TS SET 2013: Paper II, Geography

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SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-01-02 GEOGRAPHY II
HALL TICKET NUMBER
QUESTION BOOKLET NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
1 HOUR 15 MINUTES 100 8 50
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page.
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2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
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the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
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without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^鯿ÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
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correct booklet from the invigilator within the period Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
correct response against each item. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
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where (C) is the correct response.
ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#鯿ÿ$.
invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and
9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
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GEOGRAPHY
Paper – II
1. The topological process of stretching/ 5. As per Wegener’s continental Drift theory,
shrinking a part of a map to fit in the first breaking of Pangaea took place
registration with selected control points is between the present day
called (A) Africa and Eurasia
(A) Scrubbing
(B) Rectification (B) Eurasia and North America
(C) Polygonization (C) South America and Africa
(D) Rubber sheeting (D) South America and Australia
2. Identify the descending hierarchy of 6. Consider the following statements and
developmental poles identify the correct answer using the codes
(A) Growth Point-Growth Centre-Growth given below
Pole
1. Swash and Backwash are terms
(B) Growth Centre-Growth Pole-Growth
Point associated with sea wave action
(C) Growth Pole-Growth Centre-Growth 2. When a sand bar connects an island
Point with the mainland it is called spit
(D) Growth Point-Growth Pole-Growth 3. Stack refers to a rocky islet or pillar
Centre cut off from a headland by sea
3. Consider the following statements and erosion
identify the correct answer using the
codes given below : Codes :
1. Brazil is the largest producer of coffee (A) 1 and 2 are correct
in the world
2. Vietnam is the second largest (B) 1 and 3 are correct
producer of coffee in the world (C) 2 and 3 are correct
3. India is the third largest producer of (D) Only 3 is correct
coffee in the world
Codes : 7. The temperate grasslands in Africa are
known as
(A) 1 and 3 are correct (A) Downs
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Steppe
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 1 is correct (C) Veldt
(D) Prairie
4. Assertion (A) : In the upper course of the
river, vertical erosion is 8. Which is the correct sequence of states
more rapid than lateral as per their rank in population density as
erosion. per census 2011 ?
Reasoning (R) : Waterfalls and Rapids are (A) Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar
associated with the upper Pradesh
course of the river.
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is (B) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar
the correct explanation for ‘A’ Pradesh
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is (C) West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh,
not the correct explanation for ‘A’ Bihar
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false (D) Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true Bengal
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9. Consider the following statements and 14. Choose the correct answer from the given
identify the correct answer using the codes codes against their sequences of regions
given below based on levels of development
1. Drumlins are landforms due to (A) Assam-Chhatisgarh-Punjab
glacial erosion (B) Chhattisgarh-Punjab-Assam
2. Drumlins have a steep slope on one (C) Punjab-Assam-Chhattisgarh
side and a gentle slope on the other (D) Punjab-Chhattisgarh-Assam
3. They occur usually in groups
15. Which type of climate classification
Codes : scheme uses vegetation pattern as a
(A) Only 2 is correct prominent base ?
(B) Only 3 is correct (A) Miller (B) Supan
(C) 1 and 2 are correct (C) Koppen (D) Thornthwaite
(D) 2 and 3 are correct 16. As per Koppen’s classification, the Humid
10. Consider the following statements and subtropics are given the symbol
identify the correct answer using the codes (A) Af (B) Cf
given below (C) Df (D) As
1. At present, total urban population is 17. Assertion (A) : Salinity is very high in Dead
more than the total rural population Sea
in the world
2. Next to Tokyo, Delhi is the second Reasoning (R) : In enclosed seas with no
largest city outlet, evaporation rates
3. Developing countries account only are higher
for 60% of the urban population (A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
growth currently the correct explanation for ‘A’
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not
Codes : the correct explanation for ‘A’
(A) Only 1 is correct (C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(B) 1 and 2 are correct (D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(C) 1 and 3 are correct 18. Identify the correct sequence of clockwise
(D) 2 and 3 are correct circulation of given ocean currents in the
11. The only major iron mining area beyond North Atlantic Ocean
Arctic circle is (A) North Atlantic Drift, Florida,
(A) Mesabi (B) Urals Caribbean, Gulf Stream
(C) Karanganda (D) Kiruna (B) Gulf Stream, Florida, Caribbean,
12. Find out the correct sequence of countries North Atlantic
based on the potential oil reserves (C) Caribbean, Florida, Gulf Stream,
(A) Iran, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait North Atlantic Drift
(B) Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, (D) Caribbean, Gulf Stream, Florida,
Indonesia North Atlantic Drift
(C) Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, Canada, 19. Among the following Geographers who
Iraq have made the seminal contribution to
(D) Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, USA, Iraq British school of Geography ?
13. Which of the following nation is not a (A) W.M. Davis and Powell
member of CIS ? (B) Peter Haggett and H.J. Chorley
(A) Romania (B) Lativia (C) Von. Hamboldt and Carl Ritter
(C) Georgia (D) Ukraine (D) Jean Brunhes and Defontaine
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20. Occlusion refers to the 26. A projection in which the cylinder, instead
(A) Origin of tropical cyclone of touching the globe only at the equator,
is sunk into its surface and coincides with
(B) Origin of temperate cyclone the surface at 45° N and 45° S latitude
(C) Termination of tropical cyclone (A) Mercator’s projection
(D) Termination of temperate cyclone (B) Galle’s projection
(C) Bonne’s projection
21. Water vapour is turned into water droplets (D) Molleweide’s projection
by the process of
27. Agulhas is a warm current flowing in
(A) Evaporation (B) Liquifaction
(A) North Indian Ocean
(C) Convection (D) Condensation (B) North Atlantic Ocean
22. Which of the following is correct with (C) South Indian Ocean
regard to the Tropical cyclone ? (D) South Pacific Ocean
(A) Pressure increases towards the 28. Consider the following statements and
centre identify the correct answer using the codes
given below
(B) Wind moves in an anticlock-wise 1. Evidence proved that DDT is
direction in the northern hemisphere transferred only through water
(C) Pressure doesnot vary appreciably 2. Minamata incident resulted due to
within the cyclone water pollution
3. The London tragedy of 1952 was
(D) Pressure decreases towards the mainly caused by smog
centre and then increases
Codes :
23. Identify the correct sequence of processes
before the formation of clouds (A) Only 2 is correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(A) Evaporation, condensation, (C) 1 and 3 are correct
Saturation (D) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Condensation, saturation, 29. The state having the largest area under
evaporation black soil is
(C) Saturation, condensation, (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra
evaporation (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Evaporation, saturation, 30. Which represents the longitudinal division
condensation of Himalayas
(A) Kumaon
24. In terms of size of countries which are odd is (B) Siwalik
(A) USA and Canada (C) Lesser Himalayas
(B) Monaco and Iceland (D) Himadri
(C) Russia and China 31. The shola forests are widely seen in
(D) Brazil and India (A) The Nilgiris (B) Malwa Plateau
(C) Khasi Hills (D) Siwaliks
25. Which of the following local wind is 32. Which region has the highest probability
nicknamed as ‘The Doctor’ ? of occurrence of drought
(A) Telengana
(A) Khamsin (B) Sirocco (B) Kungu Uplands
(C) Harmattan (D) Loo (C) West Madhya Pradesh
(D) South Interior Karnataka
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33. In Indian Census class III towns have a 37. Assertion (A) : Landslides are more
population of common in Himalayan
(A) 20,000 – 50,000 region
(B) 50,000 – 1,00,000
(C) 1,00,000 – 2,00,000 Reasoning (R) : Himalayas are made up of
(D) 2,00,000 – 5,00,000 granite and gneiss rock
formation
34. Assertion (A) : Gujarat is one of the major (A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
states in India significant the correct explanation for ‘A’
for production of groundnut (B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not
Reasoning (R) : Gujarat has large area the correct explanation for ‘A’
under black soil (C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
Codes : (D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is 38. In Demographic Transition, the Declining
the correct explanation for ‘A’ birth rate and Declining death rate are
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not associated with
the correct explanation for ‘A’ (A) Low stationary stage
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false (B) High stationary stage
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true (C) Early expanding stage
35. Identify the correct sequence of iron and (D) Late Expanding stage
steel Industries based on date of starting 39. List out the correct sequence of fluvial
(A) Bokaro, Rourkela, Jamshedpur, landforms from upper course to the lower
Badravathi course of a river
(B) Jamshedpur, Badravathi, Rourkela, (A) Meander, Gorge, Estuary
Bokaro (B) Estuary, Meander, Gorge
(C) Rourkela, Jamshedpur, Badravathi, (C) Gorge, Meander, Estuary
Bokaro (D) Gorge, Estuary, Meander
(D) Badravathi, Rourkela, Jamshedpur,
Bokaro 40. Which among the following is an example
for Azonal soil ?
36. Match List I with List II and identify the
(A) Laterite
correct answer using the codes given
below (B) Alluvium
(C) Chernozem
List I List II (D) Podzol
I. Karanpura 1. Coal
II. Panna 2. Diamond 41. Identify the correct ranking sequence of
III. Ankaleshwar 3. Oil states as per their area under cotton in
IV. Jaduguda 4. Uranium India
(A) Hariyana, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh,
Codes : Maharashtra
I II III IV (B) Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat ,
Maharashtra, Hariyana
(A) 4 2 1 3 (C) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
(B) 1 2 3 4 Gujarat, Hariyana
(C) 3 1 2 4 (D) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andra Pradesh,
(D) 2 3 4 1 Hariyana
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42. Assertion (A) : Lapies develop in 46. Match List I with List II and identify the
limestone regions correct answer using the codes given
below
Reasoning (R) : Limestone is a highly
jointed rock List I (Terms) List II (Process)
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is I. Slump 1. Wave deposition
the correct explanation for ‘A’ II. Tombolo 2. Karst region
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not III. Yazoo 3. Mass wasting
the correct explanation for ‘A’
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false IV. Lapies 4. Wave erosion
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true 5. Middle course of a
river
43. Assertion (A) : Sex Ratio in metropolitan
cities is mostly negative Codes :
Reasoning (R) : Female migration to the I II III IV
metropolitan areas is more (A) 2 1 4 3
than male migration
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is (B) 4 2 1 5
the correct explanation for ‘A’ (C) 3 1 5 2
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not (D) 2 3 4 1
the correct explanation for ‘A’
47. A nation which inspired India to have river
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
valley multipurpose project is
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(A) Russia
44. A good example for interstitial strategic (B) United States of America
location is
(A) Moscow (B) Newyork (C) United Kingdom
(C) Istanbul (D) Tashkent (D) Japan
45. Match List I with List II and identify the 48. Which of the following is not a coal mining
correct answer using the codes given region ?
below (A) Shenshi
List I (Author) List II (Concepts) (B) Ruhr
I. Nelson 1. Primate city (C) Karaganda
II. Newling 2. Urban land use (D) Mesabi
model
III. Jefferson 3. F u n c t i o n a l 49. Identify the correct sequence of tea
classification of producers based on their rank
towns (A) Japan-Sri Lanka-India
IV. Burgess 4. Slum (B) India-Japan-Sri Lanka
5. Urban population (C) India-Sri Lanka-Japan
density
(D) Sri Lanka-Japan-India
Codes : 50. Concept of Comprehensive Development
I II III IV Planning (CDP) is applicable to
(A) 2 1 4 3 (A) Panchayath level nodal region
(B) 3 5 1 2 (B) Tribal region
(C) 4 5 3 1 (C) Metropolitan region
(D) 3 2 1 5 (D) River valley region
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Space for Rough Work
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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.