TS SET 2014: Paper II, Earth Science
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SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
EARTH SCIENCES
A-08-02 (EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCE)
II
HALL TICKET NUMBER
QUESTION BOOKLET NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
1 HOUR 15 MINUTES 100 8 50
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidate’s Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page.
2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Äæý*¿ñýO ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet _ ^èþ yìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
correct response against each item. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
Example : A B C D {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
where (C) is the correct response.
ç ³NÇ ^éÍ.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and
9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
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EARTH SCIENCE
(Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Science)
Paper – II
1. What is the nature of bonding in Halite 5. The indicatrix of uniaxial positive mineral
Crystal ? is described as
(A) Covalent (A) Prolate ellipsoid
(B) Van der Waals (B) Oblate ellipsoid
(C) Ionic (C) Sphere
(D) Metallic
(D) Triaxial ellipsoid
2. Match the following
6. Match the following :
List – I List – II List-I List-II
1. Orthoclase a. Mg SiO (Grain size & colour) (Rock name)
2 4
2. Quartz b. Al2SiO5 1. Coarse grained, a. Basalt
light colour
3. Kyanite c. SiO2
2. Coarse grained, b. Rhyolite
4. Forsterite d. KAlSi3O8
dark colour
1 2 3 4 3. Fine grained, c. Granite
(A) a b c d light colour
(B) d c b a 4. Fine grained, d. Gabbro
(C) b c d a dark colour
(D) c d a b
1 2 3 4
3. A biaxial mineral is optically negative, if (A) a b c d
(A) X is acute bisectrix (B) b c d a
(B) Z is acute bisectrix (C) c d b a
(C) Y is acute bisectrix (D) d a b c
(D) X is obtuse bisectrix
7. Myrmekite texture is an inter-growth
4. Roto-inversion axis is equal to a
between
symmetry of
(A) Orthopyroxene and Plagioclase
(A) Axis of symmetry
(B) Plagioclase and Quartz
(B) Center of symmetry
(C) Orthoclase and Plagioclase
(C) Plane of symmetry
(D) Microcline and Plagioclase
(D) Screw axis
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8. What is the texture of Hornfels ? 13. Which are the Isotopes that are
(A) Lepidoblastic responsible for the rise of temperature in
(B) Nematoblastic the earth’s interior ?
(C) Decussate (A) Uranium, thorium and potassium
(D) Cataclastic isotopes
9. Eclogites are characterized by (B) Uranium and Rubidium isotopes
(A) Absence of feldspars (C) Thorium, potassium and Rubidium
(B) Presence of feldspars isotopes
(C) Presence of talc (D) Rubidium isotope
(D) Presence of chlorite
14. Helium is used as the fuel for nuclear
10. The orbits of the planets around the sun fusion, which produces
are (A) Lithium (B) Thorium
(A) Elliptical (B) Circular
(C) Uranium (D) Potassium
(C) Rectangular (D) Square
15. Kepler’s third law states that __________
11. Which one of the following planets is
is same for all the planets.
similar to the earth ? 2 3
(A) Venus (B) Neptune (A) T / R (B) T3 / R2
(C) Jupiter (D) Mars (C) T2 / R2 (D) T3 / R3
12. Assertion (A): Unconformities develop 16. Which one of the following statements of
in a geologic formation the principle of superposition is false ?
when erosion or non- (A) The lowest layers in an undeformed
deposition interrupts the sequence are the oldest
continuity of the
geologic record. (B) The topmost layers in an
undeformed sequence are the
Reason (R) : The presence of an youngest
unconformity indicates
(C) A rock layer which lies below
that a portion of the rock
record has not been another layer must be the younger
removed. of the two, if undeformed
(D) Older rock units typically are found
In the context of the above two
at the base of a sequence
statements which one is correct, as per
the following code? 17. Which one of the following is the last
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the stage in the evolution of cyclone ?
correct explanation for A (A) Warm front
(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not
(B) Cold front
the correct explanation for A
(C) A is true, but R is false (C) Occluded front
(D) A is false, but R is true (D) Doldrum
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18. Arrange the following cyclones in the 22. In the transportation of river sediments,
order of their occurrence where the grains will jump from place to
I. Lehr place is called as
II. Hudhud (A) Suspension (B) Saltation
III. Nilofer (C) Rolling (D) Traction
IV. Nanauk 23. Arkose is a variety of
Choose the correct answer (A) Limestone
(A) I, III, II, IV (B) I, IV, II, III (B) Sandstone
(C) IV, II, I, III (D) II, I, IV, III (C) Clay
(D) Conglomerate
19. Match the following
24. In the physical weathering process, the
Period Duration
following changes can takes place
I. Cambrian a. 57 million years
1. Grain size
II. Devonian b. 52 million years
2. Grain shape
III. Jurassic c. 2.5 million years
3. Grain angularity
IV. Quaternary d. 54 million years
4. Grain composition
I II III IV (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(A) b a d c (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) a b c d (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) d c a b (D) 1 and 2 only
(D) c d b a
25. The photoelectric effect is explained by
20. Which of the following is/are aeolian (A) Wein’s displacement law
erosional landforms ? (B) Stephen Boltzmann’s law
1. Seif dune (C) Planck‘s law
2. Whale Back dune (D) Newton’s law
3. Pedestal Rock 26. Spectral resolution of IRS-1D wide field
4. Barchan Dune sensor is
(A) 1 and 2 only (A) 5.8 m (B) 23.5 m
(B) 3 only (C) 188 m (D) 100 m
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
27. In a drainage system
(D) 4 only
(A) All runoff drains into the same
21. The Craton is stream
(A) A stable land mass (B) All runoff infiltrates
(B) Filled valley (C) All water flows away from the largest
(C) Part of rift valley channel
(D) Mobile belt (D) All runoff evaporates
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28. Which one of the following is not a water 35. Which of the two features together control
spreading method for groundwater the density of seawater ?
recharge ? (A) Salinity and depth
(A) Flooding (B) Temperature and depth
(B) Recharge well (C) Salinity and plankton concentration
(C) Irrigation (D) Temperature and salinity
(D) Stream channel
36. The International Indian Ocean
29. The general process by which rock, soil Expedition (IIOE) was undertaken from
or unconsolidated material moves (A) 1959 to 1965
downhill is called __________________ (B) 1965 to 1971
(A) Aeolian action (C) 1953 to 1959
(B) Mass wasting (D) 1971 to 1977
(C) Weathering
37. A type of standing wave that can be
(D) Flooding
considered as a sum of two progressive
30. Tsunamis originate due to waves travelling in opposite directions is
(A) High tides reaching the coast known as
(B) Typhoons crossing the sea coast (A) Microseism
(C) Submarine earthquakes (B) Seiche
(D) Cyclones crossing the sea surface (C) Tsunami
(D) Storm surge
31. Smog is a type of
(A) Storm 38. The ocean waves that break on a beach
(B) Fog which has a moderate sloping bottom are
known as
(C) Precipitation
(A) Plunging breakers
(D) Fog mixed with smoke
(B) Surging breakers
32. Delhi falls on which active seismic zone ? (C) Spilling breakers
(A) One (B) Two (D) Rip current breakers
(C) Three (D) Four
39. The theory of sea-floor spreading is based
33. Evaporates form in on
(A) Glacial environment (A) Palaeoseismic anomaly
(B) Reducing environment (B) Palaeotectonic difference
(C) Arid environment (C) Palaeoelectrical anomaly
(D) Soil weathering profiles (D) Palaeomagnetic anomaly
34. In the seawater the predominant carbon 40. The Mohorovicic discontinuity is between
species is (A) Core and Mantle
(A) CO2 (B) HCO −3 (B) Crust and Core
(C) Crust and Mantle
(C) H2CO3 (D) CO23−
(D) Lithosphere and Asthenosphere
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41. The fault in which hanging wall moves 47. Match the following :
up with reference to foot wall is 1. Fold I. Conglomerate
(A) Normal fault 2. Fault II. Sheeting
(B) Reverse fault 3. Joint III. Graben
(C) Transform fault 4. Unconformity IV. Plunge
(D) Wrench fault
I II III IV
42. The point on the land or water surface (A) 4 3 2 1
directly above the point of origin at an (B) 4 3 1 2
earthquake in the ground/underground is (C) 4 2 3 1
known as (D) 1 2 3 4
(A) Focus
48. Karst topography develops in _________
(B) Hypocenter
terrain.
(C) Epicenter
(A) deserts
(D) Apocenter
(B) limestone
43. New crust is formed at (C) plain
(A) Convergent plate boundaries (D) plateau
(B) Divergent plate boundaries
49. The earth undergoes the following major
(C) Transform faults motions through space
(D) Conservative plate boundaries 1. The earth rotates on its axis
44. The geotherms are shallower in 2. The earth moves with the galaxy as a
(A) Continental areas whole in the expansion of the
universe
(B) Arc regions
3. The earth revolves around the Sun
(C) Trenches
(D) Mid oceanic ridges Choose the correct answer
(A) 1, 2 only
45. Destructive plate boundaries are marked by
(B) 1, 2, 3
(A) Crustal widening
(C) 2 only
(B) Island arcs
(D) 3 only
(C) No subduction
(D) Divergence 50. An asymmetric thinly laminated and
foliated folds showing sharp and angular
46. The Earth’s crust is thickest at anticlinal and synclinal parts are called
(A) Shield areas (A) Chevron folds
(B) Cratons (B) Similar folds
(C) Orogenic belts (C) Convolute folds
(D) Greenstone belts (D) Recumbent folds
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Space for Rough Work
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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.