TNPSC 2019: Drugs Inspector & Junior Analyst in the Drugs Testing Laboratory, M.D. MICROBIOLOGY
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Sl. No. : DJMB/19 .
Register
Number
J
2019
M.D. MICROBIOLOGY
(PG Degree Std.)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours] [Maximum Marks: 300
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. The applicant will be supplied with Question Booklet 15 minutes before commencement of the examination.
2. This Question Booklet contains 200 questions. Prior to attempting to answer, the candidates are
requested to check whether all the questions are there in series and ensure there are no blank pages in
the question booklet. In case any defect in the Question Paper is noticed, it shall be reported to
the Invigilator within first 10 minutes and get it replaced with a complete Question Booklet.
If any defect is noticed in the Question Booklet after the commencement of examination, it
will not be replaced.
3. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
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.'.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK I•
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1. The side chain theory of antibody production was proposed by
"lfIl{ Paul Ehrlich (B) Elie Metchnikoff
(C) John Hunter (D) Edward Jenner
2. -----has a good sterilisation effect on common antibiotic resistant bacteria such as
MRSA,VRE and Clostridium difficile.
(A) Glutenaldehyde (B) Orthophthaldehyde
..,II( Peracetic acid (D) Hypochlorous acid
3. The biologicalcontrol for testing dry heat efficacy are spores of nontoxigenic
(Ai Bacillus pumilis
.JIll'! Clostridium tetani
(C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(D) Clostridium botulivium
4. The biologicalcontrol for moist heat sterilization are spores of
(A) Bacillus pumilis . (B) Bacillus subtilis
~ Bacillus stearothermophilus (D) Bacillus globigi
5. The concentration of sodium hypochlorite solution used to disinfect discard jars is
(A) 1% (B) 5%
~ 2.5% (D) 10%
6. Which ofthe following microorganism possess metachromatic granules?
(A) Bacillus Anthracis
(B) Bordetella Pertussis
""IlIff Gardnerella Vaginalis
(D) Proteus Mirabilis
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7. .Gram negative bacilli may be cultured using
~ MacConkey's medium
(B) Blood agar media
(C) Bile salt agar media
(D) Nutrient agar media
.8. Which of the following test detects the production of acetoin?
(A) MR test ~ VPtest
(C) Indole test (D) Citrate test
. 9. Transfer of genetic information through free or naked DNA is called
(A) Conjugation
, ~ Transformation
(C) Transduction
(D) Lysogenic conversion
10. Which of the following is a nonsense codon?
..A UAA (B) AAG
(C) GAU (D) CGA
11. The HLA allele associated with good Pastuer's syndrome is
.Jy DR.2 . (B) DR.3
(C) DR.4. (D) DR.3/DR.4
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12. Which of the following HLA types is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
(A) HLA-B27 ~ HLA-DR4
(C) HLA-A1 (D) HLA-DP
13. Which of the following HLA t'ypes is associated with Ankylosing spondytitis?
~ HLA-B27 (B) HLA-DR4
(C) HLA-DD (D) HLA-A1
14. All the following are examples ofT-cell sub population except
~ Plasma cells (B) TH1 cell
(C) CD~ T helper cell (D) Cytotoxic Tlymphocyte
15. The animal used for monoclonal antibodies production is
~ mouse (B) guinea pig
(C) rabbit (D) rat
16. Phaco anaphylaxis is caused by
(A) Autoimmune response to uvea
(B) Autoimmune response to retinal tissue
(C) Autoimmune response to iris
~) Autoimmune response to lens protein
17. The technique used for monoclonal antibodies production is called
~ . Hybridoma . (B) Rosette formation
J (C) Opsonisation (D) Immunofluorescence
18. The following human diseases are associated with super antigens except
(A) Tuberculosis (B) AIDS
(C) Rabies "'" Dengue
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19. Which of the following Immunoglobulins is heat labile?
(A) IgG (B) IgM
(C) IgA ~ IgE
20. Which immunoglobulin class is the most efficient to produce agglutination reaction?
(A) IgG ~ IgM
(C) . IgA (D) IgE
21. Which of the following tests does not use complement?
(A) T.Pallidum immobilization test
(B) Sabiu-Feldman dye test
(C) Vibriccidal antibody test
~ Weit felix test
22. The following enzymes are used in ELISA except
'(A) Horse Radish Peroxidase
(B) P -Galactosidase
(C) Alkaline phosphatase
.J> Acid phosphatase
23. Lepromin test is an example of
(A) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
(B) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
(C) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
~ Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
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24. The genes encoding proteins inhibiting excessive cell proliferation are called
(A) Apoptosis genes ~ Tumor suppres,sor genes
(C) Proto - oncogenes (D) Allogenes
25. Chadiak - Higashi syndrome is an immuno deficiency diseases which occurs due to
(A) T cell defects (B) B cells defects
(C) Complement disorder ~ Diminished phagocytic activity
26. All of the following are diseases of combine immuno deficiencies except
(A) Ataxia telengiectasia (B) Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome .
(C) Reticular dysgenesis of de vaal ..qIf Leukocyte G6PD deficiency
27. The following are the Immunological complications,after blood transfusion except
(A) Allergic reactions
.." Human T-Lymphotropic virus infection
(C) Acute hemolytic reaction
(D) Transfusion associated acute lung injury
28. The following are characteristics of Live Vaccines except
(A) Reverting back to virulent form
(B) Excretion of vaccine virus and transmission to non.immune contacts
(C) Interference by other micr~ organisms in host
~ High stability at room temperature
29. All the following vaccines are to be stored cold but not froyen EXCEPT
"II! Polio (B) DPT
(C) BCG. (D) Hepatitis B
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30, All are zoonotic except
(A) Brucellosis
(B) Plague'
(C) Tularensis
~ Floppy baby syndrome
31. Micrococciare differentiated from staphylococci by
~ Of test (B) Oxidase test
(C) PYR test (D) Motility test
32. Selective medium for streptococci is
(A) Milk agar
~ Crystal violet blood agar
(C) Mackonkey agar
(D)' TCBS
33. Drug of choice for Vancomycin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (VRSA)is
(A) Cloxacillin
(B) Methiclin
(C) Teicoplanin
~ Linezolid
34. Most common organism associated with stitch abscess is
~ Staphylococcus epidermidis
(B) Staphylococcus haemolylicus
(C) Staphylococcus lugdonensis
(D) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
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35. Sensitivity tests for Mycobacterium tuberculosis are carried out by the following methods
EXCEPT
(A) Absolute conce.ntration method
(B) Resistance Ratio method
(C) Proportion method
~ Ratio comparative method
36. Providencia shrartii is sensitive to one of the following disinfectant
.L> Glutaraldehyde (B) Cetrimide
(C) Chlorhexidine (D) Silver sulphonamide
37. PLET medium for Bacillus anthracis contains all EXCEPT
(A). Polymyxin (B) Lysozyme
.fI( Lysostaphin (D) Thallus Acetate
38. Shjella dysentriae Type I is
~ Catalase Negative (B) Catalase positive
(C) Indole positive (D) Oxidase positive
39. All are true about pneumonic plague EXCEPT
•
(A) Spread by droplet infection
(B) .Cause Haemorrhagic pneumonia
,
(C) Highly infections
It is not fatal
~
40. True about Francisella tularensis
(A) Non motile gram positive bacillus
~ Infection of Reticuloendothelial system
(C) Motite gram negative bacilli
(D) It is not a zoonotic infection
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41. Botryomycosis caused by
(A) Actinomyces israelisi (B) Actinomyces bovis
(C) Nocardia ~ Staphylococus aureus
42. Anton test is done to diagnose
""'" Listeriosis (B) Melioidosis
(C) Sarcoidoins (D). Erysipeloid
43. Causative agent of ciliate dysentery is
(A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Entamoeba'coli
~ Balantidium coli (D) Cryptosporidium Parvum
44. Pseudocyst ofT.gondii is present in all, except
.(A) Liver ,/( Heart
(C) Lymphnode (D) Spleen
45. Causative agent of Oriental sore is
(A) L.Donovani (B) L.Braziliensis
~ L,Tropica (D) T.Cruzi
46. Multiplication of the T.cruzi parasite occurs only at
(A) Trypomastigote form ~ Amastigote form
(C) Epimastigote form (D) Metacyclic form
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47. Terminal-Spined eggs are characteristic of
$ .S. haematobium (B) S. mansoni
(C) S. japonicum (D) S. intercalatum
A parasite attacking an unusual host is.called as,
.'
48.
(A) Aberrant parasite .II!f .Accidental parasite
(C) Temporary parasite (D) Wandering parasite
49. The following microfilaria are present both in Blood and Skin,
(A) Mf. Volvulus ~ Mf. Ozzardi
(C) Mf. Streptocerca (D) Mf. Timori
50. Which one of the following is the largest intestinal nematode?
(A) T. Spiralis (B) S. Stercoralis
"'II!f D. Medinensis (D) T. Trichiura
51. . The term 'Rat lungworm' is associated with
(A) Trichinella spiralis. (B) Toxocara canis
(C) Toxocara cati ~ Angiostrongylus cantonensis
I
52. Habitat of Trichuris trichiura is
(A) Duodenum (B) Jejunum
(C) Ileum
'" Caecum
53. The term 'Cat liver Fluke' is associated with
"I'f!' Opisthorchis felineus
(B) Paragoninus westermani
(C) Clonorchis Sine'nsis
(D) F. hepatica.
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54.. Which one of the following is called Dog tapeworm?
(N D. latum (B) H. diminuta
(C) T. saginata "(JIIf E. granulosus
55. Cysticercoid Larvae development is seen in the life cycle of
,
(A) T. saginata (B) T. solium
~ H. nana (D) Multiceps
56. . Viriod is the
(A) DNA virus
(B) enveloped DNA virus
VJIr naked small ssRNA without capsid
(D) enveloped RNA virus
57. Dengue virus belong to the family
. VtIff Flavi viridae (B) . Filo viridae
(C) Calci viridae (D) Toga viridae
58. Human immuno deficiency virus belongs to the family
(A) Reo viridae (B) Bunya viridae
'VIfIIf" Retro viridae (D) Filoviridae
59. The term 'Helical Symmetry' virus is associated with
(A) Herpes simplex virus
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis A
~ Corona virus
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60. Cowdry type A inc~usionbodies are seen in
(A) Mumps virus infection
, (B) Measles virus infection
.~ Yellow fever virus infection
(D) Rabies virus infection
61. Which of the followingviral infection? Produces Negri bodies?'
(A) Ebola virus (B) Corona virus
..iIt Rabies virus (D) Adeno virus
62. Tbilisi phage typing is employed for typing
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
~ Brucella
(C) Streptococcus viridans
(D) Salmonella
63. Antiviral drug Acyclovir and Penciclovir inhibit enzyme
(A) Viral RNA polymerase
vtt Viral DNA polymerase
(C) Viral reverse transcriptase
(D) None of the above
64. Interferon production not induced by viruses is
} ~. Gamma interferon
(B) Alpha and gamma interferon
(C) Beta interferon
(D) Alpha interferons
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65. Which of the following serotypes of adenoviruses causes swimming pool conjunctivitis?
(A) 7,3 ~3,7 .
(C) 13, 7 (D) 3, 17
66. The most common mucosal site affected by Herpes simplex virus type 1 is?
(A) Mucosa lining respiratory tract .;"If' Buccal mucosa
(C) Genital mucosa (D) Nasal mucosa
67. The most common site affected by Herpes Zoster is area innervated by which of the
following?
_-. ~
(A)
(C)
Spinal cord segments
Spinal cord segments
Spinal cord segments
D, to Da
Da to L2
La to Ls
.(D) Spinal cord segments Ds to D7
68. A rare form of Herpes Zoster affecting facial nerve causing facial palsy with eruption on
tympanic membrane. and external auditory canal is known as?
(A) Job's syndrome
(B) Varicella syndrome
~ Ramsay Hunt syndrome
(D). Severe Acute Respiratory syndrome
69. Which of the following refers to benign warts caused by papilloma virus in young children?
~ condyloma acuminat~m . (B) verruca vulgaris
(C) verruca plana (D) plantar warts
70. Erythema infectiosum is also known as
(A) Fourth Disease wtt!r Fifth Disease
(C) Sixth Disease (D) Seventh Disease
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71. Hepatitis virus not transmitted by blood and blood products is
(A) Hepatitis B (B) Hepatitis C
(C) Hepatitis G 'tif!!f Hepatitis E
72. One of the following statements is false about Kyasanur Forest Disease
(A) It is a Tick borne haemorrhagic fever
(B) Principal vector is Haemaphysalis spinigera
(C) It is antigenically related to RSSE complex
~ pigs out as amplifier host
73. Which is the first human disease identified to be associated with a virus?
(A) Dengue
(B) Chihungunya
(~ Erythema infectiosum
'wIffJ Yellow fever
74. Which of the following viral diseases does not result in haemorrhagic fever?
'If(Iff Louping ill (B) Ebola
(C) Lassa fever (D) Yellow fever
75. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of AIDS?
(A) Polyclonal B cell activation
...I/IIf Hypogamma globulinemia
(C) Hypergamma globulinemia
(D) Lymphonemia
f 76. Cercopithecus aethiops is the source of
(A) HIV-l virus
~ HIV-2 virus
(C) Simian immunod~ficiency ~irus
(D) Feline T Lymphotrophic virus
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77. Dimorphic fungi grow as yeast forms at the following temperature
(A) .25°C. (B) 30°C
..-f 37°C (D) WC
78. Ochratoxins producing fungal species are all except
(A) Aspergillus ochraceus (B) Aspergillus niger
.<r/ Fusariu~ moniliforme (D) Penicillium verrucosum
79. The largest phylum of kingdom fungi is
"'!IS Ascomycota (B) Basidiomycota
(C) . Deuteromycota (D) Zygomycota
80. The term 'fungus ball' is synonymous with
. (A) Aspergillus asthma (B) . Invasive aspergillosis
~ Aspergilloma (D) Broncho pulmonary aspergillosis
81. All of the following fungi are anthropophilic dermatophytes except
(A) Trichophyton rubrum
(B) Trichophyton violaceum
.£ Trichophyton verrucosum
(D) Microsporun audouinii
82. - Which of the following genus of dermatophytes does not infect nails
(A) Trichophyton rub rum
vir Microsporum
(C) Epidermophyton
(D) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
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83. Most commonly causative species of CNS Aspergillosis.
~ Aspergillus fumigatus
(B) Aspergillus flavus.
(C) Aspergillus terreus
(D) Aspergillus versicolor
84. Intestinal candidiasis presenting as diarrhoea is a frequent sequel to
(A) Diabetes ~ Oral antibiotic Therapy
(C) Corneal infection (D) Surgery
85. Coral red Fluorescence seen under wood lamp.
(A) Malassezia Furfur
$ Corynebacterium minutissimum
(C) 1V!icrosporumgypseum
(D) Trichophyton schoenleinii
86. 50 year old male presents with hea'dache vomiting and neck rigidity. India Ink staining of
CSF reveals spherical budding yeast cells with clear halo surrounding. What is the
etiological agent?
(A) Naegleria Cryptococcus
(C) Chromoblastomycosis (D) Aspergillus
\
87.. Acute'brucellosis is also known as
(A) Aluoxic fever (B) Filarial fever
(C) Enteric fever ,qIf. Undulant fever
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88. All are true about Helicobacter pylori infections except
-.JIG Less common in developing countries
(B) Highly motile
(C) Rapid urease test positive
(D) Adenocarcinoma of stomach ..
~
89. Incubation period in gastroenteritis due to salmonella is
6.12 hrs (B) 12.24 hrs
12-36hrs (D) 24-48 hrs
90. . Which of the followingcomes under upper UTI?
(A) Cystitis (B) Prostatitis
..,JIlt Pyelitis (D) Urethritis
91. Most common cause of Bronchiolitis
(A) Rhinoviruses
(B) Influenza viruses
(C) . Corona viruses .
..tIII'fr Respiratory Syncytial viruses
92. Biochemical analysis of Tubercular Meningitis reveals all of the following except
(A) CSF pressure: Moderately elevated
(B) CSF protein: Markedly increased
VII!f CSF glucose: Slightly increased
(D) Call count: Increased, lymphocytic
93. How does staphylococcus aurens acquire during resistance?
(A) Transformation 'Wi, I
•• Trans ducfIOn
(C) Mutation (D) Conjugation
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94. The mechanism of action of Fluoroquinolone against bacteria is
(A) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
•
~ Inhibition of DNA synthesis
(C) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
(D) Inhibition of translation
95. Under the Bush - Jacoby -:-Medeioros Functional classification scheme for j3 -lactamase
enzyme carbaperamase comes under section
(A) 1 (B) 2e
2f (D) 2a
96. The following viruses are emerging zoonotic viruses EXCEPT
'(A) Lassa (B) Hantavirus
(C) Marburg ...;II( Calcivirus
97. Minimum inhibitory concentration ofvamomycin to VRSA,
> 8 ~g/ml (B) > 4 ~g/ml
(C) > 2 ~g/ml (D) > 1 ~g/ml
98. How many maximum antimicrobial disks should be placed on a 100 mm Mueller Hinton
agar plate?
(A) upto 5 disks
.~ upto 6 disks
(C) upto 7 disks
-i (D) upto 8 disks
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99. Which one of the following is not a "nonsense codon"?
(A) UAA. ~ UGG
. (C) UAG (D) UGA
100. Antisepsis in surgery was first introduced by
~ Joseph Lister . (B) Edward Jenner
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Robert Koch
101. 'Schaeffer-Fulton'procedure is used to stain and visualise which,bacterial cell organelle?
(A) Bacterial capsule (B) Bacterial flagella
~ Bacterial eri.dospores (D) Bacterial cell wall
102. The foundations of immuno chemistry was laid by the pioneering work of
../> Karl Landsteiner . (B) Paul Ehrlich
(C) Frank Burnet (D) Roux and Yersin
103. -----is called the Father of bacteriology.
(A) Robert Koch ..;z Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
(C) Robert Hook (D) Louis Pasteur.
104. The spontaneous theory of generation of microorganisms was first challenged by
(A) Leeu.wenhoek ~ Francesco Redi
(C) Robert Hook (D) Galileo
105.. Which among the following provides ~ three dimensional view of the specimen?
(A) Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)
...A> Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)
(C) Phase Contrast Microscope
(D) Darkfield Microscope
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106. Peptidoglycan layer of cell wall is thicker in
(A) Fungi (B) Parasites
.L Gram positive bacteria (D) Gram Negative bacteria
107. Which of the following can be visualized by routine gram staining?
(A) Chlamydia trachomatis
~ Actinomycetes naeslundii
(C). Rickettesiae
(D) Treponema pallidum
108. Nocardia species are stained by strong carbolfuchsin and resist decolorisation with
""" 0.5% Sulphuric acid (B) 1% Perchloric acid
(C) 2% Activated carbon (D) 0.5% Acetic acid
109. The bacteria which require higher level of carbon dioxide for their growth are known as
(A) Micro aerophilic bacteria (B) Aerophilic bacteria
(C) Aerobic bacteria ~ Capnophilic bacteria
110. Bacteria which can grow at' temperature between 25°C and 40°C are known as
..tL Mesophiles (B) Thermophiles
(C) Psychrophiles (D) Microthermophiles
111. Streptococcus pyogenes are
(A) Obligate anaerobe (B) Obligate aerobe
(C) Facultative anaerobe v!!f' Aerotolerant anaerobe
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112. Secretory IgA contains
(A) Polypeptide
.J Glycine-rich polypeptide
. (C) Polysaccharide
(D) Glycine rich polysaccharide
113. All the following are tumour suppressor genes EXCEPT
(A) APC (B) NF-l
(C) NF-2 ~ erb-B
114. All the following are the steps of phagocytoses except
(A) Recognition
-A,) Antigen Presentation
(C) Engulfment
(D) Fusion
115. The condition is which ~tructural of functional damage is produced by the action of
immunologically competent cells or antibodies against the normal components of the body is
called as.
(A) Acquired immunity (B) Adaptive immunity
~ Auto immunity (D) Innate immunity
116. Ouchterlony procedure is
(A) Single diffu.sionin one dimension
(B) Double diffusions in one dimension
(C) Single diffusion in two dimensions
~ Double diffusions in two dimensions
117. Vaccinlition induces
(A) Active natural immunity (B) Passive natural immunity
.J Active artificial immunity (D) Passive artificial immunity
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123. Autoantibodies to ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antigens SS-A (RO) and SS-B (La) are produced
. i~hich disease .
"") Sjogren syndrome (B) Systemic sclerosis
(C) Multiple sclerosis (D) Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE)
124. Which class of immunoglobulin mediates Type I hypersensitivity reactions?
(A) Ig G (B) IgM
(C) IgA ~ IgE
125. .Auto antibodies bind to basement membrane antigens on.kidney glomeruli and the alveoli.
This is the hallmark of
~ Good.Pasture syndrome (B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Grave's disease (D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
126. Anti Citrullinated peptid Antibodies (ACPA)are diagnostic for .
(A). .Systemic Lupus erythmatous ~) Rhumatoid arthritis
(C) Sjogren syndrome (D) Scleroderma
127. The ability to respond immunologically to an antigen is conditioned by
(A) Tumor suppressor ~ Immune response genes
(C) Allogene (D) Histocompatibility gene
128. Which of the following HLA typ~nggiven high resolution matching?
(A) Microcytotoxicity
(B) Mixed lymphocyte reaction
(Cl) PCR - RELP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymor Phism)
-$) PCR - DNA sequencing typing
129. Best example of syngeneic graft
(A) Between dizygotic twins
.iiIf Between monozygotic twins
(C) Between two member of same or different species
.(D) Between two sites of same person
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130. Selective media for N. gonorohea is
~ Thayer Martin medium
(B) Cooked meet medium
(C) . Blood agar
(D) Serum agar
131. Woodsorter's disease is also known as
(A) Cutaneous anthrax
...,i> Pulmonary anthrax
(C) Intestinal anthrax
'(D) Pulmonary tuberculosis
132. Liquid medium for tubercle bacilli is
.~ Miadle book 7H9 . (B) Middle book 7H8
(C) Mi~dle book 7H10 (D)LI medium
133. Verocytotoxin 1 of E. Coli is similar to
'.IfJIf Shiga toxin
(B) Cholera toxin
(C) Enterotoxin of S. aureus
(D) Toxin of B. Cereus
134. Which of the following salmonella ferments glucose with acid but no gas
(A) S. Paratyphi A
(B) S:.Paratyphi B
S. Choleraesuis
~ S. Typhi
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135. Clinical manifestations of enterococci are all except
(A) Urinary tract infections
(B) Neona tal sepsis
(C) Neonatal meningitis
.~ Neonatal conjunctivitis
136. Which is not a risk factor for meningococcus infection
(A) Travellers
(B) Smoking
(C) Over crowding
~ Defficiency of Early complem.ent components
137. Water house - Friderichsen syndrome, All are true EXCEPT
(A) Caused by meningococcus
(B) Bilateral adrenal haemorrhage seen
(C) Purpura fulminans is a feature
~ Pathogenesis is due to capsule
138. Corynebacterium parvum can be used as
(A) Vaccine
"'" Immunomodulator
(C) Toxin production
(D) Adjuvant
139. Wool sorter's disease is a
(A) Cutaneous anthrax
(B) Intestinal anthrax
(C) Anthrax menil1'gitis
~ Pulmonary anthrax
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140. Brazilian purpuric fever caused by
(A) Haemophilus aphnophilus ~ Haemophilus aegyphius
(C) Coxiella burnetii (D) Rickettsia prowazekii
141. Transport media used for isolation of vibro cholerae from stool specimen are all EXCEPT
(A) Alkaline salt medium (B) Autoclaved sea water
(C) Cary Blair medium "fI!> Stuarts medium
142. Oxidase Negative Pseudomonas species is
(A) Pseudomonas oxyzihabitans (B) Pseudomonas paucimobilis
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa '\fIIIf Pseudomonas luteola
143. Myt common mode of transmission of Legionella Pneumophila is
"') Inhalation . (B) Ingestion
(C) Blood. (D) Insect bite
144. Q fever caused by
(A) Rickettsia conori ~ Coxiella burnetii
(C) Rickettsia prowazeki. (D) Borbonella
145. Miyagawa granulocorpusles are seen in
(A) Trachoma
~ Lymphogranuloma venereum
(C) Syphilis
(D) Psittacosis
146. W~h is not a property of Mycoplasma?
~ Susceptibility to Beta lactams
(B) Have both DNA and RNA
(C). Can grow in cell free media.
(D) Extracellular survival
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147. Vector for African Trypanosomiasis
(A) Sand fly vtr Tsetse fly
(C) Mosquito (D) Tick
148. Chronic amoebic keratitis (CAK)is a complication of
(A) N.Fowleri ~ A Castellani
(C) B.Mandriliaris. (D) E.Histolytica
149. Extra intestinal phase of taxoplasma gondii is seen in all, except
(A) Man ~ Cat
(C) Mouse. (D) Cow
,.
150. Pernicious malaria is caused by,
(A) P. Vivax (B) P. Oval~
~
P. Falliparum (D) P. Malariae
151. Maurer's dots are present in the infected RBC of,
(A)' P.Vivax ~ P. Falciparum
(C) P. Malariae (D) P.Ovale
152. Floatation of eggs is characteristics of the following organisms EXCEPT
(A) A lumbricoides
(B) Trichuris trichiura
~ T. Saginata
(D) A duodenale
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153. The Distome of China is refers to
~ Clonorchis Sinensis (B) F. hepatica
(C) F. buski (D) S. japonicum
154. Causative agent of Bilharziasis
S. haematobium (B) S. mansoni
(C). S. japonicum (D) . S: intercalatum
155. Dipylidium Caninum is known as
(A) Rat tape worm.
vi( Double - pored dog tape worm
(C) Gid worm
(D) Beef tapeworm
156. All of the following are.Liver Flukes, except
,
(A) C. Sinensis (B) O. Felineus
(C) F.Hepatica ~ G.Hominis
. 157. The phrase 'Serpent worm' is associated with
(A) Loa loa .
(B) Onchocerca Volvulus
.JIl!f' Dracunculus Medineusis
(D) Dirofilaria immitis
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158. Which of the following is the smallest virus?
(A) Papo virus ~ Parvo virus
(C) Pallimoa virus (D) Rubella virus
159. Viro pexis is the
~. Receptor mediated endocytosis
(B) Synthesis of Nucleic Acids
(C) Exocytosis
(D) Uncoating of virus
160. In egg inoculation, yolk sac route is used to
~ Cultivate arbo viruses
(B) Cultivate Hepatitis A virus
.(C) Cultivate salmonella bacteria
(D) Cultivate Mycobacterium tuberculosis
161. In egg inoculation, Amniotic sac route is used to cultivate
~ Influenza virus. (B) Herpes simplex Virus - 1
(C) Epstein Barr Virus (D) Herpes simplex Virus - 2
162. In molecular methods real time RT - PCR is used for
(A) Quantification of DNA Quantification of RNA
(C) Identification of prions (D) Detection of Proteins
163. Which of the following viruses are called orphan viruses?
(A) Polio virus ../ Echo virus.
(C) Coxsackie virus (D) Entero virus
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164. Which of the following vaccine is killed vaccine?
(A) Sabin polio vaccine
(B) BCG vaccine
.tJI!! Salk polio vaccine
(D) Sabin and salk polio vaccine
, 165. Type I interferons are
(A) Alpha and gamma interferon
(B) Beta interferon
../J Alpha and beta interferons
(D) Gamma interferon
.'166. Virusoids are
(A) Animal pathogen 'I/fIIf. Plant pathogen
(C) Aquatic virus (D) Human pathogen
.167. Name the filamentous shaped virus
(A) Herpes virus ViI!f" Ebola virus'
(C) Parvo virus (D) Rabies virus
168. Small pox was <;radicated in the year
1977 (B). 1978
(C) 1967 (D) 1957
169. Which year did WHO announced global eradication of small pox?
J May 8 1980 th (B) May 18th 1980
(e) March 18th 1980 (D) May 8th 1981
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170. The following are the strains of Poliovirus Except?
(A) Lansing and MEFI strain
(E) Leon and Saukett strain
.tiIf' Dahar strain
(D) Mahoney strain
171. When passaged serially in eggs the progeny influenza virus show high haemagglutinin titres
but low infectivity which is called as?
~ Von Magnus Phenomenon
(E) Pfeiffer's phenomenon
(C) Koeber's phenomenon
(D) Kauffman's phenomenon
172. What is the natural host for Nipah Viruses?
(A) Pigs (B) Herons
.iliff' Fruit bats (D) Horses
173. The following mumps vaccine are available except
(A) Monovalent mumps vaccine
..-f. Divalent measles mumps vaccine
(C) Trivalent MMR vaccine
(D) Quadrivalent MMR-Vvaccine
174. Rabies is not seen in
(A) India (B) Brazil
'fI!'f' Australia (D) China •
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175. All are structural genes in the genome of HlV Except?
~ nef (B) gag
(C) env (D) pol
176. Which one of the following statements about prions is false?
,
~ Prions are non-infectious proteins
(B) Prions are infectious proteins
(C) Prions have not caused disease in Americans
(D) Prusiner proposed protein-only hypothesis
177. Which of the following viruses is a DNA oncogenic virus?
(A) Murine lentrosis viruses
.(B) Avian lentrosis viruses
(C) Murine mammary tumour virus
~ Yaba virus
..178. Which of the following virus is a long thread like RNA?
(A) Zika virus ~ Ebola virus
(C) Nipah virus (D) Hendra virus
179. Which of the following is not a modes transmission of zika virus?
""" Breastfeeding
(B) Blood transfusion
(C) Perinatal transmission
(D) Sexual transmission
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180. Black piedra is caused by one of the following fungi
(A) Trichosporon species .,JJIf Piedraia hortae
(C) Hortaea werneckii . (D) Malassezia furfur
181. Which of the following fungi is geophilic dermatophyte?
J Microsporum gypseum
(B) Microsporum equinum
(Cl Microsporum persicolor
(D) Microsporum canis
182. White piedra is caused by one of the following fungi?
(A) Mahissezia furfur (B) Hortaea werneckii
(C) Piedraia hortae 'If!/J) Trichosporon species
183. Phialophora verrucosa is a tropical! subtropical fungus that causes
(A) Madura mycosis
.."t!" Chromoblastomycosis
(C) Sporotrichosis
(D) Candidiasis
184: Desert rheumatism is seen in
t:/ Coccidioidomycosis
(B) Para coccidioidomycosis
.. (£) Histoplasmosis
,.
(D) Blastomycosis
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185. According to Durack and street classification, classic Fever of unknown origin (Classic FUO).
is defined as the following except
(A) Temperatures of> 38.3°c Duration of> 1 wks
(C) Duration of > 3 wks (D) Three outpatient visits
186. Post operative endocarditis is due to
..A Staphylococcal epidermidis
(B) Staphy lococcus aureus
. (C) Streptococcus pyogenes
(D) Streptococcus viridans
187. A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood culture shows growth of gram positive Cocci
which is catalaes positive and coagulase negative. The most likely etiological agent.
(A) Staphylococcus aureUs ~ Staphylococcus epidermidis
(C) Streptococcus Pyogenes (D) Enterococcus faecalis
188. Hand rub should not be used in which condition.
(A) Before touching patient
Mter touching patient
~ Hands are visibly soiled
(D) Mter touching patient'ssurrounding
189. Pseudobubo is present in
(A) LGV (B) Suphilis
(C) Chancroid ~ Donovanosis
190. TORCH infection include all except.
(A) Toxoplasmosis Orthomyxoviruses
(C) Rubella (D) Herpes
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191. Chemoprophylaxis for high chloroquine resistance is
J) Mefloquine 250 mg 1 tablet weekly
(B) Proguanie 100 mg
(C) Primaquine
(D) Piperaquine.
192. Both live attenuated and killed vaccine is NOT available for which of the following?
(A) Polio virus
. (B) Yellow fever
.j;) Chicken pox
(D) Japanese B encephalitis
193. Newer Hendra and Nipah virus-vaccine is
(A) Live vaccine (B) Killed vaccine
J> Subunit vaccine (D) Toxoid
194. Live attenuated vaccine using oka strain is available for
. (A) Rabies virus
$. Varicella zoster virus
(C) Polio V
(D) Yellow fever V
195. Whr one of the followingis a whole-cell recombinant B subunit cholera vaccine?
~ Dukoral
(B) WC V. cholerae E1Tor
(C) WC V. chollirae classical
(D) WCV. cholerae inaba
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196. In which method, an absorbent ship with a known gradient of antibiotic concentration along
its length is used for antibiotic sensitivity testing?
(A) Kirby Baner disc diffusion method
~ Epsilometer test
(C) Primary disc diffusion test
(D) Agar dilution method
,. 197. The percentage of removal of the Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of sewage in primary
treatment
(A) 5 -10% (B) 10 - 15%
.(jI( 25 - 35% (D) 20 - 25%
198. . All of the following diseases are transmitted by mosquito except:
(A) Japanese encephalitis
(B) Yellow fever
(C) West Nile fever
'tIIfj Oroya fever
199. How many pairs of amplification .primers are used in nested PCR
(A) One vI!f: Two
(C) Three (D) Five
200. What should be the minimum distance (center to center) between two adjacent antimicrobial
disks on the Mueller - Hinton agar plate?
(A) 5 mm (B) 10mm
~ 20mm (D) 30 mm
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Source: Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission.