TS SET 2013: Paper II, Life Sciences
Text of page 1
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-09-02 LIFE SCIENCES II
HALL TICKET NUMBER
QUESTION BOOKLET NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
1 HOUR 15 MINUTES 100 16 50
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
top of this page.
2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Äæý*¿ñýO ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet _ ^èþ yìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË çÜ Qůèþ$
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$ çÜ º «¨ _ V>±
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³ M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È> ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ. èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
correct response against each item. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
Example : A B C D {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
where (C) is the correct response.
ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Answer Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
in the circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to ò³rtyæþ V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
II } 1 A-09-02
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
Text of page 2
*A0902*
HE
RE
WR
ITE
NO
T
DO
II } 2 A-09-02
Text of page 3
*A0902*
LIFE SCIENCES
Paper – II
1. Choose the correct sequence in signal 3. The correct sequence of gastrulation in
transduction pathway. Frog is
I. Hormone I. Involution
II. 7 TM Receptor II. Epiboly
III. G protein III. Invagination
IV. cAMP IV. Convergence
(A) III & IV are correct
V. PKA
(B) I & II are correct
(A) I → II → III → IV → V
(C) I, II & III are correct
(B) II → III → IV → V → I
(D) IV & I are correct
(C) III → IV → V → I → II
(D) IV → V → I → II → III 4. Origin of first seed plants occurred during
(A) Carboniferous
2. Identify the correct order of seminal tract
(B) Ordovician
in male reproductive system.
(C) Devonian
(A) Vas deferens, Ejaculatory duct,
(D) Silurian
Epididymis, Urethra
(B) Epididymis, Vas deferens, Ejaculatory 5. The 11th conference of parties to CBD
duct, Urethra meeting was held at
(C) Ejaculatory duct, Vas deferens, (A) Bangalore
Epididymis, Urethra (B) Kolkata
(D) Epididymis, Ejaculatory duct, (C) New Delhi
Vas deferens, Urethra (D) Hyderabad
II } 3 A-09-02
Text of page 4
*A0902*
6. Write the order of Rhizosphere effect in 8. Specify the order of fractionation upon
applied agriculture application of the following organellae in
cell-free extract in differential
I. Algae
centrifugation
II. Fungi I. Nucleus
II. Golgi
III. Bacteria
III. Peroxisomes
IV. Actinomycetes
IV. Mitochondria
(A) I, II, III, IV (A) II, III, IV and I
(B) II, III, IV, I (B) III, II, IV and I
(C) I, IV, III and II
(C) III, IV, II, I
(D) I, IV, II and III
(D) IV, III, II, I
9. Match inventors in List I with discoveries
7. In the cell cycle of a typical eukaryote, the in List II.
List I List II
sequence of events operating at the time
I. Knoll and Ruska 1. Restriction
of cell division is
endonuclease
(A) S phase → G2 phase → G1 phase → II. Meellis 2. Electron
M phase microscopy
III. Arber and Smith 3. Reverse
(B) S phase → M phase → G1 phase →
transcriptase
G2 phase
IV. Baltimore 4. PCR
(C) S phase → G2 phase → M phase I II III IV
→ G1 phase (A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(D) S phase → G1 phase → M phase
(C) 3 4 1 2
→ G2 phase (D) 2 4 3 1
II } 4 A-09-02
Text of page 5
*A0902*
10. Arrange the following “suffixes” of names 12. Given below are two statements :
of taxonomic ranks from top rank to low in Assertion (A) : DNA fragments /
the light of ICBN rules molecules are usually
1. “ales” separated on Agarose
gels but not on
2. “oideae”
polyacrylamide gels in
3. “opsida”
an electrical field.
4. “aceae”
Reason (R) : Agarose gels contain
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
smaller size pores
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
through which DNA
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2 molecules of larger
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4 size migrate easily.
(A) A is true but R is not correct
11. Specify sequential order of occurrence of
explanation for A
the following events for utilisation of
(B) A is true and R is false
lactose by E. coli cells
(C) Both A and R are false
I. Synthesis of all biomolecules needed
(D) A is false but R is true
for growth
13. Pick up the correct combinations from the
II. Metabolism of galactose and glucose
following :
through glycolytic pathway
1. Rhizophora mucronata – halophyte
III. Hydrolysis of lactose to galactose and
2. Capparis aphylla – xerophyte
glucose
3. Salicornia herbacea – hydrophyte
IV. Transport of lactose into E. coli cells
4. Picea species – sciophyte
(A) I, II, III, IV
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) II, I, III, IV (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) IV, III, II, I (C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) III, I, IV, II (D) 1 and 3
II } 5 A-09-02
Text of page 6
*A0902*
14. Brinjal, cabbage, cauliflower lettuce, 17 . Consider the following statements :
potato, radish and tomato belong to Linkage is the phenomenon in which
1. The effect of linkage is more clearly
(A) only one plant family noticeable in back cross generation
(B) two plant families 2. The intensity of linkage between two
genes is indirectly proportional to the
(C) three plant families distance between them
3. Linked genes do not show
(D) four plant families
independent segregation
15. In pseudo allelism, genes are 4. The frequency of recombination
between two linked genes can not
(A) structurally allelic and functionally exceed 50%
Which of the statements given above
non-allelic
are correct ?
(B) structurally as well as functionally (A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
non-allelic
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(C) functionally allelic and structurally (D) 1, 2 and 3
non-allelic 18. Match the following pathogen and related
type of vaccine.
(D) structurally as well as functionally
I. Hepatitis – A 1. Live attenuated
allelic II. Rotavirus 2. Inactivated
III. Tetanus 3. Recombinant
16. Haemolysis is the process in which IV. Hepatitis – B 4. Inactivated
exotoxin
(A) All the blood cells are destroyed
I II III IV
(B) Only RBC are destroyed (A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) Only WBC are destroyed
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) Only platelets are destroyed (D) 4 3 2 1
II } 6 A-09-02
Text of page 7
*A0902*
19. Assertion (A) : Genetic engineering can 21. Assertion (A) : Geographical isolation
be used to develop occurs when original
transgenic animals population is divided
capable of producing by geological barrier.
proteins of pharmaceutical
Reason (R) : These population due
value, process called
to mutation in their
Pharming.
gene pool do
Reason (R) : Proteins of this type are interbreed when they
not made in an active contact again.
form by microorganisms
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
or by plants.
correct explanation
Which of these statements are correct ? (B) Both A and R are true but R is not
(A) A is correct but R is wrong the correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are correct (C) A is true but R is false
(C) Both A and R are wrong (D) A is false but R is true
(D) R is correct but A is wrong
22. Assertion (A) : Rapid extinction of
20. Match the following : species observed in
List I List II tropical countries.
I. Latimeria 1. Connecting link
Reason (R) : Intensive agriculture
II. Archaeopteryx 2. Mutation theory practices are common
III. HMS Beagle 3. Living Fossil in tropical countries.
IV. Evening Primrose 4. Charles Darwin (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
Codes : correct explanation of (A)
I II III IV (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(A) 1 3 4 2
not correct explanation of (A)
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 3 2 4 (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) 3 1 2 4 (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
II } 7 A-09-02
Text of page 8
*A0902*
23. Small intestine consists of these parts 26. Which one of the following is correctly
matched ?
I. Duodenum
(A) The number of – carrying
II. Jejunum
individuals in each capacity
III. Ileum
population in any
IV. Caecum
ecosystem is limited
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I, II and IV are correct (B) The common plant – salicornia
(C) I, III and IV are correct used as green
(D) II, III and IV are correct manure
(C) Epiphytic orchids are – moist
24. Which one of the following cell is diploid ?
abundantly seen deciduous
(A) Primary polar body
forest
(B) Spermatid
(D) Amphibious plant – Nymphaea
(C) Primary spermatocyte
27. Assertion (A) : Overgrazing contributes
(D) Spermatozoa
to “endemism”.
25. Which of the following pair of plants are
Reason (R) : Overgrazing affects the
C4 plants ?
species diversity.
I. Maize, Sugarcane
In the context of above statements, which
II. Pea, Rose
one of the following statement is correct ?
III. Potato, Rice
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
IV. Sorghum, Bajra the correct explanation of (A)
(A) I & II are correct (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(B) III & II are correct not correct explanation of (A)
(C) II & IV are correct (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) I & IV are correct (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
II } 8 A-09-02
Text of page 9
*A0902*
28. Cell cycle regulators are 31. Arrange the following in correct path of
(A) cdks energy flow in an ecosystem :
(B) cyclins 1. decomposers
(C) cyclins and cdks 2. herbivores
(D) cyclases 3. producers
29. Sperm lysins include 4. carnivores
I. Hyaluronidase (A) 3, 2, 4, 1
II. Acrosin (B) 2, 3, 4, 1
III. Pepsin (C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
IV. Antifertilizin
(A) I & II are correct 32. Study the following lists and match them :
(B) II & III are correct List I List II
(C) III & IV are correct th
I. 20 century 1. Genetic
(D) I & IV are correct engineering
30. Assertion (A) : Translocation heterozygotes studies
th
are semisterile and II. 18 century 2. Taxonomy and
accompanied with physiology
th
multivalent association. III. 17 century 3. Role of
chromosomes
Reason (R) : The gametes formed
in heredity
through alternate
th
disfunction are functional IV. 19 century 4. Discovery of
while those formed by cell
adjacent disfunction are 5. Laws of
non viable. Inheritance
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is Codes :
correct explanation of (A) I II III IV
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is (A) 1 2 4 5
not correct explanation of (A) (B) 3 2 4 5
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) 1 2 5 4
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) 3 4 2 5
II } 9 A-09-02
Text of page 10
*A0902*
33. Transcription activator protein 36. Assertion (A) : The Larynx or voice
box is responsible
(A) Transcribe a message off a DNA
for the production of
template
sound and the pitch
(B) Bring regions near in eukaryotic gene
of voice.
and allow gene to be transcribed
(C) Bind to ribosomes to activate the Reason (R) : Without vocal cords
help the sound
production of specific protein
cannot be produced.
(D) Are essential to function of tRNA
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ true and ‘R’ is the
during translation
correct explanation
34. Which of the following sequences is most (B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ true but ‘R’ is not
common in territorial behaviour ? the correct explanation
(A) Threat, combat, advertisement (C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(B) Advertisement, threat, combat (D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(C) Combat, threat, advertisement
37. Match the following blood cells and their
(D) Threat, advertisement, combat nucleus shape.
35. The faithful replication of genomic DNA is List I List II
facilitated by (Blood cell) (Nucleus shape)
I. Insertion of correct complementary I. Neutrophils 1. Bi-lobed
bases as guided by the template DNA II. Eosinophils 2. K i d n e y
strand shape
II. Proof reading function of DNA pol III III. Basophils 3. Multi lobed
III. Proof reading function of DNA pol I IV. Limphocytes 4. Oval shape
IV. 5′ → 3′ exonuclease activity of DNA Code :
pol III I II III IV
(A) I and IV are correct (A) 3 1 2 4
(B) II and III are correct (B) 1 2 4 3
(C) II, III and IV are correct (C) 2 1 4 3
(D) I, II and III are correct (D) 4 2 1 3
II } 10 A-09-02
Text of page 11
*A0902*
39. Match the following :
38. List I consists of some terms and List II
I. Hapten 1. Necrosis
includes their corresponding examples.
II. J-chain 2. Shoot apex
Select the code showing correct matching.
III. High conc. of
List I List II Auxinin 3. Monovalent
(Terms) (Examples) IV. Sudden death
of cells 4. IgA
I. Guttation 1. Shrinkage of
I II III IV
cells in
(A) 1 2 3 4
hypertonic (B) 4 3 2 1
solution (C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
II. Imbibition 2. Loss of water in
transpiration 40. Statement (A) : Both chlorophyll a and
chlorophyll b contain
III. Plasmolysis 3. Swelling of
C, H, O, N and Mg.
seeds during However they differ
germination structurally.
IV. Diffusion 4. Exudation of Reason (R) : Chlorophyll a and
chlorophyll b differ with
water from
each other with regard to
leaves
the number of carbon
Codes : and nitrogen atoms.
I II III IV In the context of above two statements
which one of the following is correct ?
(A) 4 3 1 2
(A) A is wrong R is correct
(B) 3 1 2 4
(B) A is wrong B is wrong
(C) 1 3 4 2 (C) A is correct B is wrong
(D) 2 3 1 4 (D) A is correct B is correct
II } 11 A-09-02
Text of page 12
*A0902*
43. Which one of the following is NOT correct
41. If in 8 hours an exponentially growing cell
matched pair ?
6
population increases from 2 × 10 to (A) Sigma factor – Transcription
9
2 × 10 cells/ml, calculate generation time (B) Rho factor – Translation
(C) Amino acyl – Attachment of
(A) 51.6 min
synthetase amino acid to
(B) 87.2 min tRNA
(D) Primase – DNA
(C) 21.8 min
replication
(D) 10.9 min 44. Which one of the pairs is NOT correctly
matched ?
42. Given below are two statements, one
(A) P element – Drosophila
labeled as Assertion (A) and other labeled (B) Composite transposon – Tn10
as Reason (R). (C) Complex transposon – Tn3
(D) Retro transposon – Mu
Assertion (A) : In the zygote, there is no
45. Given below are two statements.
cytoplasmic contribution
Assertion (A) : In view of availability of
from parental side. amino acids – Histidine
and Tryptophan in the
Reason (R) : The cytoplasmic part of medium, their synthesis
by E. coli cells does not
the sperm is discarded
take place.
just before fertilization.
Reason (R) : Synthesis of the above
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is two amino acids by
E. coli cells is regulated
the correct explanation
by attenuation process.
(B) Both (A) and (R) false (A) A is wrong and R is correct
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is (B) A is correct and R is correct
explanation of A
not correct explanation of (A)
(C) A and R are wrong
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) A is correct and R is wrong
II } 12 A-09-02
Text of page 13
*A0902*
46. DNA microarray technique 48. Phaeoporphyrin nucleus of chlorophyll a
contains ________ double bonds in a
I. is used to assess transcription from
conjugated fashion.
multiple genes at a time
(A) 10
II. works best for organisms whose
(B) 11
genomes are completely sequenced
(C) 13
III. Uses gene chip
(D) 9
IV. Scanners employ lasers, special
49. In photosystem II of photosynthesis, the
microscope and camera to create
order of flow of electrons through different
image of array carriers
(A) I, II, III, IV are correct (A) Plastoquinone, plastocyanin,
(B) I, II, III are correct cytochrome – 559, cytochrome – 553
(B) Plastoquinone, cytochrome – 559,
(C) I, III, IV are correct
cytochrome – 553, plastocyanin
(D) I, III are correct
(C) Plastocyanine, plastoquinone,
47. An operon consists of cytochrome – 559, cytochrome – 553
I. Promotor (D) Cytochrome – 559, cytochrome – 553,
plastoquinone, plastocyanin
II. Functionally related structural genes
III. Operator 50. Xenobiotic compounds are recalcitrant
because they are
IV. Transcription of functionally related
(A) Not recognized as substrate by micro
structural genes from a single promoter
organisms
(A) I and II are correct
(B) Chemically not stable
(B) II and III are correct
(C) Highly non-toxic to micro-organisms
(C) I, II, III and IV are correct (D) Recognized as substrate by micro
(D) I, II and IV are correct organisms
II } 13 A-09-02
Text of page 14
*A0902*
Space for Rough Work
II } 14 A-09-02
Text of page 15
*A0902*
Space for Rough Work
II } 15 A-09-02
Text of page 16
*A0902*
Space for Rough Work
II } 16 A-09-02Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 16
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.