REET 2025: REET 2024 Level 2 (Paper code RL-2), Shift 3
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Question Booklet No.
Series Code :
PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
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S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet/
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There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four Sections : Section – I,
II and III of 30 – 30 questions each and Section – IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all Sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be
deducted for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
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PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Sections Contents No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 10
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the Online 30 31 60
Application Form as language-I from the languages given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 11 14
English 30 31 60 15 17
Sanskrit 30 31 60 18 20
Urdu 30 31 60 21 24
Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28
Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32
Gujarati 30 31 60 33 35
(III) Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other than the Language-I) 30 61 90
in the Online Application Form from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 36 39
English 30 61 90 40 42
Sanskrit 30 61 90 43 45
Urdu 30 61 90 46 49
Sindhi 30 61 90 50 53
Punjabi 30 61 90 54 57
Gujarati 30 61 90 58 60
(IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science : 60 91 150 61 76
(For Mathematics and Science Teacher)
OR
(IV b) Social Studies : 60 91 150 77 90
(For Social Studies Teacher)
OR
For any other Subject Teacher :
(Can choose either IV a or IV b)
Note : 1. In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in the Online
Application Form.
2. In Sections – IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected subject in Online Application Form.
For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2.
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question booklet.
RL-2 A *RL2SHIFT3A* (1)
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SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. Which out of following is incorrect ?
Principle of naturalness in teaching, learning of English consists of
(A) Talking to students in foreign language in the class, playground etc.
(B) Giving grades and sequence.
(C) Arranging for group discussions.
(D) Encouraging students to converse in target language.
32. Choose the right question for
‘Rani went to Delhi by bus’.
(A) Does Rani go to Delhi by bus ? (B) Did Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
(C) Did Rani went to Delhi by bus ? (D) Do Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
33. Which one is not the aim of intensive reading ?
(A) To enable students to speak English correctly.
(B) To increase students active vocabulary.
(C) To concentrate upon language.
(D) To save time.
34. Phonetic symbol for “show” is
(A) ʃəʊ (B) soʊ (C) ʃo (D) sho
35. Choose the right question for
‘He has given a pen to Radha’.
(A) To whom has he given a pen ? (B) To who has he given a pen ?
(C) To whose has he given a pen ? (D) To what has he given a pen ?
36. The evaluation cycle has not one of these elements :
(A) Measurement (B) Objectives
(C) Learning experiences (D) Tools and devices of evaluation
37. The old methods used to teach English language are
(A) Translation cum grammar method and direct method.
(B) Translation cum grammar method and bilingual method.
(C) Translation cum grammar method and substitutional method.
(D) Translation cum grammar method and multilingualism.
38. Choose the correct passive voice for
‘Some boys were helping the wounded man’.
(A) The wounded man were helped by some boys.
(B) The wounded man was helped by some boys.
(C) The wounded man was helping by some boys.
(D) The wounded man was being helped by some boys.
(15) A
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39. Out of the following which is not a quality of good handwriting ?
(A) Legibility (B) Attractiveness (C) Uniformity (D) Writing slowly
40. Rubrics can be used for :
(A) Self assessment and peer assessment.
(B) Students and teacher assessment.
(C) Teacher assessment.
(D) Teacher and parents assessment.
41. Choose the correct indirect speech for
The policeman said to us, “where are you going ?”
(A) The policeman asked that where we are going.
(B) The policeman enquired where we were going.
(C) The policeman asked us where we are going.
(D) The policeman enquired us where were are going.
42. Which out of the following is not related to the direct method of learning English ?
(A) Grammar is taught systematically.
(B) It makes pupil to think in English.
(C) It enable pupil to express his thoughts and feelings directly by means of English.
(D) This method is interesting because it is full of activity.
43. In close test students are asked :
(A) To answer questions with the help of their peer who is close to them.
(B) To answer questions with the help of a text book which is closed.
(C) To fill the blank or delete words from the passage to complete the idea.
(D) To point out the error from the options.
44. The number of consonant sounds is
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
45. In language structures can be divided into ________ categories.
(A) 2 (two) (B) 3 (three) (C) 4 (four) (D) 5 (five)
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 46-52) that follow :
At the circus I had no chance to study human beings. They had sat in their seats
peacefully while I cowered before captain’s whip. I got totally wrong idea of human
beings at that angle. I had thought that they were strong and fearless. But now I found
them running from me like a herd of deer, although I had no intention of attacking them.
When I paused in front of a tailor’s shop, he abandoned his machine and shut himself in
a cupboard, wailing. “Alas, I am undone, won’t someone shoot that tiger ?”
46. The correct spelling is
(A) Machinist (B) Machinest (C) Machineist (D) Machiniest
47. Correct adjective form of ‘intention’ is
(A) Intentionally (B) Intentionaly (C) Intently (D) Intentional
48. The synonym of ‘chance’ is
(A) Cowered (B) Totally (C) Thoughtfully (D) Opportunity
A (16)
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49. The root verb of ‘sat’ is
(A) Set (B) Sit (C) Sut (D) Site
50. The antonym of ‘fearless’ is
(A) Frightened (B) Scared (C) Wailing (D) Paused
51. A person who leads a group is a
(A) Courageous (B) Strong (C) Fearless (D) Captain
52. The synonym of ‘abandoned’ is :
(A) Cowered (B) Herd (C) Left (D) Undone
53. A picture is :
(A) An audio aid (B) An audio-visual aid
(C) A visual aid (D) None
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 54-60) that follow :
Noise pollutes our environment just as much as smoke, foul water, dirty air
and litter. It can cause illness and deafness. The human body never gets used to noise.
It continues to react even though a person thinks he or she has become used to all
surrounding noises. For instance, Naseer who lived in an apartment on a busy street
often boasted that he could sleep through any kind of noise. He claimed he just didn’t
hear it. Well, Naseer could sleep through the roar of traffic and the blare of a television
set in the next apartment, but he didn’t know that while he slept his body was reacting
to the stress of the noise.
54. ________ illness ________ deafness can be caused by noise pollution.
(A) As – so (B) Both – and (C) Neither – nor (D) As – as
55. Smoke, foul water, dirty air and litter _______ our environment just as much as noise.
(A) Pollute (B) Pollutes (C) Polluted (D) Polluting
56. Which of the following is a determiner ?
(A) Through (B) Never (C) An (D) Of
57. The human body never gets used to noise. The sentence is in
(A) Simple future (B) Present indefinite
(C) Past perfect (D) Present continuous
58. He and she has become used to all the surrounding noises. The underlined words are :
(A) Common nouns (B) Possessive pronouns
(C) Relative pronouns (D) Personal pronouns
59. Choose the conjunction out of the following :
(A) Or (B) Just (C) To (D) Has
60. Choose the correct superlative degree of ‘busy’.
(A) Busiest (B) Busier (C) Busyest (D) Busiast
(17) A
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(27) A
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SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. The correct pronunciation of the word ‘stone’ is
(A) /stͻ:n/ (B) /staun/ (C) /stʊ∂n/ (D) /st∂ʊn/
62. He ran as fast as his legs allowed but he ___________ not catch the thief.
(A) can (B) may (C) could (D) might
63. The attributes of a good test are
(A) Validity (B) Reliability (C) Usability (D) All the three
64. ___________ is an example of /∂ʊ/ sound
(A) toil (B) boy (C) home (D) poor
65. ‘Staff ___________ be at their desks by 9:00 am.’ This was written on the notice board
of an office.
(A) should (B) must (C) need (D) will
66. The principle of ___________ leaves a long lasting impression upon the child’s
learning without the use of mother tongue.
(A) concreteness (B) proportion (C) naturalness (D) interest
UNSEEN PROSE PASSAGE (Q. Nos. 67-71).
It is in the small matters of conduct, in the observance of the rule of the road that we pass
judgement upon ourselves and declare that we are civilised or uncivilized. The great moments
of heroism and sacrifice are rare. It is the little habits of the common place intercourse that
make up the great sum of life and sweeten or make bitter the journey.
67. Heroism and not sacrificed _________ rare.
(A) are (B) is (C) has (D) have
68. The following can be an appropriate title for this passage. Choose the correct option :
(A) Civilisation (B) Heroism (C) Journey (D) Being civilised
69. ‘We are civilized or uncivilized’ the type of conjunction used here is
(A) Co-ordinating (B) Co-relative
(C) Subco-ordinating (D) Temporal
70. ‘The great moments of heroism and sacrifice are rare’, implies
(A) The war is over
(B) We need great moments to prove ourselves
(C) We do not need great moments to prove ourselves
(D) Great time is now
A (40)
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71. People __________ the habit of passing the judgement in small things.
(A) have (B) is (C) had (D) are
72. ‘Finger pointing’ – is related to
(A) listening (B) reading habit (C) speaking habit (D) writing
73. Arousing, expectancy and incentive are the techniques of _________ principle.
(A) gradation (B) interest (C) motivation (D) concreteness
UNSEEN POEM (Q. Nos. 74-78).
Good people all, of every sort
Give ear unto my song,
And if you find Wondrous short
It cannot hold you long.
‘The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
To every Christian eye;
And while they swore the Dog was mad,
They swore the Man would die.
But soon a wonder came to light,
That show’d the rogues They lied;
The man recover’d of the bite,
The Dog was it that died.
74. ‘To every Christian eye;’ The literary device used here is
(A) Simile (B) Assonance (C) Alliteration (D) Metaphor
75. The line that has the use of alliteration is
(A) The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
(B) But soon a wonder came to light
(C) They swore the Man would die
(D) The Dog was it that died
76. ‘It cannot hold you long’ the object used for personification in this line is
(A) dog (B) song (C) men (D) people
77. The rhyme scheme in the given stanzas is
(A) abcd (B) aabb (C) abab (D) abc abc
78. ‘The man was good as us saint’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) personification (B) simile
(C) assonance (D) alliteration
(41) A
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79. Acquiring language is a _____________ process. Choose the correct option :
(A) sub-conscious (B) concession
(C) drill (D) adopted
80. The list of semi-vowels comprise
(A) s, z (B) j, w (C) h, l (D) m, n
81. ‘Development of generic skills’ is one of the vital strategies of
(A) Testing (B) Evaluation (C) Assessment (D) Remedial teaching
82. The English sonnet is also known as
(A) Shakespearen sonnet (B) Miltonic sonnet
(C) Wordsworth sonnet (D) Coleridge sonnet
83. “The only person equipped to choose these text-books are school teachers who really
know the fodder, suited to their flock.” This is quoted by
(A) V. K. Gokak (B) R. L. Mehta (C) Guy Boas (D) Otto Jesperson
84. The new bold leader has been able to ______________ all opposition. Choose the
correct idiom :
(A) bear with (B) bear up (C) bear down (D) bear out
85. ‘Different learning styles can be evaluated’ – is a merit of
(A) Group evaluation (B) Cloze test
(C) Rubrics (D) Peer groups
86. ____________ drills are the excellent means of forming correct speech habits.
(A) pronunciation (B) reading
(C) substitution (D) composition
87. ‘Language is always used in a context in a real life situation, in a conversation one
constantly has to interpret what is being said’ – is a rationale of
(A) situational approach (B) communicative approach
(C) project approach (D) structural approach
88. The poem composed by Oliver Goldsmith on the death of a mad dog is
(A) Elegy (B) Sonnet (C) Lyric (D) Ode
89. The following tests help to ascertain the skill of aloud reading of the students
(A) Objective (B) New type (C) Oral (D) Written
90. The idiomatic phrase ‘a cock and bull story’ means
(A) a bold story (B) a victory event (C) a real story (D) an unreal story
A (42)
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III –
II –
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A (46)
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16 : 16 (D) 14 : 14 (C) 14 : 16 (B) 16 : 14 (A)
.72
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(47) A
Text of page 48
RL-2
.73
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.74
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.75
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.76
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.77
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.78
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.79
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.80
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A (48)
Text of page 49
RL-2
.81
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.82
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.83
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.84
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.86
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.87
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.88
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.89
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.90
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(49) A
Text of page 50
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– III
– II
qgYr
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
(A) iv, iii, i, ii (B) ii, iii, iv, i
(C) i, ii, iii, iv (D) ii, i, iv, iii
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (50)
Text of page 51
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68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(51) A
Text of page 52
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73.
1. i.
2. ii.
3. iii.
4. iv.
(A) 1-iv 2-i 3-ii 4-iii
(B) 1-i 2-ii 3-iii 4-iv
(C) 1-iv 2-iii 3-i 4-ii
(D) 1-iv 2-iii 3-ii 4-i
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A (52)
Text of page 53
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78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(53) A
Text of page 54
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– III
– II
( n§Om~r)
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
A (54)
Text of page 55
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67. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(55) A
Text of page 56
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78. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A (56)
Text of page 57
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84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(57) A
Text of page 58
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– III
– II
(JwOamVr)>
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A (58)
Text of page 59
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71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(59) A
Text of page 60
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81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A (60)
Text of page 61
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SECTION – IV/ IÊS> – IV
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and IV(b)
Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple Choice Questions each.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social Studies
as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Xmo CnIÊS> AWm©V² IV(a) J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ Ed§ IV(b) gm_m{OH$ AÜ``Z h¢ & XmoZm| CnIÊS>m| Ho$
àË`oH$ _| 60 ~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ h¢ &
Aä`Wu H$mo IV(a) J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ AWdm IV(b) gm_m{OH$ AÜ``Z, {OZH$m M`Z Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ
_| {H$`m h¡, _| go {H$gr EH$ CnIÊS> H$mo MwZZm h¡ Ed§ g^r 60 àíZm| H$m CÎma XoZm h¡ &
SECTION – IV(a)/ IÊS> – IV(a)
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE/ J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject must
answer all the questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Hw$b 60 àíZ h¢ & {OZ Aä`{W©`m| Zo Bg {df` H$m M`Z {H$`m h¡ CÝh| g^r àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ &
91. In how much time will a sum of money doubles at 15% annual simple interest rate ?
(A) 13 years 4 months (B) 13 years 3 months
(C) 6 years 8 months (D) 6 years 9 months
{H$VZo g_` _o§ H$moB© YZ H$m Hw$b am{e `moJ 15% dm{f©H$ gmYmaU ã`mO H$s Xa go XþJwZm hmo OmEJm ?
(A) 13 df© 4 _mh (B) 13 df© 3 _mh
(C) 6 df© 8 _mh (D) 6 df© 9 _mh
92. How long should the process of remedial teaching continue ?
(A) Until the student is interested
(B) As long as you have time in school
(C) Until another teacher comes to class
(D) Until the lackness of students is not removed
CnMmamË_H$ {ejU H$s à{H«$`m H$~ VH$ MbVr ahZr Mm{hE ?
(A) O~ VH$ N>mÌ é{M Zm b|
(B) O~ VH$ {dÚmb` _| g_` {_bo
(C) O~ VH$ AÝ` AÜ`mnH$ H$jm _| Zht AmE
(D) O~ VH$ N>mÌm| H$s H$_r Xÿa Zm hmo
93. How many lines of symmetry are there for a square ?
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 6
EH$ dJ© Ho$ {bE {H$VZr g_{_{V aoImE± hmoJr ?
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 6
(61) A
Text of page 64
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98. In given figure PQ||SR and PS⊥PQ. If PQ = 11 cm, PS = 8 cm and QR = 10 cm then
area of figure PQRS will be
S R
8 cm 10 cm
P 11 cm Q
(A) 32 cm2 (B) 64 cm2 (C) 72 cm2 (D) 44 cm2
Xr JB© AmH¥${V _| PQ||SR VWm PS⊥PQ h¡ & `{X PQ = 11 go_r, PS = 8 go_r VWm
QR = 10 go_r hmo Vmo AmH¥${V PQRS H$m joÌ\$b hmoJm
S R
8 go_r 10 go_r
P Q
11 go_r
(A) 32 go_r2 (B) 64 go_r2 (C) 72 go_r2 (D) 44 go_r2
99. If a student get same 52 marks out of 100 awarded by different examiners in a test of
mathematics, this shows which characteristics of evaluation ?
(A) Validity (B) Reliability (C) Practicability (D) Objectivity
`{X EH$ {dÚmWu AbJ-AbJ narjH$m| go J{UV Ho$ narjU _| 100 _| go 52 A§H$ àmßV H$aVm h¡, `h
narjU H$s H$m¡Z-gr {deofVm Xem©Vm h¡ ?
(A) d¡YVm (B) {dídgZr`Vm (C) gmÜ`Vm (D) dñVw{ZîR>Vm
100. In how much time will the interest on Rs. 1,000 be Rs. 440 at the rate of 20% annual
compound interest ?
(A) 1 year (B) 2 year (C) 3 year (D) 2 year 6 month
{H$VZo g_` _o§ 20% dm{f©H$ MH«$d¥{Õ ã`mO H$s Xa go 1,000 én`o H$m ã`mO 440 én`o hmoJm ?
(A) 1 df© (B) 2 df© (C) 3 df© (D) 2 df© 6 _mh
A (64)
Text of page 66
RL-2
2 3
( 64 ) ( ) ( )
0
105. What is the value of 3 + 3 64 2 + 5 32 ?
(A) 14 (B) 194 (C) 193 (D) 13
2 3
( 64 ) ( ) ( ) H$m Š`m _mZ h¡ ?
0
3 + 3 64 2 + 5 32
(A) 14 (B) 194 (C) 193 (D) 13
106. The probability of a certain event will be
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
{ZpíMV KQ>Zm H$s àm{`H$Vm hmoJr
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
1 1
107. 20% of + 30% of is equal to
2 3
5 1 1 2
(A) 50% of (B) 40% of (C) 50% of (D) 50% of
6 4 5 5
1 1
H$m 20% + H$m 30% ~am~a h¡
2 3
5 1 1 2
(A) H$m 50% (B) H$m 40% (C) H$m 50% (D) H$m 50%
6 4 5 5
108. The nature of mathematics is
(A) It is logical (B) It is hard
(C) It is metaphorical (D) This is not for average students
J{UV H$s àH¥${V h¡
(A) `h Vm{H©$H$ h¡ (B) `h H${R>Z h¡
(C) `h Ab§H$m[aH$ h¡ (D) `h Am¡gV {dÚm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE Zht h¡
109. x3+ y3 is equal to
(A) (x + y) (x2 + xy + y2) (B) (x – y) (x2 + xy + y2)
(C) (x + y) (x2 – xy + y2) (D) (x + y) (x2 + xy – y2)
x3+ y3 Ho$ ~am~a h¡
(A) (x + y) (x2 + xy + y2) (B) (x – y) (x2 + xy + y2)
(C) (x + y) (x2 – xy + y2) (D) (x + y) (x2 + xy – y2)
A (66)
Text of page 69
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119. Solution of 2 ( 0. 8 ) is
(A) 0.16 (B) 0.17 (C) 1.6 (D) 1.7
2 ( 0. 8 ) H$m hb h¡
(A) 0.16 (B) 0.17 (C) 1.6 (D) 1.7
2
120. If each exterior angle of a regular polygon is of its interior angle, then its number of
sides will be 7
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 9
2
{H$gr g_~hþ^wO H$m àË`oH$ ~{hîH$moU, CgHo$ AÝV:H$moU H$m ^mJ h¡, Vmo CgH$s ^wOmAm| H$s g§»`m
7
hmoJr
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 9
121. Match the column X with the column Y :
Column X Column Y
p. Time to prefer wearing dark coloured clothes i. night time
q. Time of blowing of the sea breeze ii. winters
r. Time to prefer wearing light coloured clothes iii. day time
s. Time of blowing of the land breeze iv. summers
The correct answer is
(A) p – i, q – ii, r – iii, s – iv
(B) p – ii, q – iii, r – i, s – iv
(C) p – ii, q – iii, r – iv, s – i
(D) p – iv, q – i, r – ii, s – iii
H$m°b_ X H$m H$m°b_ Y go {_bmZ H$s{OE &
H$m°b_ X H$m°b_ Y
p. Jhao a§J Ho$ H$n‹S>m| H$mo nhZZo H$mo dar`Vm XoZo H$m g_` i. am{Ì H$m g_`
q. g_wÐ g_ra Ho$ ~hZo H$m g_` ii. g{X©`m§
r. hëHo$ a§J Ho$ H$n‹S>mo§ H$mo nhZZo H$mo dar`Vm XoZo H$m g_` iii. {XZ H$m g_`
s. Wb g_ra Ho$ ~hZo H$m g_` iv. J{_©`m§
ghr CÎma h¡
(A) p – i, q – ii, r – iii, s – iv
(B) p – ii, q – iii, r – i, s – iv
(C) p – ii, q – iii, r – iv, s–i
(D) p – iv, q – i, r – ii, s – iii
(69) A
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126. Two plane mirrors X and Y are placed perpendicular to each other. A ray of light is incident
on mirror X at an angle of 300, as shown in figure below. Then the angle of reflected ray
for mirror Y with the incident ray for the same mirror Y will be
Y
30°
X
(A) 300 (B) 600
(C) 900 (D) 1200
Xmo g_Vb Xn©U X d Y EH$-Xÿgao Ho$ bå~dV aIo h¢ & àH$me H$s EH$ {H$aU Xn©U X na 300 Ho$ H$moU
na Amn{VV h¡, O¡gm {H$ ZrMo {MÌ _| Xem©`m J`m h¡ & Vmo Xÿgao Xn©U Y go namd{V©V hmoZo dmbr {H$aU
H$m Cgr Xn©U Y na Amn{VV {H$aU go H$moU hmoJm
Y
30°
X
(A) 300 (B) 600
(C) 900 (D) 1200
(71) A
Text of page 82
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113. On the recommendation of which of the following committee was Jaipur declared the
Capital of Rajasthan ?
(A) P. Satyanarayan Rao Committee (B) Dr. Shankarrao Dev Committee
(C) V. P. Menon Committee (D) K. M. Munshi Committee
{ZåZm§{H$V _| go {H$g g{_{V H$s {g\$m[ae na O`nwa H$mo amOñWmZ H$s amOYmZr ~Zm`m J`m ?
(A) nr. gË`Zmam`U amd g{_{V (B) S>m°. e§H$aamd Xod g{_{V
(C) dr. nr. _oZZ g{_{V (D) Ho$. E_. _w§er g{_{V
114. When did the Gandhi-Irwin pact take place ?
(A) 1931 (B) 1921 (C) 1933 (D) 1935
Jm§Yr-Ba{dZ g_Pm¡Vm H$~ hþAm ?
(A) 1931 (B) 1921 (C) 1933 (D) 1935
115. Hunting dance of Rajasthan is related to
(A) Sehariya (B) Garasiya (C) Kalbeliya (D) Bheel
amOñWmZ H$m {eH$ma Z¥Ë` g§~§{YV h¡
(A) gh[a`m (B) Jam{g`m (C) H$mb~o{b`m (D) ^rb
116. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Mahajanapada Town
(A) Ashmak – Kampilya
(B) Shursen – Mathura
(C) Kuru – Indraprastha
(D) Chedi – Shuktimati
{ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm EH$ `w½_ ghr gw_o{bV Zht h¢ ?
_hmOZnX ZJa
(A) Aí_H$ – H$mpånë`
(B) eyagoZ – _Wwam
(C) Hw$é – BÝÐàñW
(D) Mo{X – ewpŠV_{V
117. The area situated in the foot hills of Shivalik mountain range is called
(A) Khadar region (B) Bangar region
(C) Tarai region (D) Bhabar region
{edm{bH$ nd©V ûm¥§Ibm H$s nd©VnXr` joÌ _| pñWV ^mJ H$hbmVm h¡
(A) ImXa àXoe (B) ~m§Ja àXoe
(C) VamB© àXoe (D) ^m~a àXoe
A (82)
Text of page 95
DO
NO
T
(95) WR
IT
EH
ER
E
A RL-2
Text of page 97
Question Booklet No.
Series Code :
PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
B
grarµO H$moS> :
Write this code in OMR Answer Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR AmÝga erQ> _| A§{H$V H$a| &
1. Roll No./ amob Z§. 2. OMR Answer Sheet No./ Amo.E_.Ama. AmÝga erQ> H«$_m§H$
* 3. Candidate’s Name/ Aä`Wu H$m Zm_ * 4. _¢Zo n¥îR> ^mJ na {X`o J`o g^r {ZX}em| H$mo n‹T> {b`m h¡ &
B Candidate’s Signature/ Aä`Wu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form./ O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ _| A§{H$V {H$`m h¡ &
Invigilator’s Signature/ (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet/
H«$_m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© ñd`§ Aä`Wu Ûmam H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m _| Hw$b n¥îR> : 96
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four Sections : Section – I,
II and III of 30 – 30 questions each and Section – IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all Sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be
deducted for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
Bg àíZ-nÌ _| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR> ~hþM`ZmË_H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b Mma IÊS>m| _| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ & àË`oH$ IÊS>-I, II Ed§ III, 30 – 30 àíZm|
H$m h¡ VWm IÊS>-IV 60 àíZm| H$m h¡ & àË`oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {b`o H$moB© A§H$ H$mQ>o Zht Om`|Jo & AZwÎm[aV àíZm| Ho$ gå~ÝY _| nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V_ n¥îR> na {X`o
J`o _hËdnyU© {ZX}em] _| H«$_ g§»`m 4 XoI| &
narjmWu OMR erQ> ^aZo go nyd© `h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m _| 1-96 n¥ð> ^br^m±{V N>no h¢ & H$moB© {dg§J{V hmoZo na àíZ-nwpñVH$m Vwa§V ~Xbdm b| &
PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Sections Contents No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 10
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the Online 30 31 60
Application Form as language-I from the languages given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 11 14
English 30 31 60 15 17
Sanskrit 30 31 60 18 20
Urdu 30 31 60 21 24
Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28
Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32
Gujarati 30 31 60 33 35
(III) Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other than the Language-I) 30 61 90
in the Online Application Form from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 36 39
English 30 61 90 40 42
Sanskrit 30 61 90 43 45
Urdu 30 61 90 46 49
Sindhi 30 61 90 50 53
Punjabi 30 61 90 54 57
Gujarati 30 61 90 58 60
(IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science : 60 91 150 61 76
(For Mathematics and Science Teacher)
OR
(IV b) Social Studies : 60 91 150 77 90
(For Social Studies Teacher)
OR
For any other Subject Teacher :
(Can choose either IV a or IV b)
Note : 1. In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in the Online
Application Form.
2. In Sections – IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected subject in Online Application Form.
For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2.
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question booklet.
RL-2 B *RL2SHIFT3B* (1)
Text of page 111
RL-2
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 31-37) that follow :
Noise pollutes our environment just as much as smoke, foul water, dirty air
and litter. It can cause illness and deafness. The human body never gets used to noise.
It continues to react even though a person thinks he or she has become used to all
surrounding noises. For instance, Naseer who lived in an apartment on a busy street
often boasted that he could sleep through any kind of noise. He claimed he just didn’t
hear it. Well, Naseer could sleep through the roar of traffic and the blare of a television
set in the next apartment, but he didn’t know that while he slept his body was reacting
to the stress of the noise.
31. He and she has become used to all the surrounding noises. The underlined words are :
(A) Common nouns (B) Possessive pronouns
(C) Relative pronouns (D) Personal pronouns
32. Choose the conjunction out of the following :
(A) Or (B) Just (C) To (D) Has
33. The human body never gets used to noise. The sentence is in
(A) Simple future (B) Present indefinite
(C) Past perfect (D) Present continuous
34. Choose the correct superlative degree of ‘busy’.
(A) Busiest (B) Busier (C) Busyest (D) Busiast
35. ________ illness ________ deafness can be caused by noise pollution.
(A) As – so (B) Both – and (C) Neither – nor (D) As – as
36. Which of the following is a determiner ?
(A) Through (B) Never (C) An (D) Of
37. Smoke, foul water, dirty air and litter _______ our environment just as much as noise.
(A) Pollute (B) Pollutes (C) Polluted (D) Polluting
38. Which out of the following is not related to the direct method of learning English ?
(A) Grammar is taught systematically.
(B) It makes pupil to think in English.
(C) It enable pupil to express his thoughts and feelings directly by means of English.
(D) This method is interesting because it is full of activity.
(15) B
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Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 39-45) that follow :
At the circus I had no chance to study human beings. They had sat in their seats
peacefully while I cowered before captain’s whip. I got totally wrong idea of human
beings at that angle. I had thought that they were strong and fearless. But now I found
them running from me like a herd of deer, although I had no intention of attacking them.
When I paused in front of a tailor’s shop, he abandoned his machine and shut himself in
a cupboard, wailing. “Alas, I am undone, won’t someone shoot that tiger ?”
39. The antonym of ‘fearless’ is
(A) Frightened (B) Scared (C) Wailing (D) Paused
40. A person who leads a group is a
(A) Courageous (B) Strong (C) Fearless (D) Captain
41. The correct spelling is
(A) Machinist (B) Machinest (C) Machineist (D) Machiniest
42. The synonym of ‘chance’ is
(A) Cowered (B) Totally (C) Thoughtfully (D) Opportunity
43. Correct adjective form of ‘intention’ is
(A) Intentionally (B) Intentionaly (C) Intently (D) Intentional
44. The synonym of ‘abandoned’ is :
(A) Cowered (B) Herd (C) Left (D) Undone
45. The root verb of ‘sat’ is
(A) Set (B) Sit (C) Sut (D) Site
46. Choose the correct indirect speech for
The policeman said to us, “where are you going ?”
(A) The policeman asked that where we are going.
(B) The policeman enquired where we were going.
(C) The policeman asked us where we are going.
(D) The policeman enquired us where were are going.
47. The old methods used to teach English language are
(A) Translation cum grammar method and direct method.
(B) Translation cum grammar method and bilingual method.
(C) Translation cum grammar method and substitutional method.
(D) Translation cum grammar method and multilingualism.
48. A picture is :
(A) An audio aid (B) An audio-visual aid
(C) A visual aid (D) None
49. Choose the correct passive voice for
‘Some boys were helping the wounded man’.
(A) The wounded man were helped by some boys.
(B) The wounded man was helped by some boys.
(C) The wounded man was helping by some boys.
(D) The wounded man was being helped by some boys.
B (16)
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50. Which out of following is incorrect ?
Principle of naturalness in teaching, learning of English consists of
(A) Talking to students in foreign language in the class, playground etc.
(B) Giving grades and sequence.
(C) Arranging for group discussions.
(D) Encouraging students to converse in target language.
51. The evaluation cycle has not one of these elements :
(A) Measurement (B) Objectives
(C) Learning experiences (D) Tools and devices of evaluation
52. Choose the right question for
‘He has given a pen to Radha’.
(A) To whom has he given a pen ? (B) To who has he given a pen ?
(C) To whose has he given a pen ? (D) To what has he given a pen ?
53. In close test students are asked :
(A) To answer questions with the help of their peer who is close to them.
(B) To answer questions with the help of a text book which is closed.
(C) To fill the blank or delete words from the passage to complete the idea.
(D) To point out the error from the options.
54. Out of the following which is not a quality of good handwriting ?
(A) Legibility (B) Attractiveness (C) Uniformity (D) Writing slowly
55. Phonetic symbol for “show” is
(A) ʃəʊ (B) soʊ (C) ʃo (D) sho
56. Rubrics can be used for :
(A) Self assessment and peer assessment.
(B) Students and teacher assessment.
(C) Teacher assessment.
(D) Teacher and parents assessment.
57. Choose the right question for
‘Rani went to Delhi by bus’.
(A) Does Rani go to Delhi by bus ? (B) Did Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
(C) Did Rani went to Delhi by bus ? (D) Do Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
58. Which one is not the aim of intensive reading ?
(A) To enable students to speak English correctly.
(B) To increase students active vocabulary.
(C) To concentrate upon language.
(D) To save time.
59. In language structures can be divided into ________ categories.
(A) 2 (two) (B) 3 (three) (C) 4 (four) (D) 5 (five)
60. The number of consonant sounds is
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
(17) B
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II –
I–
(CXÿ© )
.31
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.32
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.33
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.34
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.35
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.36
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.37
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(21) B
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.38
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.39
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.40
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.41
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.42
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.43
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.44
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.45
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.46
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.47
(D) (C) (B) (A)
B (22)
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.48
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.49
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.50
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.51
1921 (D) 1918 (C) 1914 (B) 1912 (A)
.52
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.53
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.54
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(23) B
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.55
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.56
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.57
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.58
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.59
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.60
(D) (C) (B) (A)
B (24)
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– II
–I
qgYr
B
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(25) B
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35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40.
(A) (“ ”) (B) ( ! ) (C) ( ; ) (D) ( ? )
41.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (26)
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46.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(27) B
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52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
1. i.
2. ii.
3. iii.
4. iv.
(A) 1-i 2-ii 3-iii 4-iv
(B) 1-iii 2-i 3-iv 4-ii
(C) 1-ii 2-iv 3-i 4-iii
(D) 1-iv 2-iii 3-ii 4-i
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (28)
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– II
–I
( n§Om~r)
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(29) B
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39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
42. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (30)
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45. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
50. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(31) B
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55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (32)
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– II
–I
(JwOamVr)>
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(33) B
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38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (34)
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48.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
51.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(35) B
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SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. Acquiring language is a _____________ process. Choose the correct option :
(A) sub-conscious (B) concession
(C) drill (D) adopted
62. ____________ drills are the excellent means of forming correct speech habits.
(A) pronunciation (B) reading
(C) substitution (D) composition
63. He ran as fast as his legs allowed but he ___________ not catch the thief.
(A) can (B) may (C) could (D) might
64. The attributes of a good test are
(A) Validity (B) Reliability (C) Usability (D) All the three
65. The list of semi-vowels comprise
(A) s, z (B) j, w (C) h, l (D) m, n
66. The idiomatic phrase ‘a cock and bull story’ means
(A) a bold story (B) a victory event (C) a real story (D) an unreal story
67. Arousing, expectancy and incentive are the techniques of _________ principle.
(A) gradation (B) interest (C) motivation (D) concreteness
68. The poem composed by Oliver Goldsmith on the death of a mad dog is
(A) Elegy (B) Sonnet (C) Lyric (D) Ode
UNSEEN POEM (Q.Nos. 69-73).
Good people all, of every sort
Give ear unto my song,
And if you find Wondrous short
It cannot hold you long.
‘The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
To every Christian eye;
And while they swore the Dog was mad,
They swore the Man would die.
But soon a wonder came to light,
That show’d the rogues They lied;
The man recover’d of the bite,
The Dog was it that died.
69. ‘It cannot hold you long’ the object used for personification in this line is
(A) dog (B) song (C) men (D) people
B (40)
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70. ‘The man was good as us saint’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) personification (B) simile
(C) assonance (D) alliteration
71. The line that has the use of alliteration is
(A) The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
(B) But soon a wonder came to light
(C) They swore the Man would die
(D) The Dog was it that died
72. ‘To every Christian eye;’ The literary device used here is
(A) Simile (B) Assonance (C) Alliteration (D) Metaphor
73. The rhyme scheme in the given stanzas is
(A) abcd (B) aabb (C) abab (D) abc abc
74. The English sonnet is also known as
(A) Shakespearen sonnet (B) Miltonic sonnet
(C) Wordsworth sonnet (D) Coleridge sonnet
75. ‘Finger pointing’ – is related to
(A) listening (B) reading habit (C) speaking habit (D) writing
76. ‘Language is always used in a context in a real life situation, in a conversation one
constantly has to interpret what is being said’ – is a rationale of
(A) situational approach (B) communicative approach
(C) project approach (D) structural approach
77. The new bold leader has been able to ______________ all opposition. Choose the
correct idiom :
(A) bear with (B) bear up (C) bear down (D) bear out
78. ‘Different learning styles can be evaluated’ – is a merit of
(A) Group evaluation (B) Cloze test
(C) Rubrics (D) Peer groups
79. ‘Staff ___________ be at their desks by 9:00 am.’ This was written on the notice board
of an office.
(A) should (B) must (C) need (D) will
80. “The only person equipped to choose these text-books are school teachers who really
know the fodder, suited to their flock.” This is quoted by
(A) V. K. Gokak (B) R. L. Mehta (C) Guy Boas (D) Otto Jesperson
(41) B
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81. ___________ is an example of /∂ʊ/ sound
(A) toil (B) boy (C) home (D) poor
82. The correct pronunciation of the word ‘stone’ is
(A) /stͻ:n/ (B) /staun/ (C) /stʊ∂n/ (D) /st∂ʊn/
83. ‘Development of generic skills’ is one of the vital strategies of
(A) Testing (B) Evaluation (C) Assessment (D) Remedial teaching
84. The following tests help to ascertain the skill of aloud reading of the students
(A) Objective (B) New type (C) Oral (D) Written
UNSEEN PROSE PASSAGE (Q.Nos. 85-89).
It is in the small matters of conduct, in the observance of the rule of the road that we pass
judgement upon ourselves and declare that we are civilised or uncivilized. The great moments
of heroism and sacrifice are rare. It is the little habits of the common place intercourse that
make up the great sum of life and sweeten or make bitter the journey.
85. ‘We are civilized or uncivilized’ the type of conjunction used here is
(A) Co-ordinating (B) Co-relative
(C) Subco-ordinating (D) Temporal
86. People __________ the habit of passing the judgement in small things.
(A) have (B) is (C) had (D) are
87. The following can be an appropriate title for this passage. Choose the correct option :
(A) Civilisation (B) Heroism (C) Journey (D) Being civilised
88. Heroism and not sacrificed _________ rare.
(A) are (B) is (C) has (D) have
89. ‘The great moments of heroism and sacrifice are rare’, implies
(A) The war is over
(B) We need great moments to prove ourselves
(C) We do not need great moments to prove ourselves
(D) Great time is now
90. The principle of ___________ leaves a long lasting impression upon the child’s
learning without the use of mother tongue.
(A) concreteness (B) proportion
(C) naturalness (D) interest
B (42)
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III –
II –
(CXÿ© )
.61
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.62
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.63
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.64
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.65
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.66
(D) (C) (B) (A)
B (46)
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.67
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.68
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.69
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.70
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.71
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.72
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.73
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.74
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(47) B
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.75
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.76
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.77
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.78
16 : 16 (D) 14 : 14 (C) 14 : 16 (B) 16 : 14 (A)
.79
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.80
(D) (C) (B) (A)
B (48)
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.81
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.82
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.83
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.84
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.85
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.86
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.87
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.88
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.89
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.90
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(49) B
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– III
– II
qgYr
61.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (50)
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65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(51) B
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77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
1. i.
2. ii.
3. iii.
4. iv.
(A) 1-iv 2-i 3-ii 4-iii
(B) 1-i 2-ii 3-iii 4-iv
(C) 1-iv 2-iii 3-i 4-ii
(D) 1-iv 2-iii 3-ii 4-i
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (52)
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82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
(A) iv, iii, i, ii (B) ii, iii, iv, i (C) i, ii, iii, iv (D) ii, i, iv, iii
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(53) B
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– III
– II
( n§Om~r)
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (54)
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68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(55) B
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74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (56)
Text of page 153
RL-2
84. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
89. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(57) B
Text of page 154
RL-2
– III
– II
(JwOamVr)>
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B (58)
Text of page 155
RL-2
71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(59) B
Text of page 156
RL-2
80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
B (60)
Text of page 157
RL-2
SECTION – IV/ IÊS> – IV
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and IV(b)
Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple Choice Questions each.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social Studies
as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Xmo CnIÊS> AWm©V² IV(a) J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ Ed§ IV(b) gm_m{OH$ AÜ``Z h¢ & XmoZm| CnIÊS>m| Ho$
àË`oH$ _| 60 ~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ h¢ &
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_| {H$`m h¡, _| go {H$gr EH$ CnIÊS> H$mo MwZZm h¡ Ed§ g^r 60 àíZm| H$m CÎma XoZm h¡ &
SECTION – IV(a)/ IÊS> – IV(a)
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE/ J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject must
answer all the questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Hw$b 60 àíZ h¢ & {OZ Aä`{W©`m| Zo Bg {df` H$m M`Z {H$`m h¡ CÝh| g^r àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ &
91. John buys an old fridge and after getting it repaired for Rs. 1,500 and selling it for
Rs. 8,100, he gets a loss of 10%. Then for how much did he buy the fridge ?
(A) Rs. 7,500 (B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 10,500 (D) Rs. 8,250
Om°Z Zo EH$ nwamZm {\«$O IarXm Am¡a Cgo 1,500 én`o _| _aå_V H$amH$a 8,100 én`o _| ~oMZo na Cgo
10% H$s hm{Z hþB©, Vmo CgZo {\«$O {H$VZo _| IarXm Wm ?
(A) 7,500 én`o (B) 9,000 én`o
(C) 10,500 én`o (D) 8,250 én`o
92. The nature of mathematics is
(A) It is logical (B) It is hard
(C) It is metaphorical (D) This is not for average students
J{UV H$s àH¥${V h¡
(A) `h Vm{H©$H$ h¡ (B) `h H${R>Z h¡
(C) `h Ab§H$m[aH$ h¡ (D) `h Am¡gV {dÚm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE Zht h¡
(61) B
Text of page 158
RL-2
93. The given pie chart shows the savings and expenditure on various items of a family in
a month. If the monthly savings of family is Rs. 3,000, then the expenditure of food
will be
Education
Food
15%
Rent 25%
10%
5% 10%
Transport Clothes
20% 15%
Others Savings
(A) Rs. 2,500 (B) Rs. 3,000 (C) Rs. 5,000 (D) Rs. 20,000
{X`m J`m nmB© MmQ>© EH$ n[adma Ho$ EH$ _mh _| ~MV VWm {d{^Þ _Xm| na ì`` Xem©Vm h¡ & `{X n[adma
H$s _m{gH$ ~MV 3,000 én`o hmo Vmo ^moOZ na ì`` hmoJm
{ejm
^moOZ
15%
{H$am`m 25%
10%
5% 10%
n[adhZ H$n‹S>o
20% 15%
AÝ` ~MV
(A) 2,500 én`o (B) 3,000 én`o (C) 5,000 én`o (D) 20,000 én`o
94. The “blueprint” in assessment in mathematics teaching is
(A) Foundation stone of school
(B) Foundation stone of question paper preparation
(C) Foundation stone of teaching
(D) Foundation stone of students
J{UV {ejU _| _yë`m§H$Z _| “ ãbyqàQ> ” h¡
(A) {dÚmb` H$s AmYma{ebm
(B) àíZ nÌ {Z_m©U H$s AmYma{ebm
(C) {ejU H$s AmYma{ebm
(D) N>mÌm| H$s AmYma{ebm
1 1
95. 20% of + 30% of is equal to
2 3
5 1 1 2
(A) 50% of (B) 40% of (C) 50% of (D) 50% of
6 4 5 5
1 1
H$m 20% + H$m 30% ~am~a h¡
2 3
5 1 1 2
(A) H$m 50% (B) H$m 40% (C) H$m 50% (D) H$m 50%
6 4 5 5
B (62)
Text of page 161
RL-2
103. In given figure PQ⊥PS, PQ||SR, ∠SQR= 28° and ∠QRT = 65°, then the value of x is
P Q
28°
x
65°
S R T
(A) 37° (B) 93°
(C) 53° (D) 56°
Xr JB© AmH¥${V _| PQ⊥PS, PQ||SR, ∠SQR= 28° VWm ∠QRT = 65° Vmo x H$m _mZ h¡
P Q
28°
x
65°
S R T
(A) 37° (B) 93°
(C) 53° (D) 56°
104. In how much time will a sum of money doubles at 15% annual simple interest rate ?
(A) 13 years 4 months
(B) 13 years 3 months
(C) 6 years 8 months
(D) 6 years 9 months
{H$VZo g_` _o§ H$moB© YZ H$m Hw$b am{e `moJ 15% dm{f©H$ gmYmaU ã`mO H$s Xa go XþJwZm hmo OmEJm ?
(A) 13 df© 4 _mh
(B) 13 df© 3 _mh
(C) 6 df© 8 _mh
(D) 6 df© 9 _mh
(65) B
Text of page 170
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140. Match the column X with the column Y :
Column X Column Y
p. Time to prefer wearing dark coloured clothes i. night time
q. Time of blowing of the sea breeze ii. winters
r. Time to prefer wearing light coloured clothes iii. day time
s. Time of blowing of the land breeze iv. summers
The correct answer is
(A) p – i, q – ii, r – iii, s – iv
(B) p – ii, q – iii, r – i, s – iv
(C) p – ii, q – iii, r – iv, s–i
(D) p – iv, q – i, r – ii, s – iii
H$m°b_ X H$m H$m°b_ Y go {_bmZ H$s{OE &
H$m°b_ X H$m°b_ Y
p. Jhao a§J Ho$ H$n‹S>m| H$mo nhZZo H$mo dar`Vm XoZo H$m g_` i. am{Ì H$m g_`
q. g_wÐ g_ra Ho$ ~hZo H$m g_` ii. g{X©`m§
r. hëHo$ a§J Ho$ H$n‹S>mo§ H$mo nhZZo H$mo dar`Vm XoZo H$m g_` iii. {XZ H$m g_`
s. Wb g_ra Ho$ ~hZo H$m g_` iv. J{_©`m§
ghr CÎma h¡
(A) p – i, q – ii, r – iii, s – iv
(B) p – ii, q – iii, r – i, s – iv
(C) p – ii, q – iii, r – iv, s–i
(D) p – iv, q – i, r – ii, s – iii
141. Merits of essay type examination is
(A) Freedom of thoughts (B) Absence of reliability and validity
(C) Lack of remedial use (D) Limited representation
{Z~ÝYmË_H$ narjm H$m JwU h¡
(A) {dMmamo§ H$s ñdV§ÌVm (B) {dídg{Z`Vm Ed§ d¡YVm H$m A^md
(C) CnMmamË_H$ Cn`moJ H$m A^md (D) gr{_V à{V{Z{YËd
142. Example of amphoteric oxide is
(A) Na2O (B) CO2 (C) Al2O3 (D) CaO
C^`Y_u Am°ŠgmB‹S> H$m CXmhaU h¡
(A) Na2O (B) CO2 (C) Al2O3 (D) CaO
B (74)
Text of page 191
DO
NO
T
(95) WR
IT
EH
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E
B RL-2
Text of page 193
Question Booklet No.
Series Code :
PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
C
grarµO H$moS> :
Write this code in OMR Answer Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR AmÝga erQ> _| A§{H$V H$a| &
1. Roll No./ amob Z§. 2. OMR Answer Sheet No./ Amo.E_.Ama. AmÝga erQ> H«$_m§H$
* 3. Candidate’s Name/ Aä`Wu H$m Zm_ * 4. _¢Zo n¥îR> ^mJ na {X`o J`o g^r {ZX}em| H$mo n‹T> {b`m h¡ &
Candidate’s Signature/ Aä`Wu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form./ O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ _| A§{H$V {H$`m h¡ &
Invigilator’s Signature/ (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet/
C H«$_m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© ñd`§ Aä`Wu Ûmam H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m _| Hw$b n¥îR> : 96
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four Sections : Section – I,
II and III of 30 – 30 questions each and Section – IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all Sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be
deducted for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
Bg àíZ-nÌ _| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR> ~hþM`ZmË_H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b Mma IÊS>m| _| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ & àË`oH$ IÊS>-I, II Ed§ III, 30 – 30 àíZm|
H$m h¡ VWm IÊS>-IV 60 àíZm| H$m h¡ & àË`oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {b`o H$moB© A§H$ H$mQ>o Zht Om`|Jo & AZwÎm[aV àíZm| Ho$ gå~ÝY _| nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V_ n¥îR> na {X`o
J`o _hËdnyU© {ZX}em] _| H«$_ g§»`m 4 XoI| &
narjmWu OMR erQ> ^aZo go nyd© `h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ àíZ-nwpñVH$m _| 1-96 n¥ð> ^br^m±{V N>no h¢ & H$moB© {dg§J{V hmoZo na àíZ-nwpñVH$m Vwa§V ~Xbdm b| &
PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Sections Contents No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 10
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the Online 30 31 60
Application Form as language-I from the languages given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 11 14
English 30 31 60 15 17
Sanskrit 30 31 60 18 20
Urdu 30 31 60 21 24
Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28
Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32
Gujarati 30 31 60 33 35
(III) Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other than the Language-I) 30 61 90
in the Online Application Form from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 36 39
English 30 61 90 40 42
Sanskrit 30 61 90 43 45
Urdu 30 61 90 46 49
Sindhi 30 61 90 50 53
Punjabi 30 61 90 54 57
Gujarati 30 61 90 58 60
(IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science : 60 91 150 61 76
(For Mathematics and Science Teacher)
OR
(IV b) Social Studies : 60 91 150 77 90
(For Social Studies Teacher)
OR
For any other Subject Teacher :
(Can choose either IV a or IV b)
Note : 1. In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in the Online
Application Form.
2. In Sections – IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected subject in Online Application Form.
For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2.
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question booklet.
RL-2 C *RL2SHIFT3C* (1)
Text of page 207
RL-2
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. Rubrics can be used for :
(A) Self assessment and peer assessment.
(B) Students and teacher assessment.
(C) Teacher assessment.
(D) Teacher and parents assessment.
32. Phonetic symbol for “show” is
(A) ʃəʊ (B) soʊ (C) ʃo (D) sho
33. The evaluation cycle has not one of these elements :
(A) Measurement (B) Objectives
(C) Learning experiences (D) Tools and devices of evaluation
34. The old methods used to teach English language are
(A) Translation cum grammar method and direct method.
(B) Translation cum grammar method and bilingual method.
(C) Translation cum grammar method and substitutional method.
(D) Translation cum grammar method and multilingualism.
35. A picture is :
(A) An audio aid (B) An audio-visual aid
(C) A visual aid (D) None
36. Which out of the following is not related to the direct method of learning English ?
(A) Grammar is taught systematically.
(B) It makes pupil to think in English.
(C) It enable pupil to express his thoughts and feelings directly by means of English.
(D) This method is interesting because it is full of activity.
37. Choose the right question for
‘He has given a pen to Radha’.
(A) To whom has he given a pen ? (B) To who has he given a pen ?
(C) To whose has he given a pen ? (D) To what has he given a pen ?
38. Which one is not the aim of intensive reading ?
(A) To enable students to speak English correctly.
(B) To increase students active vocabulary.
(C) To concentrate upon language.
(D) To save time.
39. The number of consonant sounds is
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
(15) C
Text of page 208
RL-2
40. In language structures can be divided into ________ categories.
(A) 2 (two) (B) 3 (three) (C) 4 (four) (D) 5 (five)
41. In close test students are asked :
(A) To answer questions with the help of their peer who is close to them.
(B) To answer questions with the help of a text book which is closed.
(C) To fill the blank or delete words from the passage to complete the idea.
(D) To point out the error from the options.
42. Choose the right question for
‘Rani went to Delhi by bus’.
(A) Does Rani go to Delhi by bus ? (B) Did Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
(C) Did Rani went to Delhi by bus ? (D) Do Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 43-49) that follow :
Noise pollutes our environment just as much as smoke, foul water, dirty air
and litter. It can cause illness and deafness. The human body never gets used to noise.
It continues to react even though a person thinks he or she has become used to all
surrounding noises. For instance, Naseer who lived in an apartment on a busy street
often boasted that he could sleep through any kind of noise. He claimed he just didn’t
hear it. Well, Naseer could sleep through the roar of traffic and the blare of a television
set in the next apartment, but he didn’t know that while he slept his body was reacting
to the stress of the noise.
43. Choose the conjunction out of the following :
(A) Or (B) Just (C) To (D) Has
44. Choose the correct superlative degree of ‘busy’.
(A) Busiest (B) Busier (C) Busyest (D) Busiast
45. Smoke, foul water, dirty air and litter _______ our environment just as much as noise.
(A) Pollute (B) Pollutes (C) Polluted (D) Polluting
46. Which of the following is a determiner ?
(A) Through (B) Never (C) An (D) Of
47. The human body never gets used to noise. The sentence is in
(A) Simple future (B) Present indefinite
(C) Past perfect (D) Present continuous
48. He and she has become used to all the surrounding noises. The underlined words are :
(A) Common nouns (B) Possessive pronouns
(C) Relative pronouns (D) Personal pronouns
49. ________ illness ________ deafness can be caused by noise pollution.
(A) As – so (B) Both – and (C) Neither – nor (D) As – as
50. Out of the following which is not a quality of good handwriting ?
(A) Legibility (B) Attractiveness (C) Uniformity (D) Writing slowly
C (16)
Text of page 209
RL-2
51. Choose the correct indirect speech for
The policeman said to us, “where are you going ?”
(A) The policeman asked that where we are going.
(B) The policeman enquired where we were going.
(C) The policeman asked us where we are going.
(D) The policeman enquired us where were are going.
52. Which out of following is incorrect ?
Principle of naturalness in teaching, learning of English consists of
(A) Talking to students in foreign language in the class, playground etc.
(B) Giving grades and sequence.
(C) Arranging for group discussions.
(D) Encouraging students to converse in target language.
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 53-59) that follow :
At the circus I had no chance to study human beings. They had sat in their seats
peacefully while I cowered before captain’s whip. I got totally wrong idea of human
beings at that angle. I had thought that they were strong and fearless. But now I found
them running from me like a herd of deer, although I had no intention of attacking them.
When I paused in front of a tailor’s shop, he abandoned his machine and shut himself in
a cupboard, wailing. “Alas, I am undone, won’t someone shoot that tiger ?”
53. The synonym of ‘abandoned’ is :
(A) Cowered (B) Herd (C) Left (D) Undone
54. The synonym of ‘chance’ is
(A) Cowered (B) Totally (C) Thoughtfully (D) Opportunity
55. The root verb of ‘sat’ is
(A) Set (B) Sit (C) Sut (D) Site
56. The antonym of ‘fearless’ is
(A) Frightened (B) Scared (C) Wailing (D) Paused
57. A person who leads a group is a
(A) Courageous (B) Strong (C) Fearless (D) Captain
58. The correct spelling is
(A) Machinist (B) Machinest (C) Machineist (D) Machiniest
59. Correct adjective form of ‘intention’ is
(A) Intentionally (B) Intentionaly (C) Intently (D) Intentional
60. Choose the correct passive voice for
‘Some boys were helping the wounded man’.
(A) The wounded man were helped by some boys.
(B) The wounded man was helped by some boys.
(C) The wounded man was helping by some boys.
(D) The wounded man was being helped by some boys.
(17) C
Text of page 213
RL-2
II –
I–
(CXÿ© )
.31
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.32
1921 (D) 1918 (C) 1914 (B) 1912 (A)
.33
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.34
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.35
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(21) C
Text of page 214
RL-2
.36
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.37
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.38
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.39
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.40
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.41
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.42
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.43
(D) (C) (B) (A)
C (22)
Text of page 215
RL-2
.44
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.45
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.46
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.47
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.48
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.49
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.50
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.51
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.52
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(23) C
Text of page 216
RL-2
.53
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.54
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.55
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.56
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.57
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.58
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.59
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.60
(D) (C) (B) (A)
C (24)
Text of page 217
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– II
–I
qgYr
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C
33.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
1. i.
2. ii.
3. iii.
4. iv.
(A) 1-i 2-ii 3-iii 4-iv
(B) 1-iii 2-i 3-iv 4-ii
(C) 1-ii 2-iv 3-i 4-iii
(D) 1-iv 2-iii 3-ii 4-i
37.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(25) C
Text of page 218
RL-2
38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (“ ”) (B) ( ! ) (C) ( ; ) (D) ( ? )
C (26)
Text of page 219
RL-2
46.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(27) C
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56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (28)
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– II
–I
( n§Om~r)
31. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(29) C
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37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42.
:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (30)
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46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(31) C
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53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
59.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (32)
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– II
–I
(JwOamVr)>
31.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(33) C
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40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C (34)
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50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
58.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(35) C
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SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
UNSEEN POEM (Q.Nos. 61-65).
Good people all, of every sort
Give ear unto my song,
And if you find Wondrous short
It cannot hold you long.
‘The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
To every Christian eye;
And while they swore the Dog was mad,
They swore the Man would die.
But soon a wonder came to light,
That show’d the rogues They lied;
The man recover’d of the bite,
The Dog was it that died.
61. The rhyme scheme in the given stanzas is
(A) abcd (B) aabb (C) abab (D) abc abc
62. ‘It cannot hold you long’ the object used for personification in this line is
(A) dog (B) song (C) men (D) people
63. ‘The man was good as us saint’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) personification (B) simile
(C) assonance (D) alliteration
64. The line that has the use of alliteration is
(A) The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
(B) But soon a wonder came to light
(C) They swore the Man would die
(D) The Dog was it that died
65. ‘To every Christian eye;’ The literary device used here is
(A) Simile (B) Assonance (C) Alliteration (D) Metaphor
66. The correct pronunciation of the word ‘stone’ is
(A) /stͻ:n/ (B) /staun/ (C) /stʊ∂n/ (D) /st∂ʊn/
67. The poem composed by Oliver Goldsmith on the death of a mad dog is
(A) Elegy (B) Sonnet (C) Lyric (D) Ode
C (40)
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68. ‘language is always used in a context in a real life situation, in a conversation one
constantly has to interpret what is being said’ – is a rationale of
(A) situational approach (B) communicative approach
(C) project approach (D) structural approach
69. The attributes of a good test are
(A) Validity (B) Reliability (C) Usability (D) All the three
70. The idiomatic phrase ‘a cock and bull story’ means
(A) a bold story (B) a victory event (C) a real story (D) an unreal story
71. Acquiring language is a _____________ process. Choose the correct option :
(A) sub-conscious (B) concession
(C) drill (D) adopted
72. ____________ drills are the excellent means of forming correct speech habits.
(A) pronunciation (B) reading
(C) substitution (D) composition
UNSEEN PROSE PASSAGE (Q.Nos. 73-77).
It is in the small matters of conduct, in the observance of the rule of the road that we pass
judgement upon ourselves and declare that we are civilised or uncivilized. The great moments
of heroism and sacrifice are rare. It is the little habits of the common place intercourse that
make up the great sum of life and sweeten or make bitter the journey.
73. ‘The great moments of heroism and sacrifice are rare’, implies
(A) The war is over
(B) We need great moments to prove ourselves
(C) We do not need great moments to prove ourselves
(D) Great time is now
74. ‘We are civilized or uncivilized’ the type of conjunction used here is
(A) Co-ordinating (B) Co-relative
(C) Subco-ordinating (D) Temporal
75. People __________ the habit of passing the judgement in small things.
(A) have (B) is (C) had (D) are
76. The following can be an appropriate title for this passage. Choose the correct option :
(A) Civilisation (B) Heroism (C) Journey (D) Being civilised
77. Heroism and not sacrificed _________ rare.
(A) are (B) is (C) has (D) have
78. ___________ is an example of /∂ʊ/ sound
(A) toil (B) boy (C) home (D) poor
(41) C
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79. ‘Different learning styles can be evaluated’ – is a merit of
(A) Group evaluation (B) Cloze test
(C) Rubrics (D) Peer groups
80. The new bold leader has been able to ______________ all opposition. Choose the
correct idiom :
(A) bear with (B) bear up (C) bear down (D) bear out
81. “The only person equipped to choose these text-books are school teachers who really
know the fodder, suited to their flock.” This is quoted by
(A) V. K. Gokak (B) R. L. Mehta (C) Guy Boas (D) Otto Jesperson
82. ‘Finger pointing’ – is related to
(A) listening (B) reading habit (C) speaking habit (D) writing
83. The English sonnet is also known as
(A) Shakespearen sonnet (B) Miltonic sonnet
(C) Wordsworth sonnet (D) Coleridge sonnet
84. Arousing, expectancy and incentive are the techniques of _________ principle.
(A) gradation (B) interest (C) motivation (D) concreteness
85. He ran as fast as his legs allowed but he ___________ not catch the thief.
(A) can (B) may (C) could (D) might
86. ‘Development of generic skills’ is one of the vital strategies of
(A) Testing (B) Evaluation (C) Assessment (D) Remedial teaching
87. The principle of ___________ leaves a long lasting impression upon the child’s
learning without the use of mother tongue.
(A) concreteness (B) proportion (C) naturalness (D) interest
88. ‘Staff ___________ be at their desks by 9:00 am.’ This was written on the notice board
of an office.
(A) should (B) must (C) need (D) will
89. The list of semi-vowels comprise
(A) s, z (B) j, w (C) h, l (D) m, n
90. The following tests help to ascertain the skill of aloud reading of the students
(A) Objective (B) New type (C) Oral (D) Written
C (42)
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III –
II –
(CXÿ© )
.61
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.62
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.63
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.64
(D) (C) (B) (A)
C (46)
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.65
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.66
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.67
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.68
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.69
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.70
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.71
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.72
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.73
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.74
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(47) C
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.75
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.76
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.77
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.78
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.79
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.80
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.81
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.82
16 : 16 (D) 14 : 14 (C) 14 : 16 (B) 16 : 14 (A)
C (48)
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.83
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.84
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.86
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.87
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.88
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.89
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.90
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(49) C
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– III
– II
qgYr
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
(A) iv, iii, i, ii (B) ii, iii, iv, i (C) i, ii, iii, iv (D) ii, i, iv, iii
66.
1. i.
2. ii.
3. iii.
4. iv.
(A) 1-iv 2-i 3-ii 4-iii
(B) 1-i 2-ii 3-iii 4-iv
(C) 1-iv 2-iii 3-i 4-ii
(D) 1-iv 2-iii 3-ii 4-i
C (50)
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67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(51) C
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73.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
C (52)
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80.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(53) C
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– III
– II
( n§Om~r)
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C (54)
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65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
68.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(55) C
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73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
C (56)
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80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(57) C
Text of page 250
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– III
– II
(JwOamVr)>
61.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C (58)
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69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(59) C
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82.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C (60)
Text of page 253
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SECTION – IV/ IÊS> – IV
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and IV(b)
Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple Choice Questions each.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social Studies
as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Xmo CnIÊS> AWm©V² IV(a) J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ Ed§ IV(b) gm_m{OH$ AÜ``Z h¢ & XmoZm| CnIÊS>m| Ho$
àË`oH$ _| 60 ~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ h¢ &
Aä`Wu H$mo IV(a) J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ AWdm IV(b) gm_m{OH$ AÜ``Z, {OZH$m M`Z Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ
_| {H$`m h¡, _| go {H$gr EH$ CnIÊS> H$mo MwZZm h¡ Ed§ g^r 60 àíZm| H$m CÎma XoZm h¡ &
SECTION – IV(a)/ IÊS> – IV(a)
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE/ J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject must
answer all the questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Hw$b 60 àíZ h¢ & {OZ Aä`{W©`m| Zo Bg {df` H$m M`Z {H$`m h¡ CÝh| g^r àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ &
91. Solution of 2 ( 0. 8 ) is
(A) 0.16 (B) 0.17 (C) 1.6 (D) 1.7
2 ( 0. 8 ) H$m hb h¡
(A) 0.16 (B) 0.17 (C) 1.6 (D) 1.7
92. What is the main root of ‘tree of knowledge’ ?
(A) Botany (B) Zoology (C) Mathematics (D) Geology
‘kmZ Ho$ d¥j’ H$s _w»` O‹S> Š`m h¡ ?
(A) dZñn{V {dkmZ (B) àm{U {dkmZ (C) J{UV (D) ^y{dkmZ
93. In given figure PQ⊥PS, PQ||SR, ∠SQR= 28° and ∠QRT = 65°, then the value of x is
P Q
28°
x
65°
S R T
(A) 37° (B) 93° (C) 53° (D) 56°
Xr JB© AmH¥${V _| PQ⊥PS, PQ||SR, ∠SQR= 28° VWm ∠QRT = 65° Vmo x H$m _mZ h¡
P Q
28°
x
65°
S R T
(A) 37° (B) 93° (C) 53° (D) 56°
(61) C
Text of page 254
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94. Square root of 7 + 4 3 is
(A) 2 + 3 (B) 2 − 3
(C) 4 + 2 3 (D) 61 + 28 3
7 + 4 3 H$m dJ©_yb h¡
(A) 2 + 3 (B) 2 − 3
(C) 4 + 2 3 (D) 61 + 28 3
95. The probability of a certain event will be
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
{ZpíMV KQ>Zm H$s àm{`H$Vm hmoJr
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
96. John buys an old fridge and after getting it repaired for Rs. 1,500 and selling it for
Rs. 8,100, he gets a loss of 10%. Then for how much did he buy the fridge ?
(A) Rs. 7,500 (B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 10,500 (D) Rs. 8,250
Om°Z Zo EH$ nwamZm {\«$O IarXm Am¡a Cgo 1,500 én`o _| _aå_V H$amH$a 8,100 én`o _| ~oMZo na Cgo
10% H$s hm{Z hþB©, Vmo CgZo {\«$O {H$VZo _| IarXm Wm ?
(A) 7,500 én`o (B) 9,000 én`o
(C) 10,500 én`o (D) 8,250 én`o
97. The curved surface area of the largest cylinder that can be made by cutting from a cube
of side 8 cm will be
(A) 32π cm2 (B) 64π cm2
(C) 128π cm2 (D) 16π cm2
{H$gr 8 go_r ^wOm dmbo KZ go H$mQ>H$a ~ZmE| Om gH$Zo dmbo ~‹S>o go ~‹S>o ~obZ Ho$ dH«$n¥îQ> H$m joÌ\$b
hmoJm
(A) 32π go_r2 (B) 64π go_r2
(C) 128π go_r2 (D) 16π go_r2
98. The nature of mathematics is
(A) It is logical (B) It is hard
(C) It is metaphorical (D) This is not for average students
J{UV H$s àH¥${V h¡
(A) `h Vm{H©$H$ h¡ (B) `h H${R>Z h¡
(C) `h Ab§H$m[aH$ h¡ (D) `h Am¡gV {dÚm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE Zht h¡
C (62)
Text of page 263
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125. Two plane mirrors X and Y are placed perpendicular to each other. A ray of light is incident
on mirror X at an angle of 300, as shown in figure below. Then the angle of reflected ray
for mirror Y with the incident ray for the same mirror Y will be
Y 30°
X
(A) 300 (B) 600
(C) 900 (D) 1200
Xmo g_Vb Xn©U X d Y EH$-Xÿgao Ho$ bå~dV aIo h¢ & àH$me H$s EH$ {H$aU Xn©U X na 300 Ho$ H$moU
na Amn{VV h¡, O¡gm {H$ ZrMo {MÌ _| Xem©`m J`m h¡ & Vmo Xÿgao Xn©U Y go namd{V©V hmoZo dmbr {H$aU
H$m Cgr Xn©U Y na Amn{VV {H$aU go H$moU hmoJm
Y 30°
X
(A) 300 (B) 600
(C) 900 (D) 1200
(71) C
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120. Which of the following association was not founded by Pt. Harinarayan Sharma of Alwar ?
(A) Charkha Sangh (B) Untouchability prevention association
(C) Valmiki Sangh (D) Adivasi Sangh
Abda Ho$ n§. h[aZmam`U e_m© Zo {ZåZm§{H$V _| go {H$g g§K H$s ñWmnZm Zht H$s Wr ?
(A) MaIm g§K (B) Añn¥í`Vm {ZdmaU g§K
(C) dmë_r{H$ g§K (D) Am{Xdmgr g§K
121. The density of earth is
(A) 4.5 (B) 5.5 (C) 6.5 (D) 7.5
n¥Ïdr H$m KZËd h¡
(A) 4.5 (B) 5.5 (C) 6.5 (D) 7.5
122. Dry farming is done in India
(A) in less than 75 cm annual rainfall region
(B) in 75 to 100 cm annual rainfall region
(C) in 100 to 110 cm annual rainfall region
(D) in 110 to 140 cm annual rainfall region
^maV _| ewîH$ IoVr H$s OmVr h¡
(A) 75 go_r go H$_ dm{f©H$ dfm© dmbo joÌ _|
(B) 75 go 100 go_r dm{f©H$ dfm© dmbo joÌ _|
(C) 100 go 110 go_r dm{f©H$ dfm© dmbo joÌ _|
(D) 110 go 140 go_r dm{f©H$ dfm© dmbo joÌ _|
123. Consider the following statements about the administration of the Mauryan period :
1. ‘Kushilan’ was associated with judiciary.
2. A unit of 100 villages was called ‘Sthaniya’.
3. The ‘Sannidhata’ was the treasurer of the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are true ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) Only 3 (C) 1, 3 (D) Only 1
_m¡`© H$mb Ho$ àemgZ Ho$ ~ma| _| {ZåZ{b{IV H$WZm| na {dMma H$s{OE :
1. ‘Hw$erbZ’ H$m gå~§Y Ý`m`mb` go Wm &
2. 100 J«m_m| H$s BH$mB© H$mo ‘ñWmZr`’ H$hm OmVm Wm &
3. ‘gpÝZYmVm’ amÁ` H$m H$mofmÜ`j Wm &
Cn`w©ŠV H$WZm| _| go H$m¡Z-gm/go H$WZ ghr h¡/h¢ ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) Ho$db 3 (C) 1, 3 (D) Ho$db 1
C (84)
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Text of page 289
Question Booklet No.
Series Code :
PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
D
grarµO H$moS> :
Write this code in OMR Answer Sheet.
Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR AmÝga erQ> _| A§{H$V H$a| &
1. Roll No./ amob Z§. 2. OMR Answer Sheet No./ Amo.E_.Ama. AmÝga erQ> H«$_m§H$
* 3. Candidate’s Name/ Aä`Wu H$m Zm_ * 4. _¢Zo n¥îR> ^mJ na {X`o J`o g^r {ZX}em| H$mo n‹T> {b`m h¡ &
Candidate’s Signature/ Aä`Wu Ho$ hñVmja
* As per Application Form./ O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ _| A§{H$V {H$`m h¡ &
Invigilator’s Signature/ (i) (ii)
drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja
S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet/
H«$_m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© ñd`§ Aä`Wu Ûmam H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m _| Hw$b n¥îR> : 96
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four Sections : Section – I,
II and III of 30 – 30 questions each and Section – IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all Sections. Each question is of one mark. No marks will be
deducted for wrong answers. for unattempted questions kindly see point number 4 of important instructions given on last page.
Bg àíZ-nÌ _| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR> ~hþM`ZmË_H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b Mma IÊS>m| _| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ & àË`oH$ IÊS>-I, II Ed§ III, 30 – 30 àíZm|
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D PAPER CODE : RL-2 (SHIFT – 3)
SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025SHIFT3-2025
Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Sections Contents No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Questions From To From To
(I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 10
(II) Language-I (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the Online 30 31 60
Application Form as language-I from the languages given below :
Hindi 30 31 60 11 14
English 30 31 60 15 17
Sanskrit 30 31 60 18 20
Urdu 30 31 60 21 24
Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28
Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32
Gujarati 30 31 60 33 35
(III) Language-II (Only One Language)
As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other than the Language-I) 30 61 90
in the Online Application Form from the Languages given below :
Hindi 30 61 90 36 39
English 30 61 90 40 42
Sanskrit 30 61 90 43 45
Urdu 30 61 90 46 49
Sindhi 30 61 90 50 53
Punjabi 30 61 90 54 57
Gujarati 30 61 90 58 60
(IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science : 60 91 150 61 76
(For Mathematics and Science Teacher)
OR
(IV b) Social Studies : 60 91 150 77 90
(For Social Studies Teacher)
OR
For any other Subject Teacher :
(Can choose either IV a or IV b)
Note : 1. In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in the Online
Application Form.
2. In Sections – IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected subject in Online Application Form.
For Hindi version of the above Table and Note refer to Page No. 2.
Read the instructions in English and Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this Question booklet.
RL-2 D *RL2SHIFT3D* (1)
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SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
31. Phonetic symbol for “show” is
(A) ʃəʊ (B) soʊ (C) ʃo (D) sho
32. The evaluation cycle has not one of these elements :
(A) Measurement (B) Objectives
(C) Learning experiences (D) Tools and devices of evaluation
33. Choose the right question for
‘Rani went to Delhi by bus’.
(A) Does Rani go to Delhi by bus ? (B) Did Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
(C) Did Rani went to Delhi by bus ? (D) Do Rani go to Delhi by bus ?
34. In language structures can be divided into ________ categories.
(A) 2 (two) (B) 3 (three) (C) 4 (four) (D) 5 (five)
35. The number of consonant sounds is
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 36-42) that follow :
At the circus I had no chance to study human beings. They had sat in their seats
peacefully while I cowered before captain’s whip. I got totally wrong idea of human
beings at that angle. I had thought that they were strong and fearless. But now I found
them running from me like a herd of deer, although I had no intention of attacking them.
When I paused in front of a tailor’s shop, he abandoned his machine and shut himself in
a cupboard, wailing. “Alas, I am undone, won’t someone shoot that tiger ?”
36. The synonym of ‘chance’ is
(A) Cowered (B) Totally (C) Thoughtfully (D) Opportunity
37. The correct spelling is
(A) Machinist (B) Machinest (C) Machineist (D) Machiniest
38. The antonym of ‘fearless’ is
(A) Frightened (B) Scared (C) Wailing (D) Paused
39. Correct adjective form of ‘intention’ is
(A) Intentionally (B) Intentionaly (C) Intently (D) Intentional
40. The synonym of ‘abandoned’ is :
(A) Cowered (B) Herd (C) Left (D) Undone
41. The root verb of ‘sat’ is
(A) Set (B) Sit (C) Sut (D) Site
(15) D
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42. A person who leads a group is a
(A) Courageous (B) Strong (C) Fearless (D) Captain
43. Out of the following which is not a quality of good handwriting ?
(A) Legibility (B) Attractiveness (C) Uniformity (D) Writing slowly
44. Rubrics can be used for :
(A) Self assessment and peer assessment.
(B) Students and teacher assessment.
(C) Teacher assessment.
(D) Teacher and parents assessment.
45. Choose the right question for
‘He has given a pen to Radha’.
(A) To whom has he given a pen ? (B) To who has he given a pen ?
(C) To whose has he given a pen ? (D) To what has he given a pen ?
46. Which out of following is incorrect ?
Principle of naturalness in teaching, learning of English consists of
(A) Talking to students in foreign language in the class, playground etc.
(B) Giving grades and sequence.
(C) Arranging for group discussions.
(D) Encouraging students to converse in target language.
47. Which one is not the aim of intensive reading ?
(A) To enable students to speak English correctly.
(B) To increase students active vocabulary.
(C) To concentrate upon language.
(D) To save time.
48. Which out of the following is not related to the direct method of learning English ?
(A) Grammar is taught systematically.
(B) It makes pupil to think in English.
(C) It enable pupil to express his thoughts and feelings directly by means of English.
(D) This method is interesting because it is full of activity.
49. Choose the correct indirect speech for
The policeman said to us, “where are you going ?”
(A) The policeman asked that where we are going.
(B) The policeman enquired where we were going.
(C) The policeman asked us where we are going.
(D) The policeman enquired us where were are going.
50. In close test students are asked :
(A) To answer questions with the help of their peer who is close to them.
(B) To answer questions with the help of a text book which is closed.
(C) To fill the blank or delete words from the passage to complete the idea.
(D) To point out the error from the options.
D (16)
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Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 51-57) that follow :
Noise pollutes our environment just as much as smoke, foul water, dirty air
and litter. It can cause illness and deafness. The human body never gets used to noise.
It continues to react even though a person thinks he or she has become used to all
surrounding noises. For instance, Naseer who lived in an apartment on a busy street
often boasted that he could sleep through any kind of noise. He claimed he just didn’t
hear it. Well, Naseer could sleep through the roar of traffic and the blare of a television
set in the next apartment, but he didn’t know that while he slept his body was reacting
to the stress of the noise.
51. The human body never gets used to noise. The sentence is in
(A) Simple future (B) Present indefinite
(C) Past perfect (D) Present continuous
52. He and she has become used to all the surrounding noises. The underlined words are :
(A) Common nouns (B) Possessive pronouns
(C) Relative pronouns (D) Personal pronouns
53. Choose the conjunction out of the following :
(A) Or (B) Just (C) To (D) Has
54. Smoke, foul water, dirty air and litter _______ our environment just as much as noise.
(A) Pollute (B) Pollutes (C) Polluted (D) Polluting
55. Choose the correct superlative degree of ‘busy’.
(A) Busiest (B) Busier (C) Busyest (D) Busiast
56. ________ illness ________ deafness can be caused by noise pollution.
(A) As – so (B) Both – and (C) Neither – nor (D) As – as
57. Which of the following is a determiner ?
(A) Through (B) Never (C) An (D) Of
58. Choose the correct passive voice for
‘Some boys were helping the wounded man’.
(A) The wounded man were helped by some boys.
(B) The wounded man was helped by some boys.
(C) The wounded man was helping by some boys.
(D) The wounded man was being helped by some boys.
59. The old methods used to teach English language are
(A) Translation cum grammar method and direct method.
(B) Translation cum grammar method and bilingual method.
(C) Translation cum grammar method and substitutional method.
(D) Translation cum grammar method and multilingualism.
60. A picture is :
(A) An audio aid (B) An audio-visual aid
(C) A visual aid (D) None
(17) D
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II –
I–
(CXÿ© )
.31
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.32
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.33
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.34
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.35
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.36
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.37
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(21) D
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.38
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.39
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.40
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.41
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.42
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.43
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.44
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.45
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D (22)
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.46
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.47
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.48
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.49
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.50
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.51
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.52
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.53
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
(23) D
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.54
1921 (D) 1918 (C) 1914 (B) 1912 (A)
.55
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.56
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.57
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.58
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.59
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.60
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
D (24)
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– II
–I
qgYr
31.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32.
1. i.
2. ii.
3. iii.
4. iv.
(A) 1-i 2-ii 3-iii 4-iv
D
(B) 1-iii 2-i 3-iv 4-ii
(C) 1-ii 2-iv 3-i 4-iii
(D) 1-iv 2-iii 3-ii 4-i
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35.
(A) (“ ”) (B) ( ! ) (C) ( ; ) (D) ( ? )
36.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(25) D
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38.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (26)
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44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(27) D
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51.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
53.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
D (28)
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– II
–I
( n§Om~r)
31. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(29) D
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39.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (30)
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46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
51. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
52.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(31) D
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54.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
58. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (32)
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– II
–I
(JwOamVr)>
31.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(33) D
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37.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
46.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
50.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
51.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
D (34)
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52.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
53.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
54.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
55.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
59.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(35) D
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SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this Section.
All questions are compulsory.
61. ____________ drills are the excellent means of forming correct speech habits.
(A) pronunciation (B) reading
(C) substitution (D) composition
62. The new bold leader has been able to ______________ all opposition. Choose the
correct idiom :
(A) bear with (B) bear up (C) bear down (D) bear out
63. ‘Finger pointing’ – is related to
(A) listening (B) reading habit (C) speaking habit (D) writing
64. Acquiring language is a _____________ process. Choose the correct option :
(A) sub-conscious (B) concession
(C) drill (D) adopted
65. The idiomatic phrase ‘a cock and bull story’ means
(A) a bold story (B) a victory event (C) a real story (D) an unreal story
66. The attributes of a good test are
(A) Validity (B) Reliability (C) Usability (D) All the three
67. The correct pronunciation of the word ‘stone’ is
(A) /stͻ:n/ (B) /staun/ (C) /stʊ∂n/ (D) /st∂ʊn/
68. He ran as fast as his legs allowed but he ___________ not catch the thief.
(A) can (B) may (C) could (D) might
69. ‘Development of generic skills’ is one of the vital strategies of
(A) Testing (B) Evaluation (C) Assessment (D) Remedial teaching
70. “The only person equipped to choose these text-books are school teachers who really
know the fodder, suited to their flock.” This is quoted by
(A) V. K. Gokak (B) R. L. Mehta (C) Guy Boas (D) Otto Jesperson
71. ‘Different learning styles can be evaluated’ – is a merit of
(A) Group evaluation (B) Cloze test
(C) Rubrics (D) Peer groups
D (40)
Text of page 329
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72. The poem composed by Oliver Goldsmith on the death of a mad dog is
(A) Elegy (B) Sonnet (C) Lyric (D) Ode
73. ‘Staff ___________ be at their desks by 9:00 am.’ This was written on the notice board
of an office.
(A) should (B) must (C) need (D) will
74. The principle of ___________ leaves a long lasting impression upon the child’s
learning without the use of mother tongue.
(A) concreteness (B) proportion (C) naturalness (D) interest
75. The list of semi-vowels comprise
(A) s, z (B) j, w (C) h, l (D) m, n
76. The following tests help to ascertain the skill of aloud reading of the students
(A) Objective (B) New type (C) Oral (D) Written
77. Arousing, expectancy and incentive are the techniques of _________ principle.
(A) gradation (B) interest (C) motivation (D) concreteness
78. The English sonnet is also known as
(A) Shakespearen sonnet (B) Miltonic sonnet
(C) Wordsworth sonnet (D) Coleridge sonnet
UNSEEN PROSE PASSAGE (Q.Nos. 79-83).
It is in the small matters of conduct, in the observance of the rule of the road that we pass
judgement upon ourselves and declare that we are civilised or uncivilized. The great moments
of heroism and sacrifice are rare. It is the little habits of the common place intercourse that
make up the great sum of life and sweeten or make bitter the journey.
79. People __________ the habit of passing the judgement in small things.
(A) have (B) is (C) had (D) are
80. Heroism and not sacrificed _________ rare.
(A) are (B) is (C) has (D) have
81. ‘The great moments of heroism and sacrifice are rare’, implies
(A) The war is over
(B) We need great moments to prove ourselves
(C) We do not need great moments to prove ourselves
(D) Great time is now
82. ‘We are civilized or uncivilized’ the type of conjunction used here is
(A) Co-ordinating (B) Co-relative
(C) Subco-ordinating (D) Temporal
83. The following can be an appropriate title for this passage. Choose the correct option :
(A) Civilisation (B) Heroism (C) Journey (D) Being civilised
(41) D
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84. ___________ is an example of /∂ʊ/ sound
(A) toil (B) boy (C) home (D) poor
85. ‘Language is always used in a context in a real life situation, in a conversation one
constantly has to interpret what is being said’ – is a rationale of
(A) situational approach (B) communicative approach
(C) project approach (D) structural approach
UNSEEN POEM (Q.Nos. 86-90).
Good people all, of every sort
Give ear unto my song,
And if you find Wondrous short
It cannot hold you long.
‘The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
To every Christian eye;
And while they swore the Dog was mad,
They swore the Man would die.
But soon a wonder came to light,
That show’d the rogues They lied;
The man recover’d of the bite,
The Dog was it that died.
86. ‘The man was good as us saint’ the literary device used in this line is
(A) personification (B) simile
(C) assonance (D) alliteration
87. ‘To every Christian eye;’ The literary device used here is
(A) Simile (B) Assonance (C) Alliteration (D) Metaphor
88. The rhyme scheme in the given stanzas is
(A) abcd (B) aabb (C) abab (D) abc abc
89. ‘It cannot hold you long’ the object used for personification in this line is
(A) dog (B) song (C) men (D) people
90. The line that has the use of alliteration is
(A) The wound it seem’d both sore and sad
(B) But soon a wonder came to light
(C) They swore the Man would die
(D) The Dog was it that died
D (42)
Text of page 334
RL-2
III –
II –
(CXÿ© )
.61
16 : 16 (D) 14 : 14 (C) 14 : 16 (B) 16 : 14 (A)
.62
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.63
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.64
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.65
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.66
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.67
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.68
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.69
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D (46)
Text of page 335
RL-2
.70
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.71
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.72
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.73
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.74
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.75
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.76
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
.77
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.78
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(47) D
Text of page 336
RL-2
.79
(B) (A)
(D) (C)
.80
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.81
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.82
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.83
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.84
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.85
(D) (C) (B) (A)
D (48)
Text of page 337
RL-2
.86
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.87
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.88
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.89
(D) (C) (B) (A)
.90
(D) (C) (B) (A)
(49) D
Text of page 338
RL-2
– III
– II
qgYr
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67.
1. i.
2. ii.
3. iii.
4. iv.
(A) 1-iv 2-i 3-ii 4-iii
(B) 1-i 2-ii 3-iii 4-iv
(C) 1-iv 2-iii 3-i 4-ii
(D) 1-iv 2-iii 3-ii 4-i
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (50)
Text of page 339
RL-2
69.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
(A) iv, iii, i, ii (B) ii, iii, iv, i (C) i, ii, iii, iv (D) ii, i, iv, iii
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(51) D
Text of page 340
RL-2
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
83.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (52)
Text of page 341
RL-2
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
89.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(53) D
Text of page 342
RL-2
– III
– II
( n§Om~r)
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
66.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
67. :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (54)
Text of page 343
RL-2
69. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
72. :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
74.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
76.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(55) D
Text of page 344
RL-2
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
D (56)
Text of page 345
RL-2
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(57) D
Text of page 346
RL-2
– III
– II
(JwOamVr)>
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
63.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
65.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (58)
Text of page 347
RL-2
68.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
70.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
72.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
76.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
77.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
78.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(59) D
Text of page 348
RL-2
80.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
82.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
83.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
84.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
87.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
88.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
89.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D (60)
Text of page 349
RL-2
SECTION – IV/ IÊS> – IV
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and IV(b)
Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple Choice Questions each.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social Studies
as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Xmo CnIÊS> AWm©V² IV(a) J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ Ed§ IV(b) gm_m{OH$ AÜ``Z h¢ & XmoZm| CnIÊS>m| Ho$
àË`oH$ _| 60 ~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ h¢ &
Aä`Wu H$mo IV(a) J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ AWdm IV(b) gm_m{OH$ AÜ``Z, {OZH$m M`Z Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ
_| {H$`m h¡, _| go {H$gr EH$ CnIÊS> H$mo MwZZm h¡ Ed§ g^r 60 àíZm| H$m CÎma XoZm h¡ &
SECTION – IV(a)/ IÊS> – IV(a)
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE/ J{UV Ed§ {dkmZ
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject must
answer all the questions.
Bg IÊS> _| Hw$b 60 àíZ h¢ & {OZ Aä`{W©`m| Zo Bg {df` H$m M`Z {H$`m h¡ CÝh| g^r àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm`© h¡ &
91. The probability of a certain event will be
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
{ZpíMV KQ>Zm H$s àm{`H$Vm hmoJr
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
92. In given figure PQ||SR and PS⊥PQ. If PQ = 11 cm, PS = 8 cm and QR = 10 cm then
area of figure PQRS will be
S R
8 cm 10 cm
P 11 cm Q
(A) 32 cm2 (B) 64 cm2 (C) 72 cm2 (D) 44 cm2
Xr JB© AmH¥${V _| PQ||SR VWm PS⊥PQ h¡ & `{X PQ = 11 go_r, PS = 8 go_r VWm
QR = 10 go_r hmo Vmo AmH¥${V PQRS H$m joÌ\$b hmoJm
S R
8 go_r 10 go_r
P Q
11 go_r
(A) 32 go_r2 (B) 64 go_r2 (C) 72 go_r2 (D) 44 go_r2
(61) D
Text of page 355
RL-2
110. The given pie chart shows the savings and expenditure on various items of a family in
a month. If the monthly savings of family is Rs. 3,000, then the expenditure of food
will be
Education
Food
15%
Rent 25%
10%
5% 10%
Transport Clothes
20% 15%
Others Savings
(A) Rs. 2,500 (B) Rs. 3,000 (C) Rs. 5,000 (D) Rs. 20,000
{X`m J`m nmB© MmQ>© EH$ n[adma Ho$ EH$ _mh _| ~MV VWm {d{^Þ _Xm| na ì`` Xem©Vm h¡ & `{X n[adma
H$s _m{gH$ ~MV 3,000 én`o hmo Vmo ^moOZ na ì`` hmoJm
{ejm
^moOZ
15%
{H$am`m 25%
10%
5% 10%
n[adhZ H$n‹S>o
20% 15%
AÝ` ~MV
(A) 2,500 én`o (B) 3,000 én`o (C) 5,000 én`o (D) 20,000 én`o
111. The nature of mathematics is
(A) It is logical (B) It is hard
(C) It is metaphorical (D) This is not for average students
J{UV H$s àH¥${V h¡
(A) `h Vm{H©$H$ h¡ (B) `h H${R>Z h¡
(C) `h Ab§H$m[aH$ h¡ (D) `h Am¡gV {dÚm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE Zht h¡
2 3
( 64 ) ( ) ( )
0
112. What is the value of 3 + 3 64 2 + 5 32 ?
(A) 14 (B) 194 (C) 193 (D) 13
2 3
( 64 ) ( ) ( ) H$m Š`m _mZ h¡ ?
0
3 + 3 64 2 + 5 32
(A) 14 (B) 194 (C) 193 (D) 13
(67) D
Text of page 364
RL-2
148. A car travels at a speed of 18 km/h for 10 minutes, subsequently it travels at a speed of
36 km/h for 15 minutes, then the total distance covered by this car will be
(A) 3 km (B) 9 km (C) 12 km (D) 27 km
EH$ H$ma 18 km/h H$s Mmb go 10 {_ZQ> MbVr h¡, BgHo$ níMmV² dh 36 km/h H$s Mmb go 15 {_ZQ>
MbVr h¡, Vmo Bg H$ma Ûmam V` H$s JB© Hw$b Xÿar hmoJr
(A) 3 km (B) 9 km (C) 12 km (D) 27 km
149. The variety of wheat, resistance to Hillbunt disease is
(A) Pusa Shubhra (B) IRRI
(C) Pusa Sadabahar (D) Himgiri
Johÿ± _| {hb~§Q> amoJ Ho$ à{V à{VamoYH$ {H$ñ_ h¡
(A) nygm ew^«m (B) AmB© Ama Ama AmB©
(C) nygm gXm~hma (D) {h_{Jar
150. Match the column X with the column Y :
Column X Column Y
p. Time to prefer wearing dark coloured clothes i. night time
q. Time of blowing of the sea breeze ii. winters
r. Time to prefer wearing light coloured clothes iii. day time
s. Time of blowing of the land breeze iv. summers
The correct answer is
(A) p – i, q – ii, r – iii, s – iv
(B) p – ii, q – iii, r – i, s – iv
(C) p – ii, q – iii, r – iv, s–i
(D) p – iv, q – i, r – ii, s – iii
H$m°b_ X H$m H$m°b_ Y go {_bmZ H$s{OE &
H$m°b_ X H$m°b_ Y
p. Jhao a§J Ho$ H$n‹S>m| H$mo nhZZo H$mo dar`Vm XoZo H$m g_` i. am{Ì H$m g_`
q. g_wÐ g_ra Ho$ ~hZo H$m g_` ii. g{X©`m§
r. hëHo$ a§J Ho$ H$n‹S>mo§ H$mo nhZZo H$mo dar`Vm XoZo H$m g_` iii. {XZ H$m g_`
s. Wb g_ra Ho$ ~hZo H$m g_` iv. J{_©`m§
ghr CÎma h¡
(A) p – i, q – ii, r – iii, s – iv
(B) p – ii, q – iii, r – i, s – iv
(C) p – ii, q – iii, r – iv, s–i
(D) p – iv, q – i, r – ii, s – iii
D (76)
Text of page 367
RL-2
100. Ghunghat, Gugadi, Footi, Bandra, Imali and Feteh Burj are related to which fort
of Rajasthan ?
(A) Mehrangarh (Jodhpur) (B) Taragarh (Ajmer)
(C) Junagarh (Bikaner) (D) Kumbhalgarh (Rajsamand)
Ky§KQ>, JyJ‹S>r, \y$Q>r, ~m±Xam, B_br Am¡a \$Voh ~wO© amOñWmZ Ho$ {H$g XþJ© go g§~§{YV h¢ ?
(A) _ohamZJ‹T> (OmoYnwa) (B) VmamJ‹T> (AO_oa)
(C) OyZmJ‹T> (~rH$mZoa) (D) Hw§$^bJ‹T> (amOg_§X)
101. The scene of ‘Nar-narayan tapasya’ and ‘Gajendra Moksha’ has been depicted in
which temple of Gupta period ?
(A) Dashavatara Temple of Devgarh
(B) Shiva Temple of Bhumara
(C) Vishnu Temple of Tigwan
(D) Parvati Temple of Nachana-Kuthar
‘Za-Zmam`U Vnñ`m§’ Am¡a ‘JOoÝÐ _moj’ H$m Ñí` JwßVH$mbrZ {H$g _§{Xa _| Xem©`m J`m h¢ ?
(A) XodJ‹T> H$m XemdVma _§{Xa
(B) ^y_am H$m {ed _§{Xa
(C) {VJdm§ H$m {dîUw _§{Xa
(D) ZMZm-Hw$R>ma H$m nmd©Vr _§{Xa
102. The direction of the Aravalli mountain range is
(A) South-West to South-East (B) South-West to North-East
(C) North-West to South-East (D) North-East to South-West
Aamdbr nd©V_mbm H$s {Xem h¡
(A) X{jU-npíM_ go X{jU-nyd© (B) X{jU-npíM_ go CÎma-nyd©
(C) CÎma-npíM_ go X{jU-nyd© (D) CÎma nyd© go X{jU-npíM_
103. When did the Gandhi-Irwin pact take place ?
(A) 1931 (B) 1921 (C) 1933 (D) 1935
Jm§Yr-Ba{dZ g_Pm¡Vm H$~ hþAm ?
(A) 1931 (B) 1921 (C) 1933 (D) 1935
(79) D
Text of page 383
DO
NO
T
(95) WR
IT
EH
ER
E
D RL-2
Text of page 1
REET-2024 PL-2 (LEVEL-2) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT-3)
REET-2024 (PL-2) CHILD PEDAGOGY COMMON (1-30) REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-I ENGLISH (31-60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
1 8 17 4 25 B 31 48 42 54 36 D
2 14 22 10 30 A 32 50 39 56 38 A,B
3 19 27 13 16 B 33 52 44 53 40 C
4 24 11 18 12 B 34 46 41 58 37 A
5 29 7 23 1 B 35 49 45 55 41 B
6 2 15 28 9 D 36 47 43 59 39 D
7 4 20 6 22 B 37 51 40 57 42 D
8 26 24 11 27 B 38 55 37 45 54 A
9 12 30 16 19 B 39 57 33 47 51 B
10 7 9 8 5 A,D 40 54 35 49 56 B
11 16 5 20 15 D 41 59 32 43 53 A
12 21 1 26 29 C 42 56 36 46 57 C
13 28 18 30 14 C 43 60 34 44 55 A
14 10 25 2 21 A 44 58 31 48 52 D
15 20 12 22 7 C 45 32 57 42 33 B
16 6 23 15 11 D 46 35 52 37 45 A
17 1 29 24 3 B 47 38 49 60 58 D
18 15 14 27 17 C 48 41 46 51 49 B
19 23 3 9 24 A 49 44 60 39 35 D
20 30 21 5 28 A 50 34 55 32 31 A
21 18 28 14 13 B 51 31 50 52 46 B
22 3 19 29 8 D 52 37 47 34 59 A
23 9 10 17 4 B 53 42 38 36 48 A
24 25 6 12 20 C 54 45 59 40 34 C
25 13 2 7 23 C 55 39 54 50 43 D
26 27 16 3 10 A 56 53 48 35 60 C
27 5 26 21 6 D 57 33 58 38 47 D
28 11 8 25 2 A 58 36 51 33 32 A
29 22 4 1 18 C 59 40 56 31 44 A
30 17 13 19 26 B 60 43 53 41 50 C
REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-I HINDI (31-60) REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-I SANSKRIT (31-60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
31 42 45 38 33 B 31 41 53 39 57 A
32 51 48 50 47 D 32 43 51 38 60 C
33 54 35 52 55 B,C 33 40 54 37 59 B
34 58 50 55 59 C 34 42 52 36 58 D
35 60 33 37 32 D 35 58 31 47 50 B
36 44 31 58 46 C 36 56 34 46 52 C
37 53 46 54 35 A 37 59 33 45 49 A
38 41 37 39 57 B 38 57 32 44 51 D
39 55 44 51 60 C 39 45 42 31 54 A
40 59 34 60 58 B 40 53 35 48 44 C
41 52 32 56 48 C 41 36 46 42 32 B
42 56 49 53 34 C 42 31 49 34 36 A
43 34 58 49 45 B 43 50 56 57 41 C
44 37 55 45 42 D 44 60 39 55 46 A
45 40 52 41 38 B 45 48 43 51 53 D
46 31 60 48 40 C 46 38 58 59 56 A
47 33 57 44 36 A 47 33 41 40 38 C
48 35 53 42 41 B 48 55 37 33 34 B
49 38 51 46 44 C 49 51 45 43 48 D
50 32 59 43 39 D 50 44 55 53 42 C
51 36 56 40 43 C 51 39 60 49 35 A
52 39 54 47 37 B 52 35 47 58 55 C
53 46 40 34 54 A 53 32 38 41 45 A
54 48 42 36 49 C 54 49 50 60 40 C
55 50 38 32 53 B 55 46 59 35 31 B
56 45 43 35 51 A 56 54 44 52 47 D
57 47 41 31 50 C 57 37 48 56 39 A
58 49 39 33 52 B 58 34 40 54 43 C
59 43 36 57 56 D 59 47 36 50 33 B
60 57 47 59 31 B 60 52 57 32 37 D
Text of page 2
REET-2024 PL-2 (LEVEL-2) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT-3)
REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-I URDU (31-60) REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-I SINDHI (31-60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
31 40 41 39 33 A 31 39 53 60 44 A
32 43 45 51 36 A 32 41 50 58 46 C
33 47 48 59 39 B 33 40 54 57 43 B
34 50 54 55 45 C 34 38 52 56 47 B
35 53 57 42 49 C 35 37 51 59 45 A
36 56 60 37 52 D 36 43 42 47 33 D
37 59 32 31 56 A 37 46 48 55 41 C
38 55 35 58 60 C 38 50 56 49 31 B
39 58 44 53 38 B 39 52 60 33 37 A
40 37 49 43 48 A 40 32 45 37 48 B
41 60 53 35 58 B 41 35 38 34 57 C
42 51 56 57 50 A 42 51 47 31 59 D
43 39 58 60 34 B 43 54 58 36 32 B
44 48 43 52 40 C 44 56 33 41 53 B
45 31 36 41 37 C 45 58 35 38 51 A
46 42 33 45 31 A 46 55 34 42 50 B
47 54 46 50 51 D 47 59 32 40 49 A
48 57 59 56 47 A 48 57 31 39 52 D
49 52 55 40 57 D 49 31 40 45 35 B
50 41 47 38 35 B 50 36 55 54 39 C
51 38 31 36 59 A 51 49 59 32 56 A
52 36 34 54 32 C 52 60 46 43 54 B
53 49 42 44 46 B 53 45 44 50 40 B
54 33 39 49 41 C 54 33 41 53 34 A
55 35 37 48 44 A 55 42 36 35 58 C
56 32 40 47 43 B 56 48 49 52 36 B
57 34 38 46 42 C 57 53 39 46 38 D
58 46 51 32 54 A 58 34 43 51 60 A
59 45 50 34 53 B 59 44 57 48 55 B
60 44 52 33 55 B 60 47 37 44 42 C
REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-I PUNJABI (31-60) REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-I GUJRATI (31-60)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
31 41 58 53 44 C 31 55 40 48 36 B
32 43 55 51 46 D 32 57 38 47 39 A
33 42 59 50 43 D 33 54 41 46 38 D
34 40 57 49 47 A 34 56 39 45 37 C
35 39 56 52 45 B 35 46 32 51 59 A
36 54 46 34 57 C 36 45 31 53 58 D
37 56 44 33 60 A 37 44 33 52 60 B
38 53 47 32 59 C 38 49 43 34 46 C
39 55 45 31 58 B 39 41 47 42 56 B
40 32 36 39 31 A 40 34 59 49 52 B
41 35 33 42 34 D 41 39 53 55 49 A
42 38 49 46 40 B 42 50 60 57 43 D
43 47 53 56 55 C 43 58 56 60 40 D
44 57 41 59 50 D 44 52 35 32 33 A
45 60 39 37 53 C 45 36 51 37 50 B
46 44 34 48 36 B 46 31 54 40 55 C
47 31 51 35 32 D 47 60 48 44 42 B
48 58 54 40 49 A 48 38 37 59 44 A
49 52 43 57 38 B 49 43 45 50 53 D
50 48 40 44 52 B 50 47 55 43 41 C
51 36 31 60 56 A 51 59 50 39 57 A
52 33 38 54 48 D 52 37 58 31 35 B
53 46 50 38 41 B 53 42 34 35 32 D
54 59 52 45 37 A 54 33 44 56 48 D
55 51 42 58 33 B 55 51 46 58 45 A
56 37 35 55 54 A 56 40 36 41 34 A
57 45 60 47 39 B 57 35 52 38 51 C
58 49 37 43 35 C 58 48 49 36 54 D
59 34 48 41 51 A 59 32 42 54 47 B
60 50 32 36 42 D 60 53 57 33 31 D
Text of page 3
REET-2024 PL-2 (LEVEL-2) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT-3)
REET-2024 (PL-2)LANGUAGE-II HINDI (61-90) REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-II SANSKRIT (61-90)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 85 76 83 67 B 61 87 81 71 77 B
62 87 74 79 71 A 62 89 83 68 75 D
63 90 72 86 64 D 63 86 82 72 74 C
64 82 70 81 69 C 64 90 80 70 73 A
65 86 68 84 73 B 65 88 79 69 76 B
66 89 77 78 65 A 66 79 74 64 87 A
67 83 75 87 68 D 67 81 76 61 85 D
68 88 73 82 70 B 68 78 75 65 84 B
69 84 71 85 72 A 69 82 73 63 83 C
70 81 69 80 66 D 70 80 72 62 86 A
71 77 63 73 90 C 71 62 66 74 61 D
72 79 65 70 88 B 72 65 69 77 64 B
73 76 64 74 87 D 73 68 78 80 70 A
74 80 62 72 86 A 74 83 86 84 79 C
75 78 61 71 89 B 75 72 89 87 67 B
76 64 82 62 75 A 76 75 71 90 88 D
77 66 85 65 79 C 77 61 84 82 80 A
78 69 88 89 83 D 78 85 63 88 72 C
79 72 90 76 74 B 79 77 67 78 62 D
80 75 78 61 62 C 80 69 87 66 71 B
81 62 80 67 77 B 81 64 77 76 65 A
82 67 84 75 81 C 82 73 68 81 90 D
83 71 87 69 85 D 83 76 61 89 82 A
84 73 89 88 63 A 84 67 90 86 78 B
85 61 83 64 76 B 85 70 88 73 68 C,D
86 68 79 90 82 D 86 74 65 79 63 A
87 74 66 77 84 C 87 63 62 67 81 B
88 70 81 63 78 D 88 66 85 83 89 A
89 65 86 68 80 B 89 84 64 75 69 C
90 63 67 66 61 A 90 71 70 85 66 A
REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-II ENGLISH (61-90) REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-II URDU (61-90)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 68 87 76 83 D 61 75 70 90 81 C
62 70 89 73 81 C 62 77 67 88 83 C
63 67 88 77 80 B 63 76 71 87 80 D
64 71 86 75 79 A 64 74 69 86 84 B
65 69 85 74 82 A 65 73 68 89 82 A
66 75 71 64 90 A 66 71 78 82 61 C
67 77 73 61 88 C 67 79 86 76 64 D
68 74 72 65 87 B,D 68 82 89 71 85 B
69 78 70 63 86 BONUS 69 85 72 66 74 A
70 76 69 62 89 B 70 88 65 73 79 B
71 62 63 85 68 C 71 67 82 64 90 D
72 65 79 88 73 B 72 69 84 61 88 A
73 84 77 80 62 C 73 66 83 65 87 C
74 90 66 70 65 D 74 70 81 63 86 D
75 88 68 67 72 A 75 68 80 62 89 C
76 82 74 83 78 A 76 62 64 78 72 D
77 64 81 78 84 C 77 81 74 85 67 B
78 80 65 89 75 B 78 84 79 68 62 A
79 86 62 72 61 A 79 87 90 75 77 A
80 61 82 66 67 D 80 64 76 84 70 D
81 66 90 87 74 A 81 90 85 80 68 C
82 73 67 84 77 C 82 61 66 74 65 B
83 87 76 68 85 B 83 78 62 72 63 A
84 83 80 81 70 C 84 89 75 67 78 C
85 79 61 71 64 A 85 72 87 83 75 B
86 89 84 90 76 C 86 83 77 79 66 D
87 85 78 79 71 A 87 63 61 69 73 A
88 63 64 69 66 D 88 80 73 77 69 C
89 72 75 82 63 B 89 65 88 81 76 A
90 81 83 86 69 D 90 86 63 70 71 B
Text of page 4
REET-2024 PL-2 (LEVEL-2) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT-3)
REET-2024 (PL-2)LANGUAGE-II SINDHI (61-90) REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-II GUJRATI (61-90)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 69 83 76 90 B 61 86 77 71 80 C
62 71 85 73 88 D 62 88 75 70 83 A
63 68 84 77 87 C 63 85 78 69 82 A
64 72 82 75 86 B 64 87 76 68 81 D
65 70 81 74 89 A 65 72 80 89 62 B
66 62 88 65 77 D 66 71 82 88 61 D
67 74 78 80 64 C 67 73 81 87 63 C
68 81 75 83 61 B 68 76 63 81 65 A
69 86 67 89 70 A 69 80 67 77 71 B
70 89 87 64 74 D 70 62 72 64 75 D
71 84 80 79 85 C 71 66 79 74 77 C
72 66 70 82 69 B 72 69 83 67 85 B
73 61 90 86 72 D 73 82 87 62 88 A
74 73 79 66 67 A 74 90 89 78 70 B
75 82 72 63 78 C 75 64 68 84 66 C
76 87 66 78 65 B 76 79 61 90 86 B
77 90 76 87 62 A 77 84 65 76 79 D
78 64 86 90 75 C 78 89 70 72 67 D
79 85 74 61 68 B 79 75 85 66 64 C
80 67 68 72 63 D 80 68 90 63 74 A
81 88 89 85 76 A 81 61 62 85 72 A
82 83 77 81 79 A 82 77 66 79 89 B
83 65 73 62 71 B 83 70 69 82 76 C
84 80 69 88 66 C 84 65 73 75 68 B
85 63 71 84 73 B 85 74 86 61 84 A
86 77 64 71 81 B 86 81 71 80 78 D
87 79 61 69 83 D 87 63 88 83 90 A
88 78 65 68 80 A 88 67 84 73 87 D
89 76 63 67 84 C 89 78 64 65 69 B
90 75 62 70 82 D 90 83 74 86 73 A
REET-2024 (PL-2) LANGUAGE-II PUNJABI (61-90)
Q.NO. A B C D ANS
61 86 69 82 77 D
62 88 71 79 75 B
63 85 70 83 74 A
64 89 68 81 73 C
65 87 67 80 76 C
66 82 73 62 88 A
67 81 76 64 86 D
68 80 75 61 89 C
69 79 74 63 87 B
70 62 88 67 63 A
71 66 85 72 82 C
72 69 81 75 68 A
73 77 78 86 71 D
74 83 65 89 80 C
75 90 61 69 66 B
76 72 87 77 84 C
77 64 80 88 90 A
78 74 66 73 61 D
79 68 63 84 70 B
80 65 83 71 79 C
81 61 90 68 85 D
82 76 86 65 81 C
83 84 72 90 78 A
84 73 79 85 67 B
85 70 64 78 62 C
86 63 84 74 83 D
87 67 89 70 65 B
88 78 82 66 72 A
89 75 77 76 69 A
90 71 62 87 64 D
Text of page 5
REET-2024 PL-2 (LEVEL-2) FINAL ANSWER KEY (SHIFT-3) REET-2024 (PL-2) MATHEMATICS & SCIENCE (91-150) REET-2024 (PL-2)SOCIAL STUDIES (91-150) Q.NO. A B C D ANS Q.NO. A B C D ANS 91 105 117 113 112 D 91 112 121 94 106 C 92 109 120 116 118 C 92 116 114 100 109 A 93 115 114 94 103 A 93 120 108 104 125 A 94 119 111 91 100 D 94 124 103 111 129 C 95 96 108 99 93 A 95 128 97 115 141 B 96 91 104 106 109 C 96 132 91 119 147 B 97 100 98 110 96 B 97 136 110 123 150 B 98 103 101 118 105 B 98 140 125 127 135 D 99 107 95 102 115 D 99 92 142 131 117 B 100 111 91 96 120 A 100 147 132 134 101 A 101 114 103 93 107 C 101 107 118 137 113 D 102 117 106 104 98 B 102 97 112 140 92 C 103 120 110 115 113 D 103 110 95 143 97 A 104 98 113 120 92 B 104 100 135 96 111 C 105 93 116 108 102 C 105 114 145 117 103 A 106 102 119 97 117 B 106 119 149 108 120 B 107 112 99 111 94 A 107 123 128 91 127 D 108 97 93 107 110 C 108 126 99 98 133 A 109 94 105 101 106 D 109 130 93 102 144 C 110 106 109 95 91 A 110 134 105 125 138 A 111 116 112 105 108 A 111 138 116 113 149 B 112 104 115 119 99 C 112 143 148 110 131 D 113 99 107 112 95 B,D 113 104 139 129 124 C 114 95 102 109 104 B 114 99 127 145 115 B 115 118 97 103 116 A 115 95 123 150 105 B 116 108 92 98 111 A 116 131 101 121 98 B 117 101 94 114 119 B 117 105 109 106 95 D 118 92 100 117 101 D 118 141 130 93 107 A 119 110 118 92 97 C 119 145 137 118 126 A 120 113 96 100 114 B 120 148 143 133 137 C 121 132 134 141 138 B 121 117 147 142 146 D 122 128 137 130 148 C 122 108 124 136 128 C 123 121 140 149 150 C 123 93 107 122 140 A 124 126 144 125 132 D 124 102 92 103 119 D 125 135 147 133 127 A 125 133 96 95 110 B 126 139 129 122 121 C 126 139 104 114 108 A 127 143 124 136 129 B 127 144 111 130 102 B,D 128 146 131 145 135 D 128 150 126 141 96 A 129 150 142 139 143 C 129 106 134 148 91 C 130 123 149 127 146 B 130 91 146 138 112 D 131 140 138 143 124 A 131 96 140 128 118 B 132 144 126 131 141 C 132 101 117 120 123 A 133 148 121 147 122 B 133 109 102 116 132 C 134 129 136 135 137 A 134 113 98 105 142 A 135 125 146 121 126 D 135 118 106 92 148 D 136 122 150 128 144 A 136 94 115 99 145 C 137 134 139 140 125 B 137 103 129 124 122 D 138 127 132 148 139 C 138 115 133 139 114 A 139 133 123 138 147 B 139 122 144 147 104 C 140 138 135 144 149 D 140 146 150 126 100 B 141 130 127 150 133 D 141 137 122 112 93 B 142 147 122 146 136 C 142 149 113 101 116 C 143 136 148 142 128 A 143 142 100 97 130 C 144 124 143 134 130 B 144 125 94 149 134 D 145 141 133 132 123 A 145 111 119 144 143 C 146 149 125 124 142 D 146 98 138 135 99 D 147 142 145 129 134 C 147 135 141 132 136 A 148 137 128 126 140 D 148 129 136 109 121 C 149 145 130 137 131 B 149 121 131 146 139 B 150 131 141 123 145 A 150 127 120 107 94 B
Page 1 of 384
Source: Board of Secondary Education. Question paper published by Board of Secondary Education.