UGC NET 2016: July, Paper III, Environmental Sciences
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
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J 8 9 1 6 (In words)
Time : 2 1/2 hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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J-89-16 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. In India audit on conservation and protection of tigers in all 28 Tiger reserves was
conducted in
(1) 2001 (2) 2004
(3) 2006 (4) 2007
2. In the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a development project is not discernible,
then what step should be adopted ?
(1) Scoping stage ought to be initiated
(2) Detailed EIA study ought to be conducted
(3) A rapid EIA study ought to be conducted
(4) The project may not be given environmental clearance
3. Biodiversity hotspots are regions of high
(1) stationary population of common species
(2) richness of endemic species
(3) migratory population
(4) richness of dominant species
4. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) plants have very low
efficiencies.
Reason (R) : The temperature difference between warm surface water and cold deeper
ocean water is not all that great.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
5. In respect of geothermal power production, identify the correct sequence of the countries :
(1) Iceland > Russia > Japan > USA
(2) Japan > Iceland > USA > Russia
(3) USA > Iceland > Japan > Russia
(4) USA > Japan > Iceland > Russia
Paper-III 2 J-89-16
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6. Among the forest types of India, which category of forest covers maximum geographical
area :
(1) Tropical grassland (2) Mangrove forest
(3) Tropical deciduous forest (4) Temperate evergreen forest
7. The overall diversity of a landscape comprising several ecosystems is known as
(1) Alpha diversity (2) Beta diversity
(3) Gamma diversity (4) Delta diversity
8. The ratio between the amount of radiation emitted by earth upto the wavelength at which
maximum radiation is emitted and total amount of radiation emitted by earth is
approximately
(1) ~ 25% (2) ~ 50%
(3) ~ 40% (4) ~ 66%
9. Milankovitch cycles refer to
(1) Shifts in the temperature of surface water in the middle latitudes of the Pacific
Ocean.
(2) The timing of the northern lights in the thermosphere.
(3) The changes in the Earth’s rotation and orbit around the sun that may trigger climate
variation.
(4) Upwelling and down-welling in the ocean.
10. El Nino and La Nina phenomena
(1) decrease water temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean
(2) increase water temperatures in the Gulf of Mexico
(3) occur in a definite pattern every ten years
(4) cause changes in global temperature and precipitation pattern
11. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : At a constant temperature, the solubility of ammonia in water increases
with decrease in pH.
Reason (R) : The solubility of all gases increase with decrease in pH.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
J-89-16 3 Paper-III
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12. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Temperature of sea water generally decreases with increasing latitude.
Reason (R) : Surface layers of sea water tend to contract and sink in cold waters.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
13. A normal sand dune is characterized by
(1) Gentle windward and steeper leeward sides.
(2) Both gentle sides.
(3) Steeper windward and gentle leeward sides.
(4) Both steeper sides.
14. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The distribution of animals over the world is much more complex and
irregular compared to plants.
Reason (R) : The animals are mobile and therefore capable of more rapid dispersal.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
15. Consider the following statements in case of Gaussian Plume Model.
a. The wind speed is constant both in time and with elevation.
b. The emission rate from the source is constant.
c. The pollutant is conservative.
Choose the answer :
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a and b only (4) a, b and c
16. A stream flowing at 5.0 m3/s converges with another stream with the same flow rate. The
concentration of the phosphate upstream to the junction is 10.0 mg/L and that in the other
stream is 5.0 mg/L. The downstream concentration of phosphate is
(1) 2.5 mg/L (2) 5.0 mg/L
(3) 7.5 mg/L (4) 10 mg/L
Paper-III 4 J-89-16
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17. Lotka-Volterra model for an ecosystem can be used to study
a. oscillations in prey-predator population.
b. effect of predator on prey population.
c. effect of prey on predator population.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
18. In an ecosystem following logistic growth model initial population was 900 with growth
rate constant of 0.1. If the carrying capacity of the ecosystem is 1000, what is the
instantaneous rate of change of population ?
(1) 10 (2) 25
(3) 1.1 (4) 9
19. Choose an appropriate hypothesis testing method for the condition where the variance is
an unknown parameter of a population of independent observations :
(1) Z-test (2) χ2-test
(3) t-test (4) F-test
20. For sampling error of 1.96σ; where σ is the standard deviation, and at critical value of
1.96, the significance level is
(1) 5.0 % (2) 1.0 %
(3) 2.7 % (4) 4.5 %
21. Qualitatively a sampling error in a survey based environmental experiment is the sum of
(1) Frame error + Response error + chance error
(2) Frame error + non-sampling error
(3) Chance error + Frame error + Systematic error
(4) Non-sampling error + Chance error + Systematic error
22. Ecosensitive zones are declared by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and climate
change, Govt. of India under the provisions of
(1) Forest Act, 1927
(2) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(3) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(4) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
23. Basel convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste and disposal was
adopted in the year
(1) 1969 (2) 1979
(3) 1999 (4) 1989
24. Which method reduces the volume of waste but could release toxic air emissions into the
atmosphere ?
(1) Biological treatment (2) Sanitary landfill
(3) Incineration (4) Chemical treatment
J-89-16 5 Paper-III
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25. As per CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) 2011 Notification, which of the following
activities is permitted ?
(1) Dumping of untreated sewage, effluents or solid waste.
(2) Traditional fishing and allied activities.
(3) Construction of Housing Complexes.
(4) Infrastructural projects.
26. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Biomedical Waste) (Treatment/Disposal)
a. Human tissues i. Incineration
b. Scalpels ii. Autoclaving
c. Solid plaster casts iii. Microwave mutilation
d. Catheters iv. Deep burial
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) i iii ii iv
27. An organisation implementing an EMS under ISO 14001 should set environmental targets
in order to achieve environmental objectives within a specified time-frame. The target
should be
(1) implemented on a trial basis
(2) generic in nature
(3) related to financial aspects
(4) measurable and specific
28. ISO 14001 requires an organisation to
(1) set improvement targets for every department.
(2) define a quality policy within the defined scope of its EMS.
(3) define the scope of its EMS.
(4) define the scope of its audit.
29. Cost-benefit analysis is performed during
(1) Design phase (2) Feasibility study phase
(3) Implementation (4) Maintenance phase
30. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to the construction
of a dam on it.
Reason (R) : The area in upper catchment of the river gets inundated.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Paper-III 6 J-89-16
Text of page 7
31. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Auditing) (Actions)
a. Implementation audit i. External review
b. Predictive techniques audit ii. Initial activities
c. Performance audit iii. Validation of impacts
d. Procedures audit iv. Comprehensive operational activities
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) i ii iii iv
32. The interaction matrix developed by Leopold consists of how many parameters ?
(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 70
(4) 90
33. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The goal of the National Land Utilisation Policy is to achieve
improvement of livelihood, food and water security under the umbrella
of sustainable development in India.
Reason (R) : The National Land Utilisation Policy envisages a guiding framework for
state specific needs, potentials, priorities and legal provisions.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
34. Which of the following is a major photochemical oxidant ?
(1) PAN
(2) Ozone
(3) Aldehydes
(4) Peroxybenzoyl nitrates (PBzN)
35. In terms of toxicity, identify the correct sequence :
(1) Arsenic > Cadmium > Methylene chloride
(2) Cadmium > Arsenic > Methylene chloride
(3) Methylene chloride > Cadmium > Arsenic
(4) Methylene chloride > Arsenic > Cadmium
J-89-16 7 Paper-III
Text of page 8
36. Upwelling of oceanic waters is important for
(1) enrichment of nutrients in pelagic waters.
(2) balancing water circulation pattern in oceans and seas.
(3) making the pelagic waters nutrient deficient.
(4) helping survival of benthic organisms.
37. Arrange the following in terms of increasing productivity :
a. Antarctica sea b. Arctic sea
c. Dead sea d. Arabian sea
Choose the correct answer :
(1) c < a < d < b (2) c < a < b < d
(3) d < b < c < a (4) a < c < d < b
38. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Process/Event) (Consequences/Links)
a. Assimilative capacity i. DO, BOD, Coliform
b. Critical water parameter ii. Cadmium
c. Itai-Itai disease iii. Blue baby syndrome
d. Excess nitrate in water iv. Waste discharge
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) ii iii i iv
39. Which type of plume behaviour one would expect from a tall stack located on a flat terrain
if adiabatic lapse rate (Γ) and environmental lapse rate (Γenv) are as shown in the diagram
below :
Γenv
Γ
(1) looping (2) fanning
(3) coning (4) trapping
Paper-III 8 J-89-16
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40. A road carrying heavy traffic has an average noise level of 90 dB when measured at a
distance of 10 metres. What would be the noise level at 20 metres distance ?
(1) 87 dB (2) 84 dB
(3) 60 dB (4) 45 dB
41. When biomass is converted to CO and H2O, the energy made available is ~ 450 kJ per
mol of carbon per unit of reduction level. What would be the heat of combustion per gram
of methane ?
(1) 28.125 kJ/g (2) 56.25 kJ/g
(3) 67.5 kJ/g (4) 135 kJ/g
42. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Hydrogen, as a fuel, when burned, does produce some amount of
pollution.
Reason (R) : Heat produced during combustion of hydrogen chemically combines N2
and O2 in atmosphere to produce NOx.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
43. Given standard enthalpies for methane, carbon dioxide and water vapour as ~ 75 kJ/mol,
394 kJ/mol and 240 kJ/mol, respectively. What is the net heat of combustion of methane ?
(1) – 799 kJ/mol (2) – 802 kJ/mol
(3) + 1598 kJ/mol (4) + 799 kJ/mol
44. In an ideal magnetohydrodynamic power plant, the speed of flow of the hot ionized gas is
u m/s. The maximum power output from the plant varies as
(1) ∝ u (2) ∝ u3/2
(3) ∝ u2 (4) ∝ u3
45. An ideal wind turbine located on a hill top produces electrical power. If wind speed
changes by 5%, by what percentage the electrical power will change ?
(1) 12.5 % (2) 25 %
(3) 30 % (4) 15 %
46. A person working in a nuclear reactor is exposed to a beam of thermal neutrons and
receives a dose of 20 millirads per hour for an exposure of 12 minutes. What is the
equivalent dose in millirems, the person is exposed to ?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16
J-89-16 9 Paper-III
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47. What is the approximate increase in radiative forcing if the CO2 concentration increases
from 400 ppm to 800 ppm ?
(1) ~ 4.37 W/m2 (2) ~ 3.81 W/m2
(3) ~ 2.72 W/m2 (4) ~ 1.62 W/m2
48. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Large parts of India have already become water stressed.
Reason (R) : Climate change may be the main reason.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
49. Ecosystem degradation refers to
a. loss or decrease in biodiversity.
b. modification in structure of abiotic components.
c. impairment of ecosystem processes such as nutrient cycling.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
50. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by
(1) reducing the albedo of the earth’s surface
(2) absorbing solar radiation
(3) blocking UV-B radiation on earth
(4) absorbing terrestrial radiation
51. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : As per equilibrium theory of island biogeography, distance of the islands
from the mainland determines the dispersal rate of new species.
Reason (R) : Size of an island is important in determining number of species.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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52. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : All cloud processes have implications for climate change.
Reason (R) : Clouds strongly affect the flux of both shortwave and infra-red light
through atmosphere.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
53. Using remote sensing for height measurement of trees, which microwave band is most
suitable ?
(1) X (2) C
(3) S (4) L
54. For public use, Survey of India publishes topographical maps on 1 : 50, 000 scale. These
maps use
(1) UTM projection and WGS 84 datum
(2) Polyconic projection and WGS84 datum
(3) UTM projection and Modified Mount Everest datum
(4) Polyconic projection and Modified Mount Everest datum
55. Sub-geostrophic winds in the earth-atmospheric system are caused by the balance
involving
(1) pressure gradient force, Coriolis force and frictional force
(2) pressure gradient force and Coriolis force
(3) pressure gradient force and frictional force
(4) Coriolis force and frictional force
56. Which one of the following is not a set of polymorphous minerals ?
(1) Calcite, aragonite, vaterite
(2) Quartz, coesite, tridymite
(3) Graphite, anthracite, diamond
(4) Kyanite, alusite and sillimanite
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57. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Geological events) (Processes)
a. Exfoliation dome i. Landform change
b. Rift valleys ii. Ultisols
c. Palaeomagnetism iii. Mechanical weathering
d. Pedogenesis iv. Seafloor spreading
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iv ii i iii
58. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Soil development begins with physical, chemical and biological
weathering of rocks.
Reason (R) : Anthropogenic factors play a major role in soil formation.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
59. The most common ferromagnesian rock forming minerals are as follows :
(1) Amphibole and Biotite Mica
(2) Muscovita mica and Quartz
(3) Galena and Pyrite
(4) Calcite and Dolomite
60. Underground coal mine fires can best be monitored by remote sensing technique in the
spectral region
(1) 3 – 5 μm (2) 10 – 12 μm
(3) 1 – 3 μm (4) 1 mm – 10 mm
61. Our inability to address the conflict between short term individual well-being and long
term societal welfare is responsible for the
(1) Tragedy of the population (2) Tragedy of the community
(3) Tragedy of the environment (4) Tragedy of the commons
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62. Proportion of representation of each species allows ecologists to compare different
communities through graphical representation. Such a graph is called
(1) Rank abundance curve
(2) Species accumulation curve
(3) Survivorship curve
(4) Sigmoid curve
63. Lincoln index is a mark-recapture method used in animals to estimate the
(1) total population density (2) total number
(3) total frequency (4) total dominance
64. K-selected population during ecological succession tends to dominate in
(1) mature stages (2) early stages
(3) pioneer stages (4) seral stages
65. Evolution can be viewed as
a. genetic change over time
b. a process of descent with modification
c. a sudden change in organism
d. a man-made change in oraganism
Choose the correct code :
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) c and d only (4) a and d only
66. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : C4 photosynthesis lowers photorespiratory energy loss.
Reason (R) : The greater supply of CO2 lowers the rate of O2 uptake by rubisco
substantially reducing photorespiration.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
67. Symbiotic blue-green algal biofertilizer is obtained from
(1) Nostoc species (2) Rhizobium species
(3) Azolla mass culture (4) Azospirillum mass culture
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68. With reference to smog consider the following statements :
a. Los Angeles smog is oxidizing.
b. London smog is reducing.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both a and b are false.
(2) Both a and b are true.
(3) a is false but b is true.
(4) a is true but b is false.
69. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Chemical Species) (Measurement Techniques)
a. DO i. West-Gaeke Method
b. SO2 ii. Non-dispersive infrared analyser
c. CO iii. Chemiluminescence
d. NO iv. Winkler’s Method
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) i iv iii ii
88 86
70. Disintegration of 226 Ra yields 222 Rn owing to the emission of
(1) two β-particles
(2) one α-particle
(3) γ-radiation
(4) one β-particle followed by an α-particle
71. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Temperature in stratosphere increases with increase in altitude.
Reason (R) : Photodissociation of O2 in stratosphere makes the lapse rate positive.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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72. At 15 °C, a manufacturer dissolves CO2 at 2.4 atm in water in a bottle. If Henry’s law
constant of CO2 in water be 0.045 mol L–1 atm–1 at 15 °C, calculate the concentration of
CO2 dissolved in water.
(1) 5.6 mol L–1 (2) 0.019 mol L–1
(3) 0.098 mol L–1 (4) 0.108 mol L–1
73. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Pesticides) (Purpose)
a. Malathion i. Molluscicide
b. Metaldehyde ii. Fungicide
c. Diethyl Tolumide (DEET) iii. Insecticide
d. Chloroneb iv. Insect repellant
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) i iii ii iv
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) iii i iv ii
74. Which of the following is not an Advanced Oxidation Process for the treatment of waste
water ?
(1) PhotoFenton Process
(2) Photocatalytic TiO2 Process
(3) UV/H2O2 Process
(4) Acidified Potassium Dichromate Oxidation Process
75. If a material containing humic substances is extracted with a strong base, and the resulting
solution is acidified, products are
a. humin
b. humic acid
c. fulvic acid
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c
(4) b and c only
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Space For Rough Work Paper-III 16 J-89-16
Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 16
Source: University Grants Commission. Question paper published by University Grants Commission.