B) /discr∂p∫en/
(C) /dɪ'skrɪpθn/ (D) /diskrip∫n/
55. The correct passive voice of ‘He draws a sketch everyday.’ is
(A) A sketch is drawn everyday.
(B) A sketch was drawn everyday.
(C) A sketch is being drawn everyday.
(D) A sketch was being drawn by him everyday.
56. The communicative Approach develops
(A) the speech and expression ability
(B) grammar skills
(C) knowledge
(D) vision of learning
57. ‘Unit of teaching is a word’ is a feature of
(A) direct method
(B) indirect method
(C) grammar cum translation method
(D) communicative approach
58. ‘I am sick.’ The correct question tag for this sentence is
(A) Aren’t I ? (B) Are you ? (C) Am I ? (D) Am you ?
59. In learning English as L2, the following skill is acquired independently
(A) vocabulary (B) listening
(C) none (D) all
60. ‘They will not help their needy neighbour.’ The correct question for the sentence is
(A) What did he do ? (B) Why will the neighbour not help ?
(C) Who will they not help ? (D) What did the neighbour do ?
D (22)
Text of page 315
PL-1
II –
I–
(CXÿ© )
.31
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.32
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.33
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.34
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.35
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(27) D
Text of page 316
PL-1
.36
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.37
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.38
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.39
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.40
(D) (C) (B) (A)
D (28)
Text of page 317
PL-1
.41
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.42
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.43
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.44
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(29) D
Text of page 318
PL-1
.45
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.46
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.47
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.48
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.49
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.50
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
D (30)
Text of page 319
PL-1
.51
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.52
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.53
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.54
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.55
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(31) D
Text of page 320
PL-1
.56
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.57
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.58
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.59
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.60
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D (32)
Text of page 321
PL-1
> – ii
–i
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(33) D
Text of page 322
PL-1
39.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) 1644 (B) 1568 (C) 1544 (D) 1602
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (34)
Text of page 323
PL-1
46.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(35) D
Text of page 324
PL-1
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (36)
Text of page 325
PL-1
– ii
–i
(n§Om~r)
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(37) D
Text of page 326
PL-1
39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (38)
Text of page 327
PL-1
46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(39) D
Text of page 328
PL-1
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
D (40)
Text of page 329
PL-1
– iI
–i
(JwOamVr)
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(41) D
Text of page 330
PL-1
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D (42)
Text of page 331
PL-1
45.
(A) (–) (B) (:) (C) (;) (D) (" ")
46.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(43) D
Text of page 332
PL-1
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D (44)
Text of page 337
PL-1
SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. The remedial teaching strategies include
(A) Peer support programme
(B) Reward scheme
(C) Feed back to the students, parents and teachers
(D) All the three
62. According to the nature of obstruction, the following are the fricative sounds
(A) p, b, t (B) m, n (C) f, r, s (D) tʃ, dʒ, ʃ
63. While working with communicative approach, the Indian students lack
(A) Confidence
(B) Adequate exposure to the target language
(C) Facilities
(D) Audio visual aids
64. A sonnet is a short poem of _______ lines.
(A) fourteen (B) sixteen (C) thirteen (D) fifteen
65. The correct transcription of ‘soon’ is
(A) /∫un/ (B) /su:n/ (C) /sͻn/ (D) /s^:n/
66. The officer is keenly __________ the murder mystry.
(A) looking into (B) looking after
(C) looking for (D) looking out
67. Ours is a country of many languages, so ___________ is the suitable approach
for teaching of English.
(A) Project approach (B) Communicative approach
(C) Multilingual approach (D) Situational approach
68. The following is not an objective of remedial teaching.
(A) to segregate the students
(B) to prepare suitable assignments including easy to difficult tasks
(C) to prepare items to test the learning that should take place
(D) to highlight the weaknesses of the students
(49) D
Text of page 338
PL-1
69. ‘In the nick of the time’ means
(A) when the time was over (B) when they needed time
(C) just at the right moment (D) just after the accident
70. ___________ is an example of velar sound.
(A) z (B) ð (C) h (D) ŋ
Passage (For Q. Nos. 71 – 77) :
For better relationship the first and foremost factor is mutual interaction and regular
communication among the members of a family because through communication only we can
understand each other’s aspirations, expectations, desires, strengths and weaknesses in a better
way. It is essential that parents should spend time with their children. They should give them
freedom and opportunities to express themselves. Parents should give them respect and due
attention to boost their self esteem and self confidence. Children don’t like when parents/elders
thrust their view point and decision on them. This attitude curbs their free thinking, creativity,
independent decision making ability, in other words the spontaneous development of personality
gets hampered. Another important factor affecting relationship is that each member-child or
parents should feel the necessity of fulfilling responsibilities towards one another. Otherwise
things don’t work and there cannot be mutual understanding and comfortable atmosphere in the
family.
Choose the appropriate option :
71. The suitable title of the passage is
(A) Good family
(B) Healthy family
(C) Necessities of a better relationship
(D) Making peace
72. The parents __________ the needs of their children.
(A) are fulfilling (B) fulfil
(C) has fulfilled (D) is fulfilled
73. If the parents lack to fulfil their responsibilities, they cannot expect the same
from their children __________.
(A) either (B) neither (C) or (D) nor
D (50)
Text of page 339
PL-1
74. Mutual interaction and regular communication can make __________ atmosphere in
the family.
(A) needful (B) developing (C) comfortable (D) sad
75. Mutual understanding __________ an important step in building healthy relationship.
(A) have (B) has (C) are (D) is
76. It is the imposed decision of the parents that __________ responsible to spoil the
child’s free thinking.
(A) can (B) is (C) held (D) would
77. A number of factors __________ for better relationship.
(A) make (B) need (C) contribute (D) makes
78. In order to learn a foreign language
(A) One must adopt many approaches judiciously and rationally
(B) One must master many foreign languages
(C) One must select the students
(D) One must be subjective
79. You ________ pay your debts.
(A) will (B) can (C) ought to (D) may
80. __________ is an example of cluster-sound.
(A) L (B) sk (C) s (D) k
81. The robbers __________ the defenceless travellers.
(A) set up (B) set upon
(C) set in (D) set out
82. ___________ is a merit of objective type test.
(A) Deeper surface knowledge (B) Answers are short and definite
(C) Short term preparation (D) Descriptive answers
83. I don’t think I _________ be able to go there.
(A) can (B) shall (C) must (D) should
(51) D
Text of page 340
PL-1
Poem (For Q. Nos. 84 – 90) :
Sticks and stones may break my bones
But words can also hurt me.
Stones and sticks break only skin
While words are ghosts that haunt me.
Slant and curved the word sword fall
To pierce and stick inside me.
Bats and bricks may ache through bones
But words can mortify me.
Pain from words has left its scar
On mind and heart that’s tender.
Cuts and bruises have now healed;
It’s words that I remember.
84. ‘Pain from words has left its scar’ is an example of
(A) Simile (B) Personification
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
85. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Slant and curved the word sword fall’.
(A) Personification (B) Assonance
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
86. The correct example of alliteration is
(A) Bats and Bricks (B) Slant and Curved
(C) Cuts and Bruises (D) Mind and Heart
87. Identify the literary device used in the line ‘Stones and sticks break only skin’.
(A) Simile (B) Metaphor
(C) Alliteration (D) Rhyme
88. ‘The words fall like swords,’ the device used in this line is a
(A) Alliteration (B) Simile
(C) Personification (D) Hyperbole
89. The rhyming words in the poem are
(A) Tender-Remember (B) Fall-Bones
(C) Bones-Skin (D) Scar-Healed
90. ‘While words are ghosts that haunt me’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) Metaphor (B) Simile
(C) Alliteration (D) Assonance
D (52)
Text of page 345
PL-1
III –
II –
(CXÿ© )
.61
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.62
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.63
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.64
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.65
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.66
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.67
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.68
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(57) D
Text of page 346
PL-1
.69
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.70
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.71
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.72
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.73
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.74
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.75
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.76
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.77
(D) (C) (B) (A)
D (58)
Text of page 347
PL-1
.78
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.79
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.80
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.81
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.82
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.83
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.84
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(59) D
Text of page 348
PL-1
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.86
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.87
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.88
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.89
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.90
(D) (C) (B) (A)
D (60)
Text of page 349
PL-1
– iiI
> – II
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(61) D
Text of page 350
PL-1
70.
(A) 1853 (B) 1947 (C) 1967 (D) 1950
71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (62)
Text of page 351
PL-1
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(63) D
Text of page 352
PL-1
83.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
D (64)
Text of page 353
PL-1
> – iiI
– II
(n§Om~r)
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(65) D
Text of page 354
PL-1
67.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D (66)
Text of page 355
PL-1
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(67) D
Text of page 356
PL-1
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
D (68)
Text of page 357
PL-1
– iII
– II
(JwOamVr)
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(69) D
Text of page 358
PL-1
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D (70)
Text of page 359
PL-1
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(71) D
Text of page 360
PL-1
83.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
D (72)
Text of page 364
PL-1
102. If each side of the square is reduced to one-third, then the area will be
1 1
(A) (B)
3 2
1 1
(C) (D)
9 6
`{X dJ© H$s àË`oH$ ^wOm EH$ {VhmB© H$_ H$a Xr OmE, Vmo joÌ\$b hmo OmEJm
1 1
(A) (B)
3 2
1 1
(C) (D)
9 6
103. If 12 packets of the pencil are priced at 362 rupees 76 paise, then the price of a packet
of pencil is
(A) 30 rupees 23 paise (B) 33 rupees 30 paise
(C) 23 rupees 30 paise (D) 13 rupees 23 paise
`{X 12 n¡Ho$Q> n|{gb H$m _yë` 362 én`o 76 n¡go hmo, Vmo EH$ n¡Ho$Q> n|{gb H$m _yë` h¡
(A) 30 én`o 23 n¡go (B) 33 én`o 30 n¡go
(C) 23 én`o 30 n¡go (D) 13 én`o 23 n¡go
104. The average of the cubes of the first five natural numbers is
(A) 40 (B) 64
(C) 45 (D) 50
àW_ nm±M àmH¥${VH$ g§»`mAm| Ho$ KZm| H$m Am¡gV h¡
(A) 40 (B) 64
(C) 45 (D) 50
105. By selling a chair for ` 1,080, the shopkeeper suffers a loss of 10%. For how much should
he sell this chair so that he gets 10% profit ?
(A) ` 1,200 (B) ` 1,400
(C) ` 1,100 (D) ` 1,320
EH$ Hw$gu H$mo ` 1,080 _| ~oMZo na XþH$mZXma H$mo 10% hm{Z hmoVr h¡ & dh Bg Hw$gu H$mo {H$VZo _| ~oMo
{H$ Cgo 10% bm^ hmo ?
(A) ` 1,200 (B) ` 1,400
(C) ` 1,100 (D) ` 1,320
D (76)
Text of page 378
PL-1
149. Which is the largest planet of our solar system ?
(A) Uranus
(B) Neptune
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
h_mao gm¡a _ÊS>b H$m g~go ~‹S>m J«h H$m¡Z-gm h¡ ?
(A) AéU
(B) déU
(C) ~¥hñn{V
(D) e{Z
150. Select the festival from the following, which is celebrated on new moon of the Kartika
month.
(A) Holi
(B) Diwali
(C) Dussehra
(D) Raksha Bandhan
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go Cg Ë`m¡hma H$mo Mw{ZE, Omo H$m{V©H$ _mg H$s A_mdñ`m H$mo _Zm`m OmVm h¡ &
(A) hmobr
(B) {Xdmbr
(C) Xeham
(D) ajm~§YZ
D (90)
Text of page 383
DO
NO
T
(95) WR
IT
EH
ER
E
D PL-1
Text of page 1
REET‐2024 PL‐1 (LEVEL‐1) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT‐1)
REET 2024 (PL‐1) CHILD PEDAGOGY COMMON (1‐30) REET 2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐I ENGLISH (31‐60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
1 13 10 7 25 D 31 51 41 60 39 C
2 18 24 17 30 C 32 54 43 59 35 B
3 6 29 28 22 A 33 57 45 58 41 A
4 2 16 19 20 B 34 53 47 55 37 B
5 27 21 11 10 A 35 56 42 57 40 A
6 9 26 8 18 C 36 52 44 56 38 B
7 3 12 4 28 B 37 55 46 54 36 A
8 15 5 2 13 B 38 34 58 44 52 C
9 23 1 14 16 A 39 36 54 48 46 A
10 30 22 24 19 B 40 38 60 47 49 C
11 20 14 27 6 B 41 40 56 43 47 C
12 7 8 21 2 B 42 35 59 46 51 D
13 4 3 10 24 A 43 37 55 45 48 A
14 25 18 5 9 C 44 39 57 49 50 B
15 17 28 16 23 A 45 59 38 34 58 A
16 11 20 29 12 C 46 44 51 52 60 C
17 1 15 26 7 D 47 31 32 37 55 A
18 22 9 13 4 C 48 50 35 31 33 D
19 29 2 1 21 B 49 41 53 50 44 A
20 12 13 25 14 C 50 32 48 39 54 D
21 8 23 20 17 A 51 47 36 32 42 A
22 5 30 12 1 B 52 42 31 51 57 C
23 21 19 18 27 D 53 33 49 35 32 C
24 14 11 30 8 A 54 48 39 41 56 A
25 10 6 15 5 C 55 45 33 38 59 C
26 19 4 23 29 B 56 43 50 33 45 B
27 26 25 6 15 A 57 49 37 53 34 D
28 24 27 3 11 D 58 46 52 40 31 A
29 16 17 22 26 B 59 60 40 36 43 B
30 28 7 9 3 A 60 58 34 42 53 C
REET 2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐I HINDI (31‐60) REET 2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐I SANSKRIT (31‐60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
31 42 51 44 47 A 31 41 57 40 52 B
32 60 55 57 50 B 32 45 60 38 55 A
33 46 43 54 31 C 33 42 56 37 54 C
34 37 48 33 58 BONUS 34 44 59 36 53 B
35 49 39 38 52 A 35 43 58 39 51 D
36 40 50 60 34 C 36 32 48 53 43 C
37 59 53 31 45 A 37 34 46 51 42 D
38 44 41 36 48 D 38 33 49 55 45 B
39 35 45 32 51 B 39 35 47 52 44 A
40 39 49 55 33 C 40 31 50 54 41 C
41 51 32 48 35 B 41 38 35 33 48 A
42 56 36 45 37 C 42 52 31 45 57 D
43 53 31 51 41 D 43 60 38 41 59 A
44 58 34 50 38 C 44 47 53 49 46 C
45 54 38 52 42 D 45 36 51 58 32 D
46 52 33 47 36 C 46 40 42 47 37 A
47 57 37 49 40 B 47 56 33 43 39 C
48 55 35 46 39 C 48 49 40 32 60 B
49 31 57 42 54 C 49 59 55 56 47 C
50 33 60 39 53 A 50 46 43 60 35 B
51 32 59 41 56 C 51 39 36 44 31 C
52 34 58 40 55 B 52 58 45 35 40 A
53 47 42 35 32 C 53 54 52 48 50 C
54 50 46 43 49 D 54 50 34 42 58 A
55 38 40 34 60 A 55 57 39 59 33 D
56 43 47 59 44 C 56 37 41 34 38 B
57 36 44 53 59 B 57 53 32 50 49 C
58 45 54 37 43 D 58 48 54 46 36 A
59 41 52 56 57 B 59 55 44 57 56 C
60 48 56 58 46 D 60 51 37 31 34 B
Text of page 2
REET‐2024 PL‐1 (LEVEL‐1) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT‐1)
REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐I URDU (31‐60) REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐I SINDHI (31‐60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
31 40 57 39 52 B 31 36 50 57 42 C
32 44 60 38 55 A 32 40 48 60 45 B
33 41 56 37 54 D 33 37 47 56 44 A
34 43 59 36 53 C 34 39 46 59 43 D
35 42 58 40 51 D 35 38 49 58 41 C
36 31 49 53 43 B 36 31 53 44 54 B
37 33 47 51 42 A 37 44 42 55 58 A
38 32 50 54 45 B 38 49 57 34 60 D
39 34 48 52 44 A 39 58 60 33 37 C
40 45 39 55 34 D 40 47 39 48 34 C
41 37 35 33 48 C 41 60 36 53 33 B
42 52 31 45 57 B 42 33 55 50 56 A
43 60 38 41 59 D 43 56 44 31 51 D
44 47 53 49 46 C 44 42 40 41 39 C
45 35 51 58 32 A 45 32 37 52 31 B
46 39 43 47 38 D 46 59 58 35 38 D
47 56 33 43 40 B 47 46 51 54 53 A
48 49 41 32 60 A 48 41 43 42 32 C
49 59 55 56 47 C 49 45 38 32 55 B
50 46 44 60 36 D 50 43 54 46 59 D
51 38 36 44 31 C 51 57 45 49 36 A
52 58 46 35 41 D 52 48 41 43 35 C
53 54 52 48 50 A 53 35 59 47 52 B
54 50 34 42 58 C 54 50 52 45 57 D
55 57 40 59 33 B 55 34 56 51 40 A
56 36 42 34 39 C 56 53 31 40 50 C
57 53 32 50 49 D 57 55 34 39 49 D
58 48 54 46 37 B 58 52 33 37 48 A
59 55 45 57 56 A 59 54 35 36 47 A
60 51 37 31 35 C 60 51 32 38 46 B
REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐I PUNJABI (31‐60) REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐I GUJRATI (31‐60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
31 41 57 38 52 D 31 42 60 38 50 D
32 45 60 36 55 C 32 41 59 37 52 C
33 42 56 35 54 A 33 43 58 39 51 A
34 44 59 37 53 B 34 52 48 33 40 C
35 43 58 34 51 A 35 55 45 32 42 B
36 32 48 53 43 BONUS 36 54 47 31 41 C
37 34 46 51 42 D 37 53 46 34 43 A
38 33 49 55 45 B 38 33 35 49 57 B
39 35 47 52 44 C 39 38 56 53 34 D
40 31 50 54 41 D 40 49 39 56 46 B
41 38 35 33 48 B 41 58 32 60 55 C
42 52 31 45 57 A 42 46 52 44 37 D
43 60 38 41 59 D 43 35 37 40 32 B
44 47 53 49 46 C 44 31 34 47 48 A
45 36 51 58 32 B 45 47 42 55 59 A
46 40 42 47 37 C 46 57 54 41 45 B
47 56 33 43 39 D 47 44 50 35 38 B
48 49 40 32 60 B 48 36 40 51 33 C
49 59 55 56 47 A 49 60 31 59 54 A
50 46 43 60 35 B 50 45 44 46 60 D
51 39 36 44 31 A 51 39 53 42 47 A
52 58 45 39 40 C 52 32 57 36 35 C
53 54 52 48 50 B 53 59 49 50 31 D
54 50 34 42 58 D 54 51 41 43 44 A
55 57 39 59 33 C 55 48 36 52 49 C
56 37 41 40 38 B 56 37 51 57 58 D
57 53 32 50 49 A 57 34 55 45 39 C
58 48 54 46 36 B 58 50 43 54 56 A
59 55 44 57 56 D 59 56 33 58 36 B
60 51 37 31 34 A 60 40 38 48 53 B
Text of page 3
REET‐2024 PL‐1 (LEVEL‐1) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT‐1)
REET‐2024 (PL‐1)LANGUAGE‐II HINDI (61‐90) REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐II SANSKRIT (61‐90)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 82 65 86 73 D 61 71 68 86 79 B
62 74 70 81 78 C 62 75 66 85 77 A
63 83 67 90 82 D 63 73 70 84 75 D
64 78 72 84 75 C 64 72 67 87 78 A
65 75 68 88 80 D 65 74 69 83 76 D
66 80 73 83 76 C 66 86 78 62 83 A
67 76 69 82 79 C 67 90 82 64 85 C
68 81 71 87 74 B 68 88 81 63 84 A
69 77 74 85 81 B 69 87 80 65 82 B
70 79 66 89 77 D 70 89 79 61 81 D
71 61 81 70 90 C 71 78 73 72 69 C
72 64 83 67 87 D 72 84 63 79 66 A
73 62 85 69 89 C 73 64 76 89 62 C
74 65 82 68 88 B 74 61 86 68 88 B
75 63 84 71 86 D 75 82 89 70 80 C
76 67 86 75 65 A 76 67 84 66 73 B
77 71 90 63 84 C 77 80 74 75 67 D
78 87 76 79 62 D 78 63 61 90 64 A
79 90 62 65 70 C 79 76 71 81 89 C
80 70 79 61 67 B 80 69 87 74 86 D
81 85 63 73 72 D 81 85 64 67 70 B
82 68 77 78 63 D 82 77 75 88 61 D
83 73 61 80 85 C 83 65 85 76 68 A
84 89 78 66 68 B 84 62 72 69 71 B
85 69 89 62 61 C 85 79 90 73 87 BONUS
86 88 87 76 64 C 86 83 77 78 90 A
87 66 80 72 83 D 87 68 88 82 72 C
88 72 64 77 66 A 88 81 65 71 63 B
89 86 88 64 71 D 89 70 83 80 74 A
90 84 75 74 69 A 90 66 62 77 65 C
REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐II ENGLISH (61‐90) REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐II URDU (61‐90)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 74 90 67 75 D 61 69 89 65 75 B
62 79 87 64 73 A 62 72 80 74 85 D
63 76 85 66 77 C 63 65 68 83 71 C
64 78 89 69 76 B 64 84 62 87 68 A
65 75 84 68 72 B 65 88 77 90 62 D
66 80 86 65 74 C 66 74 83 81 78 A
67 77 88 63 71 C 67 82 66 72 86 B
68 66 75 80 90 A,C 68 67 61 63 64 A
69 63 73 84 88 B 69 90 75 70 61 C
70 67 77 86 84 B 70 81 67 75 66 B
71 64 74 82 87 C 71 70 63 85 73 D
72 62 76 81 85 BONUS 72 66 82 88 77 D
73 65 72 85 89 A 73 86 90 64 70 C
74 61 71 83 86 A 74 71 79 62 63 D
75 70 80 88 66 A 75 83 69 76 74 B
76 85 65 75 81 B 76 89 64 86 84 B
77 90 78 62 69 C 77 68 81 89 76 B
78 73 83 71 79 C 78 85 88 73 67 A
79 82 69 90 83 B 79 80 76 61 72 B
80 88 63 77 64 A 80 73 70 71 65 C
81 71 61 70 62 BONUS 81 87 78 82 79 B
82 68 81 73 80 B 82 75 65 84 69 C
83 87 67 78 70 D 83 62 74 77 90 C
84 81 62 74 65 B 84 61 73 79 87 B
85 84 66 61 78 A 85 64 72 78 89 D
86 69 82 87 67 C 86 63 71 80 88 D
87 89 68 79 63 B 87 76 86 67 83 C
88 83 64 72 68 A,D 88 78 84 69 82 D
89 86 79 76 61 D 89 77 87 66 81 A
90 72 70 89 82 B 90 79 85 68 80 C
Text of page 4
REET‐2024 PL‐1 (LEVEL‐1) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT‐1)
REET‐2024 (PL‐1)LANGUAGE‐II SINDHI (61‐90) REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐II GUJRATI (61‐90)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 90 68 84 74 A 61 74 89 68 80 B
62 89 70 82 76 B 62 76 88 66 82 A
63 88 67 85 72 C 63 75 87 69 81 D
64 87 71 81 75 A 64 77 90 67 79 C
65 86 69 83 73 D 65 83 71 90 62 A
66 73 63 75 65 B 66 85 70 89 64 B
67 79 84 62 78 C 67 84 72 88 63 C
68 83 73 79 88 C 68 65 79 76 73 D
69 71 82 65 90 A 69 80 82 72 85 A
70 66 90 89 69 D 70 89 64 84 90 C
71 76 87 86 62 B 71 68 62 80 75 B
72 68 61 77 71 C 72 61 86 74 70 C
73 81 85 72 67 A 73 71 78 63 67 D
74 75 89 63 64 B 74 81 68 61 77 A
75 69 64 66 87 D 75 67 66 86 87 B
76 85 74 80 79 C 76 63 75 79 78 C
77 74 80 88 70 A 77 87 80 71 72 A
78 67 86 76 63 B 78 70 85 65 68 B
79 77 62 73 68 D 79 62 73 87 65 C
80 82 81 64 61 D 80 79 61 82 76 D
81 72 65 61 80 C 81 86 65 77 89 A
82 80 83 87 89 A 82 90 76 73 84 B
83 78 88 90 77 B 83 66 67 85 71 C
84 70 72 78 66 D 84 73 63 70 61 D
85 84 66 74 86 B 85 64 83 62 74 A
86 62 75 70 82 B 86 82 77 75 69 B
87 64 77 67 84 A 87 78 69 83 86 C
88 63 79 69 81 B 88 69 84 78 66 B
89 65 76 71 83 A 89 72 81 64 88 C
90 61 78 68 85 B 90 88 74 81 83 D
REET‐2024 (PL‐1) LANGUAGE‐II PUNJABI (61‐90) REET‐2024 (PL‐1) MATHEMATICS (91‐120)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 71 68 86 79 D 91 99 115 97 98 B
62 75 66 85 77 B 92 110 100 116 96 C
63 73 70 84 75 C 93 102 106 114 103 A
64 72 67 87 78 D 94 118 112 109 91 D
65 74 69 83 76 C 95 93 120 104 111 C
66 86 78 62 83 A 96 113 101 92 118 A
67 90 82 64 85 A 97 105 94 99 107 C
68 88 81 63 84 D 98 95 117 119 101 B
69 87 80 65 82 B 99 107 108 111 113 A
70 89 79 61 81 C 100 101 103 105 99 D
71 78 73 72 69 B 101 116 96 102 109 A
72 84 63 79 66 D 102 120 92 94 104 C
73 64 76 89 62 B 103 97 114 100 116 B
74 61 86 68 88 A 104 91 110 113 105 D
75 82 89 70 80 A 105 100 102 107 93 A
76 67 84 66 73 C 106 112 98 101 100 C
77 80 74 75 67 D 107 104 93 118 120 C
78 63 61 90 64 B 108 119 99 95 114 A
79 76 71 81 89 C 109 106 105 91 108 B
80 69 87 74 86 A 110 103 113 98 102 BOUNUS
81 85 64 67 70 B 111 94 107 110 115 A
82 77 75 88 61 B 112 98 119 103 110 B
83 65 85 76 68 C 113 114 116 120 117 D
84 62 72 69 71 D 114 109 104 115 106 C,D
85 79 90 73 87 A 115 96 95 108 97 A
86 83 77 78 90 A 116 111 118 93 94 B
87 68 88 82 72 C 117 92 111 96 112 D
88 81 65 71 63 D 118 108 91 112 119 B
89 70 83 80 74 A 119 117 109 106 95 C
90 66 62 77 65 D 120 115 97 117 92 A
Text of page 5
REET‐2024 PL‐1 (LEVEL‐1) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT‐1)
REET‐2024 (PL‐1)ENV.STUDIES (121‐150)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS
121 143 131 142 141 D
122 136 138 133 146 B
123 128 144 127 132 C
124 122 148 147 127 A,C
125 149 126 140 123 D
126 139 121 137 136 D
127 132 134 129 150 B
128 125 142 123 135 C
129 146 124 145 130 BONUS
130 150 136 135 126 D
131 134 128 125 143 B
132 127 122 121 138 D
133 121 146 139 134 B
134 141 150 131 148 A,D
135 147 139 126 145 D
136 130 132 122 140 B
137 145 127 138 128 C
138 129 123 149 133 BONUS
139 123 130 144 142 A
140 137 147 150 139 B
141 131 143 132 149 C
142 124 149 128 144 D
143 140 135 124 137 B
144 133 125 136 129 B
145 126 140 130 124 D
146 142 137 143 121 A
147 148 141 146 131 B
148 135 133 134 125 A
149 144 145 148 147 C
150 138 129 141 122 DPage 1 of 384
Source: Board of Secondary Education. Question paper published by Board of Secondary Education.