TS SET 2018: Paper II, Law
Text of page 1
Subject Code Subject
Question Booklet Number
A-14-18 law
hALL tICKET number PaPER
ii
OMR Sheet Number nUMBER OF qUESTIONS
100
dURATION mAXIMUM mARKS nUMBER OF pAGES
2 hOUrs 200 24
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law
Paper – II
1. Preamble is not regarded as a part of 3. In Maneka Gandhi V. Union of
the statute and it does not form part of India.
the constitution decided by the apex
court in “Life means not only physical existence.
(A) In re : Berubari Union and Exchange It means the use of every limb or faculty
of Enclaves through which life is enjoyed. The right
(B) Kesavananda Bharati V. Union of to life includes the right to a healthy
India
environment.” Said by
(C) S.R. Bommai V. Union of India
(D) A. K. Gopalan Case (A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(B) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
2. Match List – I with List – II and select the
(C) Justice P.S. Kailasam
correct answer using the codes given
below : (D) Justice D.y. Chandrachud
List – I List – II
4. A distinguished Jurist can be appointed
a. Religious i. Gian Kaur V.
Freedom State of Punjab a Judge/Member of
b. Doctrine of ii. M. P. Oil (A) The administrative tribunal
waiver of extraction V. (B) The administrative tribunal and the
Fundamental State of Madhya
Supreme Court of India
rights Pradesh
(C) The High Court of a State
c. Discrimination iii. Rev. Stainislaves
in favour of V. State of M.P. (D) The Supreme Court of India
person residing
in backward 5. Assertion (A) : The president of India can
areas is return any bill passed by the Parliament
permissible for the reconsideration of the houses.
under Article 14
of the constitution Reason (R) : The President of India
of India cannot return money bills to the Parliament
d. Right to life iv. Basheshar Nath V. for reconsideration of the houses.
does not include I.T. commissioner Codes :
right to die (A) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is
Codes : not the correct explanation of (A)
a b c d
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii i iv iii the correct explanation of (A)
(C) iii iv ii i (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) iv iii i ii (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
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6. Nanda Kumar V. The State of Kerala deals 9. Assertion (A) : The Supreme Court
with regard to the following issues. and High Courts can grant writs for the
(A) Right to Education
violation of legal rights and fundamental
(B) Right to Live-in relationship
(C) Right to Medical care rights.
(D) Right to Development Reason (R) : In case of writ Jurisdiction
7. What is the chronological sequence of the power of High Courts are more
the following advisory opinion given by extensive than that of the Supreme Court
the Supreme Court of India ? Choose
of India.
the correct answer using the codes given
below : Codes :
i. The special court reference (A) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R)
case. is the correct explanation of (A)
ii. In re sea Customs Act.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
iii. In re Berubari Case.
iv. In re Delhi Laws Act Case. (R) is not the correct explanation
Codes : of (A)
(A) iv iii i ii
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv iii ii i (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) iv ii iii i
10. The Supreme Court has laid down certain
8. Under Article 136 of the Constitution of
guidelines for imposing emergency
India “Power exercised by chief Justice
of India or designated Judge is not an under Article 356 in one of the following
administrative power but is a judicial cases.
power” was decided in the following
(A) State of Rajasthan V. Union of
case.
India
(A) Mani V. State of Tamil Nadu
(B) Indira Nehru Gandhi V. (B) A. K. Roy V. Union of India
Raj narayan
(C) S. R. Bommai V. Union of India
(C) Khemchand V. Union of India
(D) Rameshwar Prasad V. Union of
(D) Rameshwar Das Agarwal V.
Kiran Agarwal India
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11. Match List – I with List – II and select the 13. Using the codes given below, find out the
correct answer using the codes given
correct answer.
below :
List – I List – II Administrative law deals with
a. Art. 352 of the i. Financial (i) The powers of the administrative
Constitution of Emergency
authorities
India
b. Art. 353 of the ii. President’s (ii) The powers and functions of
Constitution of rule legislative authorities
India
(iii) The powers of constitutional
c. Art. 356 of the iii. National
Constitution of Emergency authorities
India (iv) The powers and functions of judicial
d. Art. 360 of the iv. Effects of
authorities
Constitution of proclamation
Codes :
India of emergency
Codes : (A) Only (i) is correct
a b c d
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv ii i (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) Only (iv) is correct
(D) iv i ii iii
12. An amendment to the constitution of 14. The Doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’ was
India can be initiated
popularised by
(A) Only in Rajya Sabha
(B) Only in Lok Sabha (A) G. Austin
(C) Either in Lok Sabha or in Rajya (B) H. Kelson
Sabha
(C) A. V. Dicey
(D) Either in Assembly of any state or
in the Parliament (D) H. Gray
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15. Match List – I with List – II and select the 17. Which of the following is not a statement
correct answer using the codes given
below : appropriate to Austinian theory of law ?
List – I List – II
(A) Every law is a command, imposing
Article in the Provisions
Constitution of India duty, enforced by a sanction
a. 13 i. Writ Jurisdiction
of the High Court (B) Law is a rule laid down from the
b. 32 ii. Sources of the guidance of an intelligent being by
power of Judicial
Review an intelligent being having power
c. 226 iii. Suits against over him
government
d. 300 iv. Writ jurisdiction of (C) A legal rule can be defined as one
the Supreme Court
of India which prescribe a code of conduct
Codes :
a b c d which is done with a feeling of such
(A) ii iii iv i conduct is obligatory
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iv i ii iii (D) If a determinate human superior
(D) iii iv i ii
not in a habit of obedience to a
16. Match the following :
like superior, receiver habitual
Statement Author
1. Jurisprudence a. Julius obedience from the bulk of a given
is formal science of Stone
positive law society, that determinate superior
2. Jurisprudence b. Keeton
is sovereign in that society
is nothing but lawyers
extravaganza
3. Jurisprudence c. Holland 18. The theory of utilitarian individualism
is the science of
first principles (every law should be tested on the anvil
of civil law
of principle of utility) was propounded
4. Jurisprudence d. Salmond
is the study and by
systematic arrangement
of general principles of law (A) Savigny
Codes :
(A) 1 – c 2 – a 3 – d 4 – b (B) Bentham
(B) 1 – d 2 – c 3 – a 4 – b (C) Maine
(C) 1 – c 2 – a 3 – b 4 – d
(D) 1 – a 2 – b 3 – c 4 – d (D) Gray
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19. According to Kelson, the law is a system 21. Which of the following is correctly
of behavioural norms which can be matched ?
traced back to some grund norms or I. Fuller – inner morality
basic norms from which they derive their II. Maine – Status of contract
existence. The grund norm. III. Duguit – Social solidarity
I. Must be efficacious. IV. Hart – Rules on fundamentals
II. Looks for its own validity in factors of a legal system
out side law. Codes :
III. Should secure for itself a minimum (A) None except II
of effectiveness and when it ceases (B) None except III
to derive minimum of support of (C) None except IV
people, it is replaced by some other (D) None of the above
grund norm.
22. Law is product of social life and is not
Codes :
created by arbitrary will of individual
(A) I and III
but by slow unavoidable advancement
(B) II and III
of human development. The statement
(C) I, II and III belongs to
(D) I and II (A) Analytical school
(B) Sociological school
20. Choose the correct statement :
(C) Historical school
(A) Natural law approach is not realistic
(D) None of the above
and practical approach
(B) Natural law principles have 23. It is one of the cardinal principle of
inspired positive law, constitution delegated legislation that the legislature
and international law should not delegate to a subordinate
(C) Naturalists intend to introduce body the power to make rules on
moral element into a criterion of (A) Policy matter
identification and laws have the (B) Technical matter
effect of basing law on the value (C) Matters of inclusion and exclusion
judgement (D) Date of commencement of a
(D) All the above statute
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24. Which of the following statements is 26. Duties without corresponding rights are
the most appropriate in the present called
(A) Relative duty
day context ?
(B) Absolute duty
(A) Judges do not create any new
(C) Secondary duty
principles of law through their (D) None of the above
decisions but simply put a stamp
27. Assertion (A) : Ratio decidendi has
of authorities on the already
binding force.
existing principles of law in the Reason (R) : Obiter dicta has no binding
society force.
(B) Judicial decisions are not source of Select the correct answer by using the
codes given below.
law but as the proof of what law is
Codes :
(C) Judges not only declare law but also (A) Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is
make law through their decisions the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Judges either apply the constitution (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
or legislation or a custom to come
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
to a conclusion
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
25. Doctrine of precedent is of antiquity, while 28. Assertion (A) : Custom is per se law,
the stare decisis is relatively modern, the independent of its recognition by the
latter relates to sovereign or the judge.
Reason (R) : Custom is a source
(A) Settled judicial hierarchy of courts
of law.
and law reports
Codes :
(B) Emergence of concept of sovereignity (A) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is
of parliament the correct explanation of (A)
(C) A point of law settled by a judicial (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not a correct explanation of (A)
decision
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) None of the above (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
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29. Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally 32. State which of the following statements
protected interest. is correct ?
Reason (R) : An element of advantage (A) International court of justice shall
apply judicial decisions of various
is essential to constitute right.
nations as primary means for the
Codes : determination of disputes
(A) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is (B) International court of justice shall
the correct explanation of (A) apply judicial decisions of various
nations as subsidiary means for the
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
determination of disputes
not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) International court of justice
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false shall apply judicial decisions of
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true various nations as the means for
the determination of disputes
30. The fuller/hart debate could be (D) International court of justice shall
summarised as a debate between apply judicial decisions of various
which two jurisprudential approaches ? nations as the only means for the
determination of disputes
(A) Positivism and utilitarianism
(B) Natural and positivism 33. Choose the answer.
(C) Positivism and liberalism (a) Recognition of a new state is a
political act.
(D) Marxism and positivism
(b) Recognition of a new state is a
31. Assertion (A) : International law is also legal act.
known as public international law. (c) Recognition of a new state is a
public act.
Reason (R) : Because international law
(d) Recognition of a new state is a
deals with the members of the public all
private act.
over the world.
Codes :
Give correct answer from the following. (A) All the four statements are correct
Codes : (B) Statements in (a), (b) and (c) are
(A) Both (a) and (R) are true correct
(C) Statements in (a) and (b) are
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false
correct
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Statements in (a) and (c) are
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true correct
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34. Permanent members of the security 37. Choose the correct statement from the
Council of United Nations are following :
(A) The permanent members of General (A) General Principles of law is a loose
Assembly term to understand and cannot be
(B) Those that are so designated in the source of international law
UN charter (B) Statute of international court of
Justice authorizes ICJ to apply
(C) Those who are elected for life
General Principles of international
(D) Those who won the II World war
law and hence it is a source of
35. In relation to International court of Justice, international law
choose the correct statement. (C) Statute of international court of
(A) Judge of the nationality of a disputing Justice did not authorize ICJ to apply
party cannot sit as a Judge General Principles of International
(B) Judge of the nationality of a disputing Law and hence it is not a source of
International law
party can sit as a Judge
(D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
(C) If the court includes a Judge of the
nationality of one of the disputing 38. United Nations Organization was
parties, the other disputing party may established in the year
choose a person of its nationality to (A) 1945
sit as a Judge (B) 1946
(D) Both (B) and (C) are true (C) 1944
(D) 1941
36. India “Shall endeavour to foster
respect for international law and treaty 39. Under which Article of UN Charter, the
obligations” under ________ Article of Security Council can take up enforcement
Indian Constitution. action ?
(A) 51 (A) Article 39
(B) 51A (B) Article 40
(C) 363 A (C) Article 41
(D) 374 (D) Article 42
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40. International Court of Justice can 42. Which of the following statement/
approached by statements, is/are correct ?
(A) All the states
(i) Article 9 of the UDHR 1948 says
(B) All the members of UNO
(C) Even a non-member of UNO by “No one shall be subject to arbitrary
becoming a party to the statute arrest, detention or exile”.
of ICJ
(ii) Article 10 of the UDHR 1948 says
(D) Both (B) and (C)
“No one shall be punished without
41. Match List – I with List – II and select the criminal charge”.
correct answer using the codes given
(iii) Article 13 of the UDHR 1948 says
below.
List – I List – II “Everyone has the right to travel
a. International i. Ratified by anywhere in the world”.
convention on the India on (iv) Article 15 of the UDHR 1948 says
Elimination of all September 12,
“Every human being has no right to
forms of Racial 1990
discrimination 1965 nationality”.
b. International ii. Ratified by (A) (i) is correct
convention on the India on (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
suppression and August 27,
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
punishment of the 1959
crime of Apartheid (D) All are incorrect
1973
43. The law is a no male can marry below
c. Convention on the iii. Ratified by
prevention and India on the age of 21 years and no female can
punishment of September 22, marry below the age of 18 years. A Hindu
genocide 1948 1977 girl aged 19 years and a Hindu boy aged
d. International iv. Ratified by 20 years got married.
convention against India on
(A) The marriage is valid
Apartheid in December 3,
sports 1985 1968 (B) The marriage is void
Codes : (C) The marriage is voidable at the
a b c d option of the girl
(A) iv iii ii i
(D) The marriage is a child marriage
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv iii i ii under Prohibition of Child Marriage
(D) iii i iv ii Act, 2006 and hence void
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44. Marriage, Divorce, Adoption, 47. The marriage between H and W was
Wills, Succession, Joint Family, solemnized as per the Hindu rituals and
Partition and other matters under ceremonies. Immediately after marriage
personal law are in bitter disputes arose between them and
(A) State list under the constitution of the marriage was not consummated.
India W filed a petition under Section 12 of
(B) Union list Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for Annulment
(C) Concurrent list of marriage.
(D) Both in state list and union list (A) Marriage can be annulled as there
was no consummation of marriage
45. Which of the following statements is
correct ? (B) Marriage cannot be annulled as the
(A) Husband only can commit Bigamy. marriage was solemnized as per
(B) Wife only can commit Bigamy. Hindu rituals and ceremonies
(C) Both husband and wife can commit (C) Marriage can be annulled at the
Bigamy. option of the Petitioner i.e. wife
(D) Neither husband nor wife can (D) Marriage cannot be annulled as
commit Bigamy. there was no consummation due to
bitter disputes only and not due to
46. A is a male and B is a female. A’s caste
importance of husband
custom permits marriage within the
prohibited relationship whereas B’s caste 48. Non-registration of marriage under
custom does not. A and B got married. Section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act,
(A) The marriage is valid as A, the 1955
male’s caste custom permits such (A) Invalidates the marriage and attracts
marriage
imposition of penalty
(B) The marriage is voidable at the
(B) Does not invalidate the marriage but
option of B
attracts imposition of penalty
(C) The marriage is void as the custom
(C) Makes the marriage voidable at the
governing each of them has not
option of either of the parties
permitted the marriage
(D) Neither invalidates the marriage nor
(D) As both parties are majors the
attracts imposition of penalty
marriage is valid
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49. Using the code below match List – I and 51. Regarding Muslim wife’s right to
List – II : maintenance, choose the correct
List – I List – II statement.
a. Ceremonies of i. Section 12 (A) The liability of Muslim husband to his
Hindu Marriage divorced wife to pay maintenance is
b. Restitution of ii. Section 25 not confined to iddat period
Conjugal Rights (B) The liability of Muslim husband to his
c. Voidable marriage iii. Section 9 divorced wife to pay maintenance is
d. Permanent alimony iv. Section 7 confined to iddat period.
and maintenance (C) A reasonable and fair provision
Codes : extending beyond the iddat period
a b c d must be made by husband within
(A) iv iii i ii iddat period
(B) iv i ii iii (D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
(C) iv ii i iii
52. Right to marry is a
(D) iv iii ii i
(A) Fundamental right under article 21
50. Choose the correct answer from
of the constitution of India
the following statements.
(B) Legal right under personal law
(A) Under Hindu Adoptions and
(C) Human right
Maintenance Act, only wife can
(D) None of the above
claim maintenance.
(B) Under Section 125, Code of Criminal 53. Which of the following is not a ground for
procedure, husband also can claim divorce ?
maintenance. (A) epilepsy
(C) Under Hindu Marriage Act, either (B) Insanity
spouse can claim maintenance.
(C) Venereal disease
(D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
(D) Leprosy
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54. Match List – I with List – II and select the 56. Assertion (A) : Collateral transaction to
correct answer using the codes given
wagering agreements are valid.
below the list :
List – I List – II Reason (R) : Only wagering agreements
(Cases) (Topic) are declared void under Section 30 of the
a. Upton-on-Severn i. Contractual
Indian Contract Act.
rural district Council intention
V. Powel Codes :
b. Balfour V. Balfour ii. General
offer (A) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is
c. Carlill V. Carbolic iii. Invitation the correct explanation of (A)
Smoke Ball Co. to treat
d. Pharmaceutical iv. Implied (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
Society of Great offer not the correct explanation of (A)
Britain V. Boots
Cash Chemists Ltd. (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
Codes :
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
57. Assertion (A) : A proposal, when
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv i iii ii accepted, results in an agreement.
(D) i iv ii iii Reason (R) : It is only after the acceptance
55. In Central Inland Water Transport of the proposal that a contract between
Corporation V. Brojonath Ganguly case,
the parties can arise.
the Supreme Court struct down a term
in a contract of employment providing Codes :
for removal of a permanent employee
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
without enquiry on the ground that
(A) It is violative of Art. 14 of the good explanation of (A)
constitution
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is
(B) There is no free consent by the
employee to such term not a correct explanation of (A)
(C) The clause is unreasonable and
(C) A is true, but (R) is false
unconscienable
(D) All the above (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
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58. If the time of performance of the 61. When the property is purchase out of the
contract is the essence of the partnership funds but in the name of an
contract and the promisor fails to individual partner, it
perform the contract by the specified (A) Becomes an estate of the partner
time (B) Becomes a joint estate
(C) Is a question of fact to be determined
(A) The contract becomes void
with reference to the intention of the
(B) The contract remains valid
partners
(C) The contract becomes voidable at
(D) Is a question of law to be decided
the instance of the promisee
on legal principles
(D) None of the above
62. The doctrine of indoor management is
59. Mutual agency among the partners is an ______________ to the doctrine of
(A) a test to determine the existence of constructive notice.
a partnership (A) Exception
(B) a legal incidence of partnership (B) Extension
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Alternative
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) None of the above
63. A contingent contract to do or not to
60. The indorsement of a negotiable
do anything on the happening of an
instrument followed by the delivery
uncertain future event under Section 32
(A) Transfers to the indorsee the property
of the Contract Act
in the bill, provided the indorsement
(A) is never enforceable
must be an indorsement in full
(B) becomes enforceable only on the
(B) Does not transfer the property in happening of that event
the bill to any one (C) enforceable since the time of
(C) Transfers to the indorsee the making it
property in the bill (D) becomes enforceable in the
(D) Transfers to the holder the property immediate possibility of happening
in the bill of that event
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64. Can the legal representative of 66. Match the following List – I with List – II
a deceased person negotiate a and choose the correct answer using the
promissory note, bill of exchange or codes given below the lists :
cheque payable to order by delivery List – I List – II
only which was indorsed by the (Principle) (Case)
deceased but not delivered by him ?
a. Res Ipsa i. Ashby V. White
(A) yes, the legal representative can
Loquiter
negotiate the instrument by delivery
b. Injuria sine ii. Scott V. London
only
damno and St. Katherine
(B) no, the legal representative cannot
Docks Co.
negotiate an instrument by delivery
c. Nervous iii. Donoghue V.
only. He must re-indorse and deliver
the instrument for negotiating it shock Stevenson
(C) an instrument indorsed by deceased d. Negligence iv. Bourhill V. Young
person has no legal validity Codes :
(D) none of the above a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
65. Find the correct legal principle from the (B) i ii iii iv
following statements
(C) ii i iv iii
(A) A company may do an act which is
(D) iii iv i ii
necessary for or incidental to the
attainment of its objects or which 67. Assertion (A) : A person injured
is otherwise not authorised by the while rescuing another person from
Act. danger cannot claim compensation
(B) A company may not do an act which from the person who created the danger
is necessary for or incidental to the because of the principle of volenti non
attainment of its objects which is fit injuria.
otherwise not authorised by the
Reason (R) : Cardazo J said “Danger
Act.
invite Rescue”.
(C) A company may do an act which is
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually
necessary for or incidental to the
true
attainment of its objects or which is
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false
otherwise authorised by the Act
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(D) A company may do an act which is
necessary for or not incidental to not the correct explanation of (A)
attainment of its goals or which is (D) (A) is false and (R) is true. (R) is not
otherwise barred by the Act. the correct explanation of (A)
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68. Gloucester Grammar School case 72. The legal maxim qui facit per alium per
stands for se means
(A) Act of god
(A) He must be distinguished from an
(B) Scienter rule
indepent contractor
(C) Contributory negligence
(B) He is bound by his contract
(D) Damnum Sine injuria
(C) The employer’s right of control
69. The legal maxim imperita culpa
(D) He who acts through another is
adnumeratur means
deemed to act in person
(A) Negligence and inadvertence
(B) Particular mode of doing some act 73. The defences to an action for
(C) Want of skill amounts to defamation are
negligence (A) Fair comment
(D) Reasonable man and reasonable
(B) Privilege, truth
conduct
(C) Both (A) and (B)
70. Which among the following case deals (D) All the above
with Damnum sine injuria ?
(A) King V. Phillips 74. Assertion (A) : Abetment is not an
(B) Ushaben V. Bhagya Lakshmi Chitra offence when the act abeted is not an
Mandir offence.
(C) Kallulal V. Hemchand Reason (R) : Section 108 of Indian Penal
(D) All the above Code clearly states that an act abetted
should be an offence.
71. Which among the following is not required
for the defence of fair comment ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are false
(A) It should be fair (B) (A) is true (R) is the correct
(B) It should be commented on public explanation of (A)
interest (C) (A) is true (R) is false
(C) Assertion of a fact
(D) (A) is true (R) is not the correct
(D) All the above
reason of (A)
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75. Match the following offences with the 77. Which one of the following statement is
correct legal provisions of the Indian true ?
(A) Abetment cannot be committed by
Penal Code, 1860.
conspiracy
List – I List – II (B) A purchased a bottle of poison to
I. Joint liability 1. Sec. 383 kill B. A planned to give the poison
in food to B. While preparing food
II. International aid 2. Sec. 390
a cat hit the poison bottle down. B
III. Robbery 3. Sec. 107 died out of electrusion. A is liable for
IV. Extortion 4. Sec. 34 attempt
Codes : (C) If A murder B on an Indian registered
ship, A is not liable under I.P.C.
I II III IV
(D) A, is a terrorist in jail. X, a Jailor gave
(A) 4 3 2 1 him poison. Y an ambulance driver
(B) 2 3 4 1 refused to take his ambulance and
delayed it under the instruction of X.
(C) 1 4 3 2
This act and omission make both of
(D) 4 2 3 1 them liable U/Sec. 34 of I.P.C.
76. Assertion (A) : Some offences in 78. Which among the following statement
is false ?
Indian Penal Code does not require
(A) Indian Penal Code is substantive
mens rea.
in nature
Reason (R) : The offences under (B) Indian Penal Code is not
Sections 292 and 293 are examples. applicable to J and K
(A) Both (A) and (B) are false (C) An Indian citizen committed adultery
in England, he can be prosecuted
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
under I.P.C.
(C) (R) is true but (A) is false (D) The general exceptions chapter
(D) (A) is true but (R) is the correct does not apply to offence under
other penal statutes
explanation of (A)
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79. Which among the following section 83. Assertion (A) : The Right to form a Trade
speaks about common object ? Union is a fundamental Right
(A) Sec. 34 Reason (R) : The Right to form unions
(B) Sec. 37 and associations is guaranteed under
A.19(1)(C)
(C) Sec. 38
Codes :
(D) None of these
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
80. Which of the following provision (B) (A) is false but (R) is true
punishes attempt to murder ? (C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(A) Sec. 304 not a correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(B) Sec. 307
a good explanation of (A)
(C) Sec. 404
(D) Sec. 407 84. The definition of a ‘Workman’ under the
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 does not
81. Which one of the following offence
include
punishes stalking ?
(A) a sales representative
(A) Sec. 354 A (B) a pilot
(B) Sec. 354 B (C) a clerk
(C) Sec. 354 C (D) a manual worker
(D) Sec. 354 D
85. Match List – I with List – II and select the
82. Which among the following is false correct answers using the codes given
statement ? below :
(A) The offence of dowry death List – I List – II
requires the death of the married a. Settlement i. Section 2(j)
woman in 7 years of the marriage b. Strike ii. Section 18
(B) The offence of dowry death c. Industrial Dispute iii. Section 2(q)
requires proof of valid marriage d. Industry iv. Section 2(k)
between the accused and the Codes :
deceased a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(C) There should be cruelty by the
(B) i iii iv ii
husband or in laws
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) There should be an unnatural
(D) iii iv i ii
death
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86. An industry under the Industrial Disputes 88. Assertion (A) : There are multiple trade
Act is unions in India.
Reason (R) : Registration of trade
a. Any systematic activity
unions is not mandatory under the Trade
b. Which is for profit only Unions Act, 1926.
Codes :
c. Organised by co-operation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
between employer and employee
not the correct explanation of (A)
d. For the production of goods and (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
services the correct explanation for (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
Choose the correct combination :
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
(A) a, c, d
89. Immunities under Section 17 and 18
(B) a, b, d
of a Trade Union Act 1926 will not be
(C) a, b, c available for
(D) b, c, d (A) Any collective bargaining activity
(B) Raising an industrial or trade
87. The definition of ‘Retrenchment’ in the dispute
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is (C) Any acts of violence such as
‘Gherao’
(A) A termination of service due
(D) Any action including asking a person
to reduction in production in an
to commit breach of contract
on-going establishment
90. The registration of a Trade Union
(B) The same as lay-off and closure
(A) Is mandatory under the Trade Union
(C) A termination of services for any Act, 1926
reason other than a dismissal and (B) Is not mandatory under the Trade
Union Act, 1926
listed exceptions
(C) Is mandatory under the Industrial
(D) A termination of service for every Disputes Act, 1947
reason whatsoever (D) Is not provided for under any law
II 20 A-14-18
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91. The activities and objects of a Trade 94. Green house gases mean
Union include a. Gaseous constituents of the
a. Constitution of a special fund for atmosphere
political purposes
b. Natural and anthropogenic
b. Contesting elections in its own
Constituents
name
c. Paying allowances to its members c. Gases that absorb and re-emit
d. Paying salaries of office bearers of infrared radiation
the Union d. Carbon emissions only
Codes : Codes :
(A) a, c, d (A) c
(B) b, c, d (B) a, b, c
(C) a, b, c
(C) d
(D) b, d, a
(D) a and b
92. What is the Chipko Movement ?
95. The 23rd annual COP under the UNFCCC
(A) An environmental movement against
the felling of trees was held in Bonn, Germany 2017, COP
(B) A movement against tribal land stands for
alienation (A) Countries of Participating
(C) An environmental movement to (B) Confederation of Parties
promote wildlife protection (C) Conference of the Parties
(D) A movement to preserve our cultural
(D) Comity of Partners
heritage
96. Sequence the following cases in the
93. Pollution may be defined as
a. The contamination of the order of the date of the judgement
environment a. Narmada Bachao Andolan V. UOI
b. In a way that creates hazards to b. Nellore Citizens Welfare Forum V.
health UOI
c. An unfavourable alteration of the c. T.N. Godavarma V. UOI
natural composition of substances
d. Subhash Kumar V. State of Bihar
d. Is irreversible
Codes :
Codes :
(A) a, b, c, d
(A) a, b, c
(B) b, c, d (B) d, c, b, a
(C) a, c, d (C) b, d, c, a
(D) a, b, d (D) d, a, b, c
II 21 A-14-18
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97. Match List – I with List – II and select the 99. The United States Council on
correct answer using the codes given
Environmental Quality provides that
below.
List – I List – II environment includes
a. Animal Welfare i. Public
a. The biosphere
Board V. A. Nagaraj nuisance
b. Ratlam Municipality ii. Wildlife b. Natural surroundings
V. Virdhichand protection c. Man made surroundings
c. Rural Litigation and iii. Mining
d. Biosphere and natural surroundings
Entitlement kendra
V. State of U.P. only
d. S. Jagannath iv. Protecting
Codes :
V. UOI sea-coasts
Codes : (A) a, b and c
a b c d
(B) d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i (C) b and c
(C) iv ii i iii (D) a
(D) ii i iii iv
100. What is the UNFCCC ?
98. Assertion (A) : The right to life includes
the right to a wholesome environment. (A) United Nations Food Control and
Reason (R) : Writ petition is easier to file,
Contamination Convention
less costly and access to the superior
courts is available (B) United Nations Framework
Codes :
convention on climate change
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A) (C) United Nations Freedom and
(B) (A) is false and (R) is true
Change Convention
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A) (D) United Nations Fund for Control of
(D) (A) is true and (R) is false Climate Change
_____________________
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II 24 A-14-18Official key not published for this paper.
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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.