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TNPSC 2019: Assistant Director / Child Development project Officer [Women candidate only], HOME SCIENCE (bilingual, Code 341)

  • Paper code: 341
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 40 pages
TNPSC 2019 question paper, Assistant Director / Child Development project Officer [Women candidate only], HOME SCIENCE (bilingual, Code 341), page 1 of 40
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Question Booklet Code :.                                 Register
                                                         Number

                                                    2A19
                                         HOME SCIENCE
Time Allowed:3 Hoursl                                                              [Maximurn Marks : 300
        Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

                                      IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
I.    The applicant will be supplied with Question Booklet 15 minutes before commencement of the examination.
2.    This Question Booklet contains 200 questions. Prior to attempting to answer, the candidates are
      requested to check whether al1 the questions are there in series and ensure there are no blank pages in
      the question booklet. In case any defect in the Question Paper is noticed, it shall be reported to
      the Invigilator within first 10 minutes and get it replaced with a complete Question Booklet.
      If any defect is noticed in the Question Booklet after the conunencement of exarnination, it
      will not be replaced.
3.    Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
A
      You must write your Register Number in the space provided on the top right side of this page. Do not
      write anything eJse on the Question Booklet.
5.    An answer sheet wi-il be supplied to you, separately by the Room Invigilator to mark the answers.                     .t           t"_r:
                                                                                                                                        -'
6.    You will also encode your Question Booklet Code with Blue or Black ink Ball point pen in the space           a ..              /t,t
                                                                                                                   ..                   t-
      provided on the side 2 of the Answer Sheet. If you do not encode properly or fail to encode the above
      information, action will be taken as per Commission's notification.                                          i,.t t
7     Each question comprises four responses (A), @), (C) and (D). You are to select ONLY ONE correct              :...
                                                                                                                   -,*      -l
                                                                                                                                        .,.  ,-
      response and mark in your Answer Sheet. In case you feei that there are more than one correct                              I           '-


      response, mark the response which you consider the beSt. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
      each question. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct res'ponses marked by you in the
      Answer Sheet.
8.    In the Answer Sheet there are four circles @,@,@ and@ against each question. To answer the
      questions you are to mark with Blue or Black ink Bali point pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for
      each question. Select one response for each question in the Question Booklet and mark in the Answer
      Sheet. If you Xrrk more than one answer for one questj.on, the answer will be treated as wrong. e.g. If
      for any item, \U is the correct answer, you have to mark as follows :
                                                @o@@
9.    You should not remove or tear off any sheet from this Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take
      this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination HaII during the time of
      examination. After the examination is concluded. you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the
      Invigilator. You are allowed to take the Question Booklet with )'ou onlv after the Examination is over.
10.   Do not make any marking in the question booklet except in the sheet before the last page of
      the question booklet, which can be used for rough work. This should be strictly adhered.
11.   Applicants have to write and shade the total number of answer fields left blank on the boxes provided
      at side 2 of OMR Answer Sheet. An extra time of 5 minutes will be given to specify the number of
      answer fields left blank.
12.   Failure to comply with any of the above instructj.ons will rend.er you liable to such action or penalty as
      the Commission mav decide at their discretion.



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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK




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1.    An example of natural antimiclobial agent
      (A) Titanium dioxide                      (}lt^/ Chito"a.,
      (C) Silver chloride                       fDl Zinc oxide

2.    In knitting, the term used to indicate the lengthwise or vertical columns of loops is
      (A) Courses                               gf Wales
      (C) Gauge                                 (D) Fett

3.   Assertion (A)    :    The values that are higher than the middle value of the value
                           scale is called shades

      Reason (R)      :    A pink colour baby frock with maroon peker pan collar shows
                           tints and shades of red
      (A) (A) is true (R) is false
      (BL Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
          (A) is false (R) is true
     {y
      (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the coruect explanation of (A)

4.   where hot wax is applied on the fabric in the form of a design
     (A) Block printing                        (B) Direct roller
     (C) Screen printing                             Batik
                                                V
5-   Match the natural dyes with suitable shades which they can produce :
          Dyes                          Shade
     (a) Walnut Rind              1. Pinkish Red
     (b) Majeeth                  2. Bright orange
     (c) Tessoo                   3. Reddish Brown
     (d) Cutch                    4. Bright Reddish Brown
         (a)       (b) (c)        (d)
     /a\1          324
     if;r2s
      (c)4  2             I       3
     (D)2         L       4       3




6.   For which type of stain the following are oxalic acid, bleach, lime juice, salts of
     Iemon, sour milk, oxalic acid
     (A) Nail polish                        (B)-Mild dew
     (C) N,Iedicine                        {yf Iron rust
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7.    Arrange the following in chronoiogical order
      1. Taking up and letting off              2.  Beating up
      3. Picking                                4.  Shedding
      (A) r,2, 3, 4                             (B) 2,3, 4, r
     V       4,8,2,r                            (D) 1,2, 4,3

8.    Assertion (A) : The selvage prevents the fabric from raveling
      Reason (R) : The movement of bobbin carrying the weft yarns results in the
                          formation of the selvage.
      (A) (A) is true but (R) is false
      (B) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
      (C)
        .a
            (A) is false but (R) is true
     {V (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
9.    Which of the following facts are true regarding the affinity of dyes
      1. Cotton has affinity for direct and reacting dyes
      2. Liner has poor affinity for dyes
      3. Wool has poor affinity for dyes
      4. Wool has very high affinity for dyes
      (A) 1 is true 2,3, 4are false            .{yl I,2, 4are true, 3 is false
      (C) AII are true statement                (D) All are false statement

10. Pick the true and false statements.
    1. Vinyl resins finished water proof fabric will oxidize and crack readily like rubber
    2. Silicone compounds are not water repellent.
    3. Cellulose fibers are susceptible to mildew.
    4. - Glass fibers can be used for reinforcement.
    6 I,2 are false, 3 and 4 are true (B) B, 4 arefalse and 1, 2 are true
    (C) 2, 4 are true 3, 4 are false           (D) l, 2, 3,4 are false

11. Match the names of selvages with their describiation   :

    (a) Fused Selvage' 1. Flatter edges, constructed on plain and Basket weaves
    &) Tape Selvage 2. Made by weaving a narrow width fabric twice
    (c) Spilt Selvage 3. A technique gsed in some shuttle less looms
    (d) Tucked Selvage 4. Made with thermoplasic fibers.
           (a)    (b)     (c)     (d)
      (A)r        2       4       3
      <ny'qr23
      (c)3        2       r      4
      (D)2        r       4       3

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12. Whooping Cough is otherwise called as
    (A) Tetanus                               (B) Diphtheria
      {     Pertussis                         (D) Scabies

13. Erikson called the period of adolescence as the stage of
    (A) Industry Vs Inferiority               (B) Initiative Vs Guilt
          Identity vs Role confusion          (D) Generativity vs stagnation
    {

14. The term adolescence comes from a/an                    verb meaning 'to grow into
      maturity'
      (A) English                             (B) Spanish
      (C) Greek
                                              1t'r"ti"
15. Developmental tasks is the term PA forth by
    € Havighorst                            (B) Hortock
    (C) Plaget                              (D) Freud

16. Dismemberment in the family resulting from the death of a member is called
    (A) Accersion                         ,gf Bereavement
    (C) Demoralization                      (D) Disruption

17. Any enviromental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period is called
    (A) Illegal drugs                      (B) Radiation
    (C) Mutation                               t"ratogens
                                            tgf
18. The Psychological conflict of toddlerhood is proposed by Erikson is
    (A) Initiative Vs Guilt                    (B) Trust Vs Mistrust
    (C) Identity Vs Role-confusion 1f,+"tonomy Vs shame and doubt
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19" Caring for the children, the sick, old and infirm is a                  function of the
          famil;'
          (A) Biological                           (B) Socializrng
          (C) Recreational                        9y/"otective

    20. Resistance to adult authority- reaching its peak between three to four years of age is
          calied

          Vf       Negativism                      (B) Aggressiveness
I         (C) Selfishness                          (D) AscendantBehaviour


    2I.   Whatdoes'CaveatVenditor'mean?
          (A) Let the buyer beware                n/""nhe       seller beware
          (C) Let the auctioner beware             (D) Let the king beware


    22. Which among the following are major causes for passive consumer movement in
          India?
           1. Poverty
           2. Self ernployment
           3. Illiteracy
           4. Ignorance
          -i   1, 3 and.4 are true                 (B) All are false statements
           (C) All statements are true             (D) I,2 and 4 are true


    23. Identifu the expanded. form of AIDA in its proper sequence.
        1. Interest
        2. Desire
        3. Atiention
        4. Action
        (A) r-2-3-4                               (B) 4-3-2-r
          (c) 4-r-2-3                             V 8.r.2.4
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24.      The headquarters of the grievance cell functioning under BIS is located in
         (A) Mumbai                                (B) Chennai
         (C) Surat                                      New Delhi
                                                  V

25. Which r:f the following is not the rieht of consumer?
         (A) Right to choose                       (B) Right to be heard
         V     Right to be not informed            (D) Right to Redress


26- In rvhich year did John F. Kennedy declare the'Rights to Consumers'?
    11t/ tnu,                                (B) 1e60
         (c) 1e58                                  (D) 1e61


27   -   Where was the first product testing and rating laboratory set up in India?

         (A) New Delhi                            (B) Cochin
         {     Ahmedabad                          (D) Chennai


28. If the goods being sold in the market are not measured correctly it is called consumer
    (A) Awarenes                              V/"xploitation
                     "
    (C) Protection                             (D) Rights


29. Which among the following were served with notices charging them with violation of
         environmental laws, specifically the Forest Conservation Act of India?
         (A) Kingfisher and Pepsi                 {repsi      and Coco cola
         (C) Coco cola and. Kingfisher            (D) Colgate and Kingfisher

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30. ISO 22000 : 2005 is mainly concerned with
    (A) Quality management systems
    (B) Environmentalmanagementsystems
      (c)   Quantity management systems
            Food safetv
      {


31.   Match the food adulterant and food stuffs
      (a) Asafoetida                  1. Infested with ergot
      &) Cinnamon                     2. Starch
      (c) Coffee                      3. Cassia bark
      (d) Bajra                       4. Soap stone
            (a) (b)       (c)     (d)
            4321
      (B)3        2       L       4
      (c)r        2       3       4
      (D)2        3       L       4



32. Expand CCFS
    (A) Central Committee for Food Safety
    (B) Central Committee for Food Security
    d Central Committee for Food Standards
    (D) Central Committee for Food Supply


33. pH for the microbial safety of food is
      (A)                                    (B) 5
      v
            2
            7                                (D) e


34. Which micro organism is called as psychophilic (cold loving)?
    (A) Salmonella                          { Pseudomonas
    (C) Clostridium Welchi                  (D) Clostridium Botulinum
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35. Hazatd analysis involves
    1. Identification of ingredients and products which might have a pronounced effect
              on food safety.
        2.    Preservation of foods which support rapid growth of micro organisms
        3.    Reducing the microorganisms using hot water, steam, halogen derivatives or
              ammonia
        4.    Foods consumed by special populations eg: vulnerable groups
                 land2                             (B) 1 and 3
        q
        (A)
                 land4                             (D) l alone

36. PEM stands for
        (A) Prevalence Energy Mal Nutrition
        {y/ Protein Enerry Mal Nutrition
        (C) Protein Enerry Mal Absorption
        (D) Prevalence Energy Mal Absorption

37. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
    (A) Bacto fugation                  - Centri fugal procedure to remove bacteria from milk
   g     Vat Pasteurisation             - Continuous process of flash method
    (C) Vacreation                      - Combination of steam injection and evacuation
    (D) Market-milk Pasteurisation - Kill all pathogens and improve keeping quality

38. Methylene blue reduction test is identify the spoilage of Micro organism in
        ,f       il,rilk                           (B) Water
        (C) Meat                                   (D) Bread

39. Which of the following requires satellite transmission or sophisticated telephone
        lines?
        (A) Computer conferencing                  ,(P/rn          Television
                                                          "ractive
    .   (C) Mobile applications                    (D) Tailoring graphics

40. Amino acid imbalance test is carried out to determine the effrciency of
    V/ Protein                                (B) Rhodopsin
    (C) Iron binding protein                  (D) Transferrin

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4I. A : Nutritional screening is the beginning of Nutrition Assessment Process.
      R : It is done to quickl5,- iclentify individuals who ale malnourished or at lisk.
      (A) A is trr'c R is false
         -
     {rf Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
      (C) A is false, R is true
      (D) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A

 42. l,Iatch the nutrients and its deficiencies:

     (a) Protein                   1. Ascites
     (b) Iron                      2. eonjunctival Xerosis
     (c) Vit" A                    3. Spooning of nails
     (d) Fat                       4. Britrle hair
            (a) (b)        (c)     (d)
            4321
       (B)7        2       4       3
       (c)2        3       r      4
       (D)3        2       r      4


43. Which is not natural preservative?
    (A) Salt                                   (B) Sugar
    (C) Ascorbic acid
                                               V Vinegar
44. Natural casings of sausages are made from
   {$ Animal intestine                      (B) Collagen
    (C) Cellulose                           (D) Plastic films

45. Silent nutrients are
    (A) Water and protein                          (B) Dietary fibre and fat
          Water and dietary fibre                  (D) Vitamin-" and minerals
    V
46. Good source of minerals and vitamins are
      (A) cereals and pulse                    (rf     vegetables and fruits
      (C) fruits and fats "                        (D) proteins and fats

47. Identi$z the volatile compound that exhibits srtrong flavour in garlic
    (A) cysterine sulphoxid                  Vf     ailicin
    (C) limonene              "               (D) piperine
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48. Assertion (A) :         While heating milk, a film of coagulated albumin and other whey
                             proteins coliect on the sides and bottom of the pan lespectively.

      Reason (R)         : Homogenised milk                   coagulates more readily than
                             rlon-homosenised milk
      (A) (A) is true (R) is false
      (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
      (c)     (A) is false (R) is true

     .vf Both (A) and (R) are tme but (R) is not the correct explanation of        (A)



 49. Read the foliowing statements on gelatin           :



     Assertion (A) : Gelatin is a partially degraded collagen
      Reason (R)         : It is a protein of iow biologicai r''alue
       (A) (A) is true (R) is false
       (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
       (c)    (A) is false (R) is true
              Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
      {

 50. Match the following vegetables/fruits with their respective pigments      :


           Vegetables                          Pigments
       (a) Tomatoes                      1.    Anthocyanine
       &) Peaches                        2.    Chlorophyll
       (c) Grapes                        3.    Carotenoid
       (d) Beans                         4.    Bycopenes

             (a)      (b)     (c)        (d)
          (A)1        3       4          2

      9/n            3        1'         2
      (c)2           3        4          1

      (D)4           3        2          1




 51. In endosperm of a cereal grain is surrounded by one or more layers of cells and are          I

          known as
          (A) Bran or Pericarp                          {t ot urone layer
          (C) Embryo                                        (D) Germ
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52. Assertion (A)      : Research Design stands for ad.vance planning of the methods to
                             be adopted for collecting the data and the techniques to be used in
                             their analysis, keeping in view the objective of the research and
                             the availability of staff time and money.
         Reason (R)     : It is needed for the smooth sailing of the various research
                             operations make the research cost effective.
        (A) (A) is true (R) is false
       ,9/ Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
        (C) (A) is false (R) is true
        (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
 53.    The principal instrument in research. Where in its main function is to suggest
                                                                                       new
        experiments and observations is
       {A/ hypothesis                          (B) interpretation
        (C) analysis                           (D) sampling
 54.    The process of assigning numerals or other symbols to answers so that
                                                                              responses can
        be put into a limited number of categories or classes is referred
                                                                          as
        (A) Editing                                fr/ coding
        (C) Classification                         (D) Tabulation
55.     Who defined research as a systematised effort to gain new knowledge
       gf Redman and Mory                       (B) Slesingir and Stephenson
        (C) Clifford and Woodv                  (D) Kothari and Robinson
56. Research refers to
    1. Search for knowledge
    2. Systematic enquiry of seeking facts
    3. An end.eavour to discover answers to problems
    4. Seeking solutions-for any undefining prollems
    (A) 1 and 2 are true, B and 4 are false (y/ !,2 and3 are true, 4 is false
    (c) L, 2, 3 and 4 statements are true (D) 2, B, 4 are true and 1 is false
57. The two basic approaches to research are
       (A)- Experimental and Simulation approach
       {l/ Quantitative and Qualitative approach
        (C) Inferential and Experimental approach
        (D) Quantitative and Experimental approach
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58.   The term which describe the sampling units such as geographical area, iist of city
      blocks or counties.
      (A) Universe                                {r,u^"
      (C) Census                                   (D) Random


59. Delibrate sampling is aiso known as
   ,{tf non probabitity sarnpling or purposive sampiing
    (B) Systematic sampling
    (C) Simple random sampling
    (D) Stratified sampiing

60. Match the following sampling methods with its characteristics
    (a) Sample random sampling 1. The population is divide into several
                                                  homogenous sub population.
      (b) Systematic sampling           2.        Equal probability of being picked up
      (c) Stratified sampling           3.        Applied to big inquiries in a larger area
      (d) Multistage sampling           4.        Selecting the ith item on a list

         (a)        &)     (c)   (d)
      (A)1          3      4     2
      (B)2 3               r     4
      972 .14              1     3

      (D) 2                3     4



61. In sampling, the number of students or families from whom the information is
      obtained is called
      (A) Sample                                  6     ru ple size
      (C) Population                               (D) Population size


62. The data that are already available which may be either published or unpublished is
      referred as
      (A) Primary                                  (B) General data
      (C) Collected data                          {ff   Secondary

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63. Which type of graph would be most suitable for representing the mbney alloted for
    each item of expenditure in a budget?    t
    (A) Bar chart                         6 Pie chart
    (C) Line chart                         (D) Histogram

64. Arrange in correct sequence the steps in hypothesis testing - Entrepreneurship
      management accomplished through
      1.     Contlolling
      2.     Organising
      3.     Leading
      4.     Planning

      (A)
            - 3, 1,2, 4                       (B) 3,2, L, 4
     9r       4,2,3, L                        (D) 4,3,2, r

65. The characteristics of female entrepreneur differ in terms of
    (A) Motivation                           (B) Business skill
    (C) Occupational Background {7T ltt

66. The economic theories say that the lower the price, the higher the
   .t6 Demand                                (B) Quality
     (C) Supply                              (D) Cost

67. SIPCOT provide
   {r, Market assistance                     (B) Skill
    (C) Escot services to cottage industries (D) Technical assistance

68. The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was established on
    gf July 1.t 1964                       (B) JuIy lQtr, 1964
     (C) June l't 1964                     (D) June 2I"t lg74

69. Which is'not the objective of physical examination of recruitment process?
    (A) the applicants capabilities to meet the job requirements
    (B) protect the organisation against the unwarranted claims
      (C)a prevent communicable diseases entering the organisation
  91 helps to protect the employees mental stress in their jobs
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70.   The entrepreneul who never allow any change in their production
      (A)             Entrepreneur           (B) Initiating Entrepreneur
          -Innovative
            Fabian Entrepreneur              (D) Drone Entrepreneur
      {f

7I.   An innovating entlepreneur is one
       (A) who cleverly puts attractive possibilities
          ^
      tY    one who
      v'r goods andintroduce  new technology, new methods of production, discover new
       -             reorganise enterprise
      (C) who is cautious
      (D) Refuses to adopt possibilities


72. Essential qualities of entrepreneurial person
   Vf Need to achieve                          (B) Not a motivate
    (C) Not a planner                          (D) Not a decision maker

73. Assertion (A) : An Entrepreneur is a calculated risk-taker. He enjoys the
                          excitment of a challenge but he does not gamble
      Reason (R)      :  An entrepreneur avoids low-risk situation because there is a lack
                         of challenge and he avoids high-risk situation because he wants
                         to succeed
      (A) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct
      (B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
      g Both (A) and (R) are correct
      (D) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect

74. Assertion (A) : The first step in starting a small business is to find out business idea
     Reason (R) : The first step in starting a small'business is to arrange loan
          (A) is true (R) is false
   -llf
    -(B) Both (A) and (R) are true
     (C) (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
     (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

75.   Sarcoma is a type of cancer which affects the
      (A) - Endoderm                             (B) Ectoderm
      V     Mesoderm                             (D) Monocyte

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76. Caffiene is absorbed in human milk and can inhibit the
          Let down reflex                   (B) Miik production
   {f
    (C) Secretion of estrogen               (D) Secretion of Progesterone


77. A new investisation                  estimation, gives an excellent indication of overall
      control over proceeding period

     \Yl'Giycosylated hemoglobin                  (B) Impaired Glucose tolerance
      (C) Randorn Biood sugar                     (D) Fasting blood sugar


78. Glycogen storage diseases is an inborn error of Metabolism that impairs
      metabolism.
      (A) Glycolysis                              (B) Glycogenesis
     ,y     Giuconeogenesis                       (D) Glycogenolysis


79. \\rhat is the protein allowance for obese patients on very low calorie diets?
    (A) 0.5 - 0.8 g/kg IBW                     (B) 0.6 - 1.2 g/Kg IBW
            0.8 - l.b g/Kg IBW                    (D) 1.5 - zglks tBW
     V

80. A preschool child's craving for a particular food which lasts for only a few days in
      termed as
      (A) Food Fab                                (B) Food Taboos
      (C) Food Lover
                                                  dv"rd Jags
81' Name the anti infective agent present in human milk that destroys the cell
      membrane of the bacteria
      (A) Lactoferrin                                 Lvso enzvmes
      (C) Lacto bacillus Bifidus                  (D) SIg A
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82.    NIatch the hormones and its source during lactation
       (a) Estrogen               1. Ovary
       (b) Progesterone           2. Posterior Pituitary
       (c) Prolactin              3. Placenta
       (d) Ox5,tocin              4. Anterior Pituitary
            (a)    (b)        (c)     (d)
                   o          2       4

      ,#^          1


                   J
                              4
                              1
                                       2
                                       2
       (D) 2        3         4        1




83.   Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
      (A) Keratomaiacia                Vita A Deficiency
      (B) Costeomaiacia                Adult Rickets
      ,9f    Card.iac odema            Dlv beri beri
      (D) Anaemia                      Iron Deficiency


84. Assertion (A) : DAFNE provides the skills necessary to estimate the carbohydrate
                            in each meal and to inject the right dose of insuiin.
      Reason (R)        :   It is a way of managing Type 2 diabetes for adults.
      ,{f (A) is true (R) is false
       (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
       (C) (A) is false (R) is true
       (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

85' The rapid passage of food form the stomach into the intestine is referred to as
   ,yf Dumping syndrome                      (B) Irritable colon syndrome
    (C) Rectal stasis                        (D) Dyspepsia

86.   Growth spurt during adolescence lasts for a duration of
      (A) 6 to \2 months                              (B) 12 to 18 months
      Vf    18 to 24 months                           (D) 24to 30 months
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87.   What is the co-efficients for computing Calorie requirement for an adult female
          (Moderate worker)?

      {/f      1.0 cu                                (B)   0.8 Cu
          (C) 1.2 Cu                                 (D)   1.4 Cu




88    Which one is an Essential amino acid?

      ,gf ""ucine                                    (B)   Glycine
      (C) Proline                                    (D)   Cysteine



89.    1 Kilo calorie is equal to

      ,{   4.LB4KJ                                   (B)   4184 KJ
       (C) 4.184 mJ                                  (D)   4r84 mJ



90.   Mucopolysaccharides containing uronic acids are                            in nature.
      (A)      Neutral                               (B) Basic
               Acidic                                (D) Basic and acidic
      {


91.                         is the excretory product of amino acid metabolism.
      (A)      Creatinine                            (B) Uric acid
      .g/ l]rea                                      (D) NH+


92. NEERI stands for
     (A) NationalEnvironmentalEngineeringResearchlnstitute
     (B) Nation Environmental Engineering Research Institute
   ,!rf
   v     Nation Evaluate Engineering Research Institute
     (D) Nationatr Evaluate Engineering Research Institute

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93.   The normal haemoglobulin level for an adolescent girl is
      (A) 10.5 g/dl                                 (B) 11.0 s/dl
      (C) 11.5 g/dl                              .y      LZ.s gtdr




94. Child with mild                      are known to be at increased risk of respiratory
       infections and diarrhoea.
       (A) Keratomacacia                            (B) Bitot's spot
       (C) corneal xerosis                       ,f      xerophthalmia




95.    Which vitamin deficiency is associated with the symptom, 'casal's necklace'?
       (A) Thiamine                                 (B) Riboflavin
             Niacin                                 (D) Retinol
      V

96. Assertion (A) : Raffinose is a trisaccharide
       Reason (R)     : Raffinose is fructose * Galactose * Glucose
       (A) (A) is true, (R) is false
      \tr Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
        (C) (A) is false, (R) is true
        (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)


97. Calculate the energy Expenditure using MET values for a women who weighs 50 kg
       and is cycling leisurely for 0.5 hrs IMET value for cycling is 3.5].
       (A) 98.2 kcal                             ,gf
                                                 v       a',.5 kcal

       (C) 99.2 kcal                                (D) 89.7 kcal

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98. An apt dye for colouring silk fabric
     (A) Direct                                     (B)    Vat
     (C) Naphthot                                  \y      Acid


99' A combination of yellow frock with red purple collar and blue purple sleeve resuits in
     (A) Double complementary colour scheme
     (B) Balance colour harmony
    {g/ Sptit complementary colour scheme
    (D) Primary colour harmony

100. Mechanical finish that increases the lustre of linen fabrics is
       (A) Shearing                                (B) Plisse
      {y/    Beetling                              (D) Moiering

101" Small woven patterns are created in which of the following type of weave?
      (A) Jacquard                                 (B)

                                                  ,f
                                                          Pile
      (C) Double cloth                                    Dobby



102' Special calendering finish that produces three-dimensional designs on fabrics
     V Embossing                                   (B) Beetting
     (C) Shearing                                  (D) Flocking

103. This type of water proof finish is renewable one
      (A) Fluro chemicals                          (B) Ammonium compound
      (C) Silicone compounds
                                                  ,fi     Wax emulsions


L04. The d}'eing done after knotting the fabrics is called
     gf Tie-dyeing                                (B) Batik
      (C) Transfer                                (D) Jet
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105. Which of the following is not a chemical finish
      1. Mercerising
      2. Beetting
      3. Calendering
      4. Crease resistant
      (A) Only 1                                    yfu"rn2 anct      B
      (C) 1, 2 and 3                                (D) l, 2, 3 and 4

106. This finish lasts for most of the life of a product
     {f Durable                                     (B) Permanent
      (C) Temporary                                 (D) Sustainable

I07. Velvet is the fabric of
     ,{t? Piles                                     (B) Crepes
      (C) Satin                                     (D) Twill

108' Aryramnle of fiber stage dyeing
     ltf Top dyeing                                 (B) Yarn dyeing
      (C) Piece dyeing                              (D) Pigment dyeing

109. This is water soluble dye
      (A) Vat
      (C) Disperse
                                                   v(B)   Sulphur
                                                          Direct


110" Give the correct sequence for washing woolen cloths
      1. Prepare washing water and work up a lather
      2. Outline garments on a plain paper
      3. Roll the garment in a towel to remove extra moisture
      4. Lift extra dirty parts and pat suds over these until dirt is removed
      (A) 3, r,4,2                                 v(D) 2,4,2,!,4,3
      (c) 3,2, L, 4                                            r, 3


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111. This-1.ool is useti to spread the dye through screen.
       {   Squeege                                    (B) Block
       (C) Screen                                     (D) Frame

lI2.   The-enzyme involved in enzymatic degumming is
       €    Papain                           (B) Amyiase
       (C) Cellulase                         (D) Lipase

113. Match the following :
              Items used                   Printing
       (a) Squeegee                  1. Blocks
       (b) Vegetable                 2,. Screen
       (c) Wax                       3. Tie and Dye
       (d) Thread                    4. Batik
          (a)         (b)     (c)    (d)
       (A)4            3      2       1
       (B)r            4      2       3

       Ag/'z           L      4       B

       (D)t            2      3       4



1I4. Which of the following statements describe Tigering Finish (True/False)
       1. Done on fabrics line Velour, Plush and imitation of fur
       2. Roller have long fine wires to penetrate to the ground of the fabric
       3. The fabrics is first washed in water and yarns are trimmied
       4.
            ,Brushing in one direction for high lustor.
       {f 1, 2 true 3, 4 false                        (B) 2, 4 true 1, 3 false
       (C) 3, 4 true 1, 2 false                       (D) 1, 3 true 2, 4 false

115. Removing the air from the stomach in babyhggd is known as
       (A) Aspiration                               Vf     Burping
       (C) Chocking                                   (D) Hiccups

116. Neurons that are seldom stimulated soon lose their synapses, a process called
       (A) Neurotransmitters                         (B)-Programmed cell death
       (C) Myelination                              ,{y Synaptic pruning
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Il7. In which of the parenting style, an attempt is made to make the punishment 'fit the
     crime'?

      (A) Uninvolved                             1y/r"^ocratic
      (C) Permissive                              (D) Authoritarian


i18. Suicide of a family member can be categorized among one of the type of famiiy crisis.
      (i) Dismemberment
      (ii) Accusation
      (iii) Demoralization
      (A) (i) only                                (B) (ii) only
      (C) (i) & (ii) only                        ,gf r,l (ii) & (iii)

119. Who exhibits gross motor skills?
      (A) Ally, who draws a circle          gfnavid., who rides a tricycle
      (C) Chintu, who scribbles on the board @) Pintu, who'plays with blocks.


l2A. Which period involves a dramatic increase in body size and completion of physical
      structures of a baby?

      (A) Period of ovum                          (B) Period of embryo
      (C) Period of zygote                       {f    e.tiod of foetus



Lzl. Learning by copying the behaviour of another person is called
      (A) Habituation                             (B) Operant conditioning
      (C) Dishabituation                         4ft^ttation
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r22. which among the following is remarked as a'siient salesman'?
     (A) Branding                           G/Packaging
     (C) Trade mark                         (D) Patent

r23. A name term, symbol or design or a combination of these intendeci to identify the
         goods/services of one seller from those of its competitors is called
       Vf Brand                                      (B) Grade
        (C) Trade mark                               (D) Logistics

r24. Labels exclusively meant for popularizing the brand name of the product is called
     (A) Grade labels                         (B) Description labels
         (C) Information labels                           Brand labeis
                                                    V
125- Arrange in logical sequence the three factors invoived in exchange functions of
        marketing.
        1. Buying
        2. Assembling
        3. Organizing
        4. Selling
        (A) 1, 2 and 3                              V/r,2       and,4
        (C) 1, 3 and 4                              (D) 2, 3 and 4

126. A market that operates according to demand and suppl5'conditions is called
        (A) Regulated                               (B) Statutory
        (C) Terminal                                {Y/ t'""
127   ' Assertion (A) : COPRA is not only preventive, but also compensatory.in nature.
        Reason (R) : It is civil and focuses on undoing the wrong to the consumer through
                        remedial action, compensation etc.
        (A)
          - (A) is true, (R) is false
        Vf Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
        (C) (A) is false, (R) is true
        (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

128. Packaged commodities (Regulation) order was enacted in India in the vear
        (A) 1e80                                    (B) rs76
        {y re7 s                                    (D) rsz 4
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I29- Ananges in descending chronological order enactment of the following Acts
      1. MRTP
      2. CPA
      3. PFA
      4. Companies Act
     € z-L-4-B                                  (B) r-2-3-4
     (c) 4-3-2-1                                (D) 2-L-3-4


130. Assertion (A)        Product certification scheme is not governed by BIS Act, 1986

     Reason (R)       :   The presence of the ISI mark on a product indicates conformity
                          to the relevant Indian standard.
     (A) (A) is true, (R) is false
     (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
     V (A) is false, (R) is true
     (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)


131. Which year AGMARK is amended?
     (A) 1s76                                   (rf"ntu
     (c) 1e66                                   (D) 1e56


132. Identify the expanded form of MRP.
     (A) Minimum Retail Price                   (B) Maximum Retail Prize
    V      Maximum Retail Price                 (D) Minimum Retail Prize


133. The Process by which the temperature of foods is lowered to about -20'C within
     30 minutes is called as              freezing.
     (A) Dehydro                                (B) Cryogenic
     (C) Slow
                                                fi7 Quick
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134. Botuiism is caused bv
     (A) Clostridium Tetani                      (B) ClostridiumPerfringes
           Clostridium Botulinum                 (D) Bacillus cereus
     {


135. Enterotoxin is produced by
     (A) Clostrid.ium Botulinum                  d   Clostridium perfringes

     (C) Sachromyces Cervisciae                  (D) Pseudomonas



136. The Phenomenon by which many ceils of mesophilic bacteria die due to sudden
     chilling of suspension of viable cells grown in that temperature is called as

     (A) Lipid solidification                    (B) Thawing
           cold' shock                           (D) Blanching
     {{


137. The suitable temperature for storage of Banana rs
     (A) 15'C                                    (B) 1loc
                                                 (D) 10 "c
     1y/ tt""

138. Q fever is caused by

     g/ Coxiella Burnetto                        (B) Salmonella
     (C) Shigella                                (D) Trichenella

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139. Computer programmes which run without connection to a network or modern are

     JffU ,r^Hd Alone applications               (B) Miracle chip applications
      (C) Mind boggling applications             (D) Work alone appiications

140. In {washiorkor, all blood profile is low, except
     gf Plasma/amino acid ratio         (B) Serum albumin
     (C) Urinary urea per g. creatinine (D) Hydroxyproline/Creatinine ratio

I4l. An anticoagulant drug used throughout pregnancy, which does not cross the placenta
     (A) - Warfarin
     1V/ Heparin
     (C) Low molecular weight heparin
     (D) Heparin in l.t and 2nd trimester, Warfarin in 3'd trimester

I42. Oxyuriasis falls under the disease cond.ition of
     (A) Bacterial                               (B) Viral
    {yf Pa'asites                               (D) Fungal

143. Live trichinae in meat are destroyed at a temperature of
      (A) 55.C                                  ,lFl 7o.C
      (c) 85"c                                   (D) 1oo.c

L44. Arrange the stages of nutrition education in the correct sequence
      1.    Message is seen by receiver
      2.    Behaviour change occurs
      3.    Message is accepted, believed, learned
      4.    Receiver understands and correctly interprets the message
      5.    Improvement in Health occurs
      6.    Sender (Health Promoter)
      (A)    6,2, r,4,3,5                        (BL 6, 4, t,3,2, 5
      (c)                r
             6, 5, 4, 3,2,
                                                v    6,t, 4, 3,2, 5

145. Which of the following definitions of 'vitamers' is true?
      1. Vitamers are multiple forms of vitamins
      2. They are all isomers and active analyzers
      3. They are membrane stabilizers and e- donors and acceptors
       . Aithey are hormones and enzymes
     .Uf 1, 2 and 3 are true                   (B) 2, 3 and 4 are true
      (C) 1, 3 and 4 are true                  (D) I, 2, 3 and 4 are true
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146. T!9 filst step in beer making process is
        g malting                                (B) miiling
        (C) mashing                              (D) fermenting

147   . During homogenization of the milk process fat globules are reduced to
        (A) t p^                                (B) 1.25 pm
        (c) 1.507:m
                                                v'o*
148' Expand DDT
        (A) Dichlorodimethyl trichloroethane (B) Dichlorodiethyl trichloromethane
        V Dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane (D) Dichlorodiacetyl trichloromethane
r49' Frqits and vegetables should. not be flozen soon after
    Vf Harvesting                               (B) Cooking
     (C) Serving                                (D) Grading

150' Any meat from animals treated with growth promoters, artificial hormones or
        organosphores and organ chlorine pesticiole may not be considered as
        (A) Inorganic                            {ff- Organic
        (C) Chemical                             (D) None of the above

151' Marbling throughout the body of animal is mainly due to presence of
        (A) Carbohydrates                       (B) Water
        (C) Protein                             1y/'u"ts
L52' Statement 1 : Starch has 2 components : Amylose and Amylopectin
        Statement 2    : Amylopectin in the components responsible for gelling ability ol
                         starch due to its branched structure
        (A) Both statements are true
        (B> Both statements are false
       gf Statement I is true while statement 2 is false
        (D) Statement 1 is false while statement 2 is true
153' Which of the following statement is incorrect?
   (A) Cooking improves taste and food quality
   (B) Cookingdestroymicro-organism
   (C) Cookingimprovesdigestibility
   Vf Cooking does not incease availahility of food
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154. The historical report which ushered a new era in agricultural research in GM foods
     described the introduction of a gene from a bacterium into the genome of a plant.
      Identify the correct bacterium - plant combination from the options given below   :


     {lf Streptococcus faecalis - Nicotina plumbaginafolia
      (B) Bacillus cereus - Oryza Sativa
      (C) Listeria - Tritium Aestivum
      (D) Diphvllobothrium latum - Nieotina Plumbagina folia

155. Totlpotency is the principle of
          Plani trssue cultule                  (B) Animal tissue culture
      (C) Fermentation
     "t/                                        (D) Microbial cell culture

156. Read the following statements on gel formation   :

     Assertion (A)     :Corn starch form firmer gels than tapioca starch
      Reason (R)       :Waxy varieties of starch without amylose form gels
     Vf  (A) is true (R) is false
     (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
     (C) (A) is false (R) is true
     (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

r57. Assertion (A) : Colour and flavour changes occur d.uring d.extrinisation.
     Reason (R) : Non-enzymatic browning occurs and a burnt tasted flavour develops.
     (A) (A) is true (R) is false
    ,g/ Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
     (C) (A) is false (R) is true
     (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

158. Match the following :
     (a) Writing research report 1.          Last step of research process
     (b) Writing referencing style 2.        The author-date s5rstem
     (c) Writing bibliography 3.             The Harvard system
     (d) Developing an outline 4.            The long title system
                                   5.        Practice of chapterization

          (a)      (b)     (c)    (d)
     (A)r234
     (B)2345
    tpf 1          2       3       5
     (D)1345
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159. The research that aims to find a solution for an immediate problem faced by a society
      is called as              lesearch.
      (A) Fundamental                             ,gf APPlied
      (C) Descriptive                              (D) Analytical


160. The research antagonistic to ex-post facto research is               research.

     ,f     Libi'arY                               (B) Descliptive
      (C) Experimental                             (D) Analytical


161. While wliting a reseal'ch report the materials and methods should airvays we
      written in
      (A) Future tense                            g/nu"t tense
      (C) Present tense                            (D) Simple present tense


162. All statistical methods which simultaneousl,v analyse more than two valiables on a
      sample of observations.
      (A) Descriptive Analysis                    (B) CorrelationAnalysis
     4t     Multivariate Analysis                 (D) Causal Analysis


163. A common test in research demands much priority on
      (A) Reliability                              (B) Usability
     {g/ objectivitv                               (D) Validity


164. The action of                insulin lasts for 20 - 29 hours.
      (A) Short acting                             (B) Rapid acting
     ,{r/   Intermediate                           (D) Long acting


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165. What type of sampiing you would suggest for conducting a sulvey to find out the
      domestic wate:: consumption among households living in a city
      (A) Convenience sampling               (B) - Juclgement sampling
      (C) Simple random sarnpling               ag/l{u liist a ge sa mp ling

166. The questionnaire in which all questions and answer are specified, with minimum
      comments from the lespondent is    -.
      (A) Unstructulect questionnaire gf Structured questionnaire
      (C) Non structured questionnaire (D) Sequential questionnaile

167. Assertion (A) : In a diagnostic study the first step is to specify the broad objectives.
     Reason (R) : It rvill help to ensule that the data collected is relevant
      (A) (A) is true, (R) is false
      (B) - (A) is falsc, (R) is true
     it/ gotl, (A) and (R) are tlue but (R) is not true the correct explanation of (A)
      (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

168. I\fatch the fcrllowing
      (a) Personal interview 1. Encourage the respondent to speak
      (b) Focused interview 2. Focus or ind.ividual's life experience
      (c) Clinical interview 3. Is a face to face interview
      (d) Non-direct interview 4. Given experience and its effects
            (a) (b)           (c)   (d)

     vr
      (B)
            3421
            4321
      (c)   3274
      (D)t         4          2     3


169. Which of the following.statements are true regarding data collection of a study
     1. Primary data of one study will serve as secondary data of another
      2.    Primary data are useful only for future studies
      3.    Personal interview is a survey method of data collection which employs a
            questionnaire
      4.    Most cost effective method of collecting primary data is observation method
      (A) 1 is true, 2,3, 4 are false
          1 and 3 are true, 2 and 4 are false
     \9/
      (C) AII are false statements
      (D) l and 2 are tlue, 3 and 4 are false
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170. Expand IECD
         (A) Institute for Entrepreneurship and Council Development
        .gf
        v.   Institute for Entrepreneurship and Career Development
         (C) Institute for Entrepreneurship and Committee Development
         (D) Institute for Entrepreneurship and Campus Development


17L.                     is a key intervention in initiating and sustaining process ol
           Empowerment
           (A) Training
                                                  6ru'cation
           (C) Awareness                              (D) Growth


L72. E-Learning for Employee Training is
           (A) CustomerRelationshipManagement
           (B) Supply Chain Management
        Vf Human Resource Management
        (D) TechnoloryManagement


I73. The Major source of finance can be a combination of
    {tf, Share Capital                       (B) Coverage
     (C) Commission                          (D) Brokerage


174. According to the Ninth phase, the major problems faced in developing
        entrepreneurship in rural areas are/is
         (A) Inadequate flow of credit and pooi quality standards
         (B) Use of obsolete technolory, machinery and equipment
         (C) Inadequateinfrastructuralfacilities
       - (f Ail the above
       v
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L75. Diastolic pressure of 120 to 130 mm Hg comes under
      (A) Mild hypertension
      (B) Modern hypertcnsion
     ,f   Severe hypertension
      (D) None


176. Pick out the "Good Cholesterol"
      (A)   LDL                                (B) VLDL
    ,f      HDL                                (D) TG (triglycerides)


I77. For a person with typhoid, what kind of diet modification is provided
    {f/ High calorie, high protein, high carbohydrate, low fat, high fluid
     (B) low calorie, high protein, high fibre, high fluid, low fat
     (C) High calorie, low protein, high carbohydrate, low fat, low fluid
     (D) No modification


178. Psyllium is a              supplements
      (A) Herbal
      (B) Weight loss products
     ,9/ Laxative-
      (D) Biologic and nutrient


179. In the Kidney diseases potassium shorild be restricted to
     {*f 1 mmol &g/ day
      (B) 1.2 mmol lkgl day
      (C) 1.4 mmoU kg/ day
      (D) 1.5 mmoU kg/ day

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180. Lymphoid cells in human miik in responsible for
        rfl.f
         v
              Cellular immunity
          (B) Hlarmness of breast milk
          (C) Rh factor
          (D) Glowth factol


181. AIDS is the final stage of               infection
        gf Hrv                      --             (B) KSHV
.        (c) HPV                                   (D) DNAV


    182. Incidence of neural tube defects in pregnant women can be reduced by administering
         folic acid everyday at the rate of
         (A) 200 - 600 pe                          (B) 300 - 700 te
        ,f     'roo - 8oo ,,,g                     (D) 500 - 900   7-z€l




183. In India child survival and safe Motherhood Programme was started in the year
         (A) 1eel                              Jg/tnn,
         (c) 1ee3                                  (D) ree4


    184. Pre eclampsia is characterised by the development of hypertension to the extent of


        .6     140/90 mm pg

         (B)   130/90 mmpg

         (C) 140/80 mm ps
         (D) 130/80 mm ps
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185. In steatorrhoea, the amount of fat excreted in stool is
      (A) 30 gms                                (B) 40 gms
      (C) 50 gms                               ,f    6o gms


186. Assertion (A) : Higher cilculating levels of interleukin - 6 predicts disabiiity onset
                         in elderiy
      Re ason   (R) : Interleukin has a riirect effect on muscle atrophy
      (A)   (A) is true (R) is false
         - Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A) .
    -!tr
    v'
      (C) (A) is false and (R) is true
      (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

187. How will you estimate the daily fluid requirements for an aged women of age 67 yrs
      weighing 50 kg?
     .gf
     v'     1250 ml/day                         (B) 1500 ml/day
      (C) 1350 ml/day                           (D) 1700 mllday

188. Glycaemic index for glucose is
      (A) 25                                    (B) 50
      (c) 75                                   1f too
189. Choose the correct sequence
      a. Nyctalopia
      b. Xerophthalmia
      c. Xerosis
      d. Conjuctiva
      (A) a-b-c-d                              gf"-d-c-b
      (C) a-c-d-b                               (D) b-a-d-c

190. Who is referred to as the father of the science of Nutrition?
      (A) Anton Von Leuwenhoek                 ,12lt"""oisier
      (C) Leibig                                (D) Atwater
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191. Which among the following food source has Hidden fat?
      (A) Refined oils
      (B) Stewed fish
      (C) Bacon
     -(Af
     v' Mavonnaise

192. A mi_neral which helps to hasten the healing of wounds and burns is
    J5
    v    Zinc
     (B) Calcium
     (C) Phosphorus
     (D) Iron

193. Ascorbic acid concentration is highest in
      (A) liver
      (B) plasma
      (C) spleen
            adrenal gland
     V
Ig4,. Plasma obtained during post meals is turbid or milky ar," ,o presence of
    agf ChYlomicrons
     (B) HDL
      (c) LDL
      (D) VLDL

195. Sericin is removed from silk by treating with this
    ,rll' SoaP
      (B) Detergent
      (C) Soda ash
      (D) Sod.ium Chloride


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196. Match the following      :


      (a) Thiamin                   1.   Peripheral Neuritis
      (b) Riboflavin                2.   Pellegra
      (c) Niacin                    3.   Cheilosis
      (d) Pylidoxin                 4.   beriberi

         (a)        (b)    (c)     (d)
      (A)3          2      L       4
     ,plt+          B     2         1
      (c)r          2     3        4
      (D)2          r     4         3




L97. Which of the foilowing is the earliest Ocuiar manifestation of moderate to severe
      vitamin A Deficiency?
      (A) Bitot's Spots                            (B) Corneal xerosis
    ,ftf    Nvctalopia                             (D) Xerophthalmia


198. Cobalt deficiencv leads to the deficiencv of vitamin
      (A) C                                       gfn,,
      (C) E                                        (D) Bo


199. Which among the following inhibits iron absorption during pregnancy?
     (A) Hookworm infestation
     (B) Progestrone impairs erythropoietin synthesis
     (C) Decrease in erythropoietin levels
    ,rP/ Oestro gen imp airs erythropoietin synthesis

200. Proteins are                 because of the presence of free amino and carboxyl group.
      (A) amphilic                                 (B) hydrophobic
      (C) hydrophilic                             {f   "^photeric


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Source: Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission.