TS SET 2013: Paper II, Law
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SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-14-02 LAW II
HALL TICKET NUMBER
QUESTION BOOKLET NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
1 HOUR 15 MINUTES 100 12 50
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page.
2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Äæý*¿ñýO ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet _ ^èþ yìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
correct response against each item. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
Example : A B C D {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
where (C) is the correct response.
ç ³NÇ ^éÍ.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and
9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
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LAW
Paper – II
1. Which one of the following is the correct 4. Match the following and select the correct
order of the objectives enshrined in the answer from the code
Preamble ?
List – I List – II
(A) Liberty of thought, belief, expression,
I. Right to Education 1. Chameli Singh V.
faith and worship State of U.P.
(B) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, II. Right to Medical 2. D.K. Basu V.
faith and worship Assistance State of West
(C) Liberty of expression, belief, thought, Bengal
worship and faith III. Right to Shelter 3. Unni Krishnan V.
(D) Liberty of belief, thought, expression, State of A.P.
faith and worship IV. Right against Torture 4. P a r a m a n a n d a
2. Which one of the following is not a State Katara V. Union
of India
under Art. 12 of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) University of Madras Code :
(B) Oil and Natural Gas Commission I II III IV
(C) State Bank of India (A) 3 1 4 2
(D) BCCI (B) 4 2 3 1
3. In which of the following cases the Apex (C) 3 4 1 2
Court observed that the reservation for (D) 2 3 1 4
Backward Classes may be made even
outside the scope of Art. 16 (4). 5. Directive Principles of State policy are
(A) State of Kerala V. N.M. Thomas (A) Negative Injunctions of the State
(B) Balaji V. State of Mysore (B) Positive Commands
(C) Narasimha Rao V. State of A.P. (C) Moral Precepts of the State
(D) Devadasan V. Union of India (D) All the above
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6. Which one of the following is not a correct 8. The nature of Law administered in the
statement relating to ordinance making Courts maintained by the military
authorities
power of the President ?
(A) Local Law
(A) President alone can promulgate (B) Prize Law
ordinance (C) Martial Law
(D) Conventional Law
(B) Ordinance is an executive action
9. The President of India has power to
(C) President can issue ordinance when
declare emergency under Art. 352 on
both the Houses are not in session which of the following grounds ?
(D) Ordinance can be challenged for I. War
non-application of mind II. Internal disturbance
III. External aggression
7. Which one of the following statements IV. Armed rebellion
refer to epistolary jurisdiction of the
Code :
Supreme Court of India ? (A) I, III and IV
(B) I, II and III
(A) Original jurisdiction under Art. 141
(C) I, II and IV
(B) Taking cognizance of public interest
(D) II, III and IV
litigation matters through letters
10. The Constitution (Ninety-seventh)
addressed to the Court Amendment Act, 2011 relates to
(C) Enforcement of decrees of Supreme (A) Change of ‘Oriya’ into ‘Odia’
(B) ‘Chattisgarh’ and ‘Jharkhand’ for
Court under Art. 142
‘Bihar’
(D) Advisory opinion of the Supreme (C) Co-operative Societies
Court under Art. 143 (D) Service Tax
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11. Which one of the following sets does not 14. Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of
‘Social engineering’ which means
represent tests of authority of custom ?
(A) Greatest happiness to greatest
(A) Continuance, peaceable enjoyment
number of people
(B) Antiquity, obligatory force (B) Balancing of competing interests in
the society
(C) Certainty, reasonableness
(C) Changes in the concepts and the
(D) Codification, moral
function of the State
12. The Supreme Court of India in (D) Law has its source in the general
consciousness
A.K. Gopalan case decided that the
expression procedure established by law 15. Which one of the following theories is
based on the principle that punishment
in Art. 21 of the Constitution means any
should be of such a nature so as to prove
procedure prescribed by law irrespective deterrent not only for the wrongdoer but
of its reasonableness or otherwise. This also for the society ?
(A) Preventive theory
decision belongs to the school of
(B) Reformative theory
(A) Positivist approach
(C) Retributive theory
(B) Naturalist approach (D) Deterrent theory
(C) Sociological approach 16. Identify the INCORRECT proposition
(D) Philosophical approach (A) Animus and corpus are necessary for
possession
13. Dharma implies
(B) Physical control is essential for
(A) Law ownership
(C) Possession is lost if animus and
(B) Justice
corpus are lost
(C) Both law and justice
(D) Possession is the prima facie
(D) None of the above evidence of ownership
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17. Who is the exponent of the theory of 21. Total number of Articles in Universal
monism ? Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
(A) Kelson (A) 20
(B) Austin (B) 18
(C) 25
(C) Holland
(D) 30
(D) Hugo Groticis
22. Arrange the sources of Hindu law in
18. Which of the following theories applicable
chronological order
to recognition ?
(I) Smriti
(A) Dualism theory
(II) Custom
(B) Declaratory theory
(III) Digests and commentaries
(C) Clean slate theory
(IV) Sruti
(D) Functional necessity theory
Code :
19. Which of the following countries is NOT a (A) (I) (IV) (II) (III)
permanent member of Security Council ? (B) (IV) (I) (III) (II)
(A) USA (C) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(B) France (D) (IV) (III) (I) (II)
(C) Japan
23. Who is a Hindu ?
(D) UK (A) One who is born to Hindu father and
Hindu mother
20. ECOSOC consists of how many
(B) One who is born to Hindu father and
members ?
Sikh mother
(A) 15
(C) One who is born to Hindu mother and
(B) 54
Muslim father but is brought up like
(C) 20 Hindu
(D) All members of UNO (D) All the above
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24. Bride’s age is 10 yrs. Bridegroom’s age is 28. As a general principle of Law of Contract,
12 yrs. Their marriage is which one of the following is NOT an
essential of a valid contract ?
(A) Void
(A) Writing
(B) Voidable (B) Competency to contract
(C) Valid (C) Lawful consideration and lawful
(D) Invalid object
(D) Free consent
25. Dastane Vs Dastane case deals with
29. Consider the following statements
which ground of divorce ?
1) An agreement made without
(A) Desertion consideration is void
(B) Cruelty 2) Consideration should have some
value in the eye of law
(C) Adultery
3) Consideration has to be adequate.
(D) Conversion
Which of the statements given above is/
26. Divorce by Muslim husband on request of are correct ?
his wife willing to forego dower in (A) 1, 2, 3
consideration for divorce is known as (B) 1, 2
(C) 1, 3
(A) Muta
(D) 3 only
(B) Zihar
30. Consider the following statements
(C) Khula
1) Void contract means an agreement
(D) Mubaraa which is perfectly valid at the
inception but rendered void due to
27. If the sum fixed represents a genuine pre
subsequent developments.
estimate of the probable damages that are
2) Void agreement is an agreement
likely to result from a breach of contract, it which is void from the inception.
is considered as
Which of the statements given above
(A) Liquidated damages is/are correct ?
(B) Penal damages (A) 1 only
(C) Special damages (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) General damages
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
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31. The given item consists of two statements 32. When the promisor declares that he will
not perform the contract even before the
one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the
time is ripe to perform the same. Which of
other as Reason (R). Examine these two the following courses of action available
statements carefully and select the to promisee ?
1) Can wait till the stipulated time is over
answers to these items using the codes
and then sue
given below. 2) Can sue immediately even before the
stipulated time
Assertion A : Applicant under
3) Can sue only after he performs his
voluntary retirement part of contract deal
scheme is bound to 4) Can sue only after offering extra time
to promisor to reconsider his decision
retire once the employer
to withdraw
receives the application. (A) I, II & III
(B) I & II
Reason R : Applicant need not retire
(C) I & IV
because his application (D) II & III
amounts to offer of 33. The main supporter of the theory that it is
a law of tort but not law of torts is
retirement through
(A) Winfield
V.R.S. scheme.
(B) Salmond
(C) Fleming
(A) Both A and R are individually true
(D) Kelsen
and R is the correct explanation of A
34. The Rule in Rylands Vs Fletcher does not
(B) Both A and R are individually true but apply when the escape is due to
R is not the correct explanation of A (A) Inevitable accident
(B) Lis Major
(C) A is true but R is false
(C) Negligence of the defendant
(D) A is false but R is true (D) Mistake
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35. Which one of the following acts correctly 38. A without provocation makes a false
identifies the specific defences available statement in a gathering that B is suffering
from AIDS. Here A is
in an action for defamation ?
(A) Not liable because there is no
(A) Privilege, truth, fair comment defamation
(B) Not liable because defence of
(B) Privilege, mistake, fair comment
privilege available to him
(C) Truth, mistake, fair comment (C) Liable because it is a slander
actionable per se
(D) Truth, privilege, mistake
(D) Liable because the statement is
made in presence of B
36. The maxim Ubi jus ibi remedium means
39. What is the age of a child if he is to be
(A) Where there is suffering there is
exempted from criminal liability ?
remedy (A) Below 10 years
(B) Below 7 years
(B) No violation, no damage
(C) Below 6 years
(C) Where there is a right, there is (D) Below 12 years
remedy 40. Defence of insanity is developed on which
of the following ?
(D) Right does not lead to damage
(A) Automation
37. In case of damage caused by escape of (B) Mc Naughten’s rules
(C) Irresistible impulse
ferocious animals, the person having
(D) Equivocality test
control over will be liable for any damage
41. A, an officer of a court is ordered by the
caused Court to affect the arrest of P. But believing
Q to be P, he arrests Q. A is guilty of
(A) Only on proof of negligence
(A) Illegal arrest
(B) Even without proof of negligence (B) No offence if after enquiries he
arrested
(C) Only on proof of malice
(C) Wrongful restraint
(D) On proof of animals nature (D) Wrongful confinement
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42. Which of the following offences against 47. Under I.D. Act 1947 an existing
women are dealt under Indian Penal Code ? industrial dispute may be referred to
1) Outraging the modesty of woman arbitration
2) Rape (A) by a written agreement
3) Insulting the women (B) by an oral agreement
4) Sedation (C) by a registered agreement
(D) none of the above
Code :
(A) 1, 2, 3 48. U/S 22(1) of the I.D. Act 1947 once
notice is given by the person he shall
(B) 1, 3, 4
go on strike
(C) 2, 3, 4
(A) within 8 weeks from the date of
(D) 1, 2, 4
giving notice
43. Common intention implies (B) within 9 weeks from the date of
(A) Similar intention giving notice
(B) Pre-arranged planning (C) within 5 weeks from the date of
(C) Presence of common knowledge giving notice
(D) Common design for common objects (D) within 6 weeks from the date of
giving notice
44. The Actus reus is made up of
(A) Physical Act 49. Retrenchment under Section 2(00) of
(B) Mental Condition the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 involves
(C) Conduct (A) Voluntary retirement of the
workman
(D) Injury
(B) Retirement on reaching age of
45. Doctor’s clinic superannuation
(A) is an industry under I.D. Act 1947 (C) Termination of services of a
(B) is not an industry under I.D. Act 1947 workman on grounds of continued
(C) is an industry in exceptional case ill health
(D) none of the above (D) None of the above
46. Registration of ‘Trade Union’ 50. Right to form trade union is
(A) is compulsory (A) Fundamental Right
(B) is not compulsory (B) Constitutional Right
(C) only in case of govt. industries it is (C) Statutory Right
compulsory (D) Both Fundamental Right and
(D) none of the above Statutory Right
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Space for Rough Work
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Page 1 of 12
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.