TNPSC 2019: Assistant Director / Child Development project Officer [Women candidate only], HOME SCIENCE (bilingual, Code 341)
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Question Booklet Code :. Register
Number
2A19
HOME SCIENCE
Time Allowed:3 Hoursl [Maximurn Marks : 300
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
I. The applicant will be supplied with Question Booklet 15 minutes before commencement of the examination.
2. This Question Booklet contains 200 questions. Prior to attempting to answer, the candidates are
requested to check whether al1 the questions are there in series and ensure there are no blank pages in
the question booklet. In case any defect in the Question Paper is noticed, it shall be reported to
the Invigilator within first 10 minutes and get it replaced with a complete Question Booklet.
If any defect is noticed in the Question Booklet after the conunencement of exarnination, it
will not be replaced.
3. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
A
You must write your Register Number in the space provided on the top right side of this page. Do not
write anything eJse on the Question Booklet.
5. An answer sheet wi-il be supplied to you, separately by the Room Invigilator to mark the answers. .t t"_r:
-'
6. You will also encode your Question Booklet Code with Blue or Black ink Ball point pen in the space a .. /t,t
.. t-
provided on the side 2 of the Answer Sheet. If you do not encode properly or fail to encode the above
information, action will be taken as per Commission's notification. i,.t t
7 Each question comprises four responses (A), @), (C) and (D). You are to select ONLY ONE correct :...
-,* -l
.,. ,-
response and mark in your Answer Sheet. In case you feei that there are more than one correct I '-
response, mark the response which you consider the beSt. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each question. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct res'ponses marked by you in the
Answer Sheet.
8. In the Answer Sheet there are four circles @,@,@ and@ against each question. To answer the
questions you are to mark with Blue or Black ink Bali point pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for
each question. Select one response for each question in the Question Booklet and mark in the Answer
Sheet. If you Xrrk more than one answer for one questj.on, the answer will be treated as wrong. e.g. If
for any item, \U is the correct answer, you have to mark as follows :
@o@@
9. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from this Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take
this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination HaII during the time of
examination. After the examination is concluded. you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator. You are allowed to take the Question Booklet with )'ou onlv after the Examination is over.
10. Do not make any marking in the question booklet except in the sheet before the last page of
the question booklet, which can be used for rough work. This should be strictly adhered.
11. Applicants have to write and shade the total number of answer fields left blank on the boxes provided
at side 2 of OMR Answer Sheet. An extra time of 5 minutes will be given to specify the number of
answer fields left blank.
12. Failure to comply with any of the above instructj.ons will rend.er you liable to such action or penalty as
the Commission mav decide at their discretion.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ADHS/I9
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1. An example of natural antimiclobial agent
(A) Titanium dioxide (}lt^/ Chito"a.,
(C) Silver chloride fDl Zinc oxide
2. In knitting, the term used to indicate the lengthwise or vertical columns of loops is
(A) Courses gf Wales
(C) Gauge (D) Fett
3. Assertion (A) : The values that are higher than the middle value of the value
scale is called shades
Reason (R) : A pink colour baby frock with maroon peker pan collar shows
tints and shades of red
(A) (A) is true (R) is false
(BL Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is false (R) is true
{y
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the coruect explanation of (A)
4. where hot wax is applied on the fabric in the form of a design
(A) Block printing (B) Direct roller
(C) Screen printing Batik
V
5- Match the natural dyes with suitable shades which they can produce :
Dyes Shade
(a) Walnut Rind 1. Pinkish Red
(b) Majeeth 2. Bright orange
(c) Tessoo 3. Reddish Brown
(d) Cutch 4. Bright Reddish Brown
(a) (b) (c) (d)
/a\1 324
if;r2s
(c)4 2 I 3
(D)2 L 4 3
6. For which type of stain the following are oxalic acid, bleach, lime juice, salts of
Iemon, sour milk, oxalic acid
(A) Nail polish (B)-Mild dew
(C) N,Iedicine {yf Iron rust
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7. Arrange the following in chronoiogical order
1. Taking up and letting off 2. Beating up
3. Picking 4. Shedding
(A) r,2, 3, 4 (B) 2,3, 4, r
V 4,8,2,r (D) 1,2, 4,3
8. Assertion (A) : The selvage prevents the fabric from raveling
Reason (R) : The movement of bobbin carrying the weft yarns results in the
formation of the selvage.
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
.a
(A) is false but (R) is true
{V (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
9. Which of the following facts are true regarding the affinity of dyes
1. Cotton has affinity for direct and reacting dyes
2. Liner has poor affinity for dyes
3. Wool has poor affinity for dyes
4. Wool has very high affinity for dyes
(A) 1 is true 2,3, 4are false .{yl I,2, 4are true, 3 is false
(C) AII are true statement (D) All are false statement
10. Pick the true and false statements.
1. Vinyl resins finished water proof fabric will oxidize and crack readily like rubber
2. Silicone compounds are not water repellent.
3. Cellulose fibers are susceptible to mildew.
4. - Glass fibers can be used for reinforcement.
6 I,2 are false, 3 and 4 are true (B) B, 4 arefalse and 1, 2 are true
(C) 2, 4 are true 3, 4 are false (D) l, 2, 3,4 are false
11. Match the names of selvages with their describiation :
(a) Fused Selvage' 1. Flatter edges, constructed on plain and Basket weaves
&) Tape Selvage 2. Made by weaving a narrow width fabric twice
(c) Spilt Selvage 3. A technique gsed in some shuttle less looms
(d) Tucked Selvage 4. Made with thermoplasic fibers.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)r 2 4 3
<ny'qr23
(c)3 2 r 4
(D)2 r 4 3
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12. Whooping Cough is otherwise called as
(A) Tetanus (B) Diphtheria
{ Pertussis (D) Scabies
13. Erikson called the period of adolescence as the stage of
(A) Industry Vs Inferiority (B) Initiative Vs Guilt
Identity vs Role confusion (D) Generativity vs stagnation
{
14. The term adolescence comes from a/an verb meaning 'to grow into
maturity'
(A) English (B) Spanish
(C) Greek
1t'r"ti"
15. Developmental tasks is the term PA forth by
€ Havighorst (B) Hortock
(C) Plaget (D) Freud
16. Dismemberment in the family resulting from the death of a member is called
(A) Accersion ,gf Bereavement
(C) Demoralization (D) Disruption
17. Any enviromental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period is called
(A) Illegal drugs (B) Radiation
(C) Mutation t"ratogens
tgf
18. The Psychological conflict of toddlerhood is proposed by Erikson is
(A) Initiative Vs Guilt (B) Trust Vs Mistrust
(C) Identity Vs Role-confusion 1f,+"tonomy Vs shame and doubt
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19" Caring for the children, the sick, old and infirm is a function of the
famil;'
(A) Biological (B) Socializrng
(C) Recreational 9y/"otective
20. Resistance to adult authority- reaching its peak between three to four years of age is
calied
Vf Negativism (B) Aggressiveness
I (C) Selfishness (D) AscendantBehaviour
2I. Whatdoes'CaveatVenditor'mean?
(A) Let the buyer beware n/""nhe seller beware
(C) Let the auctioner beware (D) Let the king beware
22. Which among the following are major causes for passive consumer movement in
India?
1. Poverty
2. Self ernployment
3. Illiteracy
4. Ignorance
-i 1, 3 and.4 are true (B) All are false statements
(C) All statements are true (D) I,2 and 4 are true
23. Identifu the expanded. form of AIDA in its proper sequence.
1. Interest
2. Desire
3. Atiention
4. Action
(A) r-2-3-4 (B) 4-3-2-r
(c) 4-r-2-3 V 8.r.2.4
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24. The headquarters of the grievance cell functioning under BIS is located in
(A) Mumbai (B) Chennai
(C) Surat New Delhi
V
25. Which r:f the following is not the rieht of consumer?
(A) Right to choose (B) Right to be heard
V Right to be not informed (D) Right to Redress
26- In rvhich year did John F. Kennedy declare the'Rights to Consumers'?
11t/ tnu, (B) 1e60
(c) 1e58 (D) 1e61
27 - Where was the first product testing and rating laboratory set up in India?
(A) New Delhi (B) Cochin
{ Ahmedabad (D) Chennai
28. If the goods being sold in the market are not measured correctly it is called consumer
(A) Awarenes V/"xploitation
"
(C) Protection (D) Rights
29. Which among the following were served with notices charging them with violation of
environmental laws, specifically the Forest Conservation Act of India?
(A) Kingfisher and Pepsi {repsi and Coco cola
(C) Coco cola and. Kingfisher (D) Colgate and Kingfisher
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30. ISO 22000 : 2005 is mainly concerned with
(A) Quality management systems
(B) Environmentalmanagementsystems
(c) Quantity management systems
Food safetv
{
31. Match the food adulterant and food stuffs
(a) Asafoetida 1. Infested with ergot
&) Cinnamon 2. Starch
(c) Coffee 3. Cassia bark
(d) Bajra 4. Soap stone
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4321
(B)3 2 L 4
(c)r 2 3 4
(D)2 3 L 4
32. Expand CCFS
(A) Central Committee for Food Safety
(B) Central Committee for Food Security
d Central Committee for Food Standards
(D) Central Committee for Food Supply
33. pH for the microbial safety of food is
(A) (B) 5
v
2
7 (D) e
34. Which micro organism is called as psychophilic (cold loving)?
(A) Salmonella { Pseudomonas
(C) Clostridium Welchi (D) Clostridium Botulinum
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35. Hazatd analysis involves
1. Identification of ingredients and products which might have a pronounced effect
on food safety.
2. Preservation of foods which support rapid growth of micro organisms
3. Reducing the microorganisms using hot water, steam, halogen derivatives or
ammonia
4. Foods consumed by special populations eg: vulnerable groups
land2 (B) 1 and 3
q
(A)
land4 (D) l alone
36. PEM stands for
(A) Prevalence Energy Mal Nutrition
{y/ Protein Enerry Mal Nutrition
(C) Protein Enerry Mal Absorption
(D) Prevalence Energy Mal Absorption
37. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(A) Bacto fugation - Centri fugal procedure to remove bacteria from milk
g Vat Pasteurisation - Continuous process of flash method
(C) Vacreation - Combination of steam injection and evacuation
(D) Market-milk Pasteurisation - Kill all pathogens and improve keeping quality
38. Methylene blue reduction test is identify the spoilage of Micro organism in
,f il,rilk (B) Water
(C) Meat (D) Bread
39. Which of the following requires satellite transmission or sophisticated telephone
lines?
(A) Computer conferencing ,(P/rn Television
"ractive
. (C) Mobile applications (D) Tailoring graphics
40. Amino acid imbalance test is carried out to determine the effrciency of
V/ Protein (B) Rhodopsin
(C) Iron binding protein (D) Transferrin
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4I. A : Nutritional screening is the beginning of Nutrition Assessment Process.
R : It is done to quickl5,- iclentify individuals who ale malnourished or at lisk.
(A) A is trr'c R is false
-
{rf Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(C) A is false, R is true
(D) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
42. l,Iatch the nutrients and its deficiencies:
(a) Protein 1. Ascites
(b) Iron 2. eonjunctival Xerosis
(c) Vit" A 3. Spooning of nails
(d) Fat 4. Britrle hair
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4321
(B)7 2 4 3
(c)2 3 r 4
(D)3 2 r 4
43. Which is not natural preservative?
(A) Salt (B) Sugar
(C) Ascorbic acid
V Vinegar
44. Natural casings of sausages are made from
{$ Animal intestine (B) Collagen
(C) Cellulose (D) Plastic films
45. Silent nutrients are
(A) Water and protein (B) Dietary fibre and fat
Water and dietary fibre (D) Vitamin-" and minerals
V
46. Good source of minerals and vitamins are
(A) cereals and pulse (rf vegetables and fruits
(C) fruits and fats " (D) proteins and fats
47. Identi$z the volatile compound that exhibits srtrong flavour in garlic
(A) cysterine sulphoxid Vf ailicin
(C) limonene " (D) piperine
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48. Assertion (A) : While heating milk, a film of coagulated albumin and other whey
proteins coliect on the sides and bottom of the pan lespectively.
Reason (R) : Homogenised milk coagulates more readily than
rlon-homosenised milk
(A) (A) is true (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is false (R) is true
.vf Both (A) and (R) are tme but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
49. Read the foliowing statements on gelatin :
Assertion (A) : Gelatin is a partially degraded collagen
Reason (R) : It is a protein of iow biologicai r''alue
(A) (A) is true (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is false (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
{
50. Match the following vegetables/fruits with their respective pigments :
Vegetables Pigments
(a) Tomatoes 1. Anthocyanine
&) Peaches 2. Chlorophyll
(c) Grapes 3. Carotenoid
(d) Beans 4. Bycopenes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)1 3 4 2
9/n 3 1' 2
(c)2 3 4 1
(D)4 3 2 1
51. In endosperm of a cereal grain is surrounded by one or more layers of cells and are I
known as
(A) Bran or Pericarp {t ot urone layer
(C) Embryo (D) Germ
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52. Assertion (A) : Research Design stands for ad.vance planning of the methods to
be adopted for collecting the data and the techniques to be used in
their analysis, keeping in view the objective of the research and
the availability of staff time and money.
Reason (R) : It is needed for the smooth sailing of the various research
operations make the research cost effective.
(A) (A) is true (R) is false
,9/ Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(C) (A) is false (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
53. The principal instrument in research. Where in its main function is to suggest
new
experiments and observations is
{A/ hypothesis (B) interpretation
(C) analysis (D) sampling
54. The process of assigning numerals or other symbols to answers so that
responses can
be put into a limited number of categories or classes is referred
as
(A) Editing fr/ coding
(C) Classification (D) Tabulation
55. Who defined research as a systematised effort to gain new knowledge
gf Redman and Mory (B) Slesingir and Stephenson
(C) Clifford and Woodv (D) Kothari and Robinson
56. Research refers to
1. Search for knowledge
2. Systematic enquiry of seeking facts
3. An end.eavour to discover answers to problems
4. Seeking solutions-for any undefining prollems
(A) 1 and 2 are true, B and 4 are false (y/ !,2 and3 are true, 4 is false
(c) L, 2, 3 and 4 statements are true (D) 2, B, 4 are true and 1 is false
57. The two basic approaches to research are
(A)- Experimental and Simulation approach
{l/ Quantitative and Qualitative approach
(C) Inferential and Experimental approach
(D) Quantitative and Experimental approach
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58. The term which describe the sampling units such as geographical area, iist of city
blocks or counties.
(A) Universe {r,u^"
(C) Census (D) Random
59. Delibrate sampling is aiso known as
,{tf non probabitity sarnpling or purposive sampiing
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Simple random sampling
(D) Stratified sampiing
60. Match the following sampling methods with its characteristics
(a) Sample random sampling 1. The population is divide into several
homogenous sub population.
(b) Systematic sampling 2. Equal probability of being picked up
(c) Stratified sampling 3. Applied to big inquiries in a larger area
(d) Multistage sampling 4. Selecting the ith item on a list
(a) &) (c) (d)
(A)1 3 4 2
(B)2 3 r 4
972 .14 1 3
(D) 2 3 4
61. In sampling, the number of students or families from whom the information is
obtained is called
(A) Sample 6 ru ple size
(C) Population (D) Population size
62. The data that are already available which may be either published or unpublished is
referred as
(A) Primary (B) General data
(C) Collected data {ff Secondary
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63. Which type of graph would be most suitable for representing the mbney alloted for
each item of expenditure in a budget? t
(A) Bar chart 6 Pie chart
(C) Line chart (D) Histogram
64. Arrange in correct sequence the steps in hypothesis testing - Entrepreneurship
management accomplished through
1. Contlolling
2. Organising
3. Leading
4. Planning
(A)
- 3, 1,2, 4 (B) 3,2, L, 4
9r 4,2,3, L (D) 4,3,2, r
65. The characteristics of female entrepreneur differ in terms of
(A) Motivation (B) Business skill
(C) Occupational Background {7T ltt
66. The economic theories say that the lower the price, the higher the
.t6 Demand (B) Quality
(C) Supply (D) Cost
67. SIPCOT provide
{r, Market assistance (B) Skill
(C) Escot services to cottage industries (D) Technical assistance
68. The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was established on
gf July 1.t 1964 (B) JuIy lQtr, 1964
(C) June l't 1964 (D) June 2I"t lg74
69. Which is'not the objective of physical examination of recruitment process?
(A) the applicants capabilities to meet the job requirements
(B) protect the organisation against the unwarranted claims
(C)a prevent communicable diseases entering the organisation
91 helps to protect the employees mental stress in their jobs
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Text of page 15
70. The entrepreneul who never allow any change in their production
(A) Entrepreneur (B) Initiating Entrepreneur
-Innovative
Fabian Entrepreneur (D) Drone Entrepreneur
{f
7I. An innovating entlepreneur is one
(A) who cleverly puts attractive possibilities
^
tY one who
v'r goods andintroduce new technology, new methods of production, discover new
- reorganise enterprise
(C) who is cautious
(D) Refuses to adopt possibilities
72. Essential qualities of entrepreneurial person
Vf Need to achieve (B) Not a motivate
(C) Not a planner (D) Not a decision maker
73. Assertion (A) : An Entrepreneur is a calculated risk-taker. He enjoys the
excitment of a challenge but he does not gamble
Reason (R) : An entrepreneur avoids low-risk situation because there is a lack
of challenge and he avoids high-risk situation because he wants
to succeed
(A) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
g Both (A) and (R) are correct
(D) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
74. Assertion (A) : The first step in starting a small business is to find out business idea
Reason (R) : The first step in starting a small'business is to arrange loan
(A) is true (R) is false
-llf
-(B) Both (A) and (R) are true
(C) (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
75. Sarcoma is a type of cancer which affects the
(A) - Endoderm (B) Ectoderm
V Mesoderm (D) Monocyte
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76. Caffiene is absorbed in human milk and can inhibit the
Let down reflex (B) Miik production
{f
(C) Secretion of estrogen (D) Secretion of Progesterone
77. A new investisation estimation, gives an excellent indication of overall
control over proceeding period
\Yl'Giycosylated hemoglobin (B) Impaired Glucose tolerance
(C) Randorn Biood sugar (D) Fasting blood sugar
78. Glycogen storage diseases is an inborn error of Metabolism that impairs
metabolism.
(A) Glycolysis (B) Glycogenesis
,y Giuconeogenesis (D) Glycogenolysis
79. \\rhat is the protein allowance for obese patients on very low calorie diets?
(A) 0.5 - 0.8 g/kg IBW (B) 0.6 - 1.2 g/Kg IBW
0.8 - l.b g/Kg IBW (D) 1.5 - zglks tBW
V
80. A preschool child's craving for a particular food which lasts for only a few days in
termed as
(A) Food Fab (B) Food Taboos
(C) Food Lover
dv"rd Jags
81' Name the anti infective agent present in human milk that destroys the cell
membrane of the bacteria
(A) Lactoferrin Lvso enzvmes
(C) Lacto bacillus Bifidus (D) SIg A
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82. NIatch the hormones and its source during lactation
(a) Estrogen 1. Ovary
(b) Progesterone 2. Posterior Pituitary
(c) Prolactin 3. Placenta
(d) Ox5,tocin 4. Anterior Pituitary
(a) (b) (c) (d)
o 2 4
,#^ 1
J
4
1
2
2
(D) 2 3 4 1
83. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(A) Keratomaiacia Vita A Deficiency
(B) Costeomaiacia Adult Rickets
,9f Card.iac odema Dlv beri beri
(D) Anaemia Iron Deficiency
84. Assertion (A) : DAFNE provides the skills necessary to estimate the carbohydrate
in each meal and to inject the right dose of insuiin.
Reason (R) : It is a way of managing Type 2 diabetes for adults.
,{f (A) is true (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
85' The rapid passage of food form the stomach into the intestine is referred to as
,yf Dumping syndrome (B) Irritable colon syndrome
(C) Rectal stasis (D) Dyspepsia
86. Growth spurt during adolescence lasts for a duration of
(A) 6 to \2 months (B) 12 to 18 months
Vf 18 to 24 months (D) 24to 30 months
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87. What is the co-efficients for computing Calorie requirement for an adult female
(Moderate worker)?
{/f 1.0 cu (B) 0.8 Cu
(C) 1.2 Cu (D) 1.4 Cu
88 Which one is an Essential amino acid?
,gf ""ucine (B) Glycine
(C) Proline (D) Cysteine
89. 1 Kilo calorie is equal to
,{ 4.LB4KJ (B) 4184 KJ
(C) 4.184 mJ (D) 4r84 mJ
90. Mucopolysaccharides containing uronic acids are in nature.
(A) Neutral (B) Basic
Acidic (D) Basic and acidic
{
91. is the excretory product of amino acid metabolism.
(A) Creatinine (B) Uric acid
.g/ l]rea (D) NH+
92. NEERI stands for
(A) NationalEnvironmentalEngineeringResearchlnstitute
(B) Nation Environmental Engineering Research Institute
,!rf
v Nation Evaluate Engineering Research Institute
(D) Nationatr Evaluate Engineering Research Institute
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93. The normal haemoglobulin level for an adolescent girl is
(A) 10.5 g/dl (B) 11.0 s/dl
(C) 11.5 g/dl .y LZ.s gtdr
94. Child with mild are known to be at increased risk of respiratory
infections and diarrhoea.
(A) Keratomacacia (B) Bitot's spot
(C) corneal xerosis ,f xerophthalmia
95. Which vitamin deficiency is associated with the symptom, 'casal's necklace'?
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
Niacin (D) Retinol
V
96. Assertion (A) : Raffinose is a trisaccharide
Reason (R) : Raffinose is fructose * Galactose * Glucose
(A) (A) is true, (R) is false
\tr Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false, (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
97. Calculate the energy Expenditure using MET values for a women who weighs 50 kg
and is cycling leisurely for 0.5 hrs IMET value for cycling is 3.5].
(A) 98.2 kcal ,gf
v a',.5 kcal
(C) 99.2 kcal (D) 89.7 kcal
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98. An apt dye for colouring silk fabric
(A) Direct (B) Vat
(C) Naphthot \y Acid
99' A combination of yellow frock with red purple collar and blue purple sleeve resuits in
(A) Double complementary colour scheme
(B) Balance colour harmony
{g/ Sptit complementary colour scheme
(D) Primary colour harmony
100. Mechanical finish that increases the lustre of linen fabrics is
(A) Shearing (B) Plisse
{y/ Beetling (D) Moiering
101" Small woven patterns are created in which of the following type of weave?
(A) Jacquard (B)
,f
Pile
(C) Double cloth Dobby
102' Special calendering finish that produces three-dimensional designs on fabrics
V Embossing (B) Beetting
(C) Shearing (D) Flocking
103. This type of water proof finish is renewable one
(A) Fluro chemicals (B) Ammonium compound
(C) Silicone compounds
,fi Wax emulsions
L04. The d}'eing done after knotting the fabrics is called
gf Tie-dyeing (B) Batik
(C) Transfer (D) Jet
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105. Which of the following is not a chemical finish
1. Mercerising
2. Beetting
3. Calendering
4. Crease resistant
(A) Only 1 yfu"rn2 anct B
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) l, 2, 3 and 4
106. This finish lasts for most of the life of a product
{f Durable (B) Permanent
(C) Temporary (D) Sustainable
I07. Velvet is the fabric of
,{t? Piles (B) Crepes
(C) Satin (D) Twill
108' Aryramnle of fiber stage dyeing
ltf Top dyeing (B) Yarn dyeing
(C) Piece dyeing (D) Pigment dyeing
109. This is water soluble dye
(A) Vat
(C) Disperse
v(B) Sulphur
Direct
110" Give the correct sequence for washing woolen cloths
1. Prepare washing water and work up a lather
2. Outline garments on a plain paper
3. Roll the garment in a towel to remove extra moisture
4. Lift extra dirty parts and pat suds over these until dirt is removed
(A) 3, r,4,2 v(D) 2,4,2,!,4,3
(c) 3,2, L, 4 r, 3
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111. This-1.ool is useti to spread the dye through screen.
{ Squeege (B) Block
(C) Screen (D) Frame
lI2. The-enzyme involved in enzymatic degumming is
€ Papain (B) Amyiase
(C) Cellulase (D) Lipase
113. Match the following :
Items used Printing
(a) Squeegee 1. Blocks
(b) Vegetable 2,. Screen
(c) Wax 3. Tie and Dye
(d) Thread 4. Batik
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)4 3 2 1
(B)r 4 2 3
Ag/'z L 4 B
(D)t 2 3 4
1I4. Which of the following statements describe Tigering Finish (True/False)
1. Done on fabrics line Velour, Plush and imitation of fur
2. Roller have long fine wires to penetrate to the ground of the fabric
3. The fabrics is first washed in water and yarns are trimmied
4.
,Brushing in one direction for high lustor.
{f 1, 2 true 3, 4 false (B) 2, 4 true 1, 3 false
(C) 3, 4 true 1, 2 false (D) 1, 3 true 2, 4 false
115. Removing the air from the stomach in babyhggd is known as
(A) Aspiration Vf Burping
(C) Chocking (D) Hiccups
116. Neurons that are seldom stimulated soon lose their synapses, a process called
(A) Neurotransmitters (B)-Programmed cell death
(C) Myelination ,{y Synaptic pruning
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Il7. In which of the parenting style, an attempt is made to make the punishment 'fit the
crime'?
(A) Uninvolved 1y/r"^ocratic
(C) Permissive (D) Authoritarian
i18. Suicide of a family member can be categorized among one of the type of famiiy crisis.
(i) Dismemberment
(ii) Accusation
(iii) Demoralization
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only
(C) (i) & (ii) only ,gf r,l (ii) & (iii)
119. Who exhibits gross motor skills?
(A) Ally, who draws a circle gfnavid., who rides a tricycle
(C) Chintu, who scribbles on the board @) Pintu, who'plays with blocks.
l2A. Which period involves a dramatic increase in body size and completion of physical
structures of a baby?
(A) Period of ovum (B) Period of embryo
(C) Period of zygote {f e.tiod of foetus
Lzl. Learning by copying the behaviour of another person is called
(A) Habituation (B) Operant conditioning
(C) Dishabituation 4ft^ttation
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r22. which among the following is remarked as a'siient salesman'?
(A) Branding G/Packaging
(C) Trade mark (D) Patent
r23. A name term, symbol or design or a combination of these intendeci to identify the
goods/services of one seller from those of its competitors is called
Vf Brand (B) Grade
(C) Trade mark (D) Logistics
r24. Labels exclusively meant for popularizing the brand name of the product is called
(A) Grade labels (B) Description labels
(C) Information labels Brand labeis
V
125- Arrange in logical sequence the three factors invoived in exchange functions of
marketing.
1. Buying
2. Assembling
3. Organizing
4. Selling
(A) 1, 2 and 3 V/r,2 and,4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
126. A market that operates according to demand and suppl5'conditions is called
(A) Regulated (B) Statutory
(C) Terminal {Y/ t'""
127 ' Assertion (A) : COPRA is not only preventive, but also compensatory.in nature.
Reason (R) : It is civil and focuses on undoing the wrong to the consumer through
remedial action, compensation etc.
(A)
- (A) is true, (R) is false
Vf Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false, (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
128. Packaged commodities (Regulation) order was enacted in India in the vear
(A) 1e80 (B) rs76
{y re7 s (D) rsz 4
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I29- Ananges in descending chronological order enactment of the following Acts
1. MRTP
2. CPA
3. PFA
4. Companies Act
€ z-L-4-B (B) r-2-3-4
(c) 4-3-2-1 (D) 2-L-3-4
130. Assertion (A) Product certification scheme is not governed by BIS Act, 1986
Reason (R) : The presence of the ISI mark on a product indicates conformity
to the relevant Indian standard.
(A) (A) is true, (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
V (A) is false, (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
131. Which year AGMARK is amended?
(A) 1s76 (rf"ntu
(c) 1e66 (D) 1e56
132. Identify the expanded form of MRP.
(A) Minimum Retail Price (B) Maximum Retail Prize
V Maximum Retail Price (D) Minimum Retail Prize
133. The Process by which the temperature of foods is lowered to about -20'C within
30 minutes is called as freezing.
(A) Dehydro (B) Cryogenic
(C) Slow
fi7 Quick
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134. Botuiism is caused bv
(A) Clostridium Tetani (B) ClostridiumPerfringes
Clostridium Botulinum (D) Bacillus cereus
{
135. Enterotoxin is produced by
(A) Clostrid.ium Botulinum d Clostridium perfringes
(C) Sachromyces Cervisciae (D) Pseudomonas
136. The Phenomenon by which many ceils of mesophilic bacteria die due to sudden
chilling of suspension of viable cells grown in that temperature is called as
(A) Lipid solidification (B) Thawing
cold' shock (D) Blanching
{{
137. The suitable temperature for storage of Banana rs
(A) 15'C (B) 1loc
(D) 10 "c
1y/ tt""
138. Q fever is caused by
g/ Coxiella Burnetto (B) Salmonella
(C) Shigella (D) Trichenella
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139. Computer programmes which run without connection to a network or modern are
JffU ,r^Hd Alone applications (B) Miracle chip applications
(C) Mind boggling applications (D) Work alone appiications
140. In {washiorkor, all blood profile is low, except
gf Plasma/amino acid ratio (B) Serum albumin
(C) Urinary urea per g. creatinine (D) Hydroxyproline/Creatinine ratio
I4l. An anticoagulant drug used throughout pregnancy, which does not cross the placenta
(A) - Warfarin
1V/ Heparin
(C) Low molecular weight heparin
(D) Heparin in l.t and 2nd trimester, Warfarin in 3'd trimester
I42. Oxyuriasis falls under the disease cond.ition of
(A) Bacterial (B) Viral
{yf Pa'asites (D) Fungal
143. Live trichinae in meat are destroyed at a temperature of
(A) 55.C ,lFl 7o.C
(c) 85"c (D) 1oo.c
L44. Arrange the stages of nutrition education in the correct sequence
1. Message is seen by receiver
2. Behaviour change occurs
3. Message is accepted, believed, learned
4. Receiver understands and correctly interprets the message
5. Improvement in Health occurs
6. Sender (Health Promoter)
(A) 6,2, r,4,3,5 (BL 6, 4, t,3,2, 5
(c) r
6, 5, 4, 3,2,
v 6,t, 4, 3,2, 5
145. Which of the following definitions of 'vitamers' is true?
1. Vitamers are multiple forms of vitamins
2. They are all isomers and active analyzers
3. They are membrane stabilizers and e- donors and acceptors
. Aithey are hormones and enzymes
.Uf 1, 2 and 3 are true (B) 2, 3 and 4 are true
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are true (D) I, 2, 3 and 4 are true
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146. T!9 filst step in beer making process is
g malting (B) miiling
(C) mashing (D) fermenting
147 . During homogenization of the milk process fat globules are reduced to
(A) t p^ (B) 1.25 pm
(c) 1.507:m
v'o*
148' Expand DDT
(A) Dichlorodimethyl trichloroethane (B) Dichlorodiethyl trichloromethane
V Dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane (D) Dichlorodiacetyl trichloromethane
r49' Frqits and vegetables should. not be flozen soon after
Vf Harvesting (B) Cooking
(C) Serving (D) Grading
150' Any meat from animals treated with growth promoters, artificial hormones or
organosphores and organ chlorine pesticiole may not be considered as
(A) Inorganic {ff- Organic
(C) Chemical (D) None of the above
151' Marbling throughout the body of animal is mainly due to presence of
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Water
(C) Protein 1y/'u"ts
L52' Statement 1 : Starch has 2 components : Amylose and Amylopectin
Statement 2 : Amylopectin in the components responsible for gelling ability ol
starch due to its branched structure
(A) Both statements are true
(B> Both statements are false
gf Statement I is true while statement 2 is false
(D) Statement 1 is false while statement 2 is true
153' Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) Cooking improves taste and food quality
(B) Cookingdestroymicro-organism
(C) Cookingimprovesdigestibility
Vf Cooking does not incease availahility of food
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154. The historical report which ushered a new era in agricultural research in GM foods
described the introduction of a gene from a bacterium into the genome of a plant.
Identify the correct bacterium - plant combination from the options given below :
{lf Streptococcus faecalis - Nicotina plumbaginafolia
(B) Bacillus cereus - Oryza Sativa
(C) Listeria - Tritium Aestivum
(D) Diphvllobothrium latum - Nieotina Plumbagina folia
155. Totlpotency is the principle of
Plani trssue cultule (B) Animal tissue culture
(C) Fermentation
"t/ (D) Microbial cell culture
156. Read the following statements on gel formation :
Assertion (A) :Corn starch form firmer gels than tapioca starch
Reason (R) :Waxy varieties of starch without amylose form gels
Vf (A) is true (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
r57. Assertion (A) : Colour and flavour changes occur d.uring d.extrinisation.
Reason (R) : Non-enzymatic browning occurs and a burnt tasted flavour develops.
(A) (A) is true (R) is false
,g/ Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
158. Match the following :
(a) Writing research report 1. Last step of research process
(b) Writing referencing style 2. The author-date s5rstem
(c) Writing bibliography 3. The Harvard system
(d) Developing an outline 4. The long title system
5. Practice of chapterization
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)r234
(B)2345
tpf 1 2 3 5
(D)1345
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159. The research that aims to find a solution for an immediate problem faced by a society
is called as lesearch.
(A) Fundamental ,gf APPlied
(C) Descriptive (D) Analytical
160. The research antagonistic to ex-post facto research is research.
,f Libi'arY (B) Descliptive
(C) Experimental (D) Analytical
161. While wliting a reseal'ch report the materials and methods should airvays we
written in
(A) Future tense g/nu"t tense
(C) Present tense (D) Simple present tense
162. All statistical methods which simultaneousl,v analyse more than two valiables on a
sample of observations.
(A) Descriptive Analysis (B) CorrelationAnalysis
4t Multivariate Analysis (D) Causal Analysis
163. A common test in research demands much priority on
(A) Reliability (B) Usability
{g/ objectivitv (D) Validity
164. The action of insulin lasts for 20 - 29 hours.
(A) Short acting (B) Rapid acting
,{r/ Intermediate (D) Long acting
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165. What type of sampiing you would suggest for conducting a sulvey to find out the
domestic wate:: consumption among households living in a city
(A) Convenience sampling (B) - Juclgement sampling
(C) Simple random sarnpling ag/l{u liist a ge sa mp ling
166. The questionnaire in which all questions and answer are specified, with minimum
comments from the lespondent is -.
(A) Unstructulect questionnaire gf Structured questionnaire
(C) Non structured questionnaire (D) Sequential questionnaile
167. Assertion (A) : In a diagnostic study the first step is to specify the broad objectives.
Reason (R) : It rvill help to ensule that the data collected is relevant
(A) (A) is true, (R) is false
(B) - (A) is falsc, (R) is true
it/ gotl, (A) and (R) are tlue but (R) is not true the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
168. I\fatch the fcrllowing
(a) Personal interview 1. Encourage the respondent to speak
(b) Focused interview 2. Focus or ind.ividual's life experience
(c) Clinical interview 3. Is a face to face interview
(d) Non-direct interview 4. Given experience and its effects
(a) (b) (c) (d)
vr
(B)
3421
4321
(c) 3274
(D)t 4 2 3
169. Which of the following.statements are true regarding data collection of a study
1. Primary data of one study will serve as secondary data of another
2. Primary data are useful only for future studies
3. Personal interview is a survey method of data collection which employs a
questionnaire
4. Most cost effective method of collecting primary data is observation method
(A) 1 is true, 2,3, 4 are false
1 and 3 are true, 2 and 4 are false
\9/
(C) AII are false statements
(D) l and 2 are tlue, 3 and 4 are false
o 31 ADHS/I9
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170. Expand IECD
(A) Institute for Entrepreneurship and Council Development
.gf
v. Institute for Entrepreneurship and Career Development
(C) Institute for Entrepreneurship and Committee Development
(D) Institute for Entrepreneurship and Campus Development
17L. is a key intervention in initiating and sustaining process ol
Empowerment
(A) Training
6ru'cation
(C) Awareness (D) Growth
L72. E-Learning for Employee Training is
(A) CustomerRelationshipManagement
(B) Supply Chain Management
Vf Human Resource Management
(D) TechnoloryManagement
I73. The Major source of finance can be a combination of
{tf, Share Capital (B) Coverage
(C) Commission (D) Brokerage
174. According to the Ninth phase, the major problems faced in developing
entrepreneurship in rural areas are/is
(A) Inadequate flow of credit and pooi quality standards
(B) Use of obsolete technolory, machinery and equipment
(C) Inadequateinfrastructuralfacilities
- (f Ail the above
v
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L75. Diastolic pressure of 120 to 130 mm Hg comes under
(A) Mild hypertension
(B) Modern hypertcnsion
,f Severe hypertension
(D) None
176. Pick out the "Good Cholesterol"
(A) LDL (B) VLDL
,f HDL (D) TG (triglycerides)
I77. For a person with typhoid, what kind of diet modification is provided
{f/ High calorie, high protein, high carbohydrate, low fat, high fluid
(B) low calorie, high protein, high fibre, high fluid, low fat
(C) High calorie, low protein, high carbohydrate, low fat, low fluid
(D) No modification
178. Psyllium is a supplements
(A) Herbal
(B) Weight loss products
,9/ Laxative-
(D) Biologic and nutrient
179. In the Kidney diseases potassium shorild be restricted to
{*f 1 mmol &g/ day
(B) 1.2 mmol lkgl day
(C) 1.4 mmoU kg/ day
(D) 1.5 mmoU kg/ day
ADHS/I9
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180. Lymphoid cells in human miik in responsible for
rfl.f
v
Cellular immunity
(B) Hlarmness of breast milk
(C) Rh factor
(D) Glowth factol
181. AIDS is the final stage of infection
gf Hrv -- (B) KSHV
. (c) HPV (D) DNAV
182. Incidence of neural tube defects in pregnant women can be reduced by administering
folic acid everyday at the rate of
(A) 200 - 600 pe (B) 300 - 700 te
,f 'roo - 8oo ,,,g (D) 500 - 900 7-z€l
183. In India child survival and safe Motherhood Programme was started in the year
(A) 1eel Jg/tnn,
(c) 1ee3 (D) ree4
184. Pre eclampsia is characterised by the development of hypertension to the extent of
.6 140/90 mm pg
(B) 130/90 mmpg
(C) 140/80 mm ps
(D) 130/80 mm ps
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185. In steatorrhoea, the amount of fat excreted in stool is
(A) 30 gms (B) 40 gms
(C) 50 gms ,f 6o gms
186. Assertion (A) : Higher cilculating levels of interleukin - 6 predicts disabiiity onset
in elderiy
Re ason (R) : Interleukin has a riirect effect on muscle atrophy
(A) (A) is true (R) is false
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A) .
-!tr
v'
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
187. How will you estimate the daily fluid requirements for an aged women of age 67 yrs
weighing 50 kg?
.gf
v' 1250 ml/day (B) 1500 ml/day
(C) 1350 ml/day (D) 1700 mllday
188. Glycaemic index for glucose is
(A) 25 (B) 50
(c) 75 1f too
189. Choose the correct sequence
a. Nyctalopia
b. Xerophthalmia
c. Xerosis
d. Conjuctiva
(A) a-b-c-d gf"-d-c-b
(C) a-c-d-b (D) b-a-d-c
190. Who is referred to as the father of the science of Nutrition?
(A) Anton Von Leuwenhoek ,12lt"""oisier
(C) Leibig (D) Atwater
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191. Which among the following food source has Hidden fat?
(A) Refined oils
(B) Stewed fish
(C) Bacon
-(Af
v' Mavonnaise
192. A mi_neral which helps to hasten the healing of wounds and burns is
J5
v Zinc
(B) Calcium
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Iron
193. Ascorbic acid concentration is highest in
(A) liver
(B) plasma
(C) spleen
adrenal gland
V
Ig4,. Plasma obtained during post meals is turbid or milky ar," ,o presence of
agf ChYlomicrons
(B) HDL
(c) LDL
(D) VLDL
195. Sericin is removed from silk by treating with this
,rll' SoaP
(B) Detergent
(C) Soda ash
(D) Sod.ium Chloride
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196. Match the following :
(a) Thiamin 1. Peripheral Neuritis
(b) Riboflavin 2. Pellegra
(c) Niacin 3. Cheilosis
(d) Pylidoxin 4. beriberi
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)3 2 L 4
,plt+ B 2 1
(c)r 2 3 4
(D)2 r 4 3
L97. Which of the foilowing is the earliest Ocuiar manifestation of moderate to severe
vitamin A Deficiency?
(A) Bitot's Spots (B) Corneal xerosis
,ftf Nvctalopia (D) Xerophthalmia
198. Cobalt deficiencv leads to the deficiencv of vitamin
(A) C gfn,,
(C) E (D) Bo
199. Which among the following inhibits iron absorption during pregnancy?
(A) Hookworm infestation
(B) Progestrone impairs erythropoietin synthesis
(C) Decrease in erythropoietin levels
,rP/ Oestro gen imp airs erythropoietin synthesis
200. Proteins are because of the presence of free amino and carboxyl group.
(A) amphilic (B) hydrophobic
(C) hydrophilic {f "^photeric
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ADHS/I9 38
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
39 ADHS/I9
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
/
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Source: Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission.