TS SET 2013: Paper II, Earth Science
Text of page 1
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
EARTH SCIENCE
A-08-02 (EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCE)
II
HALL TICKET NUMBER
QUESTION BOOKLET NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
1 HOUR 15 MINUTES 100 12 50
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page.
2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Äæý*¿ñýO ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet _ ^èþ yìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
correct response against each item. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
Example : A B C D {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
where (C) is the correct response.
ç ³NÇ ^éÍ.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and
9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
II 1 A-08-02
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
Text of page 2
*A0802*
HE
RE
WR
ITE
NO
T
DO
II 2 A-08 -02
Text of page 3
*A0802*
EARTH SCIENCE
(Earth, Atmospheric,Ocean and Planetary Science)
Paper – II
1. The “Nebular Hypothesis” was proposed 4. The seismic velocities attain their
by
maximum value for the Earth in
(A) Laplace
(A) Outer Core
(B) Kant
(B) Inner Core
(C) Kant and Laplace independently
(D) Kant and Laplace together (C) Lower Mantle
2. The temperature of the “Moho” beneath (D) Upper Mantle
the continents ranges from
5. Which one of the following is a
(A) 700° C – 900° C
non – radioactive isotope of Lead ?
(B) 500° C – 700° C
(A) Pb204
(C) 200° C – 500° C
(B) Pb206
(D) 150° C – 200° C
(C) Pb207
3. Mohorovicic Discontinuity is marked by
(D) Pb208
(A) Gradual decrease in the seismic
wave velocities
6. Milky way is the
(B) Gradual increase in the seismic
wave velocities (A) Fog like star
(C) Abrupt decrease in the seismic (B) Band of planets
wave velocities
(C) Body of planets
(D) Abrupt increase in the seismic
(D) Galaxy that contains our solar system
wave velocities
II 3 A-08 -02
Text of page 4
*A0802*
7. The modern uses of Radioactive isotopes 11. Tridymite is formed at a temperature of
approximately
are :
(A) 573° C
(A) Archaeological dating
(B) 870° C
(B) Medicinal uses
(C) 1470° C
(C) Ford irradiation
(D) 1700° C
(D) All the above
12. The largest chromite deposit in India is
8. Geoid is
located at
(A) A solid generated by rotating an
ellipse (A) Suvinda
(B) A solid for which all plane sections (B) Kondapalle
through one axis are ellipse
(C) Agnigundala
(C) An equipotential gravity surface of
the Earth at mean sea level (D) Khetri
(D) An inequipotential gravity surface of 13. Olivine alters to serpentine by addition of
the Earth
(I) H O
2
9. The study of trace forth is known as
(II) SiO
(A) Ichthyology 2
(B) Ichnology (III) CO2
(C) Synecology (IV) F
(D) Paleoecology
The correct answer is
10. Which of the following planets has the
(A) I and II
least density ?
(B) I and III
(A) Mars
(B) Saturn (C) I and IV
(C) Pluto (D) II and III
(D) Venus
II 4 A-08 -02
Text of page 5
*A0802*
14. Assertion (A) : 16. Match the following and find the correct
Some minerals like Calcite are characterized answer :
by three sets of cleavage. List I List II
Reason (R) : I. Pearly lustre 1. Chalcopyrite
Presence of cleavage in minerals II. Adamantine lustre 2. Calcite
indicates ordered arrangement of ions in III. Metallic lustre 3. Muscorite
a particular plane. In the context of the IV. Vitreous lustre 4. Diamond
above two statements, which one of the Codes :
following is correct. I II III IV
(A) 3 2 1 4
(A) A is right but R is wrong
(B) 2 3 1 4
(B) Both A and R are right
(C) 3 4 1 2
(C) Both A and R are wrong (D) 4 1 2 3
(D) A is wrong but R is right 17. Match the following :
List I List II
15. Arrange the following minerals in I) Hogbacks 1) Flat topped hills or
the decreasing order of their hardness small mountains
II) Mesas 2) Erosional ridge with a
(I) Fluorite long gentle slope and
short steep slope on
(II) Augite other
III) Cuestas 3) Isolated mosses
(III) Corundum
without flat tops
(IV) Quartz IV) Butte 4) Long gentle slope on
one side and an abrupt
Codes : slope cliff on the other.
A) III, IV, II, I I II III IV
B) III, II, IV, I (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
C) III, I, II, IV
(C) 4 3 2 1
D) I, II, IV, III
(D) 2 1 4 3
II 5 A-08 -02
Text of page 6
*A0802*
18. The largest river basin of India 22. Remnants of oceanic crust is represented
by
(A) Ganga
(A) Tektite
(B) Brahmaputra
(B) Tholeiite
(C) Mahanadi
(C) Quartz – Tholeiite
(D) Krishna
(D) Ophiolite
19. The river Narmada originates at
23. Plates are made up of
(A) Satpura
(A) Crust only
(B) Brahmagir
(B) Crust and upper mantle
(C) Amarkantak
(C) Crust and whole of mantle
(D) Aravallis
(D) Crust, mantle and core
20. The portion of the sea enclosed within 24. Intense structural deformation of the earth’s
atoll is described as crust associated with plate tectonics is
(A) Barrier reef referred to
(A) Folding
(B) Lagoon
(B) Faulting
(C) Fringing reef
(C) Orogeny
(D) Bay bars
(D) Warping
21. Folding occurs when rocks behave as
25. Shallow focus earth quakes are generally
(A) Ductile solids due to
(B) Frozen solids (A) Normal faulting
(C) Fluids (B) Reverse faulting
(D) Brittle solids (C) Thrust faulting
(D) Gravity faulting
II 6 A-08 -02
Text of page 7
*A0802*
26. Gravity faults are formed due to 30. The latest theory explaining plate
tectonics is
(A) Compressive stress regime
(A) Triple Point Theory
(B) Tensile stress regime
(B) Slab – Pull Theory
(C) Shear stress regime
(C) Magnetic Theory
(D) Effects of torsional forces
(D) Expanding earth hypothesis
27. Strike slip faults of very deep – origin are
31. Ozone is formed primarily in the tropical
(A) Transcurrent faults
Latitudes at a height above ______ Kms.
(B) Strike – faults
(A) 15
(C) Dip slip fault
(B) 25
(D) Oblique faults
(C) 10
28. Decollement is a type of (D) 12
(A) Fold
32. The salinity of the Red sea is high due to
(B) Fault the process of
(C) Joint I. High evaporation
(D) Unconformity II. Low inflow from streams
III. Low precipitation
29. Thermal remanent magnetism is
acquired when mineral is cooled IV. Salt diapirism in the sea flour
(A) I, II, IV
(A) Above the curic temperature
(B) I, II, III
(B) Below the curic temperature
(C) II, III, IV
(C) At curic temperature (D) I, IV, III
(D) Randomly
II 7 A-08 -02
Text of page 8
*A0802*
33. Sachi disk is used to measure _______ 37. Most clouding form in association with
of sea.
the following processes of ___________
(A) Salinity
(B) Temperature (A) Expansion and cooling of
(C) Colour ascending air
(D) Density
(B) Expansion of air
34. A Body of coral reef occurring
approximately as a ring with a shallow (C) Cooling of air
body of marine water is turned as
(D) All
_________
(A) Lagoon 38. Present level of CO2 in the atmosphere
(B) Attol is about _______ ppmv
(C) Ridge
(A) 250
(D) All
35. The average height of tropical Easterly (B) 300
jet stream during June through
(C) 400
September is _________ Kms.
(A) 10 (D) 500
(B) 12
(C) 16 39. Tropical cyclones over the Bay of Bengal
(D) 21 are most likely to move in _____ direction
36. Indian Ocean Dipole has an apparent during April and May.
relationship with the _______ monsoon
(A) North warnd
rainfall.
(A) Summer (B) North west warnd
(B) Winter
(C) South warnd
(C) A and B
(D) West warnd
(D) None
II 8 A-08 -02
Text of page 9
*A0802*
40. Conditional instability of the atmosphere 42. Manganese Nodules contain
is represented by __________ (A) Only Manganese
~ ~
(A) s < r < (B) Manganese and iron
~
(B) s < r (C) Manganese and gas hydrate
~
(C) r > (D) Manganese , Iron, Nickel, Copper
~ ~ and Zinc
(D) s <
43. Which of these is not a benthonic
41. Assertion (A) : Extraction of Natural environment ?
resources like Minerals and
(A) Littoral
Hydrocarbons has impacts on
(B) Neritic
Environment leading to ill effects.
(C) Bathyl
Reason (R) : Addition of acid fumes and
(D) Hadal
toxic gases to atmosphere, pollution of
land by acid drainage, heavy metals 44. Total Dissolved Salts (TDS) in drinking
concentration in water courses, mine water should be close to
fires, land subsidence and conflicts with (A) 500 ppm
rights of the people living nearby mines (B) Zero ppm
are the consequences of Natural (C) 5,000 ppm
resource exploitation.
(D) 15,000 ppm
(A) Both A and R are false
45. Electromagnetic spectrum, used in
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is remote sensing, user wave lengths
insufficient explanation ranging from
(C) Both A and R are true and R is (A) 104 meters to 1A°
sufficient explanation (B) 1011 meters to 0.1 A°
(D) A is true but R is false (C) 107 meters to 0.1 A°
(D) 1014 meters to 0.001 A°
II 9 A-08 -02
Text of page 10
*A0802*
46. Assertion (A) : Earthquakes can be 48. Out of the four carbon isotopes, C10 to
predicted precisely C13, one is more abundant
Reason (R) : Areas prone to earthquakes (A) C
12
can often be identified with estimates like
(B) C11
maximum size and repeat interval
(C) C10
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
sufficient explanation (D) C13
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is 49. The Bombay High oil field is
insufficient explanation
(A) Reverse fault
(C) A is true but R is false
(B) Doubly plunging Anticline
(D) A is false but R is true
(C) Thrust fault
47. Assertion (A) : Ground water moves
(D) Normal fault
through Aquifers. Monitoring for Aquifer
contamination is important task. 50. Ghyben – Herz’sberg relationship says,
for every meter of fresh water in the
Reason (R) : Most aquifers are recharged
aquifer above sealevel, there is ______
where they are connected to the surface.
lens of fresh water below sealevel.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is
(A) 30 m
complete explanation
(B) 20 m
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a
complete explanation (C) 10 m
(C) A is true but R is false (D) 40 m
(D) A is false but R is true
__________________
II 10 A-08 -02
Text of page 11
*A0802*
Space for Rough Work
II 11 A-08 -02
Text of page 12
*A0802*
Space for Rough Work
II 12 A-08 -02Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 12
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.