RPSC Assistant Professor 2016: Asst. Professor 2015, Paediatrics
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Paediatrics 1) Delayed clamping of Umbilical Cord at birth for nearly 2 minutes is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) Improved iron status B) Improved clinical anemia at 2-6 month of age C) Increase in polycythemia among infants D) Increased chances of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia during neonatal period 2) To ensure that the needs of children and adults across the globe are not obscured by local needs, 8 Millenium Development Goals (MDG) were established in 2000. What is the target of MDG number 4 to be achieved until 2015? A) Reduce Under 5 Mortality rate by 1/4 B) Reduce Under 5 Mortality rate by 2/3 C) Reduce Infant Mortality rate by 1/4 D) Reduce Infant Mortality rate by 2/3 3) Papular-purpuric ‘ Gloves and socks’ syndrome is caused by A) EB virus B) West Nile Virus C) Parvo virus B19 D) KFD virus 4) The range of environmental temperature at which the BMR (Basal Metabolic rate) of the baby is at a minimum, oxygen consumption is least and the baby maintains its normal body temperature is called as: A) Thermoneutral environment B) Thermal confort zone C) Ambient environmental temperature D) Ideal thermal environment 5) One of the following is a strongly recommended (Evidence strong) intervention to reduce systemic infections in the first 48 hours and prevent future neurodevelopmental impairment in preterm neonates: A) IV IG administration B) Use of Insulin for hyperglycemia C) Avoiding aminoglycoside exposure for >7 days D) Use of antenatal steroid 6) Ovaries and testes in a fetus become distinguishable at ________ weeks of gestation: A) 8 weeks B) 12 weeks C) 16 weeks D) 20 weeks 7) A form of fetal programming where two genes are inherited but one is turned off through environmentally induced modification is called as: A) Epigenetic imprinting B) Polymorphism C) Gene modification D) Gene heterogenesity 8) The developmental implication of developmental milestone “Uncovers toys after seeing it hidden” is: A) Symbolic thought B) Beginning of labelling C) Object permanence D) Self discovery, Cause and effect
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9) An event that is caused by an error in vaccine preparation, handling, or administration is called as: A) Coincidental event B) Injection reaction C) Vaccine reaction D) Programme error 10) The most accepted International recommendations for the reporting of randomized clinical studies have been given by: A) Joint statement for Reporting Randomised control trials B) Recommendations for Reporting Randomised control trials C) Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials D) Guidelines for Randomised control trials 11) When calculating sample size for a research study, all of the following are considerations EXCEPT: A) Power of study B) Prevalence C) Expected Confidence level D) Randomization 12) What age range does the Phallic/Oedipal stage of Freud (Psychosexual) theory correspond to: A) 0-1 year B) 3-6 year C) 2-3 year D) 6-12 year 13) What is the first visible sign of puberty and the hallmark of SMR2 in boys and at what age in years does it occur? A) Testicular enlargement and 9 ½ years B) Pubic hair and 11 ½ years C) Testicular enlargement and 11 ½ years D) Pubic hair and 9 ½ years 14) Preterm infants ingesting unfortified breast milk need to be supplemented with what doses of calcium, and Vitamin D? A) Calcium (80-120 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (200-400 IU/day) B) Calcium (40-80 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (400-1000 IU/day) C) Calcium (500-1000 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (200-400 IU/day) D) Calcium (150-220 mg/ kg/day) and Vitamin D (400-1000 IU/day) 15) Pinpoint pupil is NOT seen in A) Pontine hemorrhage B) Cerebellar lesions C) Opiates poisoning D) Botulism 16) Triangular facies is indicative of A) Russel silver syndrome B) Mobius syndrome C) Soto syndrome D) Nephrotic syndrome
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17) Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP) is defined as those cases of Acute flaccid paralysis: A) Who have residual weakness 6 months after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated B) Who have residual weakness 60 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated C) Who have residual weakness 6 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated D) Who have residual weakness 60 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, both vaccine related poliovirus and wild virus is isolated 18) Hypernatremic dehydration in children leads to irritability, restlessness, weakness, lethargy and fever. What is the most devastating consequence of Hypernatremia in children? A) Seizures B) Hyperglycemia C) Brain hemorrhage D) Hypocalcemia 19) Children heterozygous for having ____________ (this is a genetic phenomenon) for KCNE2 gene (Potassium Channel -voltage gated) have higher chance of having life threatening arrhythmias after administration of Erythromycin? A) Gene Polymorphism B) Anticipation C) Ontogeny D) Phylogeny 20) A 7 days old infant born with insignificant antenatal and neonatal history presents with poor feeding, vomiting, lethargy, rapidly progressive coma, metabolic acidosis, a peculiar odour of his urine, hypertonicity with severe opisthotonous which alternate with bouts of flaccidity. Was initially empirically diagnosed as having CNS infection and sepsis but had repeated hypoglycemia and the correction of hypoglycemia did not improve his clinical condition. What is the most likely differential for this clinical presentation? A) Phenylketonuria B) Tyrosenemia C) Maple Syrup Urine disease D) Isovaleric academia 21) What is the body temperature range to categorise a neonate as having Mild hypothermia or cold stress? A) 35.4 to 36.0 deg C B) 33.4 to 34.4 deg C C) 34.4 to 35.4 deg C D) 36 to 36.4 deg C 22) A 15 day old neonate presents with intractable vomiting, severe acidosis, intermittent lethargy, seizures, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, hypocalcemia, hyperammonemia and hyperglycemia. What is the most likely differential for this clinical presentation? A) Severe gram negative sepsis B) Urea Cycle defects C) Isovaleric acidemia D) Pyloric stenosis 23) Infection involving the superficial tissue layers anterior to the orbital septum is termed preseptal cellulitis. Which of the following does NOT cause Preseptal cellulitis? A) H Influenzae B) Bacteriodes Fragilis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Streptococcus Pneumonae
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24) What is the minimum age of vaccination of Human Papilloma virus vaccine: A) 11 years B) 9 years C) 15 years D) 13 years 25) What is the minimal internal diameter of “Giant Coronary aneurysm” in children with Kawasaki disease which pose highest risk for rupture, thrombosis, stenosis and myocardial infarction? A) 8 mm B) 10 mm C) 12 mm D) 15 mm 26) Delayed eruption is usually considered when there are no teeth by approximately ________ of age: A) 18 month of age (mean +3 SD) B) 9 month of age (mean +3 SD) C) 16 month of age (mean +3 SD) D) 13 month of age (mean +3 SD) 27) Severe ocular itching, photophobia, foreign body sensation and lacrymation in a 6 year old boy with thick ropey discharge, trantas dots, horner points and cobble stoning (giant papillae) on upper tarsal plate are diagnostic of: A) Vernal Conjunctivitis B) Atopic Conjunctivitis C) Allergic conjunctivitis D) Giant Papillary conjunctivitis 28) Rapid Eye movement (REM) Sleep appears to be involved in all EXCEPT: A) Consolidation of memory B) Promoting the plasticity of central nervous system C) Protective brain from injury D) Mood regulation 29) Humanized monoclonal antibody that binds IgE to prevent its binding to the high affinity IgE receptor and blocking IgE mediated allergic response and inflammation in Bronchial Asthma is: A) Pelvizumab B) Natalizumab C) Omalizumab D) Etilizumab 30) Children with Chediak Higashi Syndrome have light skin, silvery hair, solar sensitivity, photophobia, frequent infections, neuropathy, prolonged bleeding times with normal platelet count. What is the treatment which improves the clinical status of some children in the stable phase? A) Vitamin B12 B) Vitamin B1 C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin E 31) All of the following are high specificity skeletal injuries related with child abuse, EXCEPT: A) Metaphyseal corner lesions B) First rib fracture C) Clavicle fracture D) Sternal fracture
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32) What is the pharmaceutical name for the popular “Rave medication” consumed at dance parties by adolescent children as one of the club drugs? A) Lysergic acid diethyl amide B) Methylenedioxymethamphetamine C) Phencyclidine D) Cocaine 33) What is the commonest aneuploidy seen in neonates born with single umbilical artery? A) Trisomy 18 B) Trisomy 13 C) Trisomy 21 D) Trisomy 15 34) The most common finding in children with severe viral enteritis : A) Isotonic dehydration with Acidosis B) Isotonic dehydration with Alkalosis C) Hypotonic dehydration with Acidosis D) Hypotonic dehydration with Alkalosis 35) The most common pathogenic organism causing pyogenic liver abscess in children is: A) Staphylococcus Aureus B) H Influenzae C) Entamoeba Histolytic D) Klebseilla 36) Surgical or device closure is advised in all symptomatic and also for asymptomatic children having Atrial Septal defect (Secondum variety) when the Qp : Qs ratio is at least: A) 1.5 :1 B) 2:1 C) 2.5:1 D) 1:1 37) 30 : 2 compression to ventilation ration is used for all cardiac arrest victims EXCEPT: A) Single rescuer adult victim B) Two rescuer adult victim C) Single rescuer infant victim D) Two rescuer infant victim 38) The most common congenital cardiac defect associated with sudden death in children is: A) Valvular aortic stenosis B) Origin of the left coronary artery from the right sinus of valsalva C) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy D) Congenital Mitral regurgitation 39) All treatments used in treatment of High altitude pulmonary edema except A) Positive end expiratory pressure B) BETA-adrenergic Agonists C) Nifedipine D) Steroids
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40) The two embryonic hemoglobin are: A) Fetal Hemoglobin and Gower Hemoglobin B) Fetal Hemoglobin and Portland Hemoglobin C) Portland Hemoglobin and Hb A2 D) Gower Hemoglobin and Portland Hemoglobin 41) Low molecular weight heparins are used very frequently to prevent propagation of thrombus in children with stroke. What is the laboratory test used in blood to monitor the LMW Heparins? A) Anti factor Xa B) Factor Xa C) Thrombin D) Antithrombin 42) A 2 year old male child presents with congenital hypothyroidism with generalized muscular pseudo hypertrophy. What is the diagnosis? A) Lyonized Duchenne muscular dystrophy B) Limb girdle dystrophy with congenital hypothyroidism C) Kocher Debre Semelaigne syndrome D) Isolated Pseudohypertrophy with Congenital hypothyroidism 43) What is the mechanism of action of anti epileptic drug Phenytoin? A) Blocking reuptake of neuroinhibitory transmitter GABA B) By binding to the GABA transaminase receptor C) By blocking calcium channels D) By blocking sodium-dependent channels and decreasing depolarization dependent calcium uptake 44) Discrete nodules in the iris called as Lisch nodule and representing melanocytic hamartomas of the iris are seen most commonly in: A) Tuberous Sclerosis B) Neurofibromatosis C) Incontinentia Pigmenti D) I Cell disease 45) Behavioral observation audiometry is used as a screening test for hearing in age group: A) <6 months B) 6-30 months C) 30-60 months D) >60 months 46) Which of the following is false regarding serum biochemistry and weight monitoring of a term neonate: A) Hyponatremia with weight loss suggests sodium depletion and merits sodium replacement B) Hyponatremia with weight gain suggests water excess and necessitates fluid restriction C) Hypernatremia with weight loss suggests excess sodium and would require salt restriction D) Hypernatremia with weight gain suggests salt and water load and require fluid and sodium restriction 47) Which of the following is not a classification/scoring system for neonatal Hypoxic Ischemic encephalopathy? A) Feliz scoring B) Sarnat and Sarnat C) Levene grading D) Thompson scoring
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48) Which of the following are the qualities of a “Green light food” as per Traffic light diet plan for children? A) Nutrition dense, but higher in calories and fat B) Low-Calorie, high fiber, low fat, nutrition-dense C) High in calories, sugar and fat D) None of the above 49) A rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in SLC19A2 gene and characterised by megaloblastic anemia, diabetes mellitus and sensorinerual hearing loss responds to which of the following nutrient? A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin B1 D) Folic acid 50) All of the following are Vitamin B6 dependent syndromes, EXCEPT: A) Pyridoxine dependent seizures B) Xanthenurenic aciduria C) Cystathionuria D) Darier disease 51) In Children having mild Vitamin K deficiency, Prothrombin time may be normal and estimation of Protein induced in vitamin K absence (PIVKA) is useful to detect early Vitamin K Deficiency. What is the exact form of PIVKA? A) Undercarboxylated Factor VII B) Undercarboxylated Factor II C) Carboxylated Factor VII D) Carboxylated Factor II 52) Diagnostic criteria for Syndrome of Inappropirate Antidiuretic hormone secretion include all EXCEPT: A) Urine Osmolality >100 mOsm/kg (Usually >Plasma) B) Serum Osmolality <280 mOsm/kg and serum sodium <135 meq/l C) Urine Sodium <30 meq/l D) Reversal of “Sodium Wasting” and correction of hyponatremia with water restriction 53) The clinical consequences of hypokalemia in skeletal muscle include muscle weakness and cramps. What is the level of Serum Potassium at which Paralysis is a possible complication of hypokalemia? A) Serum Potassium at 2.0 meq/l B) Serum Potassium at 2.5 meq/l C) Serum Potassium at 3.0 meq/l D) Serum Potassium at 3.5 meq/l 54) All of the following are causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT: A) Renal Tubular acidosis B) Diarrhea C) Acidosis due to Intestinal bacterial overgrowth D) Urinary tract diversions 55) All of the following are appropriate pair of a poison with its antidote, EXCEPT: A) Poison-Carbon Monooxide Antidote-Oxygen B) Poison-Salicylates Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate C) Poison-Sulfonyl Ureas Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate D) Poison-Tricyclic Antidepressants Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate
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56) The clinical features of eye opening, best verbal response and best motor response in Glasgow Coma Scale of 7 will best fit as: A) Eye opening to pain, Making incomprehensible sounds and has flexion as best motor response B) Spontaneous eye opening, Confused and localises pain C) Eye opening to pain, confused and localises pain D) No response, Incomprehensible sounds and extension as best motor response 57) All the following are correct steps in the Pediatric advanced life support tachycardia algorithm for the management of Possible Ventricular Tachycardia with a pulse and poor perfusion, EXCEPT: A) Maintain patent airway, assist breathing if necessary B) Defibrillation C) Oxygenation at highest possible FiO2 D) Consideration of adenosine if rhythm is regular and monomorphic QRS 58) The commonest indication for Liver Transplantation in children is: A) Metabolic and inborn disorders of Liver B) Autoimmune and Familial Cholestatic disorders C) Biliary atresia D) Acute Hepatic Necrosis 59) The genetic mutation most commonly linked with Congenital Central Hypoventilation Syndrome is: A) Mutation in Sodium Channel alpha 1 subunit (SCN1A) B) Mutation in paired-like homeobox 2B gene (PHOX2B) C) Mutation in outer Dynein arm (DNAH5) D) All of the above 60) The most frequently used index of cardiac function measured by M-Mode echocardiography in children is percent Fractional shortening (%FS) and is calculated by the formula: Where LVED is Left Ventricular end diastolic dimension, LVES is Left ventricular end systolic dimension A) (LVED-LVES)/LVED B) (LVES-LVED)/LVES C) LVED-LVES/LVED D) LVES-LVED/LVES 61) All of the following are indicators of Iron deficiency anemia, EXCEPT: A) Increased serum levels of Serum Transferrin receptor (sTfR) B) Increased serum levels of Hepcidin C) Reduced levels of Serum Ferritin D) Reduced Mean Corpuscular volume 62) Treatment should be considered in infants with echocardiographically proven hemodynamically significant patent ductur arteriosus in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A) Features of Congestive heart failure B) Unexplained oxygen requirement (FiO2 more than or equal to 30%) or rising Oxygen requirement on respiratory support C) Recurrent apnea requiring respiratory support (CPAP/Nasal IMV/Invasive ventilation) attributed to PDA D) In all preterm neonates <2000 gm birth weight
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63) Which of the following is true regarding storage of Expressed Breast milk (EBM)? A) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 6 hours and 24 hours in refrigerator B) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 24 hours and 6 days in refrigerator C) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 18 hours and 1 month in refrigerator D) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 6 hours and 6 days in refrigerator 64) Which of the following is true regarding Antiretroviral regime for treating infants born to HIV infected Women? A) Daily Nevirapine prophylaxis at birth and continued for 6 weeks if mother received ART regularly in antenatal period B) Daily Nevirapine prophylaxis at birth and continued for 12 weeks if mother presented directly in labor without evidence of adequate treatment of ART (at least 24 weeks) or did not receive any ART earlier C) Daily Nevirapine prophylaxis at birth and continued for 12 weeks if mother received ART regularly in antenatal period D) The dose of Nevirapine for treating infants born to HIV infected women is 2mg/kg once daily in babies having birth weight <2000 kg 65) In medical education, one of the most widely used ways of organizing levels of expertise is according to __________ of Educational Objectives: A) Curricular reforms B) Blooms Taxonomy C) Sirus Theory D) Millers Theory 66) Infant of diabetic mother have the following EXCEPT : A) Macrosomia B) Neural tube defect C) Hyperglycemia D) Hypocalcaemia 67) What is the commonest organism causing Cerebrospinal fluid shunt related infectons? A) Staph Aureus B) Gram Negative Bacilli C) Coagulase negative Staphylococcus D) Enterococci 68) Which of the following antibiotics is a fifth generation Cephalosporin? A) Ceftaroline B) Cefepime C) Cefpirome D) Ceftolozane 69) All of the following are major criteria for staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, EXCEPT: A) Acute fever (Temperature >38.8 deg C (101.8 deg F) B) Central Nervous System abnormalities C) Hypotension (Orthostatic, shock, Blood Pressure below age-appropriate norms) D) Rash (Erythroderma with convalescent desquamation) 70) All of the following are true regarding the Jones Criteria as revised in 2015 by the American heart association, EXCEPT: A) Describes 5 Major criteria, 4 minor criteria and a requirement of evidence of recent Group A Streptococcal infection (GAS) B) Diagnosis of recurrent Acute Rheumatic fever in Moderate/High risk population requires 2 minor criteria and evidence of preceding GAS infection C) Has separate criteria for Low risk and Moderate/High risk population D) Acute Rheumatic fever diagnosed in the presence of 2 major or 1 Major and 2 minor criteria with evidence of preceding GAS infection
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71) The most common manifestation of Late onset Neonatal Group B Streptococcal disease is: A) Bacteremia and Meningitis B) Sepsis C) Pneumonia D) Focal infections of bone and Joints 72) The common name for Roseola Infantum caused by Human Herpes Virus 6 A and 6B is: A) Exanthema Subitum B) Fifth disease C) Herpes fever D) None of the above 73) Appropriate therapy with antiretroviral agents results in a syndrome characterised by an increased inflammatory response from the recovered immune system to subclinical opportunistic infections. What is this syndrome called as? A) HIV related hyper-reactivity syndrome B) AIDS related inflammatory syndrome C) Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome D) CD4 responsive inflammatory syndrome 74) What is the most common severe complication of malaria in children? A) Cerebral Malaria B) Respiratory distress C) Severe Malarial anemia D) Hypoglycemia 75) As per the Perinatal Risk Stratification of Preterm Neonates and Developmental outcomes-PRE (Preterm Risk Evaluation) Network, which of the following will constitute a moderate risk category? A) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia B) Gestation <30 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia C) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight <1250 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia D) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, More than or equal to 5 days of hypoglycaemia 76) All is true regarding the “One-and-a-half Syndrome , except: A) Caused because of a large Median Longitudional fasciculus lesion and involving Sixth Nerve nucleus B) Failure of conjugate gaze on the side of the lesion and failure of adduction to the opposite side C) Failure of upgaze, sometimes with convergence-retraction nystagmus D) Unaffected Vertical movements 77) The “V ” wave of Jugular venous pulses is produced due to: A) Atrial systole preceding trisucpid valve closure B) Descent of the triscuspid valve ring C) Closure of tricuspid valve D) Passive filling of atrium during ventricular systole 78) What is the approximate Total fetal Cardiac output ? A) 300 ml/kg/min B) 450ml/kg/min C) 600 ml/kg/min D) 150 ml/kg/min
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79) Causes of wide splitting of second heart sound include all EXCEPT: A) Aortic atresia B) Ebstein anomaly C) Total Anamolous pulmonary venous return D) Right bundle branch block 80) All of the following are distinguishing features of Proximal Renal Tubular acidosis from Distal Renal Tubular acidosis, EXCEPT : A) Nephrocalcinosis is more common in Distal RTA B) Hypercalciuria is more common in Distal RTA C) Massive bicarbonate wasting is more common in Proximal RTA D) Phosphate wasting is more common in Distal RTA 81) Measurement of which of the following adrenal steroid is the most commonly used marker of adrenal androgen secretion (For Adrenarche): A) Leutinising Hormone (LH) B) Dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEAS) C) Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) D) Testosterone (TS) 82) The most important gene present on the short arm of Y chromosome required for the development of the testis is: A) SOX 9 B) SOY9 C) SRY D) WTI 83) Which of the following is a true statement for the time to commence screening for complications in children with Diabetes Mellitus? A) Retinopathy - After 5 year duration in pre-pubertal children B) Nephropathy - After 5 year duration in pre-pubertal children C) Microvascular disease - After age 2 years D) All of the above 84) Which of the following best describes the metabolic abnormality present during acute episodes of Mitochondrial disorders of Fatty acid Oxidation? A) Hypoketotic Hyperglycemia with acidosis B) Hypoketotic Hypoglycemia with minimial or no acidosis C) Hyperketotic Hypoglycemia with acidosis D) Hypoketotic hypoglycaemia with significant acidosis 85) Neuromyelitis Optica (Devic disease) is a demyelinating disorder characterised by monophasic or polyphastic optic neuritis and/ or transverse myelitis. The pathogenesis includes demonstration of IgG antibodies against astrocyte foot processes within the periventricular region, brainstem, optic nerves and spinal cord. What is the name of these antibodies? A) Antineuronal antibody B) Anticholinesterase antibody C) Antiglial antibody D) AntiAquaporin-4 water channel antibody
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86) The most common neuropathologic finding in children with spastic diplegia and is present in more than 70% children with spastic diplegia is: A) Multifocal neuronal necrosis B) Status marmorata C) Selective neuronal necrosis D) Periventricular leukomalacia 87) A rhythmic , oscillatory movement around a central point or plane that results from the action of antagonist muscles is called as: A) Athetosis B) Tremor C) Chorea D) Baillismus 88) In children with Sturge Weber syndrome the port wine stain is often a target of ridicule by classmates, leading to psychologic trauma and can be treated by a form of Laser providing excellent results, especially if located in the forehead. What is the name of this Laser? A) YAG Laser B) CO2 Laser C) Pulsed dye Laser D) Diode Laser 89) As per the Headache classification committee on the International Headache Society, following are the characteristics of Migraine without aura in children, EXCEPT: A) Unilateral location (Commonly bilateral in young children) B) Mild pain intensity C) Pulsating Quality D) Aggravation by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity (eg. Walking or climbing stairs) 90) All of the following are considered as Neonatal seizure syndromes, except: A) Doose Syndrome B) Benign Idiopathic Neonatal seizures C) Benign familial neonatal seizures D) Early Infantile Epileptic encephalopathy (Ohtahara Syndrome) 91) Which amongst the following is a true statement regarding Pediatric stroke: A) Diffusion Weighted MRI demonstrates AIS only after 7 days of onset B) The acute onset of a focal neurologic deficit in a child is stroke until proved otherwise C) The most common clinical presentation of Pediatric stroke is acute speech deficit D) The diagnosis of stroke in children is usually obvious and can be done early 92) Osmotic diarrhea can be differentiated from Secretary diarrhea by the following: A) Normal to increased Stool osmolality and ≥100 mOsm/kg Ion gap in Osmotic diarrhea B) Decreased Stool osmolality and ≥100 mOsm/kg Ion gap in Osmotic diarrhea C) Normal to increased Stool osmolality and <100 mOsm/kg Ion gap in Osmotic diarrhea D) Decreased Stool osmolality and <100 mOsm/kg Ion gap in Osmotic diarrhea 93) What is the most common form of Intussusception in children? A) Cecocolic B) Ileal C) Ileo-cecal D) Colo-colic
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94) What is the classic triad of Infantile glaucoma?
A) Epiphora, Photophobia and retinal detachment
B) Epiphora, Photophobia and Anterior staphyloma
C) Epiphora, Photophobia and Blepharospasm
D) Epiphora, Blepharospasm and retinal detachment
95) The radiologic evaluation of developmental dysplasia of hip involves measurement of Hilgenreiner’s line, which is :-
A) Vertical line through the most lateral ossified margin of the roof of the acetabulum and perpendicular to the line joining
the triradiate cartilages
B) Curved line drawn from the medial aspect of the femoral neck to the lower border of the superior pubic ramus
C) Horizontal line drawn through the top of both triradiate cartilages (the clear area in the depth of acetabulum)
D) None of the above
96) Which of the following is a Heat related syndromes:
A) Heat edema
B) Heat Tetany
C) Heat exhaustion
D) All of the above
97) Tandem Mass spectroscopy (MS/MS) is a technically advanced method of newborn screening. What is the Predictive
value of a positive screening result on TMS?
A) <10%
B) >90%
C) 60%
D) None of the above
98) ICROP (Internatonal Classification of Retinopathy of prematurity) is used for classifying ROP and describes
vasularization of retina and characterises ROP by its:
A) Position, Severity and Level
B) Position, Severity and Extent
C) Position, Extent and Level
D) Severity, Extent and Level
99) India was officially certified polio free by WHO on 27/3/2014. In a continuing effort for global eradication of
Poliomyelitis, WHO has recommended a switch from Trivalent Oral Polio Vaccine to Bivalent Oral Polio Vaccine. What is
the date of this Switch when all OPV vaccines used will be Bivalent OPV (Containing serotypes 1 and 3):
st
A) 1 April, 2016
th
B) 15 April, 2016
th
C) 25 April, 2016
th
D) 30 April, 2016
100) Which of the following is a test for diagnosing single gene disorders:
A) Linkage Analysis
B) Array Competitive genomic hybridization
C) Direct Mutation (DNA sequence-based) analysis
D) All of the above
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Assistant Professor Paediatrics 2015
Exam Date 15-03-2016
Key Issue Date-25-05-2016
SET_A RES SET_A RES
1 4 51 2
2 2 52 3
3 3 53 2
4 1 54 3
5 4 55 3
6 1 56 1
7 1 57 2
8 3 58 3
9 4 59 2
10 3 60 1
11 4 61 2
12 2 62 4
13 1 63 1
14 4 64 *
15 4 65 2
16 1 66 3
17 2 67 3
18 3 68 1
19 1 69 2
20 3 70 2
21 4 71 1
22 3 72 1
23 2 73 3
24 2 74 3
25 1 75 1
26 4 76 3
27 1 77 4
28 4 78 2
29 3 79 1
30 3 80 4
31 3 81 2
32 2 82 3
33 1 83 4
34 1 84 2
35 1 85 4
36 2 86 4
37 4 87 2
38 1 88 3
39 4 89 2
40 4 90 1
41 1 91 2
42 3 92 1
43 4 93 3
44 2 94 3
45 1 95 3
46 3 96 4
47 1 97 1
48 2 98 2
49 3 99 3
50 4 100 4
* Means deletedPage 1 of 13
Source: Rajasthan Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Rajasthan Public Service Commission.