TS SET 2012: Paper III, Earth Science
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Test Paper : III Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
Test Subject : EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
AND PLANETARY SCIENCES
Hall Ticket No.
Test Subject Code : A-08-03
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : III
Subject : EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND
PLANETARY SCIENCES
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCES
Paper – III
1. In X-ray diffraction, the equation, 4. Match the following
n λ = 2dsin θ is known as ______ law. List I List- II
(A) Roentgen (Species) (Phylum)
a. Cidaris 1. Coelentrata
(B) Becquerel
b. Productus 2. Mollusca
(C) Curie
c. Corals 3. Brachipoda
(D) Braggs d. Trigonia 4. Echinodermata
a b c d
2. Which one of the following statements is
(A) 2 4 1 3
correct ?
(B) 1 2 3 4
(A) Komatiite is an ultrabasic plutonic (C) 4 3 1 2
rock (D) 3 4 2 1
(B) Syenite is an acidic volcanic rock 5. Assertion A : Different inorganic and
(C) Tholeiite is a basic volcanic rock organic structures are
formed in sedimentary
(D) Dunite is an Mg rich carbonate rock
rocks
3. A very large joint which can be traced over Reason R : The structure ‘Petrifaction’
an extensive area is described commonly is of inorganic origin
as a (A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation
(A) Columnar joint
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not
(B) Plunging fold
the correct explanation
(C) Dome (C) A is true but R is false
(D) Master joint (D) A is false but R is true
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6. The chemical structures formed in 8. Assertion A : Low atomic elements like
sedimentary rocks are oxygen (O), hydrogen (H),
sulphur (S) and carbon (C)
I. Striations
are used in the studies of
II. Stylolites
stable isotope geochemistry.
III. Nodules
Reason R : Isotopes of above cited low
IV. Geodes
atomic number elements
(A) I, II and III are correct
are well fractionated in the
(B) I and II are correct course of certain chemical
(C) II and III are correct and physical processes
occurring in nature, and the
(D) II, III and IV are correct
variations in isotopic
7. Oceans may be the source of compositions of these
I. Zeolites elements are easy to
II. Nodules determine by mass
spectrometer.
III. Placer deposits
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
IV. Phosphorites
correct explanation
(A) II, III and IV are correct
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not
(B) I, II and IV are correct the correct explanation
(C) I, II and III are correct (C) A is true but R is false
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct (D) A is false but R is true
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9. Arrange in the decreasing order of 12. Eastern Ghats of India represents a
Fe-content in the principal layers of the (A) Craton
earth, using the number code given below (B) Mobile belt
I. Oceanic crust (C) Rift
II. Continental crust (D) Proterozoic sedimentary basin
III. Core 13. Eustatic sea level changes occur due to
IV. Mantle the following reasons
(A) I, II, III, IV I. Changes in volume of sea water due
to melting of glaciers
(B) II, III, IV, I
II. Change in the size of the ocean
(C) III, IV, II, I
basins that contains it
(D) III, IV, I, II
III. Decrease in the feeding by rivers
10. The highest amount of moisture content (A) I and III
is present in the coaly matter (B) I and II
(C) II and III
(A) Peat
(D) I, II and III
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous coal 14. The porosity of a rock depends on
(D) Anthracite I. Shape of the grain
II. Packing of the grain
11. The percentage of methane and ethane
III. Size of the grain
constituents in natural gas is
IV. Sorting of the grain
(A) 50% to 60% (A) I and II
(B) 60% to 70% (B) I, II, III and IV
(C) 70% to 80% (C) I, III and IV
(D) 80% to 90% (D) I, II and III
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15. In Wenner’s array of resistivity 17. Match List I and List II and identify the
prospecting, the current electrode correct answer using codes given
separation is ________ of the potential
List I List II
electrode separation.
(Concept) (Authors)
(A) One fifth
a. Uniformitarianism 1. Peltier
(B) One third
b. Geomorphic cycle 2. Aggassiz
(C) Four times
c. Ice age 3. Davis
(D) Three times
d. Morphogenetic regions 4. Hutton
16. In pedogenesis, transformation process
5. Wood
includes
a b c d
1. Conversion of organic matter into
humus (A) 2 3 4 5
2. Decomposition of primary to (B) 4 3 5 1
secondary minerals (C) 4 3 2 1
3. Removal of surface material by (D) 1 3 2 4
erosion and leaching
18. Patterned ground is associated with the
4. Accumulation of materials in a lower
climate
horizon
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (A) Arid climate
(B) 1 and 2 are correct (B) Tropical climate
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (C) Temperate climate
(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) Periglacial climate
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19. Assertion A : Limestone regions 21. Clouds which have a streak line form are
called
standout as elevated
(A) Status
features in arid climates
(B) Nimbus
and low lying features in
(C) Cumulus
humid climates.
(D) Cirrus
Reasoning R : limestone is susceptible 22. Subsidence inversion is produced well
to chemical weathering above the earth’s surface on account of
and resistant to physical (A) Ocean currents
(B) Air current
weathering.
(C) Cold current
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
(D) Electric current
the correct explanation
23. World Forest Day is observed on
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
(A) March 21
not the correct explanation
(B) April 22
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false (C) June 5
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true (D) May 22
20. Occlusion is a process associated with 24. India is divided into ___ biogeographic
zones and ___ biogeographic provinces.
(A) Condensation
(A) 5, 10
(B) Precipitation
(B) 8, 20
(C) Temperate cyclone (C) 10, 25
(D) Cloud formation (D) 15, 35
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25. Assertion A : Natural balance of the 27. Identify the correct statement
ecosystem is not only in (A) The headquarters for Botanical
between production and Survey of India is located at Dehradun
consumption but also (B) Project Tiger was launched in April
includes energy flow.
1975
Reasoning R : Green plants are autrotopic (C) Mangroves in India account for about
while decomposers are 5% of world’s Mangrove vegetation
saprotrophs. (D) Bharatpur Wildlife Sanctuary is
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is located in Karnataka
the correct explanation
28. Which of the statements is correct ?
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
(A) Son is a major tributary river for
not the correct explanation
Ganges and it joins the northern bank
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
Ganges
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(B) Rivers Bhagirathi and Alkananda
26. Which of the following location is significant join at Rudraprayag to form Ganges
for renewable energy generation ? (C) Subansiri is a principal tributary river
(A) Sasan for Mahanadi
(B) Kayathar (D) Godavari basin is the second largest
(C) Kaiga in India covering nearly 10% of total
(D) Mundra area of the country
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29. Which of the following statements are 31. No information is lost by regular sampling
correct about the impact of Green
provided that the ratio of sampling
Revolution on Indian agriculture ?
frequency to highest frequency is
(1) Increases productivity levels of
certain crops (A) less than 0.5
(2) Increases regional disparities in (B) between 0.5 – 1.0
agricultural development
(C) between 1.0 – 1.5
(3) Widened the gap in the productivity
(D) greater than 2.0
levels between the crops
(4) Widened the gap in the economic 32. If mass is very long in the Y-direction and
levels between the farming
has a uniform cross-section of arbitrary
communities
shape in XZ planes the gravity attraction
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 derives from a
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (A) Newtonian potential
(D) 1, 2 and 4 (B) Geoid potential
30. As per 2011 census, the correct ranking (C) Logarithmic potential
of States in terms of highest sex-ratio
(D) Induction potential
(A) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Mizoram,
Manipur, Chattisgarh 33. Gravity potential satisfies _____ equation
(B) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu, in free space.
Manipur, Chattisgarh
(A) Laplace’s
(C) Kerala, Tamilnadu, Meghalaya,
(B) Poission’s
Chattisgarh, Manipur
(D) Kerala, Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh, (C) Maxwell’s
Chattisgarh, Manipur (D) Linear
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34. Simpson’s rule is a numerical method that 38. In gravity prospecting low frequency
approximates the value of a definite signal is associated with
integral by using (A) Regional effects
(A) Linear relationship
(B) Residual effects
(B) Quadratic polynomial
(C) Diurnal variations
(C) Cubic polynomial
(D) Drift of gravimeter
(D) Least square approximation
39. Very low frequency electromagnetic
35. Which mineral has highest density ?
method is used to explore
(A) Wolframite
(A) Horizontal stratified conducting
(B) Uraninite
layers of the earth
(C) Chromite
(B) Vertical or nearly vertical conducting
(D) Covdite
portions of the earth
36. The degree to which a substance can be (C) Very deep discontinuities of the earth
magnetised is determined by its
(D) All the above
(A) Magnetic susceptibility
(B) Magnetic induction 40. S.P. log in the water well gives information
(C) Intensity of magnetisation about
(D) Magnetic permeability 1. porous and permeable formation
2. clear demarcation between permeable
37. Gravimeters used in field measurements
and non-permeable formation
have a sensitivity of about
(A) Only 1 is correct
(A) 1.0 m gal
(B) Only 2 is correct
(B) 0.1 m gal
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 0.01 m gal
(D) 0.001 m gal (D) None of the above
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41. Radioactive logging techniques are used 44. The earth quake intensity number ‘10’ on
Richter scale can be identified by
(A) Only in cased wells
(A) Buildings tremble, parked vehicles
(B) Only in uncased wells
rock and wall clock stops
(C) Both cased and uncased wells (B) Heavy damage to buildings and
collapse of reservoir begin
(D) Only in open wells
(C) Complete destruction and ground
42. Seismic refraction studies are employed badly twisted
in (D) Buildings raged to ground and life
line destroyed
1. Oil and natural gas investigations
45. Koyana earth quake is an example of
2. Ground water investigations
1. Fault induced seismicity
3. Archaeological investigations
2. Reservoir induced seismicity
(A) Only 1 is correct 3. Volcanic induced seismicity
(B) Only 2 is correct (A) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All the above are correct
(D) Only 1 and 2 are correct
43. Subduction zone presents the following 46. When the temperature of an air mass
type of boundary increases or decreases without addition
or removal of heat, the process is called
(A) Diverging plate boundary
(A) Adiabatic process
(B) Conservative boundary
(B) Normal lapse rate
(C) Convergent plate boundary (C) Occlusion
(D) None of the above (D) Thermal inversion
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47. The Atlantic Polar Front has its full 51. Homogeneous nucleation occurs when
development during the air parcel is
(A) Spring (A) Saturated
(B) Summer (B) Super-saturated
(C) Winter (C) Unsaturated
(D) Autumn (D) All of the above
48. The lower limit of the ionosphere 52. In hydrostatic equilibrium the balance will
be between
(A) 70 – 80 km
(A) Pressure gradient and gravity
(B) 80 – 120 km
(B) Pressure gradient and Coriolis Force
(C) 120 – 160 km
(C) Coriolis Force and gravity
(D) 160 – 200 km
(D) Coriolis Force and friction
49. Radio waves can be detected at great
53. The prime mechanism in the formation of
distances especially at night. This is due
hail is
to the layer
(A) Accretion
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Coalescence
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Condensation
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Dissipation
(D) Ionosphere
54. In the absence of external forces when the
50. In a T- Φ gram Normand’s III proposition centrifugal and the Coriolis forces are
is applied to determine equal and opposite, then the flow is called
(A) LCL (A) Gradient flow
(B) CCL (B) Inertial flow
(C) Thickness of layers (C) Geostrophic flow
(D) Relative humidity (D) Cyclostrophic flow
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55. The thermal wind is zero in a ________ 59. In an equivalent barotropic model
atmosphere.
(A) The wind is constant with height
(A) Barotropic
(B) Baroclinic (B) The wind direction is constant with
(C) Neutral height
(D) Standard
(C) Wind is constant with height but the
56. Baroclinic instability arises out of
wind direction changes with height
(A) Horizontal shear
(B) Vertical shear (D) Wind direction is constant with height
(C) Linear shear
but the wind speed changes with
(D) No shear
height
57. The ratio of available potential energy to
the total potential energy is 60. Wheeler and Hendon gives the magnitude
(A) 1/10
of
(B) 1/100
(C) 1/20 (A) Madden Julian oscillations
(D) 1/200
(B) El Nino southern oscillation
58. The condition for computational instability (C) Quasi biennial oscillations
in a primitive equation model is
(D) None of the above
cΔt 1
(A) ≤
ΔX 2 61. In the general circulation ocean models
cΔt the Western boundary currents are
(B) ≤1
ΔX
(A) Ekman boundary layers
c t 1
(C) ≤ (B) Munk boundary layers
X 4
(C) Stommel boundary layers
c t 1
(D) ≤
X 2 (D) Sverdrup boundary layers
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62. In an estuary the salinity of water is 66. The Somali current is a
reduced due to (A) Western boundary current
(A) Fresh water input (B) Eastern boundary current
(B) Seawater incursion (C) Northern boundary current
(C) Incursion of tidal currents (D) Southern boundary current
(D) None of the above
67. In sea water the most abundant element
63. In a baroclinic fluid present is
(A) Density is a function of pressure (A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(B) Density is not a function of pressure
(C) Chlorine
(C) Density is a function of depth
(D) Sodium
(D) Density is a function of wave height
68. The pH value of sea water falls in the range
64. In oceans one can have
of
(A) Weather
(A) 4 – 6.5
(B) Climate
(B) 7.5 – 8.4
(C) Both weather and climate
(C) 9 – 15
(D) None of the above
(D) 16 – 26
65. Which of the following develop upwelling
69. Large volumes of bottom sediments are
on a seasonal basis ? transported long distances by
(A) Somali current (A) Tidal action
(B) East Arabian current (B) Icebergs
(C) South Jaua current (C) Storm waves
(D) All of the above (D) Turbidity currents
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70. The continental terrace includes 73. The ecological parameters of the marine
environment include
I. Continental shelf
I. Salinity
II. Continental rise
II. Temperature
III. Continental slope
III. Substrate
IV. All of the above IV. Food
(A) I and II (A) I and II are correct
(B) I and III (B) I, II and IV are correct
(C) II and III (C) II, III and IV are correct
(D) I, III and IV are correct
(D) I, II and III
74. One of the following organisms is not a
71. Terrigenous sediments of the oceans are
benthic organism
deposited by
(A) Ammoniod
(A) Rivers
(B) Asterorotalia
(B) Turbidity currents (C) Globigerina
(C) Winds (D) Elphidium
(D) All of the above
75. Assertion A : an estuary is a river mouth
which is affected by the
72. Based on the depth, the marine
tides of the sea
environments are classified into
(A) Beaches, littoral environment, neretic Reason R : an estuary consists of only
freshwater
environment, abyssal environment
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and R is the
(B) Neretic environment, bathyal
correct explanation
environment and abyssal environment
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but R is not
(C) Littoral environment, bathyal the correct explanation
environment and abyssal environment (C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(D) All of the above (D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
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Space for Rough Work
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Page 1 of 16
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.