UKPSC AE 2012: Uttarakhand Assistant Engineer (AE) Exam, Pre Examination
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GEI{ERAL STUDIES
I Where is the farnous Sun Temple of Konark situated ?
(a) MadhyaPradcsh O) AndhraPradesh
(c) Odisha (d) Rajasthan
2. In which dynasty the 'decimal syst€m' was introduced ?
(a) dynasty
Mauryan O)Gupta dynasty
(c) Kushandynasty (d)
Vardhan dynasty
3. During the reip of Harsha, which educuional centre was most famous ?
(a) Taxila G) Ndada
(c) Vilramshila (d) Kashi
4. From which place of Uttaralihand the Ashokan rock edict is reported ?
(a) Kalsi (b)
Kotdwar
(c) Gochar (d) Bhimtal
5. The famous rock-cut Kailash Temple is sioated at
(a) Ele,phanta O) Badami
(c) tUanaUipuram (d) Ellora
6. Who was the foundcr of the Nanda dynasty in ancicnt India ?
(a) Kalashok O)
MahaPadmaNand
(c) Ghananand (d)
Ajatshatru
7 Where is the 'Viiay Stambh' sioated ?
(a) Agra (b) Iaipur
(c) Delhi (d) Chittorgarh
& Ite nnme of Alibar's mother was
(a) Hameeda Banu o) Noor Banu
(c) Mariyam Banu (d) Nargis Banu
9. The Shiva Temple at Tanjavur was built by
(a) Golas O) Pallavas
(c) Pandyas (d) Rashtrakutas
10. Which Mughal nrlcr start€d the MsnsaHari system in India ?
(a) Babar (b) HumaYun
(c) Akbar (d) Sbahjnhan
11. Where is the tomb of Humayun situatcd ?
(a) Agra r(b) Delhi
(c) Sikandara (d) None of the above
t2. Theauthmof thcbook'Motherlndia' is
(a) Catherinc Mayo o) Louis Fischcr
(c) HughToye (d) None of the above
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13. When did British Government took India uoder its own confiol from the East India
Company ?
(a) IE33A.D. O) 1E42A'D'
(c) l85E A.D. (d) 1911 A'D'
14. The author of the book 'Unhap'py lndia' was
(a) lala Iajpat Rai G) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) AnnieBesant (d) Chitranian Das
15. 'sravanbclagola' is associated with
(a) Buddhism O) Ajivikas
(c) Iainism (d) Shaivism
16. In which Starc is the 'Pawnar Ashrarn' of Vinoba Bhave situated ?
(a) Gujarat G) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
17, which one of the following American Joumalisr accompanied Mahatma Gandhi during
Quit India Movement ?
(a) Shirer
Willian L. (b) Web Miller
(c) LouisFischer (d) Negli Farsan
I& Which among the following was the founder of the 'Gadar Party' ?
(a) I-ala Hardayal O) Bhagat Singh
(c) Balgangadbar Tilak (d) Abul Kalam Azad
19. lVhere did Swami Vivekanand attend the 'Yilorld Parliament of Religion' in 1893 ?
(a) Chicago O) New York
(c) lVashington (d) Alaska
m, Who was the Viceroy at the time of the lallianwala Bagh massacre ?
(a) Lnrd Dalhousie (b) Lord Chelrnsford
(c) Lord Minto (d) lord RiPon
21. India's third research statiou in Antarctica is
(a) Gangotri O) Maitry
(c) Shaurya (d) Bharti
?:L 'Earth Hour 2012' was celebrated on
(a) l6d'March 2012 O) 2ot March 2012
(c) 3lnMarch 2ol2 (d) l't April 2012
23. 'I.ohsl Bill' was introduced in the Lok Sabha for the fust time in the year
(a) 1968 O) 1970
(c) t975 (d) 20t2
,A Who propounded the idea of 'Total Revolution' in Indian Politics ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi O) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) BhimRao Ambedkar (d) Jai Prakash Narayan
2l,. Which futicle is related to the Election Commission of India ?
(a) Articte 301 (b) Atacle3%
(c) Articlc 333 (d) Article 370
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26. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution is relatcd to the composition and powers of the
Panchavats ?
(a) g6scnedule O) lobschedule
(c) llu schedule (d) l2e schedule
n. Who among the following has described the Indian Constihrtion as 'Qausi-Federal' ?
(a) KC. Wheare O) Ivm Jennings
(c) Allan Gledhill (d) Granvil Austin
X Article-32 of the Indian Constinrtion is related to
(a) hesident O) Prime Minister
(c) Violatioos of Fundamental Rights (d) Governor
D. Before Forty-second Constiotional Amendment, under which Article of the Indian
Constitutior, the word 'Secular' was used ?
(a) Article20 O) Article5(l)
(c) Artircle2i(2) (d) Article 28
30. Which one of the following combinatione is fi@l[yJq4E!g[ ?
Llst-I Ltst-[
(Organtaton) (Eeadquartcn)
(a) Intcmational Coufi of Iustice - Washington D'C.
(b) WorldBank - NewYork
(c) LJNESCO - Haguc
(d) WHO Geneva
31. Which one of the following pairs is corectly narchcd ?
(a) Writ of llabeas Corpur - issued ooly to the State
O) Writ of Mandamus - issued o the public scrvaat
(c) Writ of Quo-Wananto - issued o the subordinarc courts
(d) Writ of hohibition - issued to the privlte individuals
32. March List _ I wittr List _ tr and select the coE€ct a$u,er by using the codes given below
the lists.
Ltut-I Llst-U
A. Fir$L,oksabhaspe€kcr - t. FatimaBccvi
B. Fint Woman ludge of - 2. Sarojini Naidu
Suprcrc Court oflndia
C. First Chief Justice of Supreme - 3. G.V. lvlavalanknr
Court of Indis
D. First WoEatr Governor - 4. HJ. Kada
Codes:
A B c D
(a) 3 t 4 2
o) 4 2 3 1
(c) I 2 3 4
(d) 4 3 2 I
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33. The 50o snniv615 y sf 'Universal Declaration of Human Rights' was c€lebrated on
(a) l0oDecember 1978 O) l06December 1988
i"t lOu Dec€mber 1998 (d) 106 December 2008
y. How mnny Stetes and Union Territories are there in lndia ?
(a) 2E States and 7 Union Territories (b)
27 Statcs ad E Union Territories
(c) 26 States and 9 Union Terriories (d)
25 States and l0 Union Territories
35. The word 'satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the Ashokan Uon Capital, the National
Emblem of India, is taken from
(a) Rigveda O) MundakaUPanishad
(c) Bhagawatgita (d) None of the above
36. 'Right to Information Act' was enacted in the year :
(a) 2w O) 2@5
(c) 2w (d) 20o7
37. Which of the following is not an office of the profit under the Indian Constihrtion ?
(a) President
(b) Govemor
(c) Iudges of the Supreme Coun
(d) Ministers of the Union and State GovemmeD,ts
3E. Which of the following statements is re!!@!.?
(a) The United Nations was established on Z'Ocober 1945.
(b) The Secudty Council of U.N, is composed of l0 non-penrunent members and 5
permanent members.
(c) The official language of U.N. is German language.
(d) At g€sent there arc 193 member countries in United Nations.
9. Which one of the following combinations is not conectlv marched ?
List-I Ltut-tr
(Organlzaflons) (Founders)
(a) Servants of India Society - Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Doccan Blucation Saiety - Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(c) Muslim kague - Mohammed Ali linnah
(d) Prarthana Samaj - Dayanand Saraswati
40. In which Island of lndian Ocean the U.S. Naval base is located ?
(a) Okinawa O) Seychelles
(c) Diego Garcia (d) Ia Reunion
41. The unit of natural selection is the
(a) Individual O) Population
(c) Species (d) Family
42. Which of the following macromolecules is a protein ?
(a) Glycogen O) Keratitr
(c) Cholesterol (d) Chitirl
43. The cotton fibre from cotton plaut is obtained from
(a) roots O) stenN
(c) leaves (d) seed coats
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4. 'Bhopal Tragedy' occurred due o a highly toxic chemical whose name is
(a) methyl ethyl isocyanate (b) methyl isocyanate
(c) methyl cyanate (d) ethyl isocyanate
4!t. The name of the paper published by M.K. Gandhi in South Africa was
(a) Navajivan O) Harijao
(c) Indian Opinion (d) African News
6. Who was thc First Iodian to reccive Magsaysay Award ?
(a) Indira Gandhi O) T.N. Sheshan
(c) Kiran Bedi (d) Vinoba Bhave
O. Bio-gas is a mixture of
(a) CH4,CO2,Hr, lLS (b) CH4,C[2,N2,NH3
(c) CSl4,tl",Clz,CO2 (d) CH4, NH3, CO2, SO2
4t. Oxidatrt us€d in the manufacture of march sticks is
(a) Potassium dichromate O) Potassium permanganate
(c) Poassiunnitrate (d) Nitric acid
49. Which of the following ig us€d in meking bullet proof subsaoce ?
(a) Polycarbonate O) Polyamide
(c) Polyethylene (d) Polyvinyl chloride
50. Which of the following is pure and ft,ee from impurities ?
(a) Boiled watcr (b) Distilled water
(c) Mineral water (d) Spring water
51. 'Raiabow Revolution' in India is related with
(a) Filmlndustry O) Space Research
(c) Agricultral Development (d) Communication Development
52. Which of the following is not laated on the 'Golden Quadrilateral' of National Highways ?
(a) Agra O) Surat
(c) Bhuvaneshwar (d) Kanyakumari
53. The reference date of Indian Census 2011 was
(a) 3lst December,20l0 (b) lsJanuary,20ll
(c) l't March, 2011 (d) l't April, 201 I
54 Given below are the two statements, labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the
corrEct answer from the gg4les given below :
Asseriion (A) : Himalaya Mountain protects India from the Northcm cold winds in
winter season.
Reason (R) : Himalaya is the hishest atrd youngest folded mount4in of the world-
Codcs :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and @) is the correct explanation of (A).
O) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is tnre.
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55. Which one of the following pairs is gg! contctly marched ?
Planets Spoce Crafts
(a) Venus - Venera-4
(b) Mars - Mariner4
(c) Jupiter - Voyager-l
(d) Mercury - Messenger
56. Which of the following statements is gQEIeq! about 'Daom' line ?
(a) It is a horizontal line from where heights and dcpths rreasurcd.
O) It is a line of demarcations between plain aud plarcau.
(c) It is the date line for the Earth.
(d) ft ig an imaginary line which passes through the centre of the Earth.
57. Which of the following is correctly marched ?
(a) Prairies - Russia
O) Geyser - Australia
(c) Pampas - Canada
(d) Velds - Central Asia
5t. 'Floating Islands' are particular feature of one of the lakes in India which is
(a) Rennke Sagar O) Bhimtal
(c) Puskarlake (d) Ioktakl^ake
59. Jawahaf, tuorcl on Jammu-Srinagar highs'ays is relared with
(a) PirPanjalRange O) KarakoramRange
(c) ZanskarRange (d) Laddakh Range
60. 'Black Forest Mountain' is located in
(a) Poland (b) Spain
(c) Germany (d) Italy
61. Which one of the followiag stat€ments is not correct about the Representative Fraction
(R.F.) ?
. (a) The numerator of R.F. is always one.
(b) The denominator of R.F. is in the same unit of length.
(c) Through R.F. the scale can be converted in any other unit of length.
(d) The graphical scale can not be comtructed on the basis of RF.
62. The distance between place 'A' and place 'B' is represented on a map, denoting
Representative Fraction (R.F.) 1120,00,000 is represented by 15 cm. The acoal distance
berween the places will be
(a) 150 km. (b) 300 km.
(c) 3500 km. (d) ,l(n0 km
63. Which one of the following mountains pass is not located in Uttaratfiand ?
(a) Timjan La O) Thaga l,a
(c) Kungribingrila (d) Shipkila
A. Whatis'BHUVAN'?
(a) An Indian missile
O) A ship of Indian Navy
(c) A Geoportal of Indian Space Research Organization
(d) A fighter plane of lndian Air Force
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65. Arrange the following Continents in descending ordcr of their geographical area and select
the conect answer from the codes given below :
1. America
South 2. Europe
3. Australia 4. Antarctica
Codcs:
(a) 1,4,2,3 (b) 1,2,3,4
(c) 2,4,3,r (d) 3,2,4,r
6. In which city was tbe capial of Mauryas ?
(a) Kannauj O) Patliputra
(c) Vaishali (d) Ujjain
tr. Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
As*rtfutn (A) : In all the canal irrigared arcas of North India, war€r logging is a serious
problem associated with over irrigation.
Reason (B) : The Indira GaDdhi Canal ssmmand aree is reccnt example in which
wat€r logging is progressively becoming a serious tnemce to the
agricultural land.
Choose the correct answer from the codee :
Codcs:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
O) (A) is tue and (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false and (R) is mre.
(d) Both (A) and (R) sre false.
6t. Which of the following, is lnown as 'Flame of the Forest' ?
(a) Rosewood O) Chanpa
(c) Pdash (d) Semul
dt. Which of the following altiurdinal zone of Utaralhand contains maximum forest cover ?
(a) Below 1000 metre (b) 1000 to 2000 mefie
(c) 2000to3000metre (d) Abovc3000metre
70. Consider the following statements about the rivers and select the corrcrct enswer from the
codes given below :
1. Tons is a tributary of Ysmuna.
2. f,hilangana is a tributary of Bhagirathi.
3. Pindar is a tributary of Ganga-
4. Mandakini is a tributary of Alaknanda.
Codes : t
(a) All are correct. O) Only 1, 2 and 3 ar€ c<xrEcL
(c) Only 2,3 and 4 are correct, (d) Only l, 2 and 4 are correcL
71. Which one of the following statements is not correct about ngni-V missile ?
(a) It was successfully test fired on 19't Ap,ril, 2012 from Wheeler Island.
O) It has a range of 5,500 kilometres.
(c) It is abgut 120 Eetres long and three metres wide.
(O It can carry nuclear war head of more than one tonne.
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7?^ Match List - I with List - tr and sclect the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists :
Llst - I Lbr-tr
(Nafional Park) (State)
A. Bandipur National Park -1. Urar hadesh
B. Dlrdhwa National Park -2. Ikmataka
C. Gir National Park -3. Orissa
D. Simlipal National Park -4. Gujarat
Codes:
ABCD
(a)423r
o)2143
(c) 1,4 I 3
(d)3142
73. Which one of the followiag pairs is eretly matched ?
(a) Halon gas - Fire extinguisher
O) Polythene - Artificial fibre
(c) Yeast - Carbohydrate
(d) Nylon - Nanral fibrc
74. Richter Scale is used for measuring
(a) Humidity in Atmosphere o) Velocity of Wind
(c) Velocity of Water (d) Intensity of Earthquake
75. March List - I with List - tr and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
Llst - t Llct-tr
A Coal l. Ore of kon
B Uranium 2, Thermal Plant
c Hematite 3. Cement Industry
D Lifiestone 4. Radioactive Substance
Codcs
A B c D
(a) I 2 4 3
o) ) I 3 4
(c) 2 4 I 3
(d) 3 4 I 2
76. Wbat is the correct order of succession of the Presidents of India ?
l. Dr. Zakir Hussain
2. Dr. S. Radhatrishnan
3. Fakhruddin Ali Ahed
4. V.V. Giri
(a) 2,3,4,r o) 3,2,4,1
(c) 4,1,2,3 (d) 2,1,4,3
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Tl. With which sport the term 'Chinaman' is associarcd ?
(a) Boxing O) Football
(c) Cricket (d) Iudo
7E. The Teonis player who won singles title of 'Australian Open-2012' is
(a) Roger Federrer (b) Rafael Nadal
(c) LeanderPaes .(d) NovakDjokovik
79. On which of the following ground/place Sachin Tendulkar played his 100h test march ?
(a) Mumbai O) KandY
(c) Oval (d) CaPe Town
t0. lYho was the first Indian to become a member of British Parliarnent ?
(a) W'C. Banne{ee O) M' Malabari
(c) DN. Vocha (d) Dadabhai Naoroji ,
El. Who among the following was elected as the Chairperson of International Monetary Fund
(IMF)itr2011 ?
(a) IlillaryClinton (b) Christinelagarde
(c) Indira Nuie (d) Sheik Haseena Wajed
ta 'Hisology' is associared with
(a) Study of tissues O) Study of finger prints
(c) Study of heart diseases (d) Science of plant kingdom
E3. To whom was the pnestigious 'Templeton Prize' for the year 2012, awarded ?
(a) AungSanSuuKyi (b) Dalail,ama
(e) Dilma Rousseff (d) Hillary Clinton
E4. On the occasion of which mathematician's birthday, the Prime Minister of India declarcd
the year ?-O12, as 'National Mathematics Year' ?
(a) Sir C.V. Raman (b) J.C. Bose
(c) Srinivasau Ramanujam (d) S. Chindrashekhar
E5. 'ELISA' test is done for the detection of
(a) Diabetes O) AIDS
(c) T.B. (d) Cancer
E6. The advantage of using an IC is
(a) Easy replacement in case of circuit failure
O) Energy-saving
(c) High reliabitty
(d) All ofthe above
gl. A Gchnique used by codes to convert an analog signal into a digital bit stream is known as
(a) Pulse code modulation (b) Pulse stretcher
(c) Queryprocessing (d) Queue management
t8. The power of which number is used in the binary system ?
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) l0 (d) 8
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E9. What difference do the 56 generation computers have froin old generation computers ?
(a) Technotogical advancement O) Scientific code
(c) Object oriented programming (d) None ofthe above
90. A device designed to read information encoded into a small plastic card is
(a) Magnetic tape O) Badge reader
(c) Tapepuncher (d) Card Puncher
91. Binary numbers need more places for couoting because
(a) Ttey are always small numbers
(b) Any no. of 0's can be added in front of them
(c) Binary base is small
(d) 0's and 1's have to be propedy spaced apart
yL Which language was devised by D'G. Bobrow, W. Feurzeig' Seymour Papert and
C. Solomon ?
.(a) API- O) coBOL
(c) FORTRAN (d) LoGO
93. The time required for the ferching and execution of one simple machine instuction is
(a) Delay time O) CPU cYcle
(c) Real tin€ (d) Seek time
94. An optical input device that interprets pencil marks on paper is
(a) OMR (Optic MartRecopition) (b) Punch CardReader
(c) Optical Scanoer (d) Maguetic Tape
95. The complete pictur€ of daa stored in database is known as
(a) Record O) Schema
(c) System flowchart (d) DBMS
96. Which part of comput€r system, int€rprets program instructiong and initiate control
operations ?
(a) Input O) Storage unit
(c) Logc utrit (d) Control unit
91. Whotvas honoured with Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2011 ?
(a) Manoj Kumar O) Pran
(c) Soumitra Chatrc{ee (d) Vaijantimala
98. lVhat is the percentage of carbon-di-oxide gas in earth's atmosphere ?
(a) 0.03% (b) 0.3%
(c) about 10% (d) abnlur'2l%
99. The slogan of 'Commonwealth Games 2010' was
(a) Go Forward O) Play aod Win
(c) TouchtheSky (d) ComeoutandPlay
lfl). In which reign of the Mughal nrler, the 'Ramcharitmanas' was written ?
(a) Babar O) HumaYun
(c) Alfiar (d) BahadurShahZafar
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PaPer-I
The sensitivity of a closed loop syste'n
to gain changes and load disturbances depends
1
upon
o) loop gain
(a) forward gain (d) all the above
(c) frequencY
2. Transfer function of a zero order hold
will be
(a) l-er' O) I + e-Ts
I - eT'
(c) -a-
I -e-r" (d)
s
y state error of the sYstem
3 By increasing the gain 'k' of a system, stead
(a) increases O) decreases
G) remains unaffected
(d) nothing can be said
from rest is given by C(1) = I - s-2t; t > 0'
4. The unit impulse response ofa system starting
The transfei function of the system is
2t (b) Cq
(a) Gi5
2t (d) (l.r.)
(c) G-*r)
given by 3sa + l0s3 + 5s2 + 2 = 0'
I The characteristic equation ofa systcm is
The system is
(a) stable
O) unstable
(c) incomPlete data is given
Ue iasted by characteristic equation
td ttrUitiiy
"*lnot
6. Consideringtheunityfeedbacksystenrshownbelow,thesettlingtimeforthesysternfor
2% tolerance band will be
R + 9 c
s s +2.4
(a) 2.25 :o) 2.U
(c) 3.33 tbl 4.50
7 The state model of a sptem is rePresented as
. T0 I I X. As Mnsfer firnction will be
x=L
1
-z -l ]*. [? ]"*uoutputv=
O]
2
(a) o) s2+s+2
s2+2s+3
3 I
(c) (d)
s2+2s+3 s2+3s+2
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cascaded to another block
response is 0.5 (1- s-2) is
8. A cortrol system whose -t t*
e{' tte t ansfer firnction of the combination
is
whose unit imPulse resPonse is
I I
(4, (s+ l)(s+2) O);(r.1)
I
(c)
0.5 (d) ,G.rt
(s+l)(s+2)
' U'*
itt final value is
9 If the Laplace transfomr of a signal i" 6S
(a) -t o) 0
(d) unbounded
(c) I
below, is
10. The feedback system whose Nyquist plot is shown
w=0- w:-6
w=0' 1l,=+co
o) conditionallY stable
(a) unstable (d) none ofthese
(c) stable
is
11. In force-current analogy, analogous ofdisp lacement
(b) flux linkage
(a) charge (d) curr€nt density
(c) voltage
error is
12. ln a type - 1 system, the steady state acceleration unity
(a) zero O)
(c) infinite (d) 0.5
phase margin close to zero is
13. A systenr with gain margin close to unity or a
(a) conditionallYstable O) relativelYoscillatory
sable
(c) highlYstable (d) highlY
control system of transfer function
14. Natural frequency of a unity feedback
10
G(s):q15rc
o) 0.5 radlsec
(a) 3.16 rad/sec (d) 2.Orudls*
(c) 4.6 rad,lser,
15. Push-pull amplifier circuit is used as (b) audio amPlifier
(a) RF "mPlifier (d) current amPlifi€r
(c) Power amPlifier
15. The unit of mobilitY is (b) m2lvs
(a) cm/Vs
(c) m/Vs2 (d) mho/m
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systern rs
and hansienr response of a control
stability-C)
17. The best method for determining the
NYquist Plot
(a) Bode Plot (a) R6uth-Hurwitz
G) Root locus
measures-the difference beMeen
In a control system, the comparator
$"ffi;;--
18. svs'lem
Ef
"
:#I'#f s] ffi|Hl"#"T.if;fd
-
lntepration of unit step function results in a
Ai-;ilh;;bl;i ' o)
19. unil imPurse
t;i iliip*""ulrir" (d) unit rarnP
reE)olrse of a second order system'
the damping ratio must be
20. For a desirable transient
between *4 l'o
(a) 0.4 and o.E O) ^o^-r'
(d) 9'!
t:i 6:i;d o: 0,2 and o'4
answer using codes given below the
lists :
21. Match the folrowing lists and select the correct
List - 1 List - 2
(fime ResPonse) (LaplacFtrrnsform)
A. sin olt 1. F*.5 (i)
B. cos rot ,, I
(s-#
s
C. eat sin ot 3.
1sz - to2)
D. ted
4.
(D
l(D2+(s+a)21
Codes :
A B C D
(a) I 4 J )
o)l
(c)
3 4
J
1
4
t
)
(d) 1 3 4 2
codes give'n below the
22. Match List - I with List - tr and select the correct answer using the
lists.
List - I List - II
A. Separately excited d.c. geirerator I
k
(l + ts)
B. A.C. Servomotor a
k
[s(1 + rs)]
C. Lag network 3. (s+z/(s+P)
For Z<P -
D. Lead network 4. (l +t,s(l + trs)
It<az
codes
ABCD
(a) 1234
o) 1243
(c) 2143
(d) 1423
6 sE$07
Sertes-C
Text of page 48
23 Considerthe<lifferentialequationli+2!+y:Uwherey(0)=O,i(0):0anduisaunit
step function. The poles ofthe system are
id;;:-1,s2:-l (b) sr=jrs2--jl .
(c) s,:-t,sr=-Z (d) ,sr= l,sr:2
24. X is a two dimensional vector [X, Xrlr' The scalar function
Vfi) : xf + xrxr is i'
(a) positive definite O) positile semi definite"
t;i negative defnite (d) indefinite : .
25 Synchros in control systems are used as
<il error detectors : , 9J encoders : ',:
i;i (b)
both (a) and (d) none ofthese
26. For the ns order system, the state equations are of the order
of
(a) no o) n
(c) n 4 (d) n l2
27. A system is represented by the differential equation
,#.0* +8y:s,. ,:'i it I
"
Its damping ratio is
(a) o.7 q) 0's
("i 2 "(d) I
The steady state error for a first order system having transfer function;*l-
for unit step'
28.
ramp and impulse test signals-respqctively are
(a) O, T, T (b) T,O, o
("i o, o, r (d) oT o
29 The end points of root loci ar. e ' .
i"i 9i*r"gi,ilgoq , , I (d). elosedloopzeros ,.: ,
encloses
30. If the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s) HG) of a closed,loop syst€m
(-1,--j0) poin! the gain margil of the sy.stem is : i
iol ioii"it" . i O) less than zero
G) greater than zero (d) zero
31. Theplot glve,n below is of
I G(iw) I
40 db
20 db
log o
-,10 db
(a) lead compensator o) lag compensator .
(c) PID conholler (d) leadJag compensator
Series-C 8 sEs07
,
Text of page 50
in electronic circuits is
32. The diode oftenly used for voltage re gulation
(a) Zenet O) Varactor
(c) Silicon (d) Germanium
circuit is
33. To generate I MHz signal, the most suitable oscillator
(a) Wein bridge oscillalor O) Phase shift
(c) ColPittsoscillator
(d) None of these
present in the combination of
34 Both donor and acce'ptor irrrpurities are
6"'il;il;;-'e**i" O) Aluminium-Arpimonv
(d) Arsenic
Ei eod, - cdri". - Antimonv
35. The Hartley oscillator frequency is
1
fo: 2n LeqC
The value of Leq is determined bY
(a) Lt+L2+2M (b) Lr -12+M
(c) Lr+L2-2I0'{ (d) Lr 'Lz-M
of a transistor circuit is
36. The current gain of a common emitter configuration
I^
(a)
h
Ic
o)t
lE (d) Ie
(c) IB
IB
cathode ofa SCR is to
37. A resistance connected across the gate and the
(a) increase holding current of SCR
(b) decrease noise immunitY of SCR
(c) increase tum-off time of SCR
(d) increase dv/dt rating of SCR
Resistivity of n-type silicon sample is 0'5 Oern'
If the elechon mobility is 1250 cm2lv-sec
38
and charge of an electron iJ; , lfrl9 coulortb, the donor impurity concentration
per cm3 is
1 x 1016
(a) 2x tff o)
2 x lOls
(c) 2.5 x 106 (d)
39 Amaterialhasconductivityofl0_2mho/mandrelativepermittivityof4.Thefrequencyat
which the conduction current ii the rn"aitoo it equal to
t!9 displacement curr€'nt' is
(a) 4soMHz O) 900MHz
i") 4sMHz (d) 90 MIIZ
oC
has o saoration current of l0 pA'
40. A silicon p-n junction at a temperature of 20 ryT*be
The reverse saturation current at 40 "C will approximately
i"t sopA (d) 6oPA
sD,s.,,07
Scrles.C t0
Text of page 52
answer using codes given below the
41. Match List - I with List - tr and select the correct
lists.
List - I List - II
A. Form factor of half wave rectified sine wave'
t. 1.57
B. Form factor of full wave rectified sine wave'
2. 1.41
C. Peak factor ofhalfwave rectified sine wave'
3. 2.00
D. Peak factor of full wave rectified sine wave'
4. 1.ll
Codes :
AB C D
)
(a)13 4
o)14
(c)41
2
3
3
2
(d)14 3 a
and L : 5 pH' The
42. In a transistor Colpitts oscillator, Cr = 0'001 pF, Cz = 0'01 FF
fiequency of oscillation in MHz will be
(a'l' z.*lirrrz 1u) lo'ooMHz
i.t rl.s4MHz (d) e'oeMHz
in CB configuration'
43 ln a transistor, lrl,: 50, \" = 830 ohms' and ho" = 10ra' When used
its output resistance is about
(a) 2Mohm o) 500 K ohm
(c) 2.5Mohm (d) 780 K ohm
4. Ifthefeedbackfactorofanampliferis0.landitsgainwithoutfedbackis40,the,nits
gain with feedback is
t"l - 13.3 O) 20o
Gi 8 (d) 10
45. If the filter capacitance is increase{ the ripple wiu
(a) remiun same (b) increase
(c) decrease (d) be zero
46. A high-Q tuned circuit in an amplifier permits to have.higlt
-selectivitY
(a) O) fidelitY
Gi sensitivity (d) frequencyranges
47. If the gate voltage V* of a MOSFET is increased, then
(a) mobile charges carrier density decreases'
O) charmel conductivity increases
(c) channel widens
(d) channelconductivitydecreases
48. If the emitter resistance '\' in a transistor amplifier is removd thcn
(a) base to emitter junction will be less forward biased'
(b) gain of amPlifier decreases.
(c) Q-point becomes unstable.
(d) All ofthese
t2 SES-]07
Sertes-C
t
Text of page 54
49. [n an astable multivibrator
(a) P= I O) PA= I
(c) p> t (d) P< I
50. A Zmer diode has a brcak down voltage of 9v and maximum power dissipation of
360 mW. The maximum current the diode can handle is
(a) 20mA O) 30mA
(c) 35 mA (d) 'rcmA
51. In a llartley oscillator, Lr = 0.1 mH, L, = l0 pII and mutual inductance betwcen coils
equals 20 pH. The voltage gain needed for susained oscillations should be
(a) 2.37 O)
0.1
(c) 11.54 (d) 9.09
52. The amplifier having the highest amount of distortion is
(a) Class A O) Class B
(c) Class C (d) Class AB
53. The set of Eansistor characteristics which e,nable a to be daermined directly from the
slope is
(a) CB transfer chracteristics (b) CE transfer chracteristics
(c) CB input chracteristics (d) CE output chracteristics
g. The voltage Vo of the circuit shown below is
+5V
20
%
c
5c,
E
(a)
(c)
5.1
2.5V
v o) 3.r v
(d) ?rlro
55. In practice generative breaking is used whe,n
(a) quick motor reversal is desir€d.
O) load has overhauling characteristic
(c) controlling elevators, rolling rnills stc.
(d) none ofthese
56. For heating a magnetic material using induction heating, the hysteresis and eddy currtnt
losses are respectively proportional to
(a) fand f2 O) f2 and f
(c) f and f .(d) none ofthe above
57. The widely used series-parallel system of Opeai control of d.c. s€ries motors in taction
work gives a speed range ofabout
(a) 1:2 (b) I :3
(c) t:4 (d) I :6
Scrls.C . 1{ SES{I7
It
Text of page 56
58. The latching current in the circuit shown below is 4 mA. The minimum width of the gate
pulse required to tur! on the thyristor is
100 v
(a) 6psec (b) 4psec
(c) 2 p" sec (d) I p sec
59. A thyristor is triggered by a pulse train of 5 kIIz. The duty ratio is 0.4. If the allowable
average power is 100 W, the maximum allowable gate drive power will be
(a) sow O) ls0w
(c) roo{rw (d) 2sow
60. A three phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400 V rms, 50 Hz, three- phase a.c.
source. Forlhe purely resistive load, the peak instantaneous output voltage is
(a) 4oqE v (b) 400 v
(c)
400
r/r
(d) 400
# V
61. If a d.c. motor is disconnected from the source and aflnature circuit is short circuited
through a suitable resistance, the process is called
(a) regenerative breaking O) rheostatic breaking
(c) dynamic breaking (d)no breaking is possible
62. In single pulse modulation of PWM inverters, third harmonic can be eliminated if pulse
width is equal to
(a) l80o (b) t2o'
(c) 60o (d) 30o
63. A single phase fulI bridge converter supplies a load drawing constant and ripple free load
current. If the triggering angle is 30', the input power factor wi[-be ,.
(a) 0.65 O) 0.78
(c) 0.85 (di0.866
il. A separately excited d.c. motor fed from single phase full converter with firing angle 60o
runs at 1000 r.p.m. If motor is connected to single phase semiconverter with the same
firing angle of60o, it would run at
(a) 2000rpm (b) l850rpm
(c) l500rpn (df,, 1000rpm
65. The total charge within a sphere of I m radius for d:.r A, C/m2 is
(a) 4.19C (b). 3.14C
(c) 1.00 C (dl 8.38 c
Series-C tG sE$07
Text of page 58
66. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance Co, the electric field is E. If a dielectric slab
with dielectric constant = 7 is introduced to fill'capacitor completely, the electric freld will
become
(a) TE O) Et1
(c) Et}.s (d) E. Co
_+ -+
67. If the magnitude of ri in a plane wave is I Amp/meter, the magnitude of E for a plane
wave in free space is
(a) 367.27 volttm (b) 637.72voltlm
(c) 736.27 voltlm (d) 376.72voltlm
68. The condition for an electric field B to be a static field is
(a) g"B.a?=qreo O) 4,8'47=o
-+ -)
(c) vxE=0 (d) Vx E=p
6{r. Piezo elecric effect is generally observed in
(a) conductors and zuper conductors
(b) conductors and semi mnductors
(c) insulators
(d) insulators and conductors
70. Detemrine the phase velocity of a plane electro magretic waye at l0 GHz frequency in
polythene. For polythene yr= l, er=2.3.
(a) 1.977 x 108 m/sec O) 2.917 x 108 rn/s€c
(c) 3 x 108 m/sec (d) 7.917 x lOE m/sec
71. The depth ofpenetration ofwave in a lossy dielectric increases with the increase of
(a) mnductivity O) permeability
(c) wave length (d) permittivity
72. The transient response ofthe initially relaxed RC network shown below is
t:0 R
v ,o,) c
(a) i(t) : vR e-{/RC v
o) (0 R eflc
(c) i(t) : vR (l -/R9 (d) (0 V
R
( + e-uR9
73. Fourier series fimctions of a periodic signal with half wave s)lmmetry contains only
(a) sine temrs (b) cosine terms
(c) oddbarrnonics (d) even harmonics
Series-C lt sE$07
Text of page 60
74. The current in I ohm resistor in the network is
4V 2A
2V 4c,
2V 2A
lo
(a) t3t9 A (b) tag A
(c) ll/9 A (d) l0/9A
75. Tmnsient current in a RLC circuit is oscillatory when
(a) *=r\Ctl o) R.rycE
(c) *rr{3 (d) R:0
76. At halfpower frequencies the current in a RLC series circuit is
-L x the current at r€sonance
I
(a)
2 o) r/r x the cuE€nt at r€sonancc
(c) !4 x the current at r€sonance (d) t tne current at resonance
fi
TI. If the voltage 4plied across a c4acitor is tiangular in waveform, the waveform of the
curre,nt is
(a) Triangular O) Rectangular
(c) Sinusoidal (d) Tr4ezoidal '
7a. The resonance freque,ncy ofthe series circuit shown below is
M=
2H 2H 2F
I
(a) Hz
4n
I
o)
ffi I
Hz
(c)
ffi Hz
(d)
**n
Scrlcc-C 20 SIESLO'
Text of page 62
79 The admittance parameter Y,, in the following two-port network is
Il 20r) l2
El 5c) 10rr E2
(a) - 0.2 mho o) 0.1 mho
(c) - 0.05 mho (d) 0.05 mho
E0. The driving point fimction of the network shown below is
4s) L= 0.05 H C=5F R=2O
0.2s
(a)
(*+0.1s+2)
0.2s
o) _---:-
(sz+0.1s+4)
0.2s
(c)
(s2+s+4)
(d) ----:- s
(sz+0.Is+4)
t1 Potential difference V,, in the giv€n circuit is
2A x 4V
2V 3c) 3C, 5r)
4y
(a) 2.7 Y (b) 3.2Y
(c) 3.7 V (d) 4.2V
Series-C 22 sE${y,
I
Text of page 64
82. The effective resistance faced by the voltage source in the circuit shown below is
5c)
I
v
(a) 4A o) 3c)
(c) 5c) (d) lo
83. In the circuit shown below, the value of load resistance R, to extract madmum power and
the maximum power will be respectively
6C)
3V 3Q R1
(a) 2A;3.75W (b) 9 A;0.573 W
(c) 6 A ;0.375 W (d) 18 Cl;0.0375 W
84. The switchs in the circuit has been opened gince a very long time. The value of current
through resistor R, immediately after switch is closed, will be
's'
R2
R1
v L
(a)
V
(b)
v
Rl Rr +&
V
(c)
q (d) zero
Series-C 24 sE$07
I
Text of page 68
87. Superposition theorem can be applied only to the circuits having
Passive elements
(a) Non linear elements ,G)
Linear bilateral elements (d) Resistive elements
(c)
gg. Two identical 3 V, f O batteries are connected in parallel with like polarity' Norton
equivalent of the combination is
(a) 3A,0.so O) 6A'10
(c) 3A, lc) (d) 6Ae0'sO
89. In delta connected load, the zero sequence currents
(a) are absent O) c culate locdly
(c) flow tlirough phase wires (d) flow through earthwires
90. The curretrt in the resistance R, of the give'lr circuit is
4C) 6C,
8c)
30v Rr.= 15 O
I 4A
B
(a) 2.4A from B to A (b) l.4AfromBtoA
(c) 2.4 A from Ato B (d) l.4AfromAtoB
: 0.5- Peak
91. A step down chopper as shown below is switched at I kIIz with duty ratio D
to peak ripple in load current is nearly
N CH
200 mH
5c)
100 v
(a) 10A o) 0.5 A
(c) 0.125 A (d) 0.25 A
28 sES.07
Series.C
I
Text of page 70
y2. The moving iron volheter indicates
(a) the same value for dc and ac voltages'
O) lower values for ac voltage than for corresponding dc voltage.
(c) higher value for ac voltage than for corresponding dc voltage'
(d) none ofthege.
93. A capacitor is fully charged to 24v and then connected between points A and B iil'the
n€twork give,n below with its positive plate connected at A. The curre,nt through the 2 16)
resistor immediately after the capacitor is connecte{ is
rko
A
5V 2l<d2
B
(a) ?Ero O) 2r.A
(c) 8 mA (d) 12mA
: . t,
Y. In a network, if the number of holes is n and nunrber of elcments is e, then the number of
indepcndent mesh equations rcquired to solve the netwod( is
(a) e-n* I (b) e+n+ I
(c) e+n-l (d) e-n-l
95. Hot wire ammetrr is used
(a) only for dc circuit (b) only for ac circuit
(c) both(a)mdO) (d) Either (a) or @)
%. In the networt shown below, the value s of Z, md Z^ are respectively
I II 2
L I
t' z',
2A
(a) 1,2 - (b) l,I
(c) 1,3 (d) 2,3
Sorlcc-C 30 SES,07
)
Text of page 72
97 Two voltmeters of same range, one moving iron tlpe and other permanent magnet moving
coil t1pe, are connected in parallel for measuring ac. supply voltage. If the reading of MI
tlpe is 300V, the reading of PMMC tfpe will be sr
(a) zero O)
higher-than M.I. tYPe
(c) lower than M.I.tlpe (d) same I
j;
98. Schering bridge can be used to measure ;'
(a) Q ofa coil o) Inductince and is Q valrfe
(c) Capacitance and its power factor (d) Very sriall resistance
1$)
99. kr a digital voltneter, the oscillator frequency is ,000 kHz, the ramp voltage fa[s from 8V
to 0V in 20 m sec. The number ofpulses counted by the counter is I l;ni e(t
(a) 8Oo (b) 2000 ,,r t
(c) 4000 (d) 8000 ":
100. A peak reading voltneter has been calibrated with a sine wave signal an$ scaled in rms
volts. If a square wave signal l lV peak is applid the meter reading will bti ' .tti I
(a) 0.5s5 v O) o.7uY
(c) lv (d) t.1sv
,]
101. The current coil of a wattsnet€r is connecJed to the C.T. of R phase. Its pgtential coil is
connected across Y & B phascs. Ttetwitknetcr rneaslies I :0 ( .t
(a) active power in R phase
(b) active power of Y-phase
(c) reactive power in R-phase i,
(d) power proportional to 3-phase power if the load is balanced
;.,.:J '|. .
102. An oscilloscope mea! res
(a)peak to peak value ofvoltage O) d.c. value of voltage -
(c)r.m.s. value ofvoltage i,r, (d) average value ofvoltage
103. The best method for measurernent of ternperatures of hot bodies radiating energy in the
is
visible spectum ! E
(a) bolometer : (b) optical pyrometer
(c) thermocouple (d) thennopile
104. Induction wa$-hour meters are free from
(a) Phass fi (b) creeping
(c) temperature (d) @uency
105. A d.c. ampere-hour meter is rated at s}., 2so v. The declared constant is 5 A
sec/revolution. The constant in revolution/hrh will be
(a) 2880 O) 2680
(c) 2480 (d) 22Bo )t
Serte{.C 32 sE${)7
Text of page 74
lffi.IncRo,Lissajouspattemwillbeastraightline,ifthetwosignalsareofsamefreque,lrcy
with a phase difrerence of
(a) oo o) 180"
(c) 360o (d) All of these
oc, the wavelength at which maximum radiant
107. If temperature of a radiathg body is 1500
energy occurs is
(a) 2.87 pm O) l.F3 u-
(c) 1.01 pm (d) 20'85 Pm
108. A (0-25 A) ammeter has a guaranteed accuircy of l% of full scale reading. The currcnt
limiting enor for this measurement is
-*""r"a 6V tfris ammaer is 10 A. The percentage
(b) 0-25Yo
(a) O.O2|Vo
(c) O.sVo (d) 2-5Yo
109. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor 3 is fastened to a steel member subjected to a
stress of 100 N/mmr. The moautus of elasticity of steelis approximately 2 x ld N/mm2.
The percentage change in the resistance is
(a) 1.5 O) 1.0
(c) 0.15 (d) 0.1 .:
110. Two wattneter method for measuring 3-phase powtr is e,rrployed in a 3-phase balanced
system with current coils connected in A and C lines. The phase sequence is ABC. If the
current coil in phase A reads zero, then the power factor of the load will be
(a) 0.5 lagging O) 0.5 leading
(c) zcro laggimlg (d) zero leading
111. Maxwell's inductance-qpacitance bridge is used for measurement of inductance of
(a) Low Q coils (b) Medium Q coils
(c) High Q coils (d) Both (a) and (b)
112. If 'd' is the deflection in galvanometer in scale divisions in mm and 'I' is galvanometer
current in pA, the,n the currc,nt sensitivity in mm/pA is
(a) ud O) dtr
(c) dI (d) G
I I 3. The secondary output voltage of a saturable core fr{uency meter is the fiurction of
(a) onlyfrequency (b) only primary voltage
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of above
114. Eddy current darnping is normally used in the instruments of
(a) Induction 6pe (b) Moving iron tlpe
(c) Permanent mapet moving coil tlpe (d) Nothing can be said
115. A d.c. ammeter has a resistance of0.l Q and its current range is 0 - 100A. If the range is
to be extended to 0 - 500A, the meter requires the shunt resistance of
(a) 0.010 (b) 0.011 o
(c) o.2s o (d) 0.02s o
Scri€..C 34 SES'07
Text of page 76
-r-
with a slide wire of 800 mm' A
116 A d.c. potentiometer is designed to measure upto about 2V A test cell is seen to obtain
standard cell of emf t.iT?-;ttrt balance at 600 mm.
"
balance at 680 mm. The emf of the test cell is
(a) 1.00v O) 1'34v
i"t r.sov (d) 1'7ov
llT.Anaveragereadingdigitalmultimeterr€adslo.vwhenfedwithatriangularwave'
meter will read
reading
8vroDetric about the tim?a:ris. For the same input the r.m.s.
ai;r^/lt
io.lit
tu) ror.Ev
(d) ro{]v
i"i.
--- iaod- flow study of a power system is mainly carried out for
11&
(b) stabilitystudies
ad, f"rlt""l"ul"tio*
Ei wtt"- pfro"iog and operation (d) load freque' cy conrol
1lg. ,ihree materials X, y and z havngrelative permittivity 2.5, 3.0 and 4.0 respectively
are
respectively
and out€r most layer
used in a single core cable. The miterials on-inner most
ehould be
(a) X andY O) Y andZ
(c) ){afiZ (d) ZardX
by one of
120. A cable has an ineulation of relative permittivity 2. If the insulation is replaced
rclative perminivity 4, then cqacitance of the cable -
(a) is doubled O) is halved
t"t remains rmchanged (d) is reduced
121. The normal voltage for dielectric heating is
(a) 1500v o) ll kv
(c) 33 kv (d) 66 kV
made
122. For the use of Newton-Raphson method, the non-linear algebraic equations are
linear with the.helP of
(a) By decoupling the equations O) Taylor series expansion
i"i fipone,ntiatdistriUution (d) Nothingcanbesaid
121. In the load flow analysis, Jacobian is represented as
rH NI
Lr,a rl
For decoupled load flow analysis the assumptions 11ade are
(a) M:0;L:0 G) H=0;L=0
G) M:0;N:0 (d) H:0;N:0
12d. A power system netnort with a capacity of 100 MVA has a source impedance of l0Vo at a
point. The fault level at that point is
i"l 150oMVA O) 1000MvA
(d) 100
(c) 500 MvA MvA
to
f25. Itis always economical to improve the power factor of an electric installation
(a) ?r;oct O) unity
(c) a little less than unity (d) a little more than unity
sdcrA 36 sEs{v,
r,
Text of page 78
The weight of the conductor is
126. Atoverhead transmission rine has a span 9f 260.m.
0.68 kglm. t" -oLuiiJio*J[ to'ii"o in the line is 1550 kg' Maximum sag of the
line should be
(a) 5.8 m (b) 4.6m
(c) 2.7 m (d) 3.7 m
127. Shielding angle ofan EHV line is about
(a) 2Oo o) 500
(d) 90"
G) 700
12t. A transildssion line to be reciprocal, the condition is
(a) A=D O) AC-BD=I
i"t AD-Bc:t (d) AB-cD=I
is
129. For a battery with constant voltage, the reflection coefficient
(a) aO o) -l
(d) 0
(c) I
l30.Inasinglephasea.c.distributionshowninthefigurebelow,thesinglephaseloadare
being supptied. The voltage drop from A to Cis
'A B C
230 v
30.\ 40 A,
0.8 lage t]PF
(a) (4.5+j30)v (b) (30+j4.5)v
(c) (4.5 -j 30)v (d) j 30v
the
131. For a given base voltage and base volt-amperes, the per unit impedance value is.r.-For
doubli base values ofboth voltage and volt-amperes, the per unit impedance wi1 be
(a) b O) o'25x
G) 0.5.x (d) no change
132. The zero sequ€nce current ofa generator for line to ground fault isj 2.4 p.u. The current
through the neutral during the fault is
(a) j 0.8 p.u O) j2'4P'tt'
Gi j o.z+ p.". (d) j7.2P-u.
133. Corona loss on a system at 50 IIz frequency is I kwphase/kn. The corona loss on
the
same sSrstem with supply frequency 25 Hzwillbe
(a) i twlpnr"at- (b) 0.667 kWphase/km
(c) 0.5 kWphase/lrn (d) 1'414 kWphase/krt
134. Sheath is used in cables to
(a) provide ProPer insulation (b) prevent moisture
(c) prevent chances ofrust on strands (d) provide strength to the cable
Serie+'C 38 sE$07
Text of page 80
135. Laplace tran.fo.- of f $ i. (as)
(a) a(s) o)
(c) af(as) (d) None of these
as
136. The connections oftwo windings ofa three-phase transformer is represented
Its zero sequence network is i
oJ.ltrffi\<
(a)
C__-----------
(b)
(c)
(d)
. ,r;:
137. The d.c. resistance of a conductor due to:*in effect is
(a) unchanged (b) decreased
(c) increased : (d), infinit" ?i:
138. In a synchronous motor, if g is impedance angle and 6 is torque angle, then the maximum
developed mechanical power is obtained when
(a) 6= 180-2P o) 6:2p I'-l
(c) 6=180-0 (d) 6=p
I,!-'l Fa:i 1r i
139. A suspension insulator string has three units with ground capacitance of 0.2 C and wH- '
capacitance of C. Its string efficiency is ri
(a) 7s% (b) 78%
(c) 80o/o (d) 85Vo
140. Use of double line to transmit power is helpful in
(a) increasing power capability , -' (b) increasing stability {
(c) both (a) and(b) : "( rr, (d), , decreasing power capabilfy {s., ir l: i
Series-C ,|{) 8E${v'
Text of page 82
l4l.FollowingtwostatementsaremarkedAssertion(A)andReasori@).Selectthe.correct
'-" ;;;Gng the codes given below : Y""'
(A) t r-"? n"* *Aysis is usually carried out using but
Assertion
not sparce'
matches the network topolory
Reason (R) : Y"r, SenerallY
Codes : (A)'
explamtion of
(a) (A) urd @) are correct ^nd(R) is correct
O) (A) and (R) -" *", Ltt eiiJnot the correct explanaiion of (A)'
i"i (A) is false, but(R)
(R) is true'
iO (e1 i. t ue, but is false'
proportional to
142. Surge impedance loading- of a line is v-
E
(a) l/v O)
(c) vz (d) ./V
in
rnainly from the view point of voltage drop
143. Assertion (A) : Feeders are designed
them'
its lengtb'
. Reason @) , C"tt"ot Uaiog of the feeder remains same along
Select the correct answer.
exPlanation of (A)'
(a) Bottr (A) and (R) are true and (R) is th6 coriect
the correct explanation of(A)'
o) Botfr (A) and (R) are true, but (R) ii not
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but @) is true.
uied in TIVDC transrrission is
1214. The d.c. output voltage ofa bridge converter
(a)
*,.
o) '*r-
(c) ?]E E
m
(d) *r_
2n
145. 3-phase,4-wire system is commonly used for
- (";
primary diiiribution O) secondary distribution
i") primary transrnission (d) none of the above
motor is given by
146. The maximum mechanical power developed by a synchronous
O ,,**=I Xrwph Ol r,*,,:frwAr'
(c) r.,*=$xrwlpr, (d) r.*=ftwlpn
147. The inductance of a line is minimum when
(a) GMD ishigh (b) GMR is high f,:
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) GMD is low, but GMRishigh
the distance 'D' as
148. Power c4ability 'P' of I{VDC transnrission varies with
(a) Pcl/D (b) PccD
G) P-6 (d) it does not dePend onD
42 s8907
S€rtef-C
Text of page 84
by is system matrix (m x m)'. Now. an element is
fo"
149. A power system is represe#
of the new
cleating a new node' The dime'lrsion
added'in power system netwol withor$
imPedance matrix will be
(a) mxm O) @+l)x(m+l)
(d) (m+2)x(m+2)
i;; im-l)x(m-l)
l50.The.ffinsportationdelays,occurringindistributionsystemaredetrimerrtaltostability
because theY Produce
i"l attenuation O) Phaselag
Ei u"trri"l*aOl (d) transients
ovdrfqrd e '&smission lines
151. Bundle conductors are mainly used in EHV
(a) to reduce transmission'line losses (b)
(d)
' Stedtce corona
both @) *9 (")
(c) nep in carier communication .
l52.Keepinginviewthecostandoveralleffectiveness'thecircuitbreakerbestsuitedfor
caPacitor bank switchins is
-
(a) Airblast O) SFo
(c) Vacuum (d) Ol
^*'
153.Th€insulationstrengthofanE}I.vtrarrsmiesionlineismainlygovemedby
i
(")- rrJpo*orit Ol
switchingovervoltage
ic) Harmonics (d) Corona
154'Thetransmissionlinedistanceprotectioqrelaybavingoep*pu'tyofinhcrently
directional is
6J- r*p"a*""t"t"y 9) Reactancerclay
(d) Noneofthese
Ei lrtor"t"v is taken as swing bus
the systern buses
' one of
---- In case dload flow analysis
156.
("f -* reference bus o) to coryensate the syste,ln losses
6i ttrr(")*a0) (d) toreducethesvstemlosscs
156.Transientstabilitycanbeimprovedbyusinggovernorsattsch€dtothetubines,shouldbe
(a) fast acting
(b) slow acting
ici no tunctioi of gove'mors in improving stability
(d) mthingcanbe said
in a d'c' motor is
157. The function of carbon bnxh.d.coimutator arrangeraent
(a) to poduce unidireptional torque'
ib) to produce uaidirectional currcntitr the annaJure'
i"t to it"tp io "Uugiog the direction of rctetion'
(d) to reduce sParking'
mr'fidrF baving l0t)
158. The induced emf in the annature of a wave wowd 'l-pole -d'c' polo is
armatule conductors *t"tl"g ooo ..p.m. and with a flux of I wbpor
"r &) 2000v
(a) 1000v
irt 2oov (d) loov
20 A at 2OO V' If the g€ries field
-- A cumulatively compounded d'c' geamts is sup.llyng
159.
it strort circuiteO, the terrminal voltage- will F
(ai- dmain unafterea
",ioAirg O) rise to 220 V
(c) olroot up to 'a very high value (d) become less fran 20o Y
$srer.c-744sE$'07
\
Text of page 86
160. Three single phase transformers each with l0 kVA rating are cotrDected in q closed delta
arrangemert. If one transformer is take,n ou! the ouQut capacity of the syste,m will be
(a) 20 kvA O) 8.66 kvA
(c) 17.32 kvA (d) l0 kvA
1d1. An auto ransfonnbr n"ringE-d{d.ibrdfoo ratio of 0.8 supplies a load & iiit*i rn"
power transferred inductively from the primary to secondary is
(a) 2kw O) 4kw
(c) Skw (d) 10kW
162. The ratio of rotor output to rotot iryut in an hduetion mtitor is. 0.96. The slip of the notor
is .l
(a) 0.M% O) 4Yo
(c) 60/o (d) t2%
',.,.
163. The elfect of increasing the length gf air gap in an induction motor is to inereassthe
(a) power facfor (b) ry""d
(c) magnetising current -
(d) air gap flux
-: 14l
'1.(4. A synchr6nous motof yo*r whenit operates 'i"'
T synchronbrrs.c<iiidenser
(a) tmiler orcitcd nrithtbading pow'er fa;br !''
O) normdl exeited with unity power factor
(c) over excited with leading power factor
(d) over excited with lasgitrg pow€r fartor
,15 | r$( ' 91;'."
165. Amnture reaction mmf md teelqqgg{tg4tppc*ef 4 syqchropous madtrine are .iletermined
by
(a) open circuit test and short circuit test :,,r: n i.
=
O) open cirrcuit test and zero power factor test
(c) zero power factor test only nrnrF;ir i ":
ial shoicircuit test orly ut'-{' ir 'iir !:
I'
166. In salient pole slmchronous machineo (Usual symbols are used)
(a) ,q.*d O) rq=xd
(c) xo.>.ro. -: : :1: (d) ,q=0 .
157. The voltage regulation of a transft.rmer, with ohmic dtrorp 2% and reactance drop 5% of
the voltage at 0.8 lagging power fabt6r, will be
(a) 7% (b) 5.60/o
168. In a 3-phase inductibn motor maximum torque
(a) is proportional t<i r, O) is prdportional to .E
(c) is proportio4a! po ? , , ,. . .(d) ind..gqendqn_t ofr2
f 69, Ttie purpose of inserting extemal resistance at the time of Starting a d.c. mobor is to
(a) increase tlie stailingtorque. (b) iriordse the amrature {hjx.
(c) rcduce th€ starting cument. (d) reduce the annahre flux. 4t:.
Series-C $ SES-{D
T
.--
Text of page 88
170. The copper loss of a transformer operating with at full load is x. When load is reduced to
half, the copper loss will be
(a) t (b) L ,)
(c) h (d) I
1
t7t. A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
(a) zero O) unity
(c) leading (d) lasgne
172. Ifa self excited d"c. gcnerator after being installed, fails to build up voltage on its first trial
rurq the first thing to do is
(a) reverse the field winding connections (b) increase the field resistance
(c) decrease the speed of prime mover (d) increase the speed of prime mover
t73. For the given voltage and currc,n! the value of voltage regulation of a line for lagging
loads with decreasc in power factor
(a) decreases O) increases
(c) rernains same (d) either (a) or (c)
174. With the incrcase in load on a d.c. shrm motor, speed of the motor
(a) proportionately
incrrases (b)
rcmains constst
(c) incrceseslig[tty (d)
rcducesslightly
175. Instruments transfomrers ale used on ac. cilcuits for extending the range of
(a) ammet€rs .(b) voltneters
(c) watmeters (d) all of these
176 Repulsion motors are equipped with
(a) slip rings O) a repeller
(c) a commutator (d) None of these
tn. The function of dummy coils in a d.c. machine is to
(a) increase the induced e,mf
O) provide the mechanical balance to the armcure
(c) render the average pirch ao infeger
(d) modiff its electrical characteristics
17& Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation as their voltage
characteristics are
(a) drooping (b) ide,ntical
(c) linear (d) rising
179. The voltage applied to the H.V; side of a transformer d6ring S.C. trs,t is 2%o of the rated
voltage. The core loss as the ftaction of its rated core loss is
(a) 4o/o (b) 0.4%
(c) 0.25% (d) O.M"/o
180. A 6pole, 50I{2, 3-{ inductioo motor is running at 950 r.p.m. and has Cu loss of 5kW. Thre
rotor itrput is
(a) lOkw (b) gskw
(c) l00kw (d) 9.s kw
Scrlcr-C ,lt SE$07
Text of page 90
Itl. The maximum torque of an induction motor is 200 kg-m at a slip of l2o/o. The torque at
6% slip would be
(a) l0okg-m (b) l60kg-m
(c) 50kg-m (d) ut0kg-m
l&1. Ifa d.c. series motor is operated otr ac. supply, it will show
(a) poor effciency (b) Poor P.f.
(c) spark excessively (d) all ofthe above
183. No load test on a transformer is carried out to determine the
(r, cu loss
G) magnetising current onlY
(c) magnetising curre,lrt and no load losses
(d) efficiency of the transformer
18{. The maximum flux in a transforrner is Q- when primary voltage is V and the frequeircy is
, I If the primary voltage is 2 V aod frequeircy is fl2, the flux will be
(a) 4 0,. G) 0.25 0m
(c) 0', (d) 0'5 0.
ItS. A commutator with a diameter of 50 crr rotates at 1000 r.p.m. If brush width is 1.5 cm'
the time of commutation will be
(a) 0.168 m sec O) 0.374 m sec
(c) 0.481 m sec (d) 0.573 m sec
lE6. A salient pole synchronous motor is rurming at no load. Its field current is switched oIf,
the motor will
(a) come to stop.
O) continue to run at synih. sPeed. less than synch. speed.
(c) continue to run at a speed slightly
(d) continue to run at a speed slighfly more rhan the synch. speed.
187. The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(a) it will fail to start
O) it will not develop high starting torque high speed
(c) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously
(d) AII are true
l8t. The motor generally used in a mixer grinder is
(a) d.c. motor O) induction motor
(c) syncblonous motor (d) universal motor
181. A d.c. shunt motor runs at no load speed of 1140 r.p.m. At firll load almatune reaction
weake,ns ft6 rnain flux by 5%. Whereas the armature circuit voltage drops by l0%. The
t
full load speed of the motor is
(a) 1200 r.p.m. O) 1080 r.P.m.
(c) lM)r.p.m. (d) 1000 r.P.m.
19(L A peir of. slmchronous machines on the same shaft may be used to generate pow€r at
60 IIz from given source of power at 50 Hz. Using minimum number of poles for both the
machines, the synchronous speed will be
(a) r.p.m.
500 O) 600 r.P.m.
(c) r.p.m.
1000 (d) 1200 r.P.m.
Sorte+C 5{l SE$07
t?
Text of page 92
191. The rotor @uency for a 3-phase 6-pole, 1000 r.p.m. induction motor with a stp of 0.M
is
(a) zHz O) 4Hz
(c) 6Hz (d) 8 Hz
r92. The eddy current loss in an a.c. motor is 100 watts at 50 Hz- Its eddy curr€,nt loss at
100 Hz frequency will bc
(a) 50 Watts (b) 200 Watts
(c) 4oo watts rr ;-rrF n;yrJ9 ,Jl
*'*
t9& A ginetepln{e trarsSr,mer is d*hnefg6d1ffqre from 50 H.G,.l',100 V supply and to have
atr output voltage of 240 V at no load. The core ha'c mean area of 30 cm2 and the flux
density has not to exceed I .3T. The number of secondary tums will be
(a) 1270 , O) t0l7
(c) 768 (d) 277
194. A current transformer mus! at all times have
(a) asecondaryload O) short circuited secondary
(c) either (a) or @) '- i \"' (d) none of these
195. Retardation test on d.c. shunt motors is performed hi tr
(a) frictional losses " t.lt (b) stray losses
.1
(c) copperlosses (d) iron loss
196. If P, is the air gep power and s be the slip of an induction rrotor, then the r.otor cop,per loss
and mechanical power developed are rcspectively
(a) (1 - s)P, and sP, G) P, (l -s)andP,/s
q
(c)
| "ourrt, -O (d) sPrand(l -9P,
197. An amplidyne is actually
(a) a d.c. amplifer O) an ac. amplifier
(c) an induction motor (d) a schrage motor F rr
198,, Two d.c. series motors comected in series are drivin_g a mechanical load. If the motors are
connected in parallel to drive the same load, the speeit becomes
(a) slightly less than double (b)
sliehtly less than half
(c) slightly more than double (d)
slightly more than half
199. An 8 pole wound rotor induction motor operating on 60 Hz supply is &iven at 1800 r.p.m.
by a prime mover in the opposite direction of rwolving magDetrt field. The freque'lrcy of
the rotor current is p.
(a) SoHz (b) 60Hz
(c) l20llz ,o I ir,t (d) 180 Hz ., t !..!
(a) changing field excitatioq O) changing of prime mover speed
(c) both (a) and @) (d) none ofthe above
Sedcs-C s2 sE$07
Text of page 94
Space For Rougtr 14164 715ur{*^ftrqqG
Scrbrc g SDSrm
Text of page 98
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-tr
load is fed
1 A single phase fully conholled bridge converter for supplying high inductive
by a v-oltage V, silwt. The average and rms values of output voltages are
2V- Vm Vm .V,,
o and{t
(a)
-
1t
cos (l aDd
a (b)
-cos
(c) &*.oandv m (d) 5"o. o -d\E v,,
L
2. kr a bridge a.c. to d.c. conv€rt€r using P-N diode, if the input voltage is v sin wt,'what is
the peak inverse voltage across any diode ?
(a) v (b) 2v
(c) ;vV (d)
G
3. In a 3-phase controlled bridge rectifier with an increase in overlap angle, the output d.c.
voltage
(a) increase (b) decreases
(c) doesnotchange (d) depends on load inductance
4. A single phase fuIl wave a.c. voltage controller connected from a single phase a.c. supply
of 20d sin 314 t feeds a l0 ohm pure resistive load. For a firing angle of 90o, the power
delivered to load is
(a) 0.5 kw O) 0.75 kw
(c) 1.0kw (d) 4.0kur
5. A single-phase firll bridge VSI has inductor L as the load. For a constant voltage, the
cunent through the inductor is
(a) Square Wave O) Triangular Wave
(c) Sine Wave (d) Pulse Wave
6. Which one pair out of following altematives is not correctly matched related to d.c'. motor
drive ?
(a) Halfcontrolled bridge converter -one quadrant-operation
(b) Fully controlled bridge converter -two quadrant-operation
(c) Dualconverter -four quadrant-operation
(d) chopper
Step up -two quadrant-operation
7. For speed control of low speed high capacity synchronous motor, the power electonic
circuit used is
(a) A.C. voltage controller O) Curent fed inverter
(c) Voltage fed inverter (d) Cyclo-converter
8. Asserdon : Slip power recovery control is used for speed control of three phase slip
ring induction motor.
:
Reason It provides wide speed conrol down to low speed.
(a) Assertion and Reason arc correct. Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason are corFect. Reason does not explain .Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true. Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false. Reason is true.
SGrLs-A 2 SES+Ot
Text of page 100
9 Output of a welding machine is
(a) High voltage and high current (b) Low voltage and low current
(c) High voltage and low current (d) Low voltage and high current
10. In a plain single Phase inverter
ai 'Th";;il; output frequency is less than frequency of damped oscillation'
wen higher than the frequency of damped oscillation'
O) The output ftequency canie
t;i rn" ortput t'"qu*"y it "qu.t to the frequency of damped oscillation'
(d) AII ofthe above
phase
11. A three phase bridge inverter operating in 180" mode of-operation sup-plies a three
-resistive
pr* i-'*."*ted toaa. mJ r.m.s. value of fundamental line to line output
voltage is
(a) 0.4714 Vs o) 0.7797 Vs
(c) 0.8165 V8 (d) vs
where V. is input d.c. supply voltage
lZ. In a three-phase to single phase cycl|converter, the number ofthyristors used are
(a)4 (b)6
(c) 8 (d) 18
13. For four quadrant operation of separately excited d.c. motor, the converter used to
(a) halfcontrolled bridge converter (b) fully controlled bridge converter
(c) dualconvertff (d) cyclo-converter
14. Consider following power elechonic circuits related to two-quadrilfi operation of dc. drive :
l. Halfcontrolled bridge converter. 2. Fully controlled bridge converter.
3. Dual converter 4. Chopper
Out of these statements :
(a) I , 2 aad 3 arc correct O) 2, 3 and 4 are corr@t
(c) 3,4 and I are correct (d) 4,1arlrd2 are correct
15. Consider following statements r€lated to a current fed inverter :
l. Capacity to recover from occasional commutation failure.
2. Noisy operation
3. Cryability of four quadrant orperation
4. Simple control and fuing circuits.
5. Reverse voltage with standing c4ability
Out of these statements :
(a) 1,2 aad3 arc correct (b) 2,4 and 5 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
16. The PWM technique that provides superior performance characteristics in reducing
hannonics in three phase voltage source invertet is
(a) space vector PWM
(b) sinusoidal PWM
(c) selected harmonics eliminafion PWM
(d) minimum ripple cune'nt PWM
Series-A 4 SES-r0E
Text of page 102
at a = 0o' The
t7. A phase controlled converttr having ideal thyristor has.,an.overlry of 30"
ovillap of ttre converter when it operates at the inverter limit will be
(a) 60o O) 30o
Gi less than 30o (d) greater than 30o
to sup'ply
18. In a 3-phase full wave a.c. to d.c. convcrter, the ratio of output ripple frequency
voltage frequencY is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 6 (d) t2
19. h s singte-phas€ fidl wave converter, if load cunent is I and ripple free' then average
thyristor cunent will be
(a) I o) L3 I
(c) I4 I (d) !2
20. A Switching Mode Power Supply (sMPS) operating at 20 kllz to 100 kIIz range uses
which of the following as the main sv,ritch ?
(a) SCR O) MOSFET
(c) rRlAc (d) UJr
21. A step down d.c. chopper has an input voltage v, if duty cycle is o and the load is a
resistance R, the rms value of ouSut voltage is
(a) crv (b) fiv
(c) c"zv (d) +
22, A step down chopper is connected. to a d.c. supply. For duty ratio of 0.4 p.u., the output
voltage is 96 V. For the same duty ratio, the output voltage provided by the step up
chopper will be
(a) l80v (b) 240v
(c) 300v (d) 400v
23. A step down chopper connected to a d.c. supply, supplies a separately excited d.c. motor
at a duty ratio of a. The ripple factor in the terminal voltage of the motor assuming
continuous current conduction is
(a)f;s. -. l-o
o)
l-o " d,
(c) (d)
g 1-a
24. A st€,p up chopper is required to deliver load voltage of 660 V froma22OY d.c. source. If
the non-conduction time ofthe thyristor is 100 p sec, the required pulse width is
(a) 300 p sec O) 200 P sec
(c) 100 p sec (d) 400 Pt sec
Serlos-A 6 sE90t
Text of page 104
25. A siogle phase half conholled bridge rectifier has supply voltage of 400 sin 314 t and
supplies a resistive load. For a firing angle of60o, the av€rage output voltage w.ill be
(a) f,
300
o) ffu
400
(c)
1l
v (d)
,I
V
26. The minimum number of 2-input NAND gates required to construct one 4-input NAND
gate is
(a)2 (b)3
(c) 4 (d) 5
27. The logic families particularly suited for implementation of LSI and VSI fimctions are
(a) r2L O) ECL
(c) SchottkeyTTl (d) CMOS
28. A full adder circuit has
(a) two inputs and one output (b) two inputs and two outputs
(c) three inputs and one output (d) three inputs and two outputs
29. A full substractor can be constnrcted from two half substracto6 and a
(a) 2-input NAND gate O) 2-input NOR gate
(c) 2-input OR gate (d) 2-input AND gate
30. A bulb is controlled by two switches A and B. The bulb glows only when either switch A
or sn itch B is ON. Its Boolean expression is
(a) ^ag + es O) ,CB + AB
(c) l,e+AB (d) aE+es
31. A multiplexure has n data inputs, rlcontrol inputs and one data output, then
(a) 2m:n (b) 2n:m
(c) mn :2 (d) n2 : m
32. The basic seque,ntial logic building block in which ttre output follows the data input as
long as the ENABLE input is active, is
(a) J-Kflip-flop (b) Dflip-flop
(c) T flipflop (d) D latch
33. How many FFs are required to build a binary counter circuit to count from 0 to 1023 ?
(a) I (b) 6
(c) l0 (d) 24
34. The Boolean expression (A+ C +D) @ +D +C) may be simplified as
(a) AB+CB (b) AB+C+D
(c) A+BC+D (d) A+B+CD
S€f,lB-A t SE648
Text of page 106
35. For a fiee running multivibraror, an extemal Gfter is dpfoyea
(a) always O) never
(c) if output voltage is to be regulated (d) if frequency stabilization is required
36. Which of the following is used for timing dwices :
(a) Astable multivibrator O) Monostable multivibrator
(c) Bistable multivibrator (d) Schmitt Trigger
37. The speed ofan digital IC indicates
(a) how fast a flipflop can chmge sages O) how fast input triggers the ouhut
(c) the rate at which output changes (d) none ofthese
3& A fuIl adder can be implemented with half adders and OR gates. A ,l-bit parallel ftIl adder
without any initial carry requires
(a) 8 halfadders,4 OR gates (b) 8 halfadders,3 OR gates
(c) 7 halfadders,4 OR gates (d) 7 halfadders,3 OR gates
39. Which of the following stst€,m€,nt is wrong regarding a multivibrator ?
(a) Output is available continuously
O) Feed back between two stages is lffi%
(c) Positive feedback is e,mployed
(d) When one transistor is ON, the other is OFF.
40. A CE transistor arrplifier has ho: 100, \.:s 5,2 kO and 16g = 0. At room temp€ratur€ Vr
= 26 mV, the collector current ll"l Utt t" !
(a) l0nA O) 5EA
(c) I mA (d) 0.s mA
41. Monolithic ICs ue fabricated within a
(a) soft stone (b) single stone
(c) silicon layer (d) ceramic layer
42. A BCD-to-7 segment decoder has 0100 on its fuput. The active outputs are
(a) a,c,f,s O) b,c,f,g
(c) b, c, e, f (d) b,4 e, g
43. The circuit slrown in following figure is a
+5V
R
A
B Y
c
(a) 3-input AND gate (b) 3-input OR gate
(c) 3-input NAND gate (d) 3-input NOR gate
Serler-A l0 sE${,8
Text of page 108
44. The circuit as shown below will wolk as
C
v R
(a) Positive clipper (b) Half-waverectifier
(c) Positive clamper (d) Negative clamper
45. Which one of the following is not a sequential circuit / system ?
(a) Clocked S-R flip-flop ,
(b) Shift register
(c) ROM (d) Ripple counter
46. Output of a logic gate is 'l ' when all its inputs are at logic '0'. The gate is either
(a) aNOR or a NAND gate (b) aNOR or an XOR gate
(c) aNAND or an OR gate (d) a NAND or an XOR gate
47. In Boolean Algebr4 if F = (A + B) (A + C) then
(a) F=AB+AC (b) F=AC+AB
(c) F=AB+AB ,(d) P=ag+AB
48. In the television system in India, the odd afld even fields are scanned for
(a) 25 times each (b) 25 times each but altematively
(c) 50 times each (d) 50 times each but altematively
49. The magretic field used in the cavity magnetron to
(a) prevent anode current in the absence ofoscillations.
(b) ensures that the oscillations are pulsed.
(c) help in focusing the electron beam, thus preventing spreading.
(d) ensures that the electrons will orbit around the cathode.
50. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power will be
(a) unchanged (b) halved
(c) doubled (d) increased by 5070
51. One of the following is very useful as multiband HF receiving antenna. This is the
(a) conical hom (b) folded dipole
(c) log periodic (d) square loop
52. A rectangular air frlled wave guide has cross-section of 4 cm x l0 cm. The minimum
frequency which can propagate in the wave guide is
(a) 1.5 GHz (b) 2.0GHz
(c) 2.5 GHz (d) 3.0 GHz
53. In an ideal transmission line with matched load, the V.S.W.R. and reflection coefficient
are respectively
(a) I and 0 (b) I and 1
(c) co and 0 (d) oo and 1
Serles-A tz SES-08
Text of page 110
54. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 kW, ttre power in the carrier for modulation
index of 0.6 is nearly
(a) 8.24 kw O) 8.47 kw
(c) e.26kw (d) e.60kw
55. The noise figure ofan amplifier is 3 dB. Its noise temperature will be above
(a) 145'K (b) 290'K
(c) 580'K (d) 870'K
56. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
(a) ensurebunching (b) improve the phase focusing effect
(c) prevent cathode back heating (d) prevent mode jumping
57. In microwave telemetry, repeatef stations are required at every
(a) 2lan (b) 5km
(c) 40 kn (d) 100 l<tn
58. The main disadvantage ofthe two hole directional coupler is
(a) low directional coupling (b) poor directivity
(c) high SWR (d) narrow bandwidth
59, Which of the following modes does not exist in waveguides ?
(a) TE,o mode (b) TE,, mode
(c) TEM mode (d) TMo, mode
60. Which one of the following wave guide tuning components is not easily adjustable ?
(a) Screw (b) his
(c) Shrb (d) Plunger
61. Satellites used for intercontinental communications are known as
(a) Comsat (b) Domsat
(c) Marisat (d) lntelsat
A. One of the reasons why vacuum fubes eventually fail at microwave frequencies is that their
(a) noise figure increases
(b) transit time becomes too short
(c) shunt capacitive reactances becomes too large
(d) series inductive reactances become too small
63. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
(a) increase the gain ofthe system
(b) increase the beamwidth of the system
(c) reduce the size of the main reflector
(d) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point
A. In a modulation system, if the modulating voltage rernain the same, the modulation index
is halved, when the modulating frequencies is doubld the system will be
(a) AM O) FM
(c) DM (d) None ofthe above
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Text of page 112
65. . Itr a PCM syst€m, the number of quantization levels are 16 and maximum signal
frequency is 4 kIIz, the bit transmission rate is
(a) 64Kbitdsec. O) l6KbitJsec.
(c) 32 K bits/sec. (d) 32 bitslsec.
66. A band pass signal has sigrrificant ftequency component in the range of 1.5 MHz to
2 Mttz. If the signal is to be reconstructed from its samples, the minimum sampling
frequency will be
(a) lMEz O) 2MHz
(c) 3.s MHz (d) 4MHz
67. For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is
(a) Flexible waveguide O) Rigid waveguide
(c) Rectangular waveguide (d) Coa:<ial line
68. A piston attenuator is a
(a) Vane attenuator O) Wavegu.ide below cut off
(c) Modefilter (d) Flap attenuator
6!r. Indicate which of the following is not a TWT slow wave stucture :
(a) Periodic-pennanent mapet (b) Coupled cavity
(c) Helix (d) Ringbc
70. Time division multiplex
(a) can be used with PCM only
O) combines five groups into a super goup
(c) stacks 24 channels in adjacent frequency slots
(d) interleaves pulses belonging to different transmission
71. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 9, then the maximum
range will increase by a factor of
(a) .F G) 3
(c) e (d) 81
72. Picture information is transmitted in TV signal by
(a) FM (b) AM
t (c) PAM * 1 (d) pNM
73. The multicavity Klyshon
(a) is not a good level amplifier because ofnoise.
O) has a high repeller voltage to e re a rapid transit time.
(c) is not suitable for pulsed operation
(d) needs a long kansit time through the buncher cavity to €nsure curr€nt modulation
74. The non-resonant antenna is
(a) Dipole (b) Yogi-uda
(c) Monopole (d) Rhombic
75. A-short vertical grounded ant€ldna is designed to radiate as I m c/s. If the efective height
ofthe aerial is 30 meters, the radiation resistance will be
(a) 18.5 ohms O) 15.8 k ohms
(c) 15.8 ohms (d) none ofrhe above
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Text of page 114
76. The starting current of a three-phase induction motor is five times the firll load curre,nt
while its fult load slip is 4 percent. The ratio of starting torque to full load torque is
(a) o.25 (b) 0.s0
(c) 1.0 (d) 2.0
Neglect stator impedance
77. A three phase induction motor runs above the synchronous speed For self excitatiorg the
machine
(a) draws real power from the suPPlY
(b) draws reactive power from the supply
(c) feeds reactive power to the supply
(d) feeds real and reactive powers to the supply
78. For a high starting torque, the most suited three phase induction motor is
(a) slip ring type (b) squirrel cage rotor tlpe
(c) deep bar squirrel cage rotor tJPe (d) double cage rotor tlpe
79. The torque speed characteristics of a repulsion motor resembles with that following type
of d.c. motor :
(a) separately excited tlpe O) shunt tlpe
(c) differentially compounded tlpe (d) series tlpe
E0. Drag cup rotor is used in 2-phase ac. sen omotor
(a) to increase efficiency O) to increase ge,nerated torque
(c) to achiwe fast dynamic rcspome (d) to control speed
81. Consider following statements related to universal motor :
l. Speed v/s. torque charact€ristic is similar to d.c. series motor.
2. Speed is dependent on frequ€ncy of supply.
3. Power factor is poor
4. No problem of sparking at brushes
Out of above statements :
(a) 1 and 2 are true O) I and 3 are true
(c) l, 2 and 4 are true (d) 1,3 and 4 are tue
82. A four pole three phase induction motor is running at 4 percent slip at full load. If the
speed of motor be 720 rpm, the supply frequency is
(a) ,4* O) 2sHz
(c) 30Hz (d) 50IIz
83. If the input to prime mover of an altemator sup,plying load to an infinite bus is suddenly
stopped the altemator
(a) will stop
(b) will continue to run as an altemator
(c) will continue to nrn as a synchronous motor nrnning in the reverse direction
(d) will continue to run as a synchronous motor running in the same direction
M. The optimistic method of voltage regulation of a three-phase alternator is
(a) syrnchronous impedance method (b) MMF method
(c) Zero power factor method (d) ASA method
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Text of page 116
85 Whichonepairisnotcorrectlymatchedinthefollowingoptionsrelatedtoasynchronous
generator ?
List - I List - II
(a) Inductive load Positive voltage regulation
(b) Fractional pitch winding Reduction in harmonics
(c) Cylindrical rotor Reluctance power zero
(d) Under excitation Lagging power factor
to electric motor ?
86 Which one pair is correctly matched in the following options related
List-I List-II
(a) Universal motor - Poor power factor
ibi 2-phase ac servomotor - High inertia rotor
ici Under excited synchronous motor - Leading power factor
iO Deep bar induction motor - Low starting torque
Zero power factor method in an attemator is used to find its
87
(a) 'Efficiency (b)
Voltage regulation ,
i;i resistance
Armature (d)Synchronous impedance
load its
88. A 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 950 rpm' At half
speed will be
(a) 475 rpm (b) 500 rpm
(c) 975 rpm (d) 1000 rpm
torque at all
89. one of the basic requirements ofa servomotor is that it must produce high
(a) Loads G) Frequencies
("i Voltages (d) SPeeds
The most common two phase a.c. servomotor differ from the standard
a.c' induction motor
90.
because it has
(a) higher rotor resistance (b) high power rating
(c) greater inertia (d) none of the above
91. At low values of slip .s" the torque of a three phase a.c. induction motor is proportional to
(V1 is stator voltage, r] is rotor resistance referred to primary side)
v1 vi
(a) -'(l -s) (b) I
t2
s
t2
(c) vf '.11r - I (d) vl t2I s
a.c'
92. A three phase fault occurs at the terminals ofan unloaded altemator at an instant when
;;ftd; il;rphase is at maximum value. The variation of d.c. component during fault
period in that phase will depend upon
constant O) Transient time constant
t"l Sub transient time constant
i"t Open circuit time (d) Annature time constant
)5
93. In a synchronous machine, pitch factors for f short pirch and f, short pitch coils are
respectively
(a) 0.s,0.833 (b) 0.866,0.966
(c) 0.66,0.833 (d) 0.707, 1.0
20 sE$.08
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Text of page 118
!l
94. In alternators damper windings are used to
(a) preve,nt hunting (b) rcduce eddy current loss
(c) make the rotor dynarnically balanced (d) reduce armature reaction
95. When tle load of a normally excited syncbronous motor is increased its power factor
tends to
(a) unity (b)
become increasingly leading
(c) become increasingly lacging (d)
remain unchanged
96. A 3-phase, 400 V, 50 tlz salient pole synchronous motor will have maximum power at
load angle
(a) 145" O) less than 90o
(c) 90o (d) more than 90o
97. The torque developed in a 3-phase induction motor will be ma:rimum when its rotor
circuit power factor becomes
(a) 0.707 leading (b) unity
(c) 0.8 laeghg (d) 0.707 laeging
98. Which one of the following is correct 4plication of Amplidpe ?
(a) Starter formotor (b)
Speed conEol ofmotor
(c) Excitation systems (d)
As inverter
99. kr stepper motors
(a) moment of inertia is usually high
(b) starting current is high
(c) closedJoop digital feedback control is not possible
(d) bi directional control is possible
100. If the torque angle of a 4-pole ,yn"ht6ro* motor is 8 degree' electical, its value in
mechanical angle is
(a) 4degree (b) 2degree
(c) 0.5 degree .. (d) 0.25 degree
101. The 5ft harmonic component of the induced voltage in a 3-phase a.c. synchronous
generator can be entirely eliminated if winding pitch used be
(a)
)
1
(b) !
5
1 g
(c) (d)
6 7
102. The nature of operating power factor ofa 3-phase a.c. induction motor is
(a) always lagging (b) always leading
(c) may be lagging or leading (d) always unity
103. A single phase a-c. hysteresis motor can run at
(a) synchr,onous speed only.
O) sub-slm.chronous speed only.
(c) synchronous and super slmchronous speed.
(d) synchronous and sub-synchronous speed.
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Text of page 120
104. The voltage fed to the two windings of a two phase ac. servomotor must have phase
different of
(a) 0o O) 90o
(c) more than 90o (d) l80o
105. In synchronous machine the arrnature flux helps the main flux when the load power factor is
(a) zero lagging O) unity
(c) zero leading (d) 0.8 lagging
106. If two mechanically coupled altemators deliver power af 50 Hz and 60 Hz respectively,
the,n highest speed of the coupled altemators is
(a) 500 rpm O) 600 rpm
(c) 3000rpm (d) 3600rpm
107. A 3-phase, tl-pole, 50 IIz induction motor is rotating at l4l0 rpm at firll load. The value of
induced rotor current frequency will be
(a) s0Hz (b) 47 Hz
(c) 3Hz (d) 0Hz
108. In which tlpe of motor, rotor resistance starter is used ?
(a) Slip ring induction motor (b)Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Single phase induction motor (d)synchronous motor
109. Shaded pole is used in which tlpe of motor ?
(a)d.c. motor O) 3-phase synchronous motor
(c) motor
2-phase a.c. (d) single phase induction motor
110. For an 3-phase a.c. induction motor, operating at a slip S, the ratio of developed
mechanical power to air gap power will be
(a) (1 S)2 (b) (l - s)
(c) \Fs (d) r-1F
111. Reactive power output of an a.c. synchronous generator at legging po$/€r factor is limited by
(a) Armature current O) Field current
(c) Load angle (d) Armature and field current
112. SFu gas is used in circuit breaker because
(a) It is cheapest.
O) Its liquification temperature is less tlrcm 0 "C.
(c) Its dielectric strength is highest.
(d) It is easily available.
113. The circuit breaker used for the protection of HVDC transmission line is
(a) Air blast circuit breaker O) SFu circuit breaker
(c) Vacuum circuit Ureaker (d) None of above
114. The circuit breaker used for the protection ofEI{V ac transmission line is
(a) Air blast circuit breaker O) SFu circuit breaker
(c) Vacuum circuit breaker (d) Minimum oil circuit breaker
115. The re_lay used for protection ofhigh voltage a.c. transmission line against earth fault is
(a) relay O)
Insta aneous over current Tmfedance relay -
(c) Reactancerelay (d) NtrIO relay
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Text of page 122
116. For protection ofdishibution line, the following circuit breakers may be considered :
l. Bulk oil circuit bredcer 2 Air btast circuit breaker
3. Air circuit heal(er 4 Vacuum circuit breaker
Out of these
(a) I and 2 are used (b) 2 and 3 are used
(c) 3 and 4 are used (d) I and 4 are used
tt7. The relay ueed for the protection of high voltage ac. transsrission line ,g'inst power
swing is
(a) Lrstantaneous overcurrcnt relay (b) Impedance relay
(c) Reactance relay (d) MHO relay
i!
rl& A fault in transmission is higfiy severe from the point of view of RRRV if it is a
(a) Short line fault O) Long line fault
(c) Medium line fault (d) Ge,nerator fault
tr)
119. Simultaneous bipping of cirqrit breakers at both ends of a tansmission line is achieved by
(a) Pilot protection O) Overcurrc, t protection
(c) Distance protection (d) None ofthe above
120. The following protection is not used in power transformer :
(a) Earth fault protection O) Ioter-hrm fault protection
(c) Reverse power flow pmtection (d) Overfluxing protection
l2l. In case ofbus bil fault, the bus zone relay
(a) must trip all the breakers connected to thc bus
(b) must give an alarm for bus fault
(c) must trip one br€ak€,r connected to the bus
(d) none ofthe above
122. The voltage drop across thc arc in an a.c. circuit breaker is j
(a) leading the arc curent by 90o (b) lagging the arc current by 90"
(c) in phase with the arc cunent (d) in phase opposit to the arc-current
123. March List - I with List - tr and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists
List-I List-II
(Iypeoffrutt h gcncntor) (Type ofprotection)
A. Tum to tum fault 1. MHO relay
B. loss of excitation 2. Negative sequence over current relay
C. Unbalance loading 3. Revelse power protection
D. Turbine failure 4. Differential protection
A B c D
(a) I 2 3 4
(b) 4 I 2 3
(c) 2 I 3 4
(d) 3 3 I 2
Scrtcr-A 26 sEs{tE
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t
Text of page 124
124. Which of the following staternent is true for MHO relay ?
(a) Directional restrained over current relay
(b) Directional restrained over voltage relay
(c) Voltage restrained directional relay
(d) Voltage controlled overcurrent relay
125, Direction over current relay is used for which ofthe following ?
(a) Generator (b) Transfomrer
(c) Ring main diskibutor (d) None of these
I 26. Which one of the following statements is correct ? Arc in d circuit breaker is interrupted at
(a) zero current.
(b) maximum current.
(c) maximum voltage.
(d) None ofthese
127. Which of the following relay has the capability of anticipating the possible major fault in a
transformer ?
(a) Differential relay O) Overcurrent relay
(c) Overfluxing relay (d) Buchholz relay
128. How many relays are used to detect interphase fault ofa 3-phase system ?
(a) one (b) two
(c) three (d) six
129. Which of the following is the main relay for protecting 90% of transmission line-length in
the forward direction ?
(a) Directional overcurrent relay
(b) Carrier current protective relay
(c) Impedance relay
(d) MHO-relay
130. Which is the preferred type of circuit breaker to be installed in high voltage rystem ?
(a) Air blast circuit breaker. (b) Vacuum circuit breaker
(c) Bulk oil circuit brealcer (d) None of these
131. The surge impedance of a 50 krn long underground cable is 50 ohm. For a 25 km length it
will be
(a) 25 ohm O) 50 ohm
(c) 100ohm (d) none ofthe above
132. If the fault current is 2000 A the relay setting is 50% and CT ratio is 400 : '5, then plug
setting multiplier will be
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 2s (d) 50
133. Negative sequence relay is normally used for which of the following ?
(a) Transformer O) Generator
(c) Transmission line (d) None of these .
Series-A 28 SES-08
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:r
Text of page 126
r--1
provided by
134. The protection against direct liglrtening strokes and high voltage steep waves is
(a) ground wires
(b) lightning arrestors onlY
(c) both lightning arresters and ground whes
(d) earthing ofneutral
135. The minimun oil circuit breaker has less volume of oil because
(a) there is insulation betwesr contacts.
(b) solids insulation is provided for insulating the contracts from earth'
(c) the oil between the breaker contacts has greater strength'
(d) none of the above
136. PSM for the relay having CT ratio = 400/5,
Fault current : 6000 A and percentage relay setting = 150 will be
(a) s (b) 10
(c) 7.s (d) 0.s
137. In a short circuits test on a circuit breaker, time to reach the peak re-striking voltage is 40
p sec. Frequency of oscillation is
(a) zDkEtz O) 10 kHz
(c) 40 kHz (d) 'None of the above
138. For a Buchholz relay, which of the following statement is not correct ?
(a) They protect the cormecling cables
O) They indicate incipient faults
(c) They can be used in transformers provided with conservator
(d) They are gas actuated relaYs
139. The distance relay with inherent dtectional property is known as
(a) Impedancerelay O) Reactance relay
(c) Admittance relay (d) Ohm relaY
140. Which of the following is not a short-circuit test of circuit breakers ?
(a) Dielectric test O) Making c4acity test
(c) Breaking ceacity test (d) Duty cycle test t
141. The unit protection section provides
(a) Primary protection O) BackuP Protection
(c) Simultaneous protection (d) Remote pmtection
142. Which relay is generally used for protectiotr of a.c. motors against over load ?
(a) Impedance relay
O) Thermal relay
(c) Buchholz relay
(d) Electromagretic attraction 6pe relay
143. Impedance relay is usually used for protection of
(a) Short line (b) Long line
(c) Medium line (d) For all above
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Text of page 128
1{,,. the time taken for a surge to travel 600 km long ovedread transnission line is
(a) 6 sec. O) I sec.
(c) 0.02 scc. (d) 0.002 sec.
la5. Thc fimction of the earth wir,e in m extra high voltage line is to
(e) pr€v€,nt earth fault
(b) provide a safety measure from any high flying obj€ct
(c) provide a shield to the phase conductors ftrom direct lightning stroke
(d) provide mechanical shength to the tow€rs
t{n6. IbG rat€ ofrise ofre-striking voltage (RRRV) is usually expressed in
(a) kV/mili sec (b) kV/p sec
(c) V/ sec (d) MV/p sec
147, The main consideration for higher and higher voltage oftransmission is to
(q) increase the effciency of transmission
O) rcducc power losses
(c) increase power hansmission c4ability
(d) both (a) and @) above
l4t. The reflection coefficient for a transnission line shown below at P is
Trans tine P
Zs=300O
Load = 300 O
Zs = Surge Impedance
(a) +l (b) -t
(c) 0 (d) 0.5
1,09. The voltage across the circuit breaker mntacts alfter final curre,nt is zero, is
(a) Recoveryvoltage (b) Supply voltage
(c) voltage
Restriking (d) None of these
150. The contact resistance of a circuit breaker is about
'(a) 20ohm
O) 2ohm
(c) 20 milli oh (d) 20 micm ohm
I51. Which of rhe following me0rod is used for solving differential equations numerically ?
(a) Runge-Kutta method
O) Gauss-Eliminationmethod
(c) Newton-Raphsonmethod
(d) None ofthese
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Text of page 130
a
I
152. The input impedarce of an ideal OpAmp circuit as give'n below is
100 ko
v l0ko vo
r0lf,)
(a) l20kQ o) ll0ko
(c) infinity (d) r0ko
153. In an inverting amplifier, the two input signals of an ideal op-Amp al'e at the same
potential because
t"l the two irput terminals are directly shorted intemally.
O) the input impedance of the Op-Amp is infinite.
(c) CMRRisinfnitY
(d) the open loop gein of the OpAmp i5 infinity
13{. When Z, <<Z,tfu following circuit worts as :
v
%
Zy
z
(a) inverting amplifier (b) Schmitt Trigger
(c) Non-inverting amplifi er (d) Source follower
155. If the input V, of an OpAmp, as slrom in circuit below, is tiangulfi, the ouQut Vo will be
c
v vo
(a) Square wave O) Sine wave
(c) Triangular wave (d) Parabolic wave
156. If a I MHz canier is amplitude modulatcd with a 5 kIIz audio signal" the upper side
frcquency is
(a) lm0kHz O) l005kHz
(c) 995kllz (d) Noneoftheabove
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Text of page 132
157. In the circuit shown below, the value of output Vo is
l2 ko
4ko
+l
6 kc! vo
+2V
(a) +3V o) -3V
(c) +7V (d) -7V
l5g. Solving * - Z :0 by Newton-Raphson technique, when initial guess .ro = 1.0, then
subsequent estimate of .r i.e. xr will be
(a) r.414 (b) 1.5
(c) 2.o (d) cannot be obtained
159. tn which of the following methods proper choice of initial value is very important ?
(a) Bisection method (b) False positio-n
Gi Newton-Raphson (d) Bairstow method
160. In analog-computer applications, integrators are preferred over differentiators because
gain of an integrator
(a) decreases with frequency
(b) increases with frequencY
(c) does not change with frequencY
(d) is zero for all frequencies
161. The circuit given below will work as a phase-shifter, if
R1
E,
E"
t
c R3
(a) R, is a variable resistor (b) R, is a iariable resistor
(c) R, is a variable resistor (d) Any of[bove
162. If the magritude of the gain in the circuit shown below with switch S open is It then with
switch closed gain will be
S
R
2R 2R
v
vo
(a) w2 o)
(d)
2K
(c) -W2 -2K
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Text of page 134
163. The modes of operation in a differe'ntial amplifier is
(a) ol O) 02
'(c) 03 (d) 04
164. The bandwidth ofan RF tuned amplifier is depelrdent on
(a) Q factor ofthe hrned input circuit
(b) Q factor ofthe tuned output circuit
(c) Quiascent oPerating Point
(d) All above
165. The use of a capacitive filter in a rectifier circuit gives satisfactory performanceronly whcn
the load
(a) current is high o) voltage is low
(c) voltage is high (d) current is low
166. RLC tuned circuit has maximum impedance Ztw = 70 kO at f = 1000 kHz. Given
given by
Q = 100, the impedance becomes 50 kO at @uency f
(a) loo0t200kHz O) 1000t 100kHz
(c) l0O0 t l0 kHz (d) 1000 t 5 kHz
167. Which of the following amplifier circuits provides mu<imum gain band width pro(ua ?
(a) Differential amplifier O) Cascade amplifier
(c) Common base amplifier (d) Common emitter amplifier
16S. An Op-Amp has a slew rate of 4 V/ps and a peak ouput swing of l0 volts. The full power
bandwidth will be
(a) 83.7 kC/S O) 80.7 k(Ys
(c) 75.s kC/S (d) 89'7 kC/S
f 69. In a digital computer, compared to the integer operation, the flo'ating point operation takes
(a) less time and less memory
(b) less time and more memory
(c) more time and more memory
(d) more time and less memory
I
170. An amplifier with middle band gain lAl = 5oo has negative feed back lBl :155' If the
upper cut off without feed back were at 60 kIIz, then wrth feedback it would become
(a) l0 kHz "'(b) lztiJlz
(c) 300kllz (d) 360kl{z
171. In serial I/O commrmication, data flow can occur in
(a) Synchronous format onlY
(b) Asynchronous format onlY
(c) Either synchronous or asynchronous format
(d) Full duplex dnly
Serles-A 3E SE$08
Text of page 136
172. Tlr- content of the accumulalor in air AO8S microprocessor is not altered after the
execution of
(a) 3A
CIP O) ANI sc
(c) ORAB (d) MVIAo3
173. In 8085 microprocessor to hold the insruction read from the memory, which of the
following is used ?
(a)' Accumulator (b) Stack Pointer
(c) Programcounter (d) Instruction register
174. The instruction that loads the contents ofprogram count€r with the contetrt ofHL register
pair is
(a) ANIData O) PCHL
(c) PUSHPOP (d) )(RAB
175. Access in mapetic drum me,mory is
(a) completely random
O) soquential and cyclic
(c) partly random and partly cyclic and seque'lrtial
(d) a cyclic sequential
176. The five flags in 8085 microprocessor are designated as
(a) Z, C5 S, P and AC O) D, Z, S, P and AC
(c) Z, C, S, P and AC (d) Z,CY,S, D and AC
I 77. Which characteristic of a me,mory chip is called ac characteristic ?
(a) Power consumption O) 815 lsa'ling
(c) Timing characteristic (d) All the above
I 78. What tlpe of circuit is used at the interface point of an input port of 8085 ?
(a) Decode,r O) Tristate buffer
(c) Latch (d) None ofthe above
179. The software used to opcrate microprocessor bas€d system is called
(a) Basic interpreter instruction O) Firm ware ,
(c) Machine language code (d) Assembly language
1t0. A ROM is used to store thc table for multiplication of two 8-bit rmsiped integers. Correct
a rw€r rs
(a) 256x16 o) 64Kx8
(c) 4Kx 16 (d) 64Kx 16
181. IIow many internpt conhol lines are there in 8085 microprocessor ?
(a)6 O)8
(c) t2 (d) 16
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I
Text of page 138
lE2. The number of output pins ofa 8085 microprocessor are
(a) t9 (b) 2r
(c) 27 (d) 40
183. A maximum VO space which can be addressed by 8088 CPU is
(a) 1024 O)
65s)6
(c) 2000 (d) 2048
184. Which of the following intemrpts has the lowest priority ?
(a) RST s.5 O) RST 7.s
(c) INrR (d) TRAP
185. The first practical microprocessor was introduced by
(a) National semi-conductor (b) Motorola
(c) Fair Child (d) Intel
186. If the clock frequency of a 8085 microprocessor is 5 MHz, then time required to execute
an instruction of 18 T-states will be
(a) 3.6 p sec O) 0.36 P sec
(c) 9.0 p sec (d) 0.9 P sec
l8?. Transaction processing was made possible by the development of
(a) Direct access storage (b) Magnetic tape
(c) Mini computer (d) Cash register input
188. Which of the following is a correct definition of volatile memory ?
(a) It loses its contents at high arrhient temperatures.
(b) Its contents are lost on failure ofpower supply.
(c) It has to be kept in air-tight boxes always.
(d) It is the lat€st tlpe ofbubble memory.
I t9. The disadvantage of dynamic stomge elements is that
(a) power to kept on
(b) information stored previously is lost
(c) storage cells are to be refreshed frequently
(d) none ofthese
190. A source program is the program wdtten in
(a) English language (b) Slmbolic language
(c) Machine language (d) High level language
191. A semiconductor ROM is basically
(a) a set of flip-flop meinory elements
(b) a sequential circuit with flip-flops and gates ,
(c) a combinational logic circuit
(d) none of the above
Scrles-A 42 ,SE$OE
L
t-
,
Text of page 140
192. The devices commonly used for serial data fansfer to/from 8085 microprocessor are
(a) Cassette tapes (b) KeY boards
(c) Seven-segrnent LEDs (d) Memory
193. In a microcomputer, WAIT states are used to
(a) make the processor wait during DMA operation.
O) make the processor wait during a power interrupt proc€ssing'
(c) make the processor wait during a power shut down.
(d) interface slow peripherals to the processor.
194, Microprogramming is a tecbnique for
(a) writing small programs
O) programming the control steps of a computer
(c) programmingthemicroprocessors
(d) programminginPuUoutPut
195. The stack is nothing but a set ofreversed
(a) ROM address space O) VO addrcss space
(c) RAM address space (d) None ofthe above
196. Which of the following is not the transmission voltage in India ?
(a) 66 kv (b) 132 kv
(c). 264kV (d) 400kv
197. The instruction that performs the logic 'AND' operation benveen corresponding bits of
accumulator and 8 bit data specified by instruction is
(a) ANIData (b) PUSHPOP
(c) PCHL (d) RAL
198. Registers and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(a) store binary information
O) are made from an array offlip-flops and gates integrated on a single chip
(c) count pulses
(d) are, in fact shift registers
199. The process of causing an unplanned branching operation to occur, usually initiated by
external system is called
(a) Maskinc (b) Iteration
(c) Interrupt (d) Debugging
200. In a 8085 microprocessor systern with memory mapped VO
(a) VO devices have 8-bit addresses
(b) VO devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions.
(c) There can be a maximum of256 input devices and 256 output devices.
(d) Arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the UO data
Series-A u SESOE
t
t
Text of page 146
CTVIL ENGII{EERING
Paper - I
I For apipe of diameter
.d" flowing half firll undcr the action of gravity, the hydraulic mean
depth will be
g nd
(a)
4 o) 4
(c) !d (d)
g
2
2 Cippoletti weir is a trapezoidal weir with
(a) sides having end contractions O) side slope I Hto4V
(c) sideslo,pelvto4H (d) sideslopelvtolH
3.
-.
In any chmnel, notch is used to measure the following :
(a) velocity (b) pressure
(c) discharge (d) static energY
4. If water €,nten into the prpe from a resen oir or a tanl then at the exrtrance into the pipe
the head loss will be _
vz
(a) E O) -r.*ze
-v2
y2 (V,-Vl
(d) ,E
(c) 0.58
5. The relation that must hold for the flow to be irotational is
AL av (b)
ar Av
0
(a)
ave Ax Ay
tudv ar Av
(c)
#* af:u (d)
Ay
+
Ax
0
6. If Mach Numbcr is l€ss rhen ' I , then the flow will be
' flow.
(a) hlpenonic O) suPersonic
(o) gubsonic (d) sonic
7. With an increase in the radius of the tube, the rise of - liquid in the tube due to surfrce
te,nsion will _
(a) decrease O) ins€as€
(c) remains unchanged (d) catmotbe said
& 'Stoke' is a rmit of
(a) surfacetension O) force
(c) viscosity (d) discharge
9. Venturimeter is used to measure the in a pipe.
(a) velocity of flowing fluid
O) pressure of flonr'ing fluid
(c) discharge of flowing fluid
(d) pesurp difference of flowing -fluid betwe€n two points
Sc*lerA 2 sE$03
Text of page 148
10. An average value of coefficie,nt of velocity (Cr) is
(a) 0.62 O) 0.76
(c) 0.84 (d) o.97
11. The discharge formula for rectangular weir is
(a) O=frc0./-an't2 (b) o=frca,.,BgH
a- 1-
(c) a=fcarr/zgtt :
(d) Q ! ca lr/zg urtz
12.Astreamftnctionisgivenby\'=Lly.Themagrritudeofvelocityat(3,6)willbe
(a) t3.42 o) 12.10
(c) 18.42 (d) 7.10
13. Bemoulli's equation is based on one assumption, that is only . force is acfing on
the fluid and no other external forces are acting on the flowing fluid'
(a) pressure
Atnospheric (b) Gravitational pressure
(c) Air pressure (d) Frictibnal force
14. Dimension of dynamic viscosity is
(a) yzn o) rwLT
(c) Mr/L (d) TtL2
15, PiEzometric head is the sum of
(a) elevation and K.E. heads (b) elevation and pressure heads
(c) K.E & pressure heads (d) None ofthe above
16. A 0.30 m dia. pipe carrying oil at 1.5 m/sec velocity sudde,nly e)<Pands to 0.60 m dia' pipe.
The discharge in the 0.60 m dia. pipe is
(a) 0.09 m3/sec (b) 0'112 m3/sec
(c) 0.219 m3ls* (d) 0.106 m3/sec
17. If the mass density of a fluid is 789 kglm3. Taking g = 9.806 n/s€c2, the specific volume
will be
(a) 0.126 m3/kN o) 0.122 m3/lt'I
(c) 0.129 m3/kN (d) 0.132 m3/Lt'I
18. Relation between Cu, C. and C, is (where symbols have theil x5ual rn6ening)
(a) C*=Cox C. O) C6=C.x C,
(c) C"=Cux C, (d) C6:C, xC"
19. The location of centre of pressure for a circular plate 2 m diarneter immersed vertically in
water with its top edge 1.0 m below the water surface is
(a) 1.125 m (b) 2.000 m
(c) 1.215 m (d) 2.125 m
S€f,tes-A 4 ' SESll3
Text of page 150
20. Darcy-Weisbach friction factor f is defined by the relation :
I
(a) f= 2Y (b) ,f: vI
L L
(c) f= vI Ie L
(d) .r: vI L
21. If the velocity disribution is mifomr, the kinetic e,nergy correction factor will be
(a) greater thm zero but less than unity O) equal to zero
(c) lessthan zero (d) equal to unity
22. Two reservoirs are connected by two pipes laid in parallel. The diameters and le,ngths of
the two plpe is same, but the friction factor for the first pipe is 4 times than the second
pipe. The ratio of the discharges in first pipeto the c€cotrd prpe will be
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 0.s (d) 0.2s
23. The flow in channels is considered to be in tansitional state if the Relmold's number is
(a) less than 500 (b) between 500 and 2000
(c) between 2000 aDd 4000 (d) greater than 4000
u. Select the non-dimensional parameter from the following :
(a) Specific gpvity (b) Manning's coefficient
(c) Angular velocity (d) Specific weight
25. The ratio of inertia force to the viscous force is hown as
(a) Relmold's Number (b) Froude Number
(c) Euler's Number (d) Weber Number
2G- If the Froude number for a flew is l.5, then the flov will be
(a) criticalflow (b) sub+ritical flow
(c) super+ritical flow (d) lminar flow
27. If velocity potential (S) satisfies the Laplace equation, it represents thb possible
flow.
(a) unsteady, coryressible, rotational (b) steady, compressible, irrotational
(c) unsteady, incompressible, rotational (d) steady, incompressible, irotationd
28. Surface tension has the dimensions
(a) p1-r o) F
(c) FL-2 (d) FLr
29. ML-lf2 is the dimension of
(a) Force (b) Energy
(c) Pressure (d) Power
30. The loss of e,nergy at the exit from a pipe is given as
(a) hL:Y2lg O) hL:Yz/3g ,:
(c) ht=Y2/2g (d) ht:2Yzlg ,;
S*l+A 6 sD$lr3
Text of page 152
31. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of
(a) 3tV4[ above the base (b) 3tV4zr below the watei surface
(c) 4IV3l above the base (d) 4tU37I below the water surface
32. The water surface stope fctx , in case of uniform flow in the chanilel, is equal to
(a) 0 (b) I
(c) 1000 (d) @
33. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10.30.
The Froude number at the beginning of the jump is
(a) s.il (b) 7.63
(c) 8.05 (d) 13.61
34. The critical depth at a section ofa rectangular channel is 1.5 m. The specific energy at that
section is
(a) 0.75 m (b) 1.00 m
(c) 1.50 m (d) 2.25 m
35. A rectangular open channel of width 5.0 m is carrying a discharge of 100 m3/s. The
Froude number of the flow is 0.80. The depth of flow in the channel is
(a) 4m O) 8m
(c) 16 m (d) 20m
36. If 'D' is the scour depth measured below the high flood level ond 'd' is the depth of scour
below the original bed level, then the width of the launching apron at toe of the guide bank
will generally be
(a) l.s D (b) 1.5 d
(c) 2.0D (d) 2.0d
37. Flow in pipe is laminar if Reynold's number is
(a) more than 2100 O) moro than 3000
(c) mo,re than 4{M) . (d) less than 2000
38. According to continuity equation
(a)
\k' o) allt | = a2v2
vl v2
(c) aP2= v tv2 (d) None of the above
39. Discharge 'Q' through a venturimeter is given by (symbols have their usual meardngs)
(a) ca"rr2{-z1.lhl.1/\\
(b) ca1[rrl-^rz t[-zgr r
"ru,
(c) cd(ara2){-2dnt(ai%)
(d) cd\Fra, tlzgttlar+ar1
lAf
Sorigs..-A 8 sE$03
(
Text of page 154
40. The concept ofboundary layer was first introduced by
(a) Prandtl O) Nswton
(c) Reynold (d) Kutter
41. For open channels, Manning's formula with usual notations is
(a) v:ftnrn srn o) v:finzr sra
(c) v NI p2/J gl/3 (d) Nonc ofthe above
42. The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
(a) wat€r pressure O) wave Pressule
(c) self weight ofdam (d) uplift pressure
43. There will be no tension in dam if the resultant passes through the
(a) last third of the base O) middle third of the base
(c) middle two tbird of the base (d) none of the above
44. The relation between duty 'D' in hecvm3/s€c, delta 'A' in m urd base period 'B' in days is
(a) A = 8.64 D/B O) B = 8.64 A/D
(c) D:8.64 A/B (d) A=8'64B/D
45. According to Lacey, the scour de,pth is gven by : (Q - discharge in m3/sec and y'Lacey's
factor)
(a) 0.47 (Qn% O) 0.47 (QAtu
(c) 0.47 (QAtt4 (d) 0.47 (Qntts
46. Lacey's regime velocity is proportional t,o :
Where, R - Hydraulic mean radius in m
S - slope
(a) Ru2 S3/a o) p3/a 5l/2
(c) a3ra glB (d) pzl gl2
47. To form still water pocket in fiont of canal head, following is coDstruGted :
(a) Fish Ladder (b) Divide wall
(c) Dam (d) None ofthe above
48. Whe,n an irrigation canal passes over a river, the structure constructod is called
(a) crossdrainage O) Aqueduct
(c) Super passage (d) kvel crossing
49. Garret diagram, for the design of irrigation channels, is based on
(a) Kennedy's Theory (b) Lacey's theory
(c) Kutter's fomtula (d) Manning's fonnula
50. For an open channel, Chery's formula is (symbol's have their usual meanings)
(a) v={cRs O) v=c{ffi
(c) v:cRS (d) v=c /ffi
Scrios.A l0 SESr03
Text of page 156
51. According to Khosla's theory, which one of the follorving is correct ?
(a) ThJcritical hydraulic $adient for alluvial soil is nearly equal to 2.0
O) The undermiriing of floor starts from intermediate point
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
52. Specific capacity of an open well is higher for whictr of thefollowing soil type ?
(") Clay- O) Fine sand
(.) sand
Coarse (d) Rock
53 Discharge 'Q' over an ogoe spillway is given by (where symbols have their u5ual
meanings)
(a) Q=CLH O) Q=CLH3/2
(c) Q=CL3/2H (d) a=C{I-II
v. Energy loss in a hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel is given by : (symbols havo their
usual meanings)
(Yr-Y,)3 (tr-uz)3
(a) AE=--*
+Y rlz
(b) AE -2s\F[
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None ofthe above
51. Due to rise in tempcature, the viscosity and unit weight of the percolating fiqd qre
reduced to 70% Md 90% respectively. Ottrer things being constant, the change in the
coefficient of perrneability will be
(a) 20% (b) ?q.9%
G) 63.0% (d) 77.8%
56. For laminar flow in a pipe carrying a given discharge, the hgieht of surface rcughness is
doubled. In such a case the Darcy-Weisback friction factor will
(a) rernain unchanged O) be halved
C) be doubled (d) increase four hold
57. Which one of the following pressure units represents the least pressure ?
(a) Millibar (b)
mm of Mercury
G) N/mm2 (d)
kgftcm2
58. The correct sequence in the direction of the flow of water for installation of Hy.dropower
plant is
(a) Reservoir, surge tanlg turbine, penstock
O Reservoir, penstock, surge tank, turbine
(c) Reservoir, penstock, turbine, surge tank
(d) Reservoir, surge tank penstock, tubine
59. The yield of well depends upon
(a) permeability of soil o) area of aquifer opening into the well
(c) actual flow velocity (d) All the above
60. A homogeneous earthen dam is 24 m high anid has a free board of 4 m. the flow net drawn
for the dam indicated the number ofpote,lrtial drops as 12 and the numtier of flow cluiimels
as 3. The coefficient of permeability of the dam is 3 x 10{ m/s.'The dischargp'per m
length of the dam will be
(a) 1.8 x lO-s cumec/Vm O) 2.4 x lOra cumec/s/m
(c) 2.88 x 10{ cumec/s/m (d) 1.5 x 10-s cumec/s/m
Sert€s-A 12 SES43
Text of page 158
61. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge in an irrigation outlet to the rate of change of
discharge of the dishibutory is known as
i"i S-*.itirity O) Modllarratio
t"i Flexibility (d) Setting
*'
62. At a certain point in the floor of the weir, the uplift pressure head dueofto-theseepage is 3.75 m.
ii'tfr"-i!r":u"[-J*riiv-o]ii" *r.r"t" is l.s, trrd minjtnum thickness floor requircd at
this point to count€r'act the uplift prtssure is - .
(a) ' 3.75 m O) ?.1y
Gi 1.5 m (d) 1.25 m
63. The total number ofpossible GVF profiles in open channel are
(a) t2 A)
(d) 11
Gi e 15
6{.
- -- In the design of hydraulic structures in alluvial rivers, the egY94o.n used to calculate the
;;..rt-dqfi of sciur 'R' for a dischrge intensity 'q' per m widlh is
(a) R:'4.75 qttn o) R = 1.35 (q/f)23
i"i R:1.3s(q2l0u3 (d) n'=t.2(q2le)t6
65.
-- A cross drainage work is termed as a canal syphon ifit carries the canal
(a) below tlie drainace and the canal FSL ii more than the bed level of the drain
ibl) ,mri n" a."i*E and the drainage HFL is above the bed level of the canal
t;i Gfo* tUe aoi*[" and the the cmal FSL is below the bed level of the drain
tdi abore the drainale and drainage IIFL is below the bed level ofthe canal
-66. The characteristic feature ofa barrage is
(") the provision ofa raised crest-acrcss the river for flow regulation
(bi the irovision ofa series of gates across the river for flow regulation
i"i the ireation of storage reservoir on the u/s side
(d) none ofthe above
67. Provision of a filter and a rcck toe fui an earthen dasr is done to
(a) prevent the piping action in tho dam section
'cottection
O) aird arain out the seepage water out of dam
(c) reduce the quantitY of seePage
(d) none of the above
68. The discharge per urit draw down at a well is hown as
(a) specifrc leld (b-) specific capacity
Ci sifeyieli (d) sPecificstorage
69. At jump rating cuw-e is below the tail water curve at low flows
-' '"iiathe foot of a spillway, the for this situation is
.td"iiG t i-Etr nori,i. rn! suiitaft tlpe of e,nergy dissipater
(a) a sky-jump-bucket Q a horizontal 4ron
(") asldpingipron (d) astillingpool
70. The cut-off in the earthen dams and the rockfill dams is provided to
(a) reduce the loss of stored wat€r throlgh se€page
O) prevent suEsurface erosion by piping action
("i increase the efficiency of grouting operation-
(a) reduce the uplift pressure in the base ofthe dam
71. Tbe adjustable proportional module is a
(a) Modular outlet (b) Semi-modular outlet
(c) Non-modular outlet (d) Open flume outlet
lhrl€s.A l4 sEs43
Text of page 160
72. During-thethe formation of hydraulic jump
(a) specific energy and specific force rernains constant
tbi the siecific energy increases and specific force decreases
t"i the siecific err"rly decreases
energy and specilc force increases
tdi tt " ti""in" d"creases and specific force remains constant
73. In a gravity dam, the factor of safety required for overtuming ofdm should be at least
(a) 1.0 O) 2'o
(c) 4.o (d) l.s
74. Struchre which is built to divert the river water to canal is called as
(a) headworks O) weir
G) dam (d) marginal bund
T5.Inaflowoffluidthroughpipes,thehydraulicgradientlineisalwaysplaced
(a) above the total energy line O) below the axis of the pipe
Gt sloping in nature along with flow (d) below the total energy line
75. The relationstrip between Manning's coefEcient 'n' and chezy's coefficient 'c' is given
by (where R is hydraulic mean depth)
(a) c=Rz3/n o) c:Ru6/n
(c) e: R'lr37o (d) Q = Pl/a7n
77. At Vena contacta the area of the wate{et is minimrm and the velocity of errerging water is
(a) midmum O) average
(c) ma:<imum (d) T*;rs
78. If a pipe of dia. 30 cm running full urith water with velocity 100 m/sec is changed by a
plpe-oiaia 15 cm, then the velocity of water flox'ing through the pipe will be
(a) 50 m/sec O) 25 mls*
(c) 200 m/sec (d) 400 rnlsec
79. In Lacey's silt theory, the relation is developed in betwe€n
(a) discharge and Pressure
(b) velocity, discharge, silt factor and flow velocity
(c) bottom slope, discharge and scour depth
(d) all the above are correct
80. For ware action in dams, the maximum height of the free board is generally taken as :
(Where \ is the height of wave)
(a) 0.5 \ O) 0.7s h,
(c) 1.2s hw (d) l.so\
81. The changes that take place during the process of consoli&tion of a saturated clay would
include
(a) an increase in pore water pressure and an increase in effective pressure
(b) an increase in pore water pressure and a decrease in effective pressure
(c) a decrease in pore water pressure and a decrease in effective pressure
(d) a decrease in pore water pressure and an increase in effective prcssure
Series-A 1O SE$03
Text of page 162
and 0'5
-- The initial and final void ratios of a clay sample in a consolidation test are 1.0 will be
82.
respectively. If the initial thiclness of the sample is 2.4 cm, then its final ttrickness
(o[ cm1.3 O) 1.8 cm
G) l.9crn (d) 2.2cm
83. A soil sample is having a specific gravity 2.60 and a void ratio of 0.78' The water content
required tofully saturate lhe soil at that void ratio would be
(a) lff/o (b) 3V/"
(c) 5V/o (d) lff/n
g4. A sand deposit has a porosity of 1/3 and its specific gravity is 2.5. The critical hydraulic
gradient to cause sand boiling in the stratum will be
G) 1.5 o) t.2s
(d) 0'7s
(c) l.o
85. Density index ofsoil is denoted by
emax - max. void ratio
ern - min. void ratio
e - natural void ratio
(a) (e."r - e)/(e.rr - en 6) O) (e - e,rro/(er - e.;n)
(c) (err*+e/(err*-e,*J (d) (e + e,*./(er** - er,;n)
86. As per soil classification systern, silty sand is denoted by the symbol
(a) sw (b) sP
(c) sM (d) sC
87. The relationship between discharge velocity V and seepage velocity V, is
(a) V,:V/n (b) V,:V/e
(c) V" = Vn (d) V,:Ve
8E. According to Terzaghi, the net ultimate bearing capacity of clay is given by
where : N., \ & \ are bearing caacity factors, C - cohesion
(a) C.N, O) C.\
(c) c.\ (d) 1.2c.\
89. The relationship between void ratio and porosity n is
(a) "=*e -. n:ll!e
(b)
l+e
(c) n:;:l-e (d)
"=-t
9l). Which one of the following does not posses plasticity ?
(a) Bentonite O) Kaolinite
(c) Rockpowder (d) Fat claY
91. The uniformity coefficient ofsoil with usual notation is defined as
(a) Dr@oo (b) DmDso
(c) DsPeo (d) DoPro
Scrle+A 18 sE$t[t
\
I
Text of page 164
92. According to IS code, allowable settlement ofraft foundation on sand is
(a) 25 mm to 40 mm O) 40 mm to 65 mm
(c) 75 mm to 100 mm (d) 100 mm to 120 mm
93. The toughness index ofclayey soil is given by
(a) riasticity index.rrlow index O) Liquid limit / Plastic limit
i"i Liquidity index / Plastic limit (d) Plastic limit / Liquidity index
94. The two criteria for the determination of allowable bearing capacity ofa foundation are
(a) tensile failure and compressive failure(b) te,nsile failure and shear failure
G) bond failure and shear failure (d) shear failure and settlement
95. In an undrained tri-axial test on a saturated clay, the Poisson's ratio is
oj .. 63
tal ------:-
\4'' 6t * 03 trr, -----
ot - 03
ot-63 ol*o3
(c) (d) ('3
o3
96. Capillary water in soils
(a) causes negative pore water pressure
(b) reduces effective Pressure
(c) reduces bearing caPacitY
(d) all the above are true
97. A given soil sample has the following given size analysis :
< 2.00 mm - 80%
< 0.66 mm - 60%
< 0.075 mm- 30%
< 0.005 mm - l0%
<O.002mm-2o/o
The soil is
(a) skip graded O) uniformly graded
(c) well graded (d) average graded
98. The figure given below represents t}te contact pressure distribution on underneath as :
Footing
(a)
(c)
rigid footing on saturated soil
flixible footing on saturated clay
m l
(b) rigid footing on sand
(d) flexible footing on sand
99. Sheep foot roller is mostly used for the compaction of which qpe of soils ?
(a) Clays O) Sand
(c) Gravel (d) Silt
Series'.A 20 sES{13
I
Text of page 166
through a
lfl). Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed
(a) fill material (b) dcnse coarse sand
(c) over consolidated stiff claY (d) dense fine sand
is
101. For frictional granular soils, the active earth pressure coefficient
(a) l+sinrb
1-9!S.&.
i::ifrt o) r.'t"o
t+cos d (d) I-999--{.
(c) ffit I +""'o
to unity' it is as
--- If the consiste,ncy iadex of a soil sarrple is equal
1(D.
O) plasticlimit
("i lhuidlimil
6i thtiot ti-it (d) none of the above
"g" fq
--- As per the Indian soil classification systerq 'MI' is the symbol
103.
Inorganic silt-of high compressibilitv
t"l' l"o.g-i" sit of nigh fUsticitv' 9l
i;i norianic sitt or medium plasticity (d) None of the above
lM. Seepage
- Pressure alwaYs acs
(a) direction opposite to flow
in dtte ql in the direction of flow
-
in the direction perpe'ndicular to flow (d) in all the direction
Gi
*1D;;;
rui. Which of the following state'ment is correct ?
(") af fredom of a rigid block foundation are 6'"
width'"
C*) "L-fl"tii"ii-*-i. **ia"t"a-." tn"m* if its depth exceeds the
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None ofthe above
is
106. For fine grained cohesive soils, method used-for drj$n?.ge
i"f -pi6no*at"-p. A) Shallowwellsvstem
(d) Electro osmosis
Ei oeq wefr systerir
1t)7. Un-confned compression tast is generally applictle
--ifoo-*te"ii'"*it - to .
i"l O) Saturatedclays
(d) SandY soil
Ei silt
10& Greater skin friction
(a) retards the sinking of well o) accelerates the sinking of well
(d) nonc of the above
Gt does not afrect thi sinking of well
l0g.Coulomb,sequationforshearstrengthcanber€,presentedby(symbolshavetheirusual
meanings)
(a) .-=s+otan$ O) c=s-otan0
i"i s=o+ctanQ (d) s=c-otan0
110. Whcn consolidation of saturated soil sample occurs, the degree of
satrnation
(a) increases (b) decreases
Gt r€rmains constatrt (d) may increase or decrease I
l1l. a bulk density of 17.6 tl.{/m3 and water content lglo-
If the void ratio remains
- - - A soil has
**t tt * ttre bulk dimsity for wat€r content of 20% will be
6-l;.it.*,#
"t o) re'2okr'I/m3 :'
i;i is.row/-' (d) l7.6kl'I/m3
Scrlce-A 22 SESJO3
t \
Text of page 168
t
I
ll2.Asoilsamplehasliqui<llimitas4ilVo,plasticlimiloszso/o{flshrinkagelimitasl4%.
index of the soil will be
For a natural wat." *o,*tof lO'lo, the liquidity
(a) 7s% G) 80%
(c) 25% (d) Noneoftheabove
300 lNlm2' fne depth of foundation is I
m and
113. The ultimate bearing capacrty of a soil is
a factor of safety as 2'5' the net safe bearing
unit weight of soil is 20 l}'y#' Choosing
capacity is
(b) 112 kl,l/m2
(a) 110 n'I/m2 2
(d) 100.5 *t{/m
(c) 80 kN/m2
114. The group elficiency ofpile group :
(a) will be alwaYs less than 100%
(b) will be always greater than lfi)%o
(c) may be less than or more than 1007o for
(d) will be more th*l0ot; tor pile group in cohesionless soil ad less than 100%
those in cohesive soils
^--
lt5.Whichoneofthefollowingtestscannotbedonewitlroutundistrrrbedsampling?
t"i Shearstrengthofsarirl O) (d)
Shearstrengthofclay
Attqb€rglimits
Gi Compactionpammeters
test on a normally consolidated clay are
116. The results of a co nsolidated tlrained tiaxial shear
shown in Fig' (a). The angle of intemal friction
wlll be
Shear
Strengtlt
(k}.{/m)
100 2@
+ Normal Stress
(kN/mz)
Fig. (a)
(a) sin r(l/3) o) sin-r1UZ1
;, .,"-'iroi (d) sidqt6fzl i
ll7.Westergaard,sanalysisforstressdistributionbeneathloadedareasisapplicableto
(a) sLdy soils O) claYeY soils
i"t sratified soils (d) siltY soils
then the soil can be classified
118. If the coef5cient of penneability for the soil is l0-7 cmlsec,
as
(a) clay o) silt
(c) sand (d) gravel
24 sE$03
Series-A
Text of page 170
119. Liquidity index (in 7o) is equal to
G)o_@ -O)r O)a
(a) tm o) -.Hxlfi)
l-" IP
(D, (l)-(Do
-G)
(c) -i;--x
rP
lo0 (d) -f 'too
120. With respect to c - $ soil in an infinite slope, identifr if the following two statements are
True or False :
I. The stable slope angle can bc great€r than 0.
tr. The factor of safety of the slope does not d€pend on the heigbt of soil in the slope.
(a) Both statements are false. O)
I is true but II is false.
(c) true.
I is false but tr is (d)
Both statements are true.
t2t. Modmum bending moment in roof purlins is taken as
(a) wulo O) wU20
(c) wu4o (d) WL/50
122. Minimum pitch of rivets strall not be less than
(a) 1.5 d (b) 2.0d
(c) 2.s d, (d) 3.0 d
123. With rcspect to the elfective span of a steel beam, the morimum deflection of the beam
should not be more than
(a) 1/100 O) tnso
(c) tt32s (d) l/500
ta. For roof truss, the merrber which is used as tansverse member between two adjace,nt
trusses is called as
(a) principal raftcr o) common rafler
(c) purlin :.i,. i:.'
(d) all the above are tue
I Lt: !
125. The best arrangc,ment to provide unified behaviour in built up steel column is by
(a) facing (b) battcning
(c) tieplate (d) perforated cover plate
126. The design ofeccentrically loaded steel column needs revision if
fc flb fc fb
(a)
fc
+
fb
I o) fc fb
<l
(c)
fc fb
fc fb
>l (d)
fc
fc
*f,,
127. Lug angles
(a) are used to reduce the length ofthe connection
O) are unequal angles
(c) increases shear leg
(d) Alltheabove
Serlec-A 26 sEs43
A
Text of page 172
128. The slenderness ratio of lacing flats is limited to
(a) 3s0 O) 250
(c) 180 (d) 145
129. Splices for compression mernbers are desigred as
(a) short colurm (b)
long column
(c) column
intermediate (d)
none of the above
130. Minimum number of battens required in a battened column is ,
(a) 2 O)3
(c) 4 (d) 6
131. Steel beam should be desiped for
(a) flexural strength (b) *iftress
(c) bukling (d) All the above
132. The thic}mess of the base plate provided for a steel column is determined from ',
(a) flexural strength ofplate
(b) shear strength ofplate
(c) bearing strength of the concrete pedestal
(d) punching criteria
r33. Poisson's ratio of steel in the elastic range is
(a) 0.2s (b) 0.30
(c) 0.40 (d) 0.50
134. Load on connection is not eccentric for
(a) lap joint (b) single cover buttjoint
(c) double cover butt joint (d) none ofthe abov
135. Which one of the following is the mode of failure in a fillet weld material ?
(a) Tension -.,,r.,, , :, O) Shear
(c) Bearing g,Tfrr*
i, .r rrF. * lqJ
136. The diameter of rivet hole in tension me,urbers using rivet of diasreter more than 24 mm
will be equal to
(a) rivet diameter + 3 mm O) rivet diameter + 2 mm
(c) rivet diameter + 1.5 mm (d) rivet diameter
137. The thickness of the gusset plate for column base should not be less than
(a) 6mm O) 8mm
(c) 12 mm (d) 16 mm
138. Which of the following is not a compression mernber ?
(a) Strut O) Tie
(c) Rafter (d) Boom
139. Which one of the following will be prefened for a colunn ?
(a) ISLB O) ISMB
(c) ISWB (d) ISIIB
Serie+'A 2E sE$03
j
A
Text of page 174
l{1. The structural advantage of using steel as a structural me'mber is
(a) rmell weight to strength rstio O) high speed of erection
(c) speed ofdismantling (d) scrap value
141. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and l0 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter of 18 rnm is
driven. Ihe na sectional area ofplate is
(a) 18.00 cm2 (b) 28.20 cst2
(c) 28.05w2 (d) 32.42w2
1{2. The effective le,ngth of filla wcld is
(a) Total le,ngth - 2 x thrroat size O) Total le,ngth - 2 x weld size
(c) 0.7 x Total leirgth (d) Total length - (weld size x rB I
143. In a diamond rivetting for a plate of width 'b' and rivet diamet€r 'd', the efficiency of the
joint is give,n by
(a) (bdyb (b) (b-2dVb
(c) (bd/d (d) (E2dYd
l4L The working stress for structural at€el itr t€Dsion is of the order of
(a) l5N/mm2 O) 75N/mm2
(c) l5oN/mm2 (d) 75oN/mm2
145. The maximum centse to c€,ntre distance bctrreen bolts in tension member of thicloess
l0mmis
(a) 20omm O) l60mm
(c) l2Orrm (d) 100mm
145. A steel column in a multi-stotyed building carries an axial load of 125 N. It is built tp of
2 ISMC350 channels connectcd by IaEfu;tlhe tacing crries a load of
(a) 125.125N
(c) 3.125N
o) r2.52s N
(d) TEro
f47. Shape factor is given by
(a) My/tvip O) zJzP
(c) bothof(a)&(b) (d) None ofthe above
l4& In case of tension me,mber coasisting of two angles brck to brck of so'ne aide of gusset
plate, what is K equal to ?
Where, .A, - Area of connected leg
A, - Area of outstaoding leg
(a) 3Ar(3Ar +,{2) O) 3Ar(Ar + 3A,
(c) 5Ar(Ar + 5Az) (d) 5Ar(5Ar + Az)
ScrlGr-A 30 Sf,S43
I
Text of page 176
grrd3rs' attditional load of of
149. While desigfng electricity operated Gantry
the vertical load transferred to
maximum static wheel loal i;JJ b" use.d-to-calculate
rails. --
(a) 2lYozd.dition o) 10% addition
(c) 57o reduction (d) l0% reduction
l50.IfaR.C.beamislikelytofailinbond,tlrenitsbondstrengtttcanbeincreasedmost
economicallY bY
(a) increasing the depth of bearn O) using thinner bars but more in numbers
(c) using thicker bars but less in numbers (d) providing vertical stimrPs
l5l.IfthepermissibtecompressivesfiessinconcreteinbendingforM,ogradeofconcreteis
7 N/mm2, then modular ratio will be
(a) 18.66 o) 13.33
(c) 10.98 (d) 9.33
in a column is given by
152.. The limit of percentage of longitudinal reinforcement
(a) O.l5 to 2Vo (b) O.8 ro 4Yo
(c) 0.8 to 6% (d) 0.8 to 8%
153. The minimum clear cover (in mm) to the main steel bars
in slab' beam and column
respectively are
(a) 10, 15,20 (b) 20,20,40
(c) 20,25,30 (d) 20,35,40
154. A simply supported RC beam having clear span-of 5 m and support
wia!!
]!!^mm
nas m
as per 15456 ?
cross t""tioi L shown in Fig. Whatis the effective span ofbeam
400 mm
o oo
k-zooro.J
(a) 5300 mm (b) 5400 mm
(c) 5200 rnm (d) 5150 mm
155. Diagonal tension reinforcement is provided in a beam as
(a)longitudinalbars(b)berrtupbarsarrdverticalstimrps
G)helicalreinforcernent(d)gOobendattheberrdofmainbar
sEs-03
Series-A 32
I ,i
Text of page 178
pet IS 456-2000 is
155. The minimum grade ofconcrete to be used in reinforced concrete as
(a) Ml5 (b) M20
(c) M25 (d) Mt0
157. According to IS 45G2000, minimum sle,lrdemess ratio for a short column is
(a) less than 12 o) less than 18
(c) betweenlS and Z (d) more thnn 24
15& which IS code is used to consider the wind loads ?
(a) IS 875 (Part - D O) IS E75 (Part - tr)
(c) Is87s(Part-trI) (d) IS875(Pail-M
r59. The minimum grade of concrete that can be used for pre-teirsioned syst€,ms is
(a) M2O r4 4i (b) M25
']
(c) Ivl30 :' (d) M40
150. The ma:rimum strain allowed in reinforced concrete beam section is "
(a) 0.002 (b) 0.003s
(c) o.ooss (d) 0.007s
16l. The maximum depth of neutsal axis in RC beanr section in which Fe4l5 grade steel has
been used is (where d = efrective depth of bem)
(a) 0.53d O) 0.48d
(c) 0.46d (d) 0.44
162. Digtribution rinforcerneff in a simply supportcd RC slab is provided to distribute
(a) load O) t€,mp€ratu€ stress
(c) shrirkage stress (d) All ofthe above
lGl. Thictened part ofa flat slab over the supporting col,mn is called
(a) drop panel O) caPital
(c) column head (d) none ofthe above
16{. In a reinforced concrete beam, if the anrount of reinforce,ment increases, the'lr the
(a) depth ofneutral axis decleases (b) depth ofneutral a:ris increases
(c) depth ofneutral axis rcmains constant (d) none ofthe above o'
'a
165. In a pre-strcsscd conorcte member, it is advisable to use
(a) low strrength concrete onlY
(b) highshargthconcreteonlY
(c) low shcngth concrete but high strength steel
(d) high shength concrete and high strength stecl
Sde*.A Y sFs-03
Text of page 180
166. Flexural collapse in over reinforced beams is due to
i;t primary'compression failure O) gecondary compression failure
i"i primary tension failure (d) bond failure
vrith Fe415
167. A RCC beam of 200 mm width and 300 mm effective depth is reinforced
gi"steel. The grade of concrete used is M20. The limiting moment carrying cryacity of
this beam is
(a) 47.88 kNm (b) 53'28 kNm
G) 49.68 kNm (d) None of the above
168. The permissible shear stress in concrete depends upon
(a) grade of concrete and 7o steel in compression
O) grade ofconcrete only
(c) o/o steel in comPression onlY
(d) grade of concrete and % steel in tersion
169. The characteristic compressive strengtn oiM30 liide concrete as per IS : 456-20OO.is
(a) 3.83 MPa O) 5'47 MPa
(c) 2t.23MPa (d) 30'00MPa
170. The diameter of longitudinal bars in a column should not be l€ss then
(a) Emm O) l0mm
(c) 12 mm (d) 16mm
l7l. Which one of the following is categorised as a long term loss ofpre-stress in a pre'etressed
concrete merrber ?
(a) loss due to elastic shortening
O) loss due to friction
(c) loss due to relaxation of strands
(d) loss due to anchorage sliP
172. In limit state design of RC, the strains in tension reinforce,ment should not exceed
(a) 0.87 f-
Es
o) 0.002
f
(c) 0.87{+0.002 (d) 0.0035
I 73. For the purpose of the design of a reinforced concrete footing
(a) a flexible base and linear pressure distribution is assumed
O) a rigid base and linear pressure distiibtrdon is assumed
pressure distribution is assirned
G) a flexible base and parabolicpressure
(d) a rigid base and parabolic distribution is assumed
174. The critical section for the calculation of maximum bending mom€nt {or footing.
supporting a concrete column is
(a) at face of column
(b) halfivay between the centre line ofcolurnn and edge ofcolumn
of footing from face of column
Gi at a diitance equal to halfthe efrective depthfooting
(O at a distance equal to the effective depth of from face of column
Serics-A 36 SFSr0:l
Text of page 182
column is
175. The minimum number of main reinforceme,nt bars provided in a RC circular
(a) 2 O)3
(c)4(d)6
176. The slope deflection equation at the c,nd B of member BC for the ftame shown
in figure
below will be :
l00H\f c
2Et
5m EI
IA
8m
EI
Em
,,1
1ti. D
4Et
(a) MBc 8 [ze" -
o"J (b) rra""=f;tzer-ecl
(c) MBc 4EI
E 120c
+ Osl (d) rrrr.=$tzer+e"I
4y^
l77l kr a parabolic arch, rise of the arch is given by the equation Y = f, x (l - x), where, y" is
the maximum rise of arch. At the quarter span of the a,ch i.e. edx:u4, what will be the
rise ofarch ?
4y" 4y"
(a)
7 0-, o) 12
4yc 3Yc
(c) (d)
3 4
h& The Poisson's ratio is defnod as
axial stress larcral stain
(a)
lateral stress o) a:rial strain
lat€ral stless aldal strain
(c) (d)
axial stress lat€ral strain
lZD. Muller Breslau principle in structural malysis is used for
. (a) drawing influence line diagram for any force fimction
(b) writing virtual work equation
(c) sr.pcrposition of load eficcts
(d) none of the above
Seriec-A 3E sE${13
Text of page 184
180. A frame ABCD is supported by a roller and a hinge as shown in figure :
The reaction at the roller end A lsgv€n by
P P
B
w
D
T
i
L
A
(a) P o) 2P
G) Ptz (d) Zfio
l8l. A fixed beam of length L canies a point load W at the centne. The deflection at the cenre is
(a) one-fourttr of-the deflection bf simply sup'ported beam
(b) half of the deflection for simply supported beam
(ci double the deflection for a simply supported beam
(d) none ofthe above
182. The shear force diagram (SFD) for the bearn shown in figure is
l0t
lm
l-- lom
(a)
It It
It
(b)
It
0.5 t
0.5 t
(c)
0.5 t 0.5 t
(d)
It3. A truss is shown in the figure. The cross sectional area of each member is 'A' and the
modulus of elasticity of thi material is E. The strain energy in the mernber xY is given
by
P
x
P
T
L
5)
Y I
k- r. -l
(a) P2IJ2AE o) P2LJ6AB
(c) P2I,/3AE (d) Zero
Serier-A ,o sE$03
Text of page 186
parabolic hinge is
1g4. Influence line for horizontal tbrust in a tbree hinged
(a) parabolic O) circular
i"i Liangular (d) none ofthe above
185. A two hinged arch is statically indetemrirate by
(a) 0 degree O) I degree
(c) 2 dege,e (d) 3 degree
186. Influence lines can be drawn for
(a) staticafly daemrinarc beams only o) statically indeterminate beams only
(c) statically determinate trusses only (d) any structure
W. Y =ff isthe equation for Euler's crippling load for a column if its .
(a) bothendsrefxed O) both ends are hinged
Gi one end is fixed and other end is frc€ (d) none ofthe above
188. A cantilever beam having lenglh '/'is subjected to a bending moment 'M', at its free
end'
The deflection of the free end will be @I - Florural Rigdity)
'(a) Mttrlt o) MPtEt
(c) uatzet (d) Mtt2Er
I 89. Nahfe of distribution of horizontal shear stress in a rectangular beam section
is
(a) Parabolic (b) ElliPtic
(c) Hlperbolic (d) Linear
190. For the propped cantilever beam shown in figure, the reaction R at B will be
Wrun
A ,l,r,t,l,r,l,r,l'l' r,t'lr ,l' B
I
R
(a) wilz o) wll4
(c)
**,
(d)
3*,
191. Flexibility method is also lnown as
(a) force method (b) displacement method
(c) compatibilitY method (d) none of the above
19:2. ll a simply zup,ported beam of span I carries a point load W at the'mid span' th€n
downward deflbction under the load will be
(a) w3/3EI (b) w3/8EI
5WP
(c) wr3/48Er (d)
384 3EI
Serlec.A 42 sf,tlo3
1
Text of page 188
ia---
193. A fixed b€{m, baving a mment of inertia
'I' mma md span 3 m' settles l'5 cm at-the one
the beam is 2'0 x ld N/mm2' The bending
of the supPort. fhe mocJus of elasticity for
.oln*, io N-rtrr producpd duc to thc sEfrlcmcot of srryport will
be
(a)
4I
3
o)I
3I
(c) 2r (d)
4
variation at
.194. Influe,nce line for a forcing firnction gives its
(a) tnid span o) a supPort
(c) a given section
(d) everywhere inthe bearn
195. Lack of fit betrrea membcrs of r truss canseg
(a) no deflections O) vertical defl ection onlY
(c) horizontal deflcction onlY (d) horizontal & vertical deflections both
for determining bending moment due to
195. Influe,lrce line for bending moment is rylicable
(a) a single poiot load only O) unifomly distributed loads only
tt several point loads only (d) any load combination
lg.ThemapifudeoffixodGodmom€otinafixe<tbeamofspan./'subjectedtoaunifomrly
distributed load 'W' per unit length is
(a) wqts6 (b) wPt24
(c) wtttzo (d) wPtr2
bem of length 'L' subjected to moment 'M', at the
-- The slope at the free e,nd of a cmtilcver
19t.
--
il *d it given by @l is flcxural rigdity)
(a) t*2nt o) ML/EI
(c) Mu2Fir (d) MU3EI
the structure will be
199. For any structure, when both ends have roller rup,ports, then
(a) stable O) unstable
(c) (a) and (b) ofthe above (d) none of the above
200. A thre€ hingcd s€tni-circular arch of radius 'R' carries a
uniformly distributed load 'W'
per unit nrn over the whole spm- The horizontal thrust will be
WR
(a) wR o) 2
2WR
(c) 4WR
3"
(d)
3tr,
4 sF,$03
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Text of page 190
MECEAMCAL ENGII{EERING
Paper-I
I TheI l0] direction in a cubic unit cell is parallel to the folloudng :
(a) Face diagonal ofunit cell
O) Edgeofthecube
(c) Body diagonal of the cube
(d) None ofthe above
2. When mecbmical properties of a mataial remain same in all directions * each point such
a material is called
(a) Isotropic
O) Homogenious
(c) Orthotropic
(d) Anisotsopic
3. Ge.rman silver is an alloy of
(a) Silver and Tin
O) SilvermdGold
(c) Nickel and Cop,per
(d) Nickel, Copper and Zinc
4. Iron is 'Face Ce,ntercd Cubic (FCC) at which one of the following tempemtures ?
(a) Room teryerafire
o) 1400 oc
(c) 910"C
(d) None ofthe above
5. Babbit metal is an alloy of which one of the following ?
(a) kad andTin
O) LeadaodMapesium
(c) Tin and Bismuth
(d) None ofthe above
6. Griffth thcory of failure is suitable for
(a) Mild Steel
O) Low Carbon Steel
(c) Alloy Steel
(d) Glass
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Text of page 192
7. Mild Steel is an example of
(a) Substitution solid solution
O) Interstitial solid solution
(c) Inter metallic compound
(d) None of the above
t. Bronze contains
(a) T0YoAtand30VoZn
O) 90%Cu aadl0%7rt
(c) 5o/o Crt ad 25o/o 7-rt
7
(d) None ofthe above
9. The processes, used to make the srcel aagnetically softer, are
(a) 4nasaling ard Decarburization
(b) Decarburization and Quenching
(c) Annealing, Grain growth and Decarburization
(d) Grain growth and Quenching
10. The ductile-brittle traosition te,mperature
(a) depends on size and shape of material, rate of loading pr€senoe of notches,
impurities and operating tflperature
(b) depends on size but does not depend on shape of malerial
(c) does not de,pend on size of material
(d) do€s Dot d€p€Nrd on rate of loading but depends on prese,nce of impurities
11. Match the itenrs in List - 1 to that of the List - 2 aod choose the correct altemative.
Llst - I Llst - 2
A. Alnico V l. Metallic Magpet
B. Ferrrexodur 2. Ceramic Mapet
C. Nickel Odde 3. Anti ferromagnetic
D. Ferrites 4. Compounds containing trivalent iron
5. Ferrimapetic
6. Soft magnetic
Altemetiver :
ABCD
(a) 1234
o) 6234
(c) 4612
(d) 2t6l
12. Choose the correct statement Aom the following :
(a) Ce,remic compounds involve simple coordiaatioD than their corresponding
components.
O) Ccremic compounds are more ductile.
(c) Ceramic compounds are morc stable with resp€ct to thermal and chemical
environments than their components.
(d) Ceramic compounds have less r€sistaDce to slip.
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Text of page 194
Note : Q. No. 13 to 16 :
13. Choose the altemative from the code given below which explains the conect relationship
between the Assertion (A) and Reason @) :
Assertion (A) : Metallic Mapets cannot be used in high fteque'ncy circuits.
Reason (R) : The low resistivity of metallic magnets permits heating from induced
curr€'[ts.
Code :
(a) (A) is tnre, but @) is false.
O) (A) is false, but @) is tnre.
(c) Both (A) and @) are true, but @) does not explain (A) correctly.
(d) Both (A) and @) are true and @) explains (A) correctly.
14. Assertion (A) Little enerry is required to break materials such as glass, polystyrene
and some cast irons. Conversely, rubber and mmy steels absorb
considerable energy in the fracture process.
Reason @) The service limit itr many engineering products is not the yield or
ultimate strengttr, rather may be the energy associated with fracture
propagation
Code
(a) Both (A) and (R) are tnre and (R) explains (A) correcfly.
(b) Both (A) and @) are true but (R) does not otplain (A) correctly.
(c) (A) is tnre, but @) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but @) is true.
15. Asserdon (A) : In general, materials deform more readily at elevated temperature.
Reeson (R) : Plastic deformation commonly arises from dislocation mov€,ments
that involve a continual displaceme, t of atoms to new neighbours at
elwated temperature
Code :
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
O) (A) is false, but @) is true.
(c) Both (A) and @) are tue and (R) explains (A) correctly.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but @) does not explain (A) correctly.
16. Assertion (A) Soft magnets are the obvious choice for ac or high freque,ncy
applicatioas.
Reason @) They must be magnetised and demagnetized many times per second.
Code
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not orplain (A) correctly.
o) Both (A) and @) are true, and (R) explains (A) correctly.
(c) (A) is true, but @) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but @) is true.
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Text of page 196
17. Dielectric stre,ngth can be reduced by
(a) rernoving cracks (b) absence of imperfections
(c) absence offlaws (d) impurities, ciacks and pores
18. Select the correct answer out ofthe following alternatives about 'Cyclic Stre'sses'.
(a) That a mat€rial cm tol€rate are much greater thm stress€s Foduc€d under static
O) Can lead to fatigue if the stress level is above thr: endurance limit.
(c) Can lead to fatigueifthe stress level is below the enduatrce liidt.
(d) Are not introduced in the axle ofa running hain.
19. Dislocation in material is cdled
(a) Point defect o) Line defect
(c) Plane defect (d) Volumetric defect
20. Match the items in List - I to thg conesponding items in the Ljst - 2.
Liit - 1 List- 2
(Heat Treatment) @Ifect on Prope(ies)
A. Anneating l. Refine grain. stnrcturcs
B. Nitriding 2. Improves the hardness of the whole mass
C. Martempering 3- Improves surface hardness
D. Normalising 4. Improves ductility
Choose the correct from the following :
ABCD
(a)3142
(b)31 2 4
(c)1342
(d)13 2 4
21. The crystal structure ofa-iron is
(a) Simple cubic o) Face centred cubic
(c) Body centred cubic (d) Close-packed Horagonitl
22. Select the proper sequence for the following :
l. Proportional limit ) Elastic limit
3. Yieldpoint 4. Fracture/failure point
(a) t-2-3-4 (b) 2-l-3-4
(c) t-2-4-3 (d) 2-t-4-3
23. The macm-structure of a 4aterial is generally exmined by i
(a) X-raytechniques (b) Spectrroscopic teclinigues
(c) Optical microscop (d) Metallurgical miqoscop€
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Text of page 198
24. Gmdual time dependent deforrration under corstant load or selfweight is called
(a) Erosion (b) Decay
(c) Tension (d) Creep
25. Which ingredient is responsible for corrosion resistant capability in Staidess Steel ?
(a) kon O) Chromium
(c) Zinc (d) Sulphw
26. The property of marerial, which enables it to withstand b€nding without fracture, is known
its
(a) Mechanical strength (b) Stiffiress
(c) Flexural rigidity (d) Ductility
27. The material commonly used for making machine tool bed is
(a) Mild Steel O) Aluminium
(c) Brass (d) Cast kon
28. Which one of the following is the ferrous material ?
(a) Zrnc O) kon
(c) Silicon Carbide (d) Copper
29. Babbit materials are used for
(a) Gears (b) Bearings
(c) Bolts (d) Clutch liners
30. The ultimate tensile strength of low Carbon Steel by working at high strain rate will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain constanl (d) first increasg then decreese
31. Pure iron is the structure of
(a) Ferrite (b) Pearlite
(c) Austenite (d) Cementite
32. An example of amorphous material is
(a) Znc O) Irad
(c) Glass (d) Sulphur
33. Binding material in cemented carbide tool is
(a) Graphite O) tx;ad
(c) Carbon (d) Cobalt
34. Which of the following are the reasons for rcduction of tool life in a machining
operation ?
1. Temperature rise ofcutting edge.
2. Chipping of tool edge due to mechanical impact.
3. Gradual wear at tool point.
4. Increase in feed ofcut at constant cutting force
Select the answer from the following :
(a) 1,2&4 O) 1,2&3
(c) 1,3 &4 (d) 1,2,3 &4
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Text of page 200
35. Choose the altemative, which olplains the correct relationship betwee,n the given
statements, (A) & (R) from the code give,n below :
Assertion (A) : In ECM, the shape of the cavity is the mimor image of the tool, but
unlike EDM, the tool wear in ECM is a cathode.
Reason @) : The tool in ECM is a Cathode.
Code :
(a) Both (A) & @) are tue. (R) is the correct otplanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) & @) are true. @) is not the correct o<planation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but @) is false.
36. An orthogonal cutting operation is being carried out under the following conditions :
Cutting Speed : 2 mlsw, Depth of cut = 0.5 mnq Chip thickness = 0.6 mm.
What is the chip velocity ?
(a) 2mlsw O) 2.4mlsx
(c) I m/sec (d) 1.66 m/sec
37. The rake angle ofa cutting tool is l5o, the shear angle is 45o and the cutting velocity is
35 mpm. What is the velocity of chip along the tool face ?.
(a) 28.5 mpm (b) 27.3mpm
(c) 25.3 mpm (d) 23.5 mpm
38. In EDM, metal removal rate is proportional to
(a) Frequency ofcharging O) Energy delivered in each spark
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None ofthe above
39. Which of the following is not true in case ofjigs and fixtures ?
(a) Consistency. in dimension (b) Fast production speed is not possible
(c) Auto-location control (d) None ofthe above
40. The upper and lower control limits in case of R-chart are given by
(a) A2R& ArR o)D 3R&D4R
(c) R t D3R (d) R+ &R
41. A cutting tool is tuming a work piece of 40 mm dianeter, at 300 rpm. If tool
life is 120 mfuL find the value of corstant C as per the Taylor's tool life equation,
Assuming n: l/7.
(a) 8s O) 80
(c) 70 (d) 75
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Text of page 202
42. Which of the following should be more to reduce wear of a tool ?
(a) Weight O) De'nsity
(c) Hardness (d) O) & (c) both
43. Which of the following instruments is used to measure smoothness of a metallic surface ?
(a) Talysurf O) Coordinate Measuring Machine
(c) ProfileProjector (d) None ofthe above
4. Life of a single point cutting tool is inllueaced by which of the following faaors ?
(a) Cutting speed O) Feed rate
G) Depilr of cut (d) All the above
45. The Plug gauge is used to
(a) Check the size and shrye of holes
(b) Measure the diameter of holes
(c) Measure the diameter of shafts
(d) Measure the diameters of shafts & holes
6. The relationship between the shear mCle (0), friction angle (p), cutting rake engle (x1)6a61
the machining constant (C) for the wort material is
(a) za+P-$:C O) 2o+P+4=g
(c) 2$+p-c,=C (d) 2{+p+ct:C
47. Explosive forming is not used for the following :
(a) Making very small complex parts.
(b) For large parts tlryical of aerospace industry.
(c) Both (a) & @) above are conect.
(d) None ofthe above is corr€ct.
48. In ElecEo-Discharge-Machining @DM), the tool is made of
(a) HighSpeedSteel (b) Copper
(c) Cast hon (d) Glass
49. The process in which the material re,moval rate is govemed by Faraday's law is ?
(a) ECM (b) EDM
(c) AJM (d) LBM
50. In USlvI, the tool is vibrated with the fieque,ncy of
(a) 5 kHz (b) lOkllz
(c) 15 kl{z (d) 2AkJJz
51. Continuous chips will be formed when machining speod is
(a) low O) medium
(c) high (d) indepc,ndentofspeed
52. Profile ofa gear tooth can be checked by
(a) Optical projector (b) Optical pyromaer
(c) Bench micrometer (d) Sine bar
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53. For TIG welding, which of the following gases axe used ?
(a) Hydrogen and Carbon-di-oxide (b) Argon andHelium
(c) Argon and Neon (d) Hydrogen and Oxygen
54. Which of the following materials require the largest shrinkage allowance while inaking a
pattem for casting ?
(a) Aluminium (b) Brass
(c) Cast Iron (d) Duralumin
55. Which of the following values of index n is associated with carbide tools whcn- Taylor's
tool life equation VTn = constant is applied ? .
(a) 0.65 to0.90 (b) 0.45 to 0.60
(c) 0.20 to0.40 (d) 0.10 to 0.15
56. [n an orthogonal cutting experiment, with a tool of rake angle X = 75" and shear angle
O = 22.8", then friction angle p will be
(a) 41.9" O) s1.4"
(c) 6l .2" (d) None of the above
ii :.
57. Which of the following operation does not use a jig ?
(a) Tapping O) Reaming
(c) Drilling (d) Tuming
58. Which of the following are the quality conhol limits for p-charts ?
(a) Ft 3 F(I_D (b) Fr p (1-D
(c) pt 3 p (l-D n
(d) Fr3 nF(1-D
59. Which is the false statement about electro discharge machining ?
(a) It can machine very hard material.
(b) Very good surface finish is obtained.
(c) Section to be machined should be thick.
(d) Metal removal rate is very slow.
60. Choose the false statement from the following :
(a) Contol chart indicate whether the process is in control or not.
O) X and R charts are used to evaluate dispersion of measurements.
(c) P-chart is a control chart for percentage defective.
(d) C-charts are prepared for large and complex components.
61. The following is not the chamcteristics of explosive forming:
(a) Low capital cost ofthe set up.
O) Very large components can be formed.
(c) Only a simple die is required.
(d) The tooling material is very expensive.
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Text of page 206
62. The following is not true for ECM :
(a) It can machine higlrly corylicated sh4es in a single pass.
O) Tool life is very high.
Gi Machinability of the work material is independent of its physical and mechanical
properties.
(d) Kerosene is use as electrolyt€.
63 Electro-discharge machining uses the following dielectric fluid :
(a) Kerosene O) Sodium hYdroxide
(c) Water (d) Aqueous salt solution
G. A good machinability rating would indicate
(a) long tool life, high power requireryrent and less machining time.
O) long tool life, low power requirement and a good surfacs finish.
(c) short tool life and a good surface finish.
(d) long tool Iife, high power requirement and a good surface finish.
65. ln EDM process, the workpiece is connected to
(a) Cathode O) Anode
(c) Earth (d) None of the above
66. A hole of I mm is to be drilled in glass. It could be best done by
(a) Laser drilling O) Plasma &illing
(c) Ultrasonic drilling (d) Electron beam drilliry
67. A comparator for its working depends on
(a) comparison with standard such as slip gauges
(b) accurately caliberated scale
(c) optical device '
(d) limit gauge
68. TMUmeans
(a) Time Motion Unit o) Time Method Unit
(c) Time M€asure,m€lnt Unit (d) Time Movement Unit
69. Choose the Correct relationship between the given statem€nts of Assertion (A) and
Reason@).
Assertion (A) : In case of control charts for variables, if some points fall outside the
control limi15, it is concluded that process is not und€r control.
Reeson (R) : It was o<perimentally proved by Shewart that averages of four or
mote consecutive readings from a universe (population) or from a
process, when plottd will form a normal distribution curve.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and @) are corr€ct. @) is the correct explanation of (A).
O) Both (A) and @) are conect. @) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but @) is in correct.
(d) (A) is incorrect, but @) is correct.
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Text of page 208
70. Which one of the following is most importatrt parameter for EDM ?
(a) Thennal capacity (b) Hardness
(c) Strength (d) GeometrY
7t Which of the following is not the characteristics of work sampling ?
(a) Any interruption during study will not affect the results.
(b) The study causes less fatigue.
(c) Uneconomical for short cyclejobs.
(d) A stop watch is ne€ded.
72. Which one of the followings stat€ments is not correct regarding simplex method of linear
programming ?
(a) It is an iterative procedure.
O) It has a tial basic feasible solution to constraints.
(c) The collection of feasible solution does not constitute a convex set.
(d) It improves the first trial solution by a set ofrules.
73. The following is not true for linear progranning problerns :
(a) Objective function is exprcssed as a linear ftnction ofvariables.
(b) Resources are not limited.
(c) Some alternative course ofactions are also available.
(d) Decision variables are inter related.
74. Which of the following are said to be the benefits of assernbly line balancing ?
1. It mimises the in-process inventory.
2. It reduces the work content.
3. It smoothens the production flow.
4. It maintains the required rate of ouQut.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Code:
(a) l,2and3 (b) 2,3aid4
(c) 1,3 and4 (d) l,2aad4
75. Value Engineering is concemed with the saving of
(a) Un-necessary costs
(b) Administrativedifficulties
(c) Overhead costs
(d) Time
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Text of page 210
Note Q. Nos. 7677 : Choose the correct rclationship between the grven stat€,frc,nts of
Assertion (A) and Reason @) . i .-, i...
76. Assertion (A) : Value analy.sis is superior to other conventional cgst rerLrction
techniques.
Reason (R) : In conventional cost reduction techniques, value is increaged by
widening tolerance bands.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. @) is the corect explanation of (A).
O) Both (A) and @) are true. @) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but @) is false.
(d) true.
(A) is false, but (R) is
r"_F:
77. Assertion (A) : Vogel's approximation method yields the best initial basic feasible
solution of a transporfation problem. , i :r,E;,
Reason @) : Vogel's method give allocations to the lowest cost elements.of the
whole matrix.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and @) are correct. (R) is the correct orplanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and @) are correct. @) is not the correct explanatitln of (A). !
(c) (A) is correct but @) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but @) is com,ct.
78. The following is the gencral policy for A class iterns in ABC analysis :
l. Very strict control
2. Frequent review of their consumption
3. Safety stock kept
Which of these statement/s iVare correct ?
(a) l only (b) I and 2 only
(c) 2only (d) 7,2 ardS
79. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost gets doubld then the EOQ will be
(a) reducedtohalf (b) doubled
(c) increased 1.414 times (d) decreased 1.414 times
80. Value engineering is necessary to be used whe,n the following sym.ptoms are indicated
1. New product designs are to be introduc€d
2. The firm is "nable to meet delivery date.
3. Rate of retum on investne,nt goes down.
Which of the above statemenUs is/are correct ?
(a) 1,2 &3 O) 2 only
(c) l&3only (d) 2&3on1y
81 The leaving basic variable in simplex method is the basic variable tha '
(a) has the lowest value.
O) has the largest coefficient in the key row.
(c) goes to zero first, as the entering basic variable is increased,
(d) has the smallest coefficient in the key row.
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Text of page 212
82. ABC analysis is used in
(a) Job analysis (b) Production Schedule
(c) Inventory Control (d) Simulation
83. In ABC analysis, 'A' items are responsible to share approximately the following
percentage of cost :
(a) 80 (b) 60
(c) 40 (d) 20
84. BEP indicates the recovery of
(a) variable costs only
O) both fixed and variable costs
(c) fixed cost only
(d) both fixed and variable costs along with margin ofprofit
85. Which of the following is true about the initial basic feasible solution in simplex method ?
(a) It is an optimal solution. (b) All basic variables are zero.
(c) Solution is not possible. (d) Any one basic variable in zero
86, The probability law used for calculating the control limits of 'P' chart is
(a) Binomial (b) Poisson
(c) Normal (d) Exponential
87. lf P :% activity and A: limit of accuracy in work sampling. The number of observations
at a confidence level of95% is given by
(a) S# rt) +#
(c) ++ (d) +#
88. When order quantity increases, the ordering cost will
(a) increase O) decrease
(c) remains same (d) None of the above
89. Which type of layout is preferred in order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities ?
(r) Process layout (b) Product layout
(c) Fixed position layout (d) Cellular manufacturing
90. An assembly activity is represented in an operation process chart by the syrnbol
(a) tr (b) A
(c) D (d)
91. In an m x n transportation problem, the maximum number of basic variabies is
(a) m+n (b) m-n
(c) m+n- I (d) m+n+ I
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Text of page 214
92. In the model lvl/IlUI : o/FCFS with utilization factor p, thc expected line length isequal to
I
(a) I -p o) l_p
(c) *; (d) i,
*
93 Group 'C' iterrs constitute the following perc€ntage of it€ms itr ABC analysis : ,_
(a) 10 (b)
20
(c) 50 (d)
70
94. In linear prograrnming problem, the shadow price is
(a) the value assigred to one unit capacity
O) the modmum cost per rmit it€m
(c) the lowest sale price
(d) None of the above
95. Annual de,mand for a produc! costing ( 100 per piece, is 900. Gdering cost per order is
( 100 and the holding cost is ? 2 per unit per year.
The economic ordcr quantity is
(a) 200 O) 300
(c) ,100 (d) 500
96. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limit€d resources of a company in
the optimum manner is knowl as
(a) Value analysis O) Network analysis
(c) Linear programming (d) Queuing theory i
97. Which of the following charts indicates variability of variability within the collected
samples ?
(a) X chart O) o chart
(c) c chart (d) u chart
98. Which statement is wrong about diamagretic materials ?
(a) Their susceptibility is positive. (b) Their permeability is less than one.
(c) Super-conductors are diamagnetic. (d) They repel the external magnetic flux.
9. Super conductivity is that state of a material at }vhich it electrical resistance
(a) becomes zero.
O) becomes infinite.
(c) starts showing a change.
(d) stops being affected by temperature change.
lfl). The difference between Graphite and Diamond is that
(a) Diamond is transparent while Graphite is opaque.
O) Diamond is insulator while Graphite is conductor.
(c) Diamond has all primary bonds while Grraphite has three primary md one secondary
bonds.
(d) All the above
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Text of page 216
101. Identiff the pair which has same dimensions :
(a) Force and power O) Energy and work
G) Momentum and en€rgy (d) Impulse and momentum
is
1OZ. In the following figure, the tension in the rope AC
D
3e
A
c n
90"
B
l0 kC
(a) 17.32 N o) 56.60N
(c) 169.90 N (d) 113.20 N
body just begins to slide
103, The maximum frictional force, which comes into play' when a
over the surface of the other body, is known as
(a) Limiting friction O) Static friction
(c) Dynamic fiction (d) CoefEcient of friction
104. A body subjected to coplamr non-concuEent forces will re,main in a state
of equilibnum if
(a) IFI=0 O) Fr:o
(c) tI,I:0 (d) All the above 6ree
is to remain
105. A rigid body is subjected to non-coplanar corrcurrent force systerr. If the body
in a state of equilibrium, then
:
(a) !r, XF, = IF, : o (b) IIr4, = f,IvIr: 0
(c) LMr=IM,=0 (d) Noneoftheabove
rough vertical
106. one end of an uniform ladder, of length L and weight w, rests against a
wall and the other etd rests on rougf,mrizontal groqDd. The coefficient of friction f
is
point slipping is
same at each end. The inclination of ladder wbn it is on the of
(a) t,-,(#) G) *-'(11-r12J
(c),*-,ffi (d),*-'(+J
I 07. In the analysis of truss, the force system acting at each
pin
(a) is concurrent but not coplanar.
(b) is coplanar and concurrent.
(c) is coplanar and non-concurrent'
(d) does not satisfo rotational equilibrium'
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Text of page 218
l0E. For truss as shown below, the forces in the me,mbcr AB and AC are
EO I.N 60
BJ
E
la-3m-l-3n-+l
(a) Tensile in each
(b) Compressive in each
(c) Comprcssive and Tensile rcspectively
(d) Tensile and Compressive respectively
1(D. Two equal and mutually perpeirdicular forces of magnitude 'P', are acting at a point. Their
resultant force will be
(a) P rB, at an angle of 30o with the line of action of any one force.
O) P rB, at an angle of 45o with the line of action of each force.
(c) Zf tB, at an angte of 45o with the line of action of each force.
(d) ZEto
110. The relationship, betwee,n number of joints (I), and the number of members (m), in a
perfect truss, is given by
(a) m=3j-2 O) m=2i- j
(c) m=j -2 (d) m:2j'r
ll1. Fonr forces P, 2P,3P & 4P act along the sides ofa square, talcen in order. The resultant
force is
(a) ?;;Fo O) r/5r
(c) xtSY (d) 2P
112. According to the Newton's law of gravitation, the force of altraction, between the bodies
of masses m, and m, situated at a distance 'd' apart, is given by
(a) F=c-e,
m,d G) F=G dt-
nfu',
mffi m,IlL
(c) F=cl- (d) F:G+
113. Varipon's theortm is related to
(a) Principle of momeirts (b) Principle of mome,ntum
(c) Principle of force (d) Principle ofinertia
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Text of page 220
114. Choose the correct relationship between the given statements of Assertion (A) and Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Only axial forces act in members ofrooftrusses.
Reason (R) : Truss members are welded together.
Code :
(a) Both (A) & (R) are correct' @) is the correct explanation of (A).
O) Both (A) & @) are correct. (R) is not the conect explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but @) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
115. Ifa force of 30 N is required to move a mass of35 kg on a flat surface horizontally at a
constant velocity, what will be the coefficient of friction ?
(a) 0.067 (b) 0.087
(c) 0.0e8 (d) 0.w2
116. A train crosses a tunnel in 30 seconds time. The speed of the train at entry and at erdt from
the tunnel are 36 and 54 lan/hour respectively. If acceleration remains constant, lhe,length
of the tunnel is
(a) m 350 O) 360 m
(c) 375m (d) 400m
117. If Tl and T, are the initial and finat tensions of an elastic string and x, and x, are the
corresponding extensions, then the work done is
(a) (T2+Tr) @r-x) O) (T2-Tr) @r+x)
(T, - Tr) (*2 + x1) (T, + T,) (x2 -rs)
(c) ,, (d)
2
118. The escape velocity on the surface ofthe earth is
(a) I 1.2 krn/s O) 8.2 km/s
(c) 3.2 kn/s (d) 1.2 kr/s
ll9. A motor boat whose speed in still water is 15 km/hr goes 30 km downstream3nd comes
back in a total time of four and halfhours. The stream has a speed of
(a) lan/hr
3 O) 4 tm/hr
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 6ln/ttr
I 20. If the period of oscillation is to become double, then
(a) the length of simple pendulum should be doubled.
O) the length of simple petrdulum should be quadrupled
(c) the mass of the pendulum should be doubled.
(d) the length and mass should be doubled.
Serles-A t2 SESJos
Text of page 222
(A) and
121. Choose the correct relationship betrreen the given stat€rnents of Assertion
Reason @).
Arsertion (A) A dynamically systern of multiple rotors, on a shaft can rotate
snoothly at the critical speeds ofthe system.
Reeson (R) Dynamic balancing ail the unba.lanced forces and couples
from the systeln. _,"liori*tes
.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and @) are rue. @) is the conect explanation of (A)'(A)'
tb) soth iA.i and @i are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of
(c) (A) is tnre, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
mapitude of
122. A spring scale reqds 20 N as it pulls a 5.0 kg mas-s across a table. what is the
thelorci exerted by the mass on the spring scale ?
(a) 4.oN ' O) 5'0N
("i 2o.oN (d) 4e.oN
a smooth surface is
--- A thin circular ring of nrass 100 kg and radius 2 m resting onpoint
rIl. .
on its periphery'
subjected to a suddJn application of alngential force of 300 N at a
The angular acceleration ofthe ring will be
(a) t-O oALo' O)
I '5 rad/sec2
d 2.or.rysoJ (d) 2.st,r.tsop
m, and
124. The loss of kinetic energy, during inelastic impact of two bodies having masses
mr, which are moving with velocity v, and v, respectively, is give'n by
mtm2 2(m, + mr) _.,
(a)
2(m, + m2)
(r, -rl (b)
G[-('r-"1-
mlD2 2(m, + m2)
(c)
2(m, + m2) <t-"1t
(d)
mtm2 $- rS
125. The unit of enerry in S.I unit is
(a) Dlme o) Watt
(c) Newton (d) Ioule
.l is given by
126. Polar mome,nt of inertia of ur equilateral triangle of side
(a) tltt o) ffi
/ /
(c) (d)
32 64
127. Poison's ratio is the ratio of
(a) Lateral stress to longitudinal stress
O) hterd stress to longitudinal strains
(c) Lateral strair to longitudinal stsain
(d) Shear stress to shear strain
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Text of page 224
object will
l2g. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, the
(a) continue mbving with constant velocity
(b) accelerateunifonnlY
(c) change the direction of mrction
(d) slow down and stoP
129. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
(a) less O) satne
(c) mor€ (d) None of tle above
of 100 rn/sec, it describes a
130. When a body is thrown up at an angle of 45" with a velocity
parabola. Its velociry on point ofreturtr down will be
(a) zeto O) 50 m/sec
(c) toonl2 n/s (d) tOOrf misec
l3l.Aprojectileonalevelgroundwillhavemaximumrangeiftheangleofprojectionis
(a) 30o O) 45"
(c) 60o (d) 75"
I 32. Which one of the following is not an example of plane motion ?
(a) Motion of a duster on a black board'
on the p4er'
O) Motion of ball point of pencomputer
(c) Motion of a cursor on the screen'
(d) Motion of a nut on a threaded bolt'
133. Which one of the following is a scalar quantity ?
(a) Force (b) Displacement
Gt Speed (d) Velocity
of 5 r/sec' It travels a
134. A ,14 N block is thrust up a 30" inclined plane with an initial speed
distance of 1.5 m beforeit comes to rest. the frictional force
acting upon it would be
(a) 18.3 N (b) 15.3 N
(c) 12.3 N (d) 9.3 N
---
l35.Abodyismovingwithavelocitylm/sandaforceFisneededtostopitwithinacertain
A"t-"". If *re s[eed of ttre body becomes three times, the force needed to stop it within
the same distance would be
(a) l.s F o) 3.0 F
(c) 6.0 F (d) 9.0 F
136. In a loaded beam, the term S represents
(a) Deflection at a section O) Slope at a section
(c) section (d)
Intensity of loading at a Shear force at a section
stress across a sechon rs
- section The distribution of shearing
137. A beam is of rectangular
(a) Parabolic O) Rectangular
Gt Triangular (d) None of the above
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Text of page 226
13& ln a snessed fiel4 the chmge in angle between two initially perpendicular lines ls called
(a) Normal strain o) Shear strain
(c) Principal stsain (d) Poisson's ratio
139. A metallic cube is subjectcd to equal prcssure g'; on rp, Cl,.tbe six faccs' -$
e" is
volumetric strain pr,oduce4 the ratio is ca[ed
=I
(a) Elastic modulus o) Sher modulus
(c) Bulk modulus (d) Stain-EnergY P .er unit volumi
140. To express stress,strain rqlations for a linearly elastic, hpmogeneous' isotrogig,materifl,j
minimrm number of materill cofftmts necded are r'-,
(a) Two O) Thr€e ,-:
(c) For.n (d) One ,;
l4l.
- - A te,nsion me*bcr with a croes.sectiood area of 30 mmz rrs.igs q load of 60 \$. What is
the normal stress induced on the plane of maximum'sh9ar stress ?.-
(a) 2kl.I/mm2 O) l ttil/mm2
(c) 4lN/mm2 (d) 3 kN/mm2 i
I
142. If the Mohr,s circle for a state of stress b€comcs a poin! the state of stress
is
(a) Pure shear statepf stress O) Unia'rial state of stress
G) Identicat principal stresses (d) None ofthe above
l,|3. Torsional rieidity of a salid cy'in&ical shaft of tliameter 'd' is proportional to
(a) d o) 62
I
(d)
(c) da &
assumptions is
1,14. In theory of simple bending of beams, which one of the following
incorrect ? '-:,' -i"
:- r
(a)Ela*icmodulusi,tt€nsionandcooE€ssk,naresameforthebeammaterials.
O) Plane sections remain ptanc &fe'maeffi"6initng'
(c) Beam is initially straight.
(d) Beam material should not be brittlc'
mm and wall thickness 5 mm is subjected to internal
- -' A cylin&ical shell of diamcter 20o
145.
iili;;rr* of f O Vrnp. f,la:cimum shearing s5ess induc€d in the shell in N/nrm2, is
(a) 50 (b) 7s
(c) 100 (d) 2o0
:tr SES.05
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Text of page 228
1. An LC. engine transforms chemical energy into mechanical energy'
2. A compressed spring possess potential energy'
3. A football rolling on the Sround performs plane motion' .
4. Strain gauges are used to measure torque'
Following are the correct statements :
(a) t and Z ontY O) 2 and 3 onlY
i.i 3 and 4 only (d) l, 2 and 4 onlY
14?. In a static tension tests of a low carbon steel sample, the gauge length affects
(a) yield stress I
O) ultimate tensile stress
(c) percentageelongation
(d) percentage reduction in cross-sectional area
148. One end of a metallic rod is fixed rigidly and its temperiture is raised. It will exPs{ience
(a) zero stress O) tensile stress 1
(c) compressive stress (d) None ofthe above
- - Two cantilever steel beams of identical
length and of rect4qgular section.are, qp$gcted to
-149,
."*" p.i* load at their free end. In one beam, the longer side of section is vertical, while
in the other, it is horizontal. Beams defect at free end :' ;l
(a) equaliy irrespective of theirdisposition.
O) more in case of longer side vertical.
(c) less in case of longer side horizontal
(d) less in case of longer side vertical
For the
150. A long column of length (I) wift both ends hinged,-is to_be subjected to axial lo.ad'
calcul-ation ofEuler's buckling load, its equivalent length is
(a) t/2 (b) tt{i
(c) / (d) 2t
the
151. Match List - I with List - tr and select the correct answer using tbt codg givpq below
lists.
List - I LIst - II '
(Cbaracteristic) ,.0r@Q
A. Kernel of section 1. Helical spring
B. Tie and Strut 2. BendiffiFbddtis
C. Section modulus 3. Eccentric loading of short column
D. Stifhess 4. Roof truss
Code :
ABCD
(a) 1234
(b) 342r
(c) 4123
(d) 2314 sEs05
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Text of page 230
l52.ThebendingmoEentdiagramforasimplysupportedbemrABoflength.L'isshown
below
Dr
L
2
.4, B
L
2
M
CDr-C'Dr=V
Sagging moment : Positive
t:l
Hugging moment : negative
What is the load acting on beam AB ?
(a) An upward concentratcd load f at C'
(b) A downward concentrated load f atC'
(c) An anticlockwise Eom€nt 'M' at C
(d) A clockwise moment 'M' at C.
l53.Twosimplysupportedbeamsofequallengths,.crosssectionalareas'andsectionmoduli'
One beP
i: m:Jde of
steel
are subjected to tne same concerrtritea loai at its mid-lenglh'
*aooeri.ln,a"ofAluminium.Themo<imumbendingstressinducedwillbein
(a) Steel beam
(b) Aluminiumbeam
(c) Both beams of equal magrritude
(d) The beams according to their Elastic Moduli mapitud€'
l54.Twostripsofequallengthsandwidtbsarejoinedtogetherbytworivets'oneateachend.
onestripisofcopperandfireotherofsteel''Now,thetemperatureofthisassemblyis
lowered, the rivas will undergo.
(a) Bending o) Single shear
(c) Double shear (d) Both (a) & (b) above
bar of weight 'w" length '1" cross-sectioual area 'A' is hung
vertically
-*' A uniforrn metal rigrdly
155.
n*fi. wrtJr, sition of the bar will experie,nce maximum shear
;th il top end
stress ?
(a) Topsection (b) Mid-section
(c) Bottom-section (d) I/3 from top
42 sE${Xt
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Text of page 232
156. Which one of the following will result into a constant stength beam
?
(a) The bending moment at every section of the beam is constant'
O) Shear force at every section is same'
-
section over its whole length'
i"i The beam is of uniformmoment
til rhe ratio of bending to the section modulus for everry sectiotr along the
length is same.
157. A beam ofZ-section is called a
(a) doublY sYmmetric section beam singly symmetric section beam
o)
(c) a-symmetric section beam (d) none of the above
outside diameter of a hollow shaft is nvice its inside diameter. The
ratio of its torque
158. The
--_"-+n'capacitytothatofasolidshaftofthesamematerialandthesameoutside
diameter is
(a) rstr6 (b) 3t4
yt6
(c) ttz (d)
(A) and Reason @)'
159. Choose the correct relationship in the given statements of Assertion
into a plane state of
Assertion (A) : A plane sLte of sl".s does not necessarily result
strain.
Reason (R) No.-ul .t"t."t acting along X and Y directions will also result into
strain along the Z-direction.
Code
(a) ioth (,C,) & (R) are correct. @) is the conect explanation of
(A)'
(b) S"ttr & iRi are correct. @) is not the correct explanation of (A)'
tlj
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
160. A body is subjected to two unequal like direct stresses ol and o, in two mutually
perpendicular planes along with simple shear stress q
q
q
dl dl
q
q
ll2
Which among the following is then a wrong statement ?
(a) The princiPal stresses at a point are
PpPz=-n- n
ol +o2
(-*) .u
O) The position of principal planes with the plane of stress o l, are
,,:1 *-' #r,or:o'+{ro
(c) Maximum shear stress is (o,),ro*: t +q2
planes'
(d) Planes of maximum shear are inclined at 45o to the principal
44 sEs45
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Text of page 234
161. Slendemess ratio has dimension of
(a) cm o) cm-l
(c) clr,2 (d) None
162. When a body is subjected to dfu€ct teneilc stress€3 (o, and oy) in
two mutudly
perpendicular directions, accompanied by a simple shc'r 3tl€3s t,, the,n in Mohr's
circle
metho4 the circle radius is take,lr as
614o,
(a) T *,n o)
!2
2
t ,r!
(c) !2 @,-crf +h] (d) (or+of +a$
153. Tte ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal tg63 ia thin walled cylinders is
(a) I O) l/2
@i 2 (d) tt4
tu. The theory ryplicable for the analysis of thick cylindeis.' is^ thcory
(a) L*ieiin"o.y O) Rankinet
Gt Poisson's theory (d) Caurton's thcory
165. The unit of modulus of clasticity is same as those of
(a) suess, strain and Pressure
O) Ets.6s, pr€ssrue and modulus of rigidity
(c) stress, force urd modulus ofrigidity
(d) stresg force and Presllure
166. The relation among thc elastic constants E G and K is
KG
(a) E=eft O) -E=Eft'
9KG
9KG
(c) E=ffi
9KG
(d) -E=5EE
16?. Which of the following has no unit ?
(a) Kinematic viscositY O) Strain
(c) SurfaceTensiotr (d) Bulk Modulus
16& What does the elasticity of material €nablcs it to do ?
(a) Regain the orieinal sh4e after the removal of ryliod force'
O) Draw into wires by the application of force.
(c) Resist fractur€ du€ to hiSh impact
(al Retain deformation produced undcr load pcrmanently'
169. Which of the following brakes is commonly used in motor cars ?
(a) Band Brake O) Shoc Brake
Ci Intemal orpanding Shoe Brake (d) All the abovc
170. Which one of the following is not an exmplc of highcr pair ?
(a) Disc Cam od roller follower (b) Sprn Gcar mcshing tccth
Gi Ball Bearing (d) BushBearing
Sertcr-A $ sE$05
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Text of page 236
l7l. The minimum number of teeth which cm tre cut for standard tooth for a given pressure
ansle '0' the following
("i ti#qlz O) ztsnzS
2
(c) 2 sin20 (d) .t r0
172. When there is no slip, the power transmitted by bolts is proportional to
(a) (Tr - T2) v (b) (Tr + T2) V
(Tr _ Tz)
(c) (rr/T2)v (d)
173. When two gear teeth arc in mesh' then pure rolling occurs at the
(a) root of tooth O) -tiP of tooth
Ci pitchpoint (d) flutk
174. ln a govemor, if the equilibrium speed is constant for all radii of rotation of balls'
the
govemor is said to be
Gl shble governor O) rmstable gove'mor
G) inertiagovernor (d) isochronous governor
175. The instantaneous centre ofrotation ofa circular disc rolling on a straiSht path is at
(a) the centre ofthe disc (b) their point ofcontact
Gi the centre ofgravityofthe disc (d) iDfinity
176. For a safe desigr, a friction clutch is desiped assuming
(a) uniform wer O) uniform pressure
Gi any one ofthe above (d) None ofthe above
177. ln a simple gear tsaiq therc is odd number of idlers. The direction of rotation of the driver
and the driven gears will be
(a) same
O) opposite
(c) depends upon the number ofteeth ofthe gears
(d) depe,nds r4on the diameter of idl€,rs used
17t. In fre€ vibrations, the acceleration vector leads the displacement vector by
(a) ,.t3 (b) ft12
(c) 2rt3 (d) n
179. At a certain spee4 revolviag shafts tmd to vibrate violently in tran^welse directions, this
speed is krown as
<al whirling speed O) critical spe€d
(c) whipping speed (d) AII the above
180. If the speed of the e,ngine varies betwecn 3!0 an{ 410 rpm in a cycle of operation, the
coefficient of fluctuation of spced will be
(a) o.0l O) 0-03
(c) o.o5 (d) 0.07
1t1. When teeth formed on the cones are straight the gears are known as
(a) wonn gear O) helical gear
(c) straightbevel (d) spiral bevel
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Text of page 238
1&!. Creep in belts occurs due to which one of the following :
(a) Belt and pulley surfaces are smooth
O) Beltisthick
t"i Due to unequal tensiors on the two sides ofthe pulley
(d) The PulleY diameters are lrge
as the
18i1. The point on the Cam with maximum pressure. urgle is kpovn
(a) Cam centre G)
Pitch Point
Gt Trace point (d)
Prime Point
1t{. Static balancing- involves balancing of
(a) forces O) couPles
("i masses (d) All the above
It5. Tbe motion ofa nut on a threaded bolt is
(a) Helical O) Plane
t*i Spherical (d) Noneoftheabove
186. Spur gears have/are
(ai itraigtrt teett perpendicular to the axis'
C) curved teeth perpendicular todue the axis'
to tooth load'
Gt not subjected to a:rial thrust
(di subjected to axial thrust due to tooth load'
- Coriolis'
187. compone,nt of acceleration occurs in
(") quick dum mechanism ' (b) four br mechanism
i"i slider crank mechanisn (d) none ofthe above
188. Identiff the wrong stat€lment :
(a) e mecnanism is an assemblage of four or more links'
tb) A slider uaok chain consissatofleasttq/o sliding pairs and two tuming pairs'
(ci A kinematic chain requires four linksand four tuming pairs'
tal open pairs are those whose elements are not held together mechanically.
1t9. Any distributed mass can be replaced by two point masses to have the same dyramical
- if
proPerties,
(a) The sum of the two masses is equal to the total mass'
O) The combined centre of mass coincides with thar of the rod'
i;i The momeirt oi inertia of truo point masses about perpe,ndicular a:<is through their
combined ce,lrtre of mass is equal to that of the rod'
(d) All the above.
1g0. For steady state forced vibrations, the pbase lag at r€sonance condition is
(a) 0o O) 45"
(c) 8Oo (d) 90o
of 30"
191. The ma:rimum efficiency of a screw jack having square threads and friction angle
willbe
(a) ll Yo (b) 20%
(c) 3oo/o (d) 33%
192. Il[ thc ihmFing factor for a vibrating system is unity, thln the syste'm is
(a) critically dr-ped (b) under damped
i.t overdarrped (d) zerodamPed
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Text of page 240
lg3.Ageartrain,inwhichatleastorc.ofthegqarrxes.isinmotionrelativetothetmelis
Hf**T*"u gectrain (b) non-rov-erted-geartrain
(d) noneoftheabove
6i ;i;ifr""s"*-t*i" ce'ntes of rotation pr€s€nt
1g4. In a mechanism having six tinks, tho mrder of instailaneous
AI€
t"i 15 P)
(d)6
t2
Gig
19ti. A flvwheel
- in an I.C. engine :
(a) controls the supply of fuel to the- e'ngu.e
fu) contsols the cyclic flucoationdueot tospeeo-
load
t;i "oottot" tn" .ie"a variation
(d) Alltheabove
lg6.Inaslottedleverandcrankqlictretummechanismus€dinsh4€rs,thebeeiDniligand
when
- cuning stroke occurs
end of
i"i t"ro are in line with each other
f6i ""rrtd
cffi Gperpenaiculartolev€r
ici crank is horizontal
Ei ii'."ltl"nn t"t
197. Stess and Strain are tensor of
(a) zero-order o) first order
(c) second ordor (d) None of the above
198. or+or=or,+oy'= ol +02
The above relation is called
(a) independe,ncy of normal stressG O)
constancY of normal stesses
(d)
all the above thee
G) first irvarimt of stress
whe'n :
199. In a slider-crank mechurim, the piston velocity is ma:rimum'
(e) Crank is ocmendiculr to line of stroxe
tbi Crank anb cinnccting rod are colliner' -
i"t Crark is perpe'ndicular to comecting rc&
(d) None ofthe above.
2tx).Abodyofweightwissrrpported.bytwospririgsasshol,nbelow.Theequivale,ntspring
constant is :
Kt
w
K2
(a) K,I * I o) Kr +IL
\
(c) Kl - K2 (d) Kr&
52 sEs{rs
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Text of page 242
Space For Rough Work / Tc,ir4*frqqqf,
54 SESJS
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Text of page 246
MECIIAMCAL ENGII\EERING
Paper-II
I At a distance x fiorr the reading edge of a plate, the rhicloress oframina bo.rdry lala
vaies as
(a) ll x O) xats
(c) x tt2 (d) x2
2. using Blasius Equatioq the friction factor for turbulent flow tt'ough pipes varies
as
(a) I /Re O) I /Reo s
(c) l/Re 0.33 ial t/Re o.I
3. For imotational and incompressible flow, the velocity potential and stream function
are
given by { and y respectively. Which one ofthe following sets
is correct ?
(a) v10:0,vrv=o (b) vzi*-o,vrv:o
(c) V20=0, v2y*0 (d) v2[+o ,y2y*o
4. For the laminar.flow through a circular pipe the ratio of maximum velocity
and the
average velocity is
(a) l.s O) 2.0
(c) 2.5 (di None of the above
5. The separation ofbounilary layer takes place in case of
!"1 negative pressure gradieqt O) positive pressure gradient
i (c) zero pressure gradient (d)none ofii,re above
6. Froude number is defined as the ratio of
I (a)
(c)
inertia force to viscous
inertia force to elastic
force
force
O) inertia force to gravity force
(d) inertia force to pressure force
7. Hammer blow in pipes occurs due to
(a) sudden sharpbends (b) sudden contraction
(c) sudden stoppageofflow (d) sudden release of fluid from pipe
8. A metal piece having density exacfly equal {o the de,nsity ofa fluid is placed in the liquid.
The metal pipce will
(a) sink to the bottom
(b). float on the surface
(c) will be partly immersed
(d) will be wholly immersed
9. $r'hich, of the following head loss is significant in a pipe flow ?
(a) Inss ofhead due to gradual contraction
O) Loss of head due to. frictiou.
(c) Loss ofhead due to sudden en_largement
(d) Loss ofhead due to sudden contraction
10. The resultant force on a nbatng Uoay wiU act
(a) vertically upwards through cenhe ofbuoyancy
vertically downwards through cenne of U"oyacy
9) vertically
(c) upwards through meta centre ;
(d) vertically downwards through meta centre
Series-B 2 sEs-06
Text of page 248
11. Which of the following is a Mecbanical Gauge ?
(a) DiaphraP. gauge
O) Dead weight Pressure gauge
(c) Bourdon tube PressurE gauge
(d) Alltheabove
a height of 5m.
1 2. A box of rectangular base 2m x 3m contains gasolinex (Sp. Gravity x0.7) upto
The force on the base and two vertical surfaces, 2m 5m and 3m 5m respectively.
(a) 206 kI.I, 2581t'{ and 172 kN O) 2l k}'i, l7'5 k}'I and 26'3 k}'I
i") 258 kN, 172 LN and 206 LN (d) 206 kl'l' 172 lt'{ and 258 kN
13. Match the following and choose the correct alternatives :
Lfut-I List - II
A. Froude uumber l. plplJ2
B. Mach nrmrber 2. UtGd)
C. Webber number 3. uA/sd
D. Euler number 4. pLlJ2la
5' -a-
p'u'
6. Ulc
(c : velocity of sound)
(Notations used have usual meaning)
Codel :
A B C D
(a) 3 6 3 5
o) 3 6 4 I
(c) 2 4 5 2
(d) 2 6 I 5
14. The continuity equation in fluid mechanics is a mathematical statement embodying the
principle of
(a) conservation of cnergy
O) conserrration of mass
(c) conservation of mom€ntum
(d) none ofabove
15. Relmold's number is defined as the ratio of inertia force to
(a) gravity force O) pressure force
(c) clastic force (d) viscous force
f6. An ideal fluid is defined as the fluid which
(a) is compressible
(b) is incompressible
(c) is incompressible and inviscid
(d) has negligible surface tcnsion
17. The velocity distribution in laminar flow through a circular pipe follows the
(a) Linear law ..... O) Parabolic lavr
(c) I-ogarithmir lPft . (d) None of thc above
Scrlc+B 1 sEs06
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Text of page 250
18, Kinernatic similarity betrreen model and prototype means the similarity of
(a) forces (b) sh4e
(c) motions (d) discharge
19. The Darcy-Weisbach friction factor which is a diect measue of resistance to flow in
pipes is dependent on
(a) Roughness height, diameter and velocity
(b) Relative rorrghn€ss, diameter and viscosity
(c) Relative roughness, velocity and viscosit|
(d) Rougfness heigfut, diameter, velocit5r and kinematic viscosity
20. The i,elocity distibution in turbulent flow is a function of the distance y measued from
the boundary surface and the friction velocity V*, and follows a
(a) parabolic law t O) logarithmic law
(c) hlryerbolic law (d) linear law
21. The parameters which determine the friction factor for turbule,nt flow in a rough pipe are
(a) Froude number and relative rougbness
O) Froude number and Mach number
(c) Reynolds number and relative roughness
(d) Mach number and relative roughness
22. Head'loss in sudden expansion is given by
(a) YP -v* o)
(vi - v2)3
-;- 29
(c)
(Vr
29
Vz)2
(d)
2N12 -vz f
c
(Notations used have uzual meanings)
23. In order to have a continuous flow through a siphon, no portion of the pipe be higher than
_ measured above the hydraulic grade line :
(a) lom O) 10.33m
(c) 5.5m (d) 7.75m
Z. Boundary layer on a flat plate is called laminar boundary layer if Reynold's number is less
then
(a) 2000 (6) 40m
(c) 5 x ld (d) None ofthe above
25. Surface tension is a phenomenon due to
(a) Cohesion only
(b) Viscous forces only
(c) Adhesion behveen liquid and solid molecules
(d) Difference in magnitude between the forces due to adhesion and cohesion
26. A container carrying water is moved in a horizontal direction with an acceleration of
2.45 ml* . The angle of inclination of free water surfacc to the horizontal is
(c) 45o (O 0o
Series-B 6 SE$06
Text of page 252
27. T\e rate of heat transfer through a hollow cylinder of inner and outer radii r, and rr,
respectively, depends on
(a) difference ofradii, (r, - 11) (b) sum ofradii, (r, + r,)
fr^\
(c) product ofradii, (r, 12) (d) ratio ofradii, li
'trr/ I
28. The rate of heat transfer from a solid surface to a fluid is obtained from
(a) Newton's law ofcooling (b) Fourier's law
(c) KirchhofPs law (d) Stefan's law
29. If one radiation shield is placed between two infinite parallel radiating plane surfaces, then
the amount ofheat radiated becomes
(a) onethird (b) one fourth
(c) half (d) none ofthe above
30. Which pair, out of the following alte mtives, is not correctly matched ?
List-I List-II
(a) Fourier's law Conduction
O) Newton's law of cooling Convection
(c) Stephan-Boltz.manlaw Radiation
(d) Kirchoffs law Radiation +
Convection
31. If k: thermal conductivity and h: heat transfer coelEcient then the critical thickness of
insulation for a cylinder, which will mSximise the heat transfer is.equal to
(a) k/h (b) h/k
(c) zkth (d) w2k
32. If ATi and AT. are the temperature differences at inlet and at exit of the
heat exchanger, then LMTD is equal to
ar,-aT- rAT,-AT)
(a) t, Ary' Ar:- o) l"[
"*-r7ArJ
ln(ATi-ATJ aTi - aTe
(c) (d)
ATy'ATE ln (ATi + AT.Y2
33. If Q = actual rate of heat transfer and Q,ro, : maximum possible rate of heat transfer then,
heat exchanger effectiveness is equal to
(a) Q,*-Q O) Q/Q.o
(c) Q,,,*/Q (d) ry
34. IfV = volume, A = surface are4 [ = surface film conductance, p: density and C:
speific hea! then the time constant of a thermocouple is equal to
Vp
(a) Yf o) CAh a)
(c) vE Ah
(d)
vc
pAh
Serl€s-B/tr:,- 8 sE$06
Text of page 254
35. During the process of boiling and condensation only a phase change takes place, and one
fluid remains at conslant temp€rature throughout the heat exchanger. In t€rms of number
of transfer units (NTU), the effective,ness of such heal exchangrr would be
. NTU
(a) 1*Irru
O) I -exp(-NTU)
1-exp(-2NTU)
(c)
2
(d) cannot be worked out as heat c4acities are unlmown
36. A cross flow tlpe air heater has an area of 50 cm2. lte overall heat trosfer coefficieirt is
l0O Wm2K and heat cap*ity of both hot and cold streams are 1000 W/K. The value of
NTU is
(a) 1000 s00(b)
(c) s 0.2(d)
37. For an opaque plane surface, the irradiation, radiocity md emissive power are 2O,12 and
l0 Wm2 respectively. The emissivity of the surface is
(a) 0.2 O) 0.4
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0
38. The Prandtl number will be the lowest for
(a) water O) liquidmetal
(c) Aqueous solution (d) lube oil
39. Two walls of same thickness md cross sectional area have therrmal conductivities in the
ratio of I : 2 . If the same ta,mperature dilference i5 mainrained across the wall faces, the
ratio of heat flow Qt/q will be
(a) tt2 O) I
(c) 2 (d) 4
40. The critical thiclness ofinsulation for spheres is given by
(a) k/h O) kt4h
(c) h/2k (d) ?*th
41. What is thc equivalent emissivity for radiant heat exchange between a small body
(emissivity: 0.4) in a very large enclosure (€missivity: 0.5) ?
' (a) 0.5 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.1
42. h the lumped parameter model, the temperature variation with time is
(a) linear O) cubic
(c) exponential (d) sinusoidal
43. What is the value of sh4e factor for two infinite parallel surfaces seprated by a distance .r ?
(a) 0 O)@
(c) 1 (d) x
Serles-B 10 SES{I6
Text of page 256
44. The Nusselt number in natural convection heat transfer is a firnction of fluid Prandtl
number and
(a) Number
Stanton O) Biot Number
(c) GrashoffNumber (d) Reynolds Number
45. The value ofPrandtl Number of air is about
(a) 0.1 (b) o.4
(c) 0.7 (d) l.l
46. The radiant heat transfer per unit area (Wm2) between two plane parallel gray surfaces
(emissivity : 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is
(a) 992 (b) 893
(c) 464 (d) s67
47, T\e ratio of thickness of thermal boundary layer to thickness of hydrodynamic boundary
layer is equal to @r)' where n is
(a) -tt3 O) 2t3
(c) I (d) -l
48. _ will radiate heat to a large extent.
(a) Black polished surface (b) White rough surface
(c) White polished surface (d) Black rough surface
49. Addition of fin to the surface increases the heat t *rfo iff$ i.
(a) equal to I O) greater than I
(c) less than 1 (d) greater than I but less than 2
(Notations used have usual meaning)
50. Choose correct order of metals for increasing conductivity :
(a) Cu, Al, Fe, Ag O) Fe, Al, Cu, Ag
(c) A1, Fe, Cu, Ag (d) Cu, Ag, Al, Fe
51. For a given heat flow and for the sarne thickness, the temperature drop across the material
will be maximum for
(a) Copper (b) Steel
(c) Glass wool (d) Refractory brick
52. Reynolds analogy states that (St is the stanton numbe,r and Cu is the skin friction
coefficienQ
._cft
(a) sr=? o) st: z
(c) st:1@ (o St=2ca
53. Two walls of thickness d and 2d called A and B are made of materials such that their
:
therrnal conductivities are Kn 2 Ks. If the difference of temperature on two sides is
proportional to thickness, the ratio ofheat transfer through A to that through B is
(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) I
Serles-B t2 SES06
Text of page 258
g. The radial heat transfer rate tbrough hollow cylindcr increases as the ratio of outer radius
to inner radius :
(a) decreases o) increases
(c) comtant (d) none of the above
55. Metals are good thermal conductors since
(a) electrons.
they have free O) their atoms are relatively closer.
("i theirsr.nfacesreflect. (d) their aloms arc of larger size.
56. In forced convection, Nusselt number is a fimction of
(a) Reynolds number and dynuric viscosity
number
Ol dynamic viscosity and Prandtl num-ber
G) Prandtl number and Relmolds
iO Reynolds number and thickness ofboundary layer
57. Stefan-Boltz:mann law is exPresscd as
(a) Q=olrr o) Q =o A2't{
(c) Q=oAT2 (d) Q=Af
The shapc factor for radiation heat Eansf€r of a long cylindcr of radius r, enclosed
by
58.
another concentric long cylinder ofradius r, is
(a) 0.25 O) 0's0
Gi o.7s (d) l.o
59. Heat traosfer rate
(a) will be higher in turbulent flow
O) will be lower in turbule,nt flow
(c) will depe,nd onlY on the fluid
(d) will depe'nd onlY on viscositY
60. A lhe,rmal tsaDspctnt body is characterised by
(a) absorptivity = I O) reflectivity =l
(c) absorptivily=Pn6tivitY4 (d) none of the above
61. The time const nt of the thermocorple is the time rcquircd by a thermocouple to reach the
following value of initial teurperature difrercirces :
(a) 63.2% O) 650/o
G) 680/o (d) 70.2o/o
62. In a long cylindrical rod of radius R urd for a surface hcat flux of 90, the uniform intemal
heat g€neration rate i8
(a) 290/R O) 29o -
G) sot2L (d) 90n3
63. Heat transfer in liquids and gases is esseirtially due to
(a) C;onduction O) Convection
("i Radiation (d) C;onduction and Radiation
Scrt6-B la SESI06
Text of page 260
6{. The transition Relmolds number for flow over a flat Plate is 5 x ld. what is the disance
'
fiom the leading edge at which transition will occur for flow of water with uniform
velocity of I rrls ? @or water u = 0.858 , 106 m2ls)
(a) lm (b) 0.43 m
(c) 43m (d) 103 m
65. In a certain heat exchanger, both the fluids have ide,ntical mass flow rate and specific heat
product. The hot fluid ente6 at 76 oC and leaves at 47 oC and cold fluid enters at 26 oC
and leaves at 55 oC. The effectiveness of the heat exchanger is
(a) 0.16 (b) 0.58
(c) 0.72 (d) t.0
66. A 0.5 m thick plane wall has its two surfaces kept at 300 oC and 200 oC. Thermal
oC and
conductivity of the wall varies linearly with tempemture and its value at 300
200 oC are 25 WmK and 15 WimK respectively. Then steady heat flux through the wall is
(a) 8kwm2 (b) 5kwm2
(c) 4kwlm2 (d) 3 kwm2
67. For practical purposes one Ton ofrefrigeration means
(a) 3.48 kw O) 34.8 kw
(c) 348kW (d) Noneofthese
58. In a refrigeration system the refrigerant gains heat at
(a) Compressor O) Conderser
(c) ExPansisaYalrr" (d) E,a,orator
69. In summer air conditioning syste,m fresh air is inboduced into the recirculated air to
(a) reduce load on equipment
O) exercise easy conhol over equipment
(c) improve air quality by diluting odour and contarninants
(d) reduce quantity of supply air
70. Temperature recorded by a thermometer which is not alfected by moisture is
(a) dry bulb temperature (b) wet bulb tempemture
(c) dew point temperature (d) adiabatic satumtion temp€rature
71. Effects ofheat purrp and refrigeration respectively are obtained at
(a) compressor and conde,nser (b) evryorator and conde,nser
(c) condenser and evaporator (d) compressor and evaporator
72. On a psychrometric chart what does a vertical.downward line represe,nt ?
(a) Adiabatic saturation (b) Sensible cooling
(c) Dehumdification (d) Humidification
73. A refrigerator working on a reversed camot cycle has a COP of 4. If it works as heat pump
and consumes lkW, the heating effect will be
(a) lkw O) 4kw
(c) skw (d) 6kw
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Text of page 262
74. The Bell-Coleman reftigeration cycle uses as the working fluid.
(a) Hydrogen (b) Caton dioxide
(c) Air (d) Any inert gas
-
75. The throttling operation in a refrigeration cycle is carried out in
(a) Evaporator (b) Discharge valve
(c) Cqillary tube (d) Expansion valve
76. The chemical formula ofFreon - 12 is
(a) CCIr2 o) ccl2F3
(c) CCl2Ez (d) CC'F
77. Dry ice is
(a) solidified carbon dioxide
(b) ice free from dissolved air and gases
(c) ice free from impurities
(d) ice made from transparent distilled water.
78. Lithium bromide in vapour absorption refrigeration systern is used as
(a) refrigerant (b) sooling substance
(c) auxiliary refrigerant (d) absorbent
79. A simple saturated refrigeration cycle has the following state points. Enftalpy after
compression : 425 W / kg ; enthaly after throttling : 125 klkg; enthalpy beforet
compression: 375 H I kg. The COP ofrefrigeration is
(a) s
o) 3.s
(c) 6
(d) not possible to find with this dara
80. Vapour absorption system
(a) gives noisy operation
(b) gives quiet operation
(c) rcquires little power consumption
(d) cools below 0 oC
81. In mechanical refrigeration systern, the refrigerant has the maximirm tcrnperatrne
(a) before expansion valve
O) between compressor and condenser
(c) between condenser and evaporator
(d) between compressor and evaporator
82. If moist air is passed over chemicals like silica gel, the process which takes place is
(a) humidification
(b) dehumidification
(c) cooling and dehumidifcation
(d) heating and dehumififigati6a
Seriec.B lE SE$lXt
I
a
Text of page 264
83. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicate
(a) relative humidity O) spocific humidity
(c) dry bulb temperahue (d) wet bulb temperature
84. In the absorption refrigeration cycle, the compressor of vapour compression refrigeration
cycle is replaced by
(a) Liquid pump
(b) Generator
(c) Absorber and generator
(d) Absorber, liquid pump and generator
85. What is the storage temperature for milk ?
(a) 4 oC O) 7oc
(c) zoc (d) 0.5 0c
85. The design condition of temperatue for winter air conditioning is
(a) 25+loc O) 27oC
(c) 2l oC (d) none ofthe above
87. Which pair, out of following altematives, is conectly matched. Normal boiling points of
dilferent refrigerants (List-I) are gilen in List-tr.
List - I Llst - II
(a) R- 12 - 29.8 0C
(b) NH3 - 33.35 0C
(c) Rl34a -24.15oC
(d) R22 - 40.8 0c
88. Pressure drop in capillary tube (used in refiigeration systems) takes place due to
(a) friction O) change in momentum
(c) both (a) & (b) above (d) none ofthe above
89. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the refrigeration ternperature is - 15 oC and
the generator tfilp€rature is I l0 oC. If sink te,rperature is 55 oC, the ma:rimum COP of
the system will be
(a) 1.00 O) 3.6e
(c) 0.34 (d) 0.90
90. In case of ejector-+ompression systern the power input is in the form of
(a) electric power O) heat
(c) mechanical work (d) steam pox,€r
91. Due to suction vapour superheating in vapour compression cycle the COP increases in
case of the following refrigerant :
(a) R22 (b) NH3
(c) R - 12 (d) None ofthe above
Seric&B 20 SE$06
I
Text of page 266
the correct alternative :
92. Go tbrough the following statemens and choose
I- -w"T *-pnt sion Increases CoP of ammonia v4our oompr€ssion systeln'
;. U." of Uqria-r+o,o heat o(changer in vapour compression system decreases COP
in case of ammonia refrigerurl
3. For good perro.rnrn"",-" refrifgerant must have high critical prellsure and lovr
critical temPerature.
many problems'
4. Refrigerants that are not miscible with oils, prese'nts the
5. In flooded waporators, the liquid refrigerani covers €ntfu€ heat transfer surface.
(a) Staternents 1,2 and 5 are tnre
O) Stat€,m€nts l, 2 and 3 are tnre
(c) Staternents 3,4 and 5 tnre
are
(d) StstemenB 2,4 and 5 are true
93. The function of solenoid valve in a refiigeration system is to
(a) control the flow ofrefrigerant in suction line
b) control the flow ofrefrigerurt through orpaosion valve
stop the flow ofrefrigerant when the're is no load on the
evaporator
Gi
(Q stop the flow of refrigerant in liquid line whelr compressor
stops
pass factor is to
94. In cooling and dehumidi$ing apparatus, thc effect ofthe by
(a) lower the ADP o;15s cosling coil
(b) decrease the COP of the sYste'm
(c) both (a) & O) above
t6 i.r*iri, oi lpp sf fts cooling coil and to improve the coP of the syslem
predominant is
95. In case of air conditioning of auditoriums, the cooling load which is
(a) lighting load
O) occupancy load
(c) load due to fans
(d) load due to electrooic equipme'lrts
Wh€n air is at sat|tr'atod state, which pair, out of the givan alrcmdives is Dot
conectly malched ?
96.
Ltst-I Lbt-II
(a) Relative humiditY l0fl/o
o) DBT WBT
(c) Degree ofsaturation - I
(d) Specific humiditY 0.01 kg w.v/kg d.a
v, The refrigerant commonly used for commertial ice plants is
(a) 12
Frcon- NH3 O)
(c) COz (d) Air
98. The brine is an aqueous solution of- in wat€r'
(a) Calciumchloride O) Sodium chloride
Gi Calcium carbonate (d) Sodium carbonate
22 sES{16
Scrlcr.B
Text of page 268
99. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity cquals
(a) zgro (b) Str/o
(c) 75o/o (d) lWo
lfit. Two reversible refrigerators are arrmged in series and their COP uc 4 md 5 rcspectively.
The COP of the composite refrigeration syst€,lr would be
(a) l.s (b)2
(c) 3 (d)4.s
qC
f 01. An ideal rcfrig€rator,is op€rating betweqr a cdenecr taryerature of 37 @d an cv4orer
terryerature of- 3 oC. If the machine is functioning as a heat pump, its COP will be
(a) 6 O) 6.7s
(c) 7 (d) 7.75
llD. Which refrigerant would you choose for E00 TR air conditiming plant using cefltrifugal
compressor ?
(a) NH3 O) COz
(c) CFC ll (d) CFC 114
103. Finnd evaporators are used on air conditionirg application to
(a) equatize air flow over thc cooling coil surface
(b) prEve[t moisture carry over
(c) extend the efective area ofthe cooling surface
(d) increase the dehumidiffing capacity
I(X. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of a good refrigerant ?
(a) low specific heat
O) high specific volume of vaport
(c) large late,nt heat at ev4oralor pr€ssure
(d) high critical temperature
105. Dev/ point is the tqeratre at wtrich the coademsatim begim u/h€n the air is coohd at constttt
(a) volume O) enhopY
(c) pressure (d) enthalPY
oC at the rate of 200 lit/bour. Talcing
106. In a one ton c4acity water cooler, watar €,nteris at 30
specific heat of water as 4. I 6 kJ/kg K the outla tmp€rmrle of w4€r wiU b€
(a) 3.5 oC oC
O) 6.3 oC
(c) 23.7 oC (d) 15
107. Perforrnance of an air compressor at high altitudes as oomparcd to that at sea level is
(a) better O) inferior
(c) sarne (d) depends on type of cory,ressor
108. A water turbine is usually desiped for the given values of
(a) N,TandQ O) P,TandQ
(c) P,HandQ (d) P,HandN
Serlec-B 21 sE${16
Text of page 270
1(D. The cetane number of automotive diesel fuel used in hdia lies in which of the following
ranges ?
(a) 30-40 O) 41-s0
(c) 51 - 60 (d) 6t -70
ll0. In a variable speed S.I. engine,..the m4ximum torque occurs at the maximum
(a) speed (b) brakepower
(c) indicated power (d) volumetic elEciency
111. The knocking tendency in C.I. engines increases with
(a) decrease ofcompression ratio
(b) increase of compression ratio
(c) increasing the temperature of inlet air
(d) increasing cooling water te.mperature
112. The ignition quality of ftels for S,I. engines is deteirmined by
.
(a) Cetane number O) Octane number
(c) Calorific value (d) Volatility of the fuel
113. In a 4 - cylinder petrol engine, the standard firing order is
(a) r-2-3-4 O) t-4 -3-2
(c) r-3-2-4 (d) r-3-4-2
114. The ratio of brake power to indicaii{ power of an I.C. engine is called
(a) mechanical efficie,ncy (b) thermal efficiency
(c) volumetric elficiency (d) relative efficiency
115. A cenhifugal pump lifts water thrcugh a height h and delivers lt at a velocity Vo. The loss
ofheat through piping is \ The gross lift is ''
',
vd-
(a) h+tk o)q '29
(c) h*4 *# (d) h.E
116. The process of zupercharging is meant for
(a) raising exhaust pressure
(b) increasing density of intake air
(c) increasing quantity offuel going into cylinder
(d) providing air for cooling
117. Which of the following is not a high pressure boiler ?
(a) Lancashire boiler O) La-mont boiler
(c) Bensonboiler (d) Loeffler boiler
sericsiB 26 sDs-06
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Text of page 272
118. For a reaction turbine, specific flow is given by following expression :
2
(a) Q/D I H O) e/Dr rE
2
(c) Q/D I H3t2 (d) a/D?.tr
119. Mean diameter of runner of a pelton turbine is 200mm and least diameter of jet is I cm.
Calculate the jet ratio and number ofbuckets.
(a) 20,2s (b) 2oo, I ls
(c) 20,40 (d)
20,4s
120. Open type.impeller centrifugal pump is used to handle
(a) water
(b) mixture ofwater, sand, pebbles and clay
(c) sewage
(d) liquids lighter than water
'121. The specific speed ofa turbine is expressed as
(a) Nr/F
Hra- G)
NHs/4
{p
(c)
N{F (d)
N{F
PHstt (gHlsa
122. Iso-octane content in a fuel for S.I. Engines
(a) retards auto-ignition (b) accelerates auto-ignition
(c) does not affect auto ignition (d) none of the above
123. The specific fuel consumption ofa diesel engine as compared to that for petrol orgine is
(a) lower (b) higher 4
(c) same for same output (d) none of the above
124. In an intemal combustion engine, fuing order depends upon
(a) crank shaft design ' {b) arrangement of cylinder
(c) number ofcylinders .ari .{\ (d) none ofthe above
125. William's law gives a straight line graph between the rate of steam consumption and
(a) pressure of steam (b) temperatue of steam
(c) volume of steam (d) indicated horse power
126. Work done by prime mover to run the compressor is minimum if the compression is
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isentropic (d) polytropic
127. In centrifugal blowerVcompressors, the ratio of outlet whirl velocity to the blade velocity
is known as
(c) degree of reaction (d) pressu€ coefficient
Series-B 2A sEs-06
7
Text of page 274
with an
12& Wheil an impcller has backward cun ed vmes in a centrifugal blower, the'n
increase in flow rate, Euler head H
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) re,rnains constant (d) none of the above
129. \\rork ratio is a gui& in the d€termination of
(a) the size ofthe gas turbine
O) overall efficie,lrcy of thc twbine
(c) mcchanical efficicrncy of the tubine
(d) comprcssoref;EciencY
130. for high boilcr efEcie,ncy the feed water is heated by
(a) -rtcrpcrator O) convcctive heater
i"i .upe"hear.r (d) economis€r
131. In parson's steam turbine, steam opands in
(a) nozzles only O) blades only
G) partlyinnozzlecandpartlyinblades (d) none ofthe above
132. Piston rings are ge,lrerally made of following material'
(a) cast-fuon - O) mild steel
i"i aluminium (d) carbon steel
133. The degree of rcaction for a turbomachinry in which heat dmp in
noving blades is E
kJfu and in 6xed blades 12 U&g would be -
(a) 6.60/o O)
lSV/"
Gt 4u/o (d) 166.60/o
134. Specific speed ofa turbine is defined as the speed ofthe turbine which
(a) produces unit power at unit dischrge
6l produccs unit Power at unit head
G) dclivers rmit dischrge at unit head
(d) delivcrs unitdiscbarge 8t unilpoyT.
efficie'lrcy rmder
135. For a singlc stage impulse turbine hnving pzzle angle cq morimum blade
ideal conditions is given bY
(a) errsol2 (b) datZ
(c) oos o (d) co*a
136. Bleeding in turbine means :
(a) leakage ofsteant
O) steam doing no useful work
(c) removal ofcondcos€d steam
(O extracting steam for prcheating feed warer
137. Why int€,rcooling in multistage comprcssom is done ?
(a) To minimize the wort of compression
O) To cool thc air deliverY
G) To cool the air during compression
. (d) None of these
sE&{t6
Sarlcr-B :10
Text of page 276
a
l3t. Cavitation depends upon
(a) vryour pr€s$ue which is function of te,mperature
O) absolute pressure or barometric pressure
(ci suction pressure els) which is heiglt ofrunner outlet above tail race level.
(d) all the above
139. The mmpression ratio for a practical diesel engine usually lies in the roge'
(a) 3-5 O) 6-8
(c) l0- ls (d) t6-22
oC and t€mp€rature in depth is 4 oC' how
1,llr. U maximum surface tempera8re of sea is 30
mrich can be the maximum thermal efficiency. of ocean Thermal conversion (oTEc)
syrte,m ?
(p) 8.58% O) r3.3o/o
(r) 86.7% (d) none ofthe above
141. De-Iaval nubine is
(a) pressure compounded impulse turbine
O) simple singl6 vvl6el impulse turbine
(c) velocity compormded impulse tubine
(d) simple single wheel reaction turbine
142. Francis turbine is a
(a) tangential flow reaction turbine O) axial flow reaction tutine
(c) radial flow reaction turbine (d) mixed flow reaction turbine
143. Which of the following statements is not true for gas nubines ?
(a) Low full load thermal efficiencY
O) Costly machines
(c) Self surting unit
(d) Slow in is response to acceleration
144. Which of the following statements is not correct about MHD power generation ?
(a) Lesser themral pollution
O) No movingParts
(c) High oPeration efficiencY
(d) No direct conversion of heat into electrical energy
145. Tutine gives best perforrnance (i.e. work at peak efficie,lrcy) when they are operated at
full or desip load. The performance of many turbines deteriorate considerably at part
loads. Whicl of the following turbines is best zuited for operation at part loads. ?
(a) Pelton Turbine O) Francis Turtine
G) Propeller Turbine (d) Kaplan Turbine
1,t6. If a draft tube is used with a Francis turbine (installed above tail race level), the pressure at
the runner outlet
(a) is equal to atnogpheric pressure
O) is above atmosPheric Pressure
(c) is below atmosPhere Pressu[E
(d) depcnds uPon turbine sPeed
Sbdc!-B 32 SES-06
Text of page 278
147. Aainv€,ntor claims to have developed an engine that takes h 105 MJ at a temp€rature of
400 K rejects 42MI at a te,mp€rature of 200 K and delivers 15 kwh of mechanical work.
Is this engine feasible ?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) The information given is oot sufficie'nt to find answ€r.
(d) May be or may not be depends upon several factors.
14& In a reversible adiabatic process the ratio (T,/T) is equal to
IJ E!.
(a) (P1/P2) Y (b) (v,trJ '
y-l l: t;.
(c) (vr v2) 2r (d) (vy'vr)'
Where 1 is ratio of sPocific heats .
149. A frictionless heat eirgine can be 1007c efficient only if the exhaust t€m?€rature is
(a) equal to its input temPerature
O) less than its input t€'mperature
(c) OoC
(d) 0K
150. The thermal efficiency of a theoretical'Otto cycle
(a) increases with increase in compression ratio
O) increases with increase in isentropic inda f
(c) does not depend on the pressure ratio
(d) follows all the above-
l5l. Which of the following constituents of a fuel does not contribute to its calorific value on
combustion ?
(a) Carton (b) Hydrogen
(c) Sulphur (d) NitrogFrr
152. Which of the following is an irreversible process ?
(a) An isothermal process O) An iscntopic process
(c) An isobaric process (d) An ise'othalpic process
l5J. The wort in a closcd systrm und€rgoing m isentropic process is given by
(a) G) f *n<r,-trl
fr.*Cr,-rrl
1 --. I
(c) ;;1 rntrr-rr1 (d) ;1 m(rr-r2)
(Notations used have usual meaning)
Serles-B 34 sE$06
Text of page 280
a reversible cycle is
154. The Clausius equation for
q9, 9q 0
(a) { T <0 o) { T
G) { !q >0
T
(d) i T S0
q9,
(Notations usd have usual meaning')
*' the critical point, any substance
155. At *-
' the three phases simultaneously
i,i *iir in all
"*ist vapour
6) witl change direc v from solid to
aisiinction between liquid and vapour
E; wil tose
ltrase
as an ideal gas
tal will behave
be written as
156. Vantter Waal's equation may L
(a) G++)(V-b)=Rr o)o + @ )(v-b)=RT
a
(c) O++)N2-b):Rr (d) G + @ )(v2-u)=rtz
(Notations used have usual meaning')
The efficiencY of the
receives 15152 J/s of heat and produces 5 kW of Power.
157. Atr engine
engine is
(a) 2s% - (b) 27 .5o/o
(d) 33Vo
(c) 30%
performing work equal to 16 kJ upon
it' The change in
isothermally by
158. Afu is comPressed
intemal energY is (b) 7.ero
(a)-16kJ (d) 32W
(c) 16kJ
at constant pressure of lMPa
and
from 0'03 T: to.0101^1r.'
159. A mixture of gases expands
'-'' ;;il;; * irn",t u#T*Tplo:;:l i#h-;; intemar energv orthe mixture
is
(a) 3o!{ tai lr4kr
(c) 84kJ
ratio of 5 and index 1 = 1'4
an otto cycle for a compression
160. The air standard efficiency of
is
(a) 6ff/o
(b) SV/o
47.47Yo
(d) 40y"
G)
whistle ofa pressrre cooker is
161, Steam coming out of the
(a) dry saturated vaPour O) wet vapour
(c) super heated vaPour
(d) ideal gas
with increase in prqssure
162. The latent heat of steam
(a) does not change
o) increases
(d) remains unPredictable
(c) decreases sE9l)6
36
Series-B
Text of page 282
163.AsystemistakenfromstateAtostateBalongtwodifere,ntpathsland!.Theheat
q, and W, and W'
wort done by thc systern along these palhs are Q1 and
absorbed and
respectively the,n
Q, : Q,
(a) o) Wr +Qr =Q2+W2
(c) Wr =Wz (d) Qr -Wr:Qz-wz
state I to state 2' with r€spect
164. Steam flows thmugh an adiabatic steady flow turbine from
to a base tenrperature To, the unavailable energy is
(a) To (lr - I, O) To (st - S,
(c) (Ir-Ir-To(sr-s, (d) I2+h (st-s,
gas is equal to
165. The value of compressibility fhctor for a vander \Vaals
(a) 1.0 O) 0'37s
i"t 0.2 to 0.3 (d) o.3s
166. The slope of an isobar on the h - s coordinaes is equal to the
(a) Gibbs function
o) Helmholtz function
(c) Pressure
(d) Absolute satuation tcmpcratue af that pressure
l5T.Acamotheatprrmpabsorbsheatft.om&osphercatl0ocandsrrypliesittoaroom
oc exis6 betrreen working fluid ald
at 25 oc. A tcmp€rstulE difrercnce of 5
maintained
tian4 ana tne requireA temp€ratur. on the other hand. If the heat
"*;.ph.r";;e I kW power, the heat delivered
f,r-p'."*o.o
'.x,m to thc room will be
' l2.l kw (b) l4'e kw
ta)
irt 1.67kw (d) re.ekw
l6t. For the same compression ratio and same heaf rcjition, the efficie,lrcy of Otto cycle is
(a) sarne as that of Diesel CYcle
o) not comparable to that of Diesel Cycle
(c) less thsn thrt of Dicsel CYcle
(d) more than that of Diesel Cf'cle
161). Choose the correct sltcnative :
i. rit"t la* for a closed syste'rr rudergoing a cycle Q - W = AE
2. T\vo reversible adiabatic pattrs can not intersect each other'
3. If two fluids are mixed, the enuopy of universe remains unchanged'
body without the
4. Clausius stat€,m€nl- Iieat can ftoi, from low to high t€mperdture
aid of orte,mal work.
The effciency oi a rerrersible heat enginc is indepe,ndent of nature of
working
5.
substance undcrgping a cYcle.
(a) All statements uc tnre.
o) Stat€merts 2 and 5 arc rue.
(c) Statements l, 3, 4 ad 5 are true.
(d) Stat€msrts l, 3 md 5 arc true.
38 SESrm
Serles-B
Text of page 284
170. The unit of work is
(a) kw o) kwh
(d) kJ/s
G) kwh
171. For complete buming of I kg of carbon, the air required will be about
(a) z.et kg (b) I 1'6 kg
Gi 0.7ke (d) 14'5 kg
17!. The efficiency of an ideal Caraot engine depends on
(a) working substance
(b) the temperafi[e ofthe source only
(c) the ternperature ofthe sink only
(d) the temperahre ofboth source and sink'
173. Kelvin Planck's law deals with
(a) conservation of energY o) conservation ofheat
(c) consewation of mass (d) conversion ofheat into work
174. The gas constant R is equal to the
(a) sum oftwo sPecific heats. (b) difference of two sPecific heats.
(c) product oftwo sPecific heats. (d) ratio of two specific heats.
175. The main cause of the irrevemibility is
(a) Mechanical and Fluid Friction
O) Unrestrictedexp^nsion terrperature difference
("t Heat transfer with a finite
(d) AII ofthe above
176. Which of the following is not a property of thermod5marnic system ?
(a) Pressure O) EnergY
iri Heat (d) Volume
177. Parson's reaction turbine has
(a) fixed blades onlY
O) moving blades onlY
(c) identical fixed and moving blades
(d) fixed and moving blades ofdifferent shapes'
178. The change in entopy is zero during
(a) Hlperbolic Process o) Constant pressure Process
(c) ReversiblezdiabaticProcess (d) Polytropic process
179. Fuel injector is used in
(a) steam etrgin6 (b) gas engines
(c) spark iPition engines (d) compression iPition engines
180. Camot cycle is not considered as a practical cycle because
(a) itsP-V diagram is narrow
(b) its thermal efficiencY is low
(c) heat addition takes place at high pressure
(d) heat rejection takes place at high terperature
sEs-ffi
Serle$'B 40
Text of page 286
181. The prop€rty ofa working substance which increases or decreases as the heat is supplied
or rernoved in a reversible manner is known as
(a) Enthdpy O) Enfropy
(c) Internal energy (d) Extemal Energy
l&1. The second law of thermodynamics defines
(a) Heat (b) Enthalpy
(c) Intemal En€rgy (d) Enropy
183. In an irreversible process there is a
(a) loss ofheat O) no loss ofheat
G) gain 615""1 (d) no gain ofheat
1&{. The most practical vryour power cycle is
(a) Camot O) Joule
(c) Rmkine (d) Binary
185. Which pair of the following altematives is correctly matched ?
List-I List-II
(a) Heat - Point function
(b) Energy - P'ath finction
(c) Enfopy - Second law of thermodynaurics
(d) Gibbs function - Path function
186. In an Otto cycle the hear addition and heat rejection take place at
(a) constant volume and at constant pressure respoctively
O) constant volume and at constant volume respectively
(c) constant prqssure and at constant volume respectively
(d) constant pressure and at constant pressgre respectively
ttt. Application of Bemoulli's equation rqrrires that
(a) the duct is two dime,nsional
O) the flow is laminar
(c) the duct is frictionless
(d) the fluid is inviscid and imcompressible
188. A fully developed pipe flow implies that the
(a) flow should be laminar
O) flow should be turbulent
(c) velocity pmfile should be uniform
(d) velocity profile should not change in the direction of flow.
189. The type of flow in which the velocity at any giv€n time does not change with respect to
space is called
(a) Steady flow O)Compressible flow
(c) Unifonn flow (d)
Rotational flow
f90. lbe cmc€pt of sfuem fimction rryhich is based on the pirciple of confinuity is rylicable to
(a) imotational flow only (b) two dimensional flow only
(c) three dimensional flow only (d) uniform flow only . . .,
ScrlB-B 42 SES-06
a c
Text of page 288
-'-'
191. A pitot tube is used for measuring
(a) velocitY offlow (b) pressure offlow
(c) flow rate (d) total energy
192. Mach number is defined as the square rmt of,the ratio of the
(a) inertia force to the presute force
(b) inertia force to the surface tension force
(c) inertia force to the elastic force
(d) none ofthe above
193. A streamlined body is defined as a body ahout which
(a) the drag is zero O) the flow is laminar
Li the floi is along streamlines (d) the flow separation is suppressed
1%. {hich is the flow measuring device through which.fluid does not flow ?
(") Orifice Plate. O) Venturimeter
iil Pitot tube (d) Elbow meter
195. Rayleigh's method of dimensional analysis is used for determining the expression
for a
variabf, which depends on ma<imum following number of variables'
(a) 4 O)8
G)2 (d)6
1e6. rhevelocityprofileisapproximatedbvacubicparabola+ =; eJ'-i (9',wherethe
displacement
'1 thickness for the profile is
(a) *0 G) s/86
(c) ll/8 6 (d) Noneofthe above
197, For the viscous flow the coefficient of friction is given by
(a) f= 8/Re O) f: 16/Re
(c) f=32tRe (d) f=60iRe
198. 'The mathematical o<pression for lift force is given by
(a) Fr=Cr.pAU O) Fr=C,!+."
(c) Fr.: Cl . pU2.A (d) None of the above
(Notations used have usual meaning.)
199. t ocal acceleratioq in fluid is due to
(a) unsteadY nature of flow (b) non uniformity of flow
(c) turbulence in flow (d) irrotational nature of flow
20O. Atr oil of kinematic viscosity 0.5 stokes flows through a pipe of 5 cm diarneter. The fldw
is critical at a velocitY of about
(a) O.2mts O) 2mts
(c) 2.5 rnls (d) 4 mls
Sedes-B 44 sE$06
t
Text of page 298
CTVIL ENGII\EERING
PAPER-II
I lte critical activity has
(a) maximum float o) minimum float
(c) zero float (d) negative float
2. The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is called
(a) resource levelling (b) resource smoothing
(c) updating (d) critical path scheduling
3. The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as
(a) crash time (b) normal time
(c) optimistictime (d) standard time
4 In which of the following directions the sne,ngth of timber is maximum ?
(a) Parallel to grains (b) 45" to grains
(c) Perpendicular tograins (d) Same in all directions
5. The type ofbond in which every course contains both header and stretchers is called
(a) English Bond (b) Mixed Bond
(c) Russian Bond (d) Flemish Bond
6. Specific grzrvity of most of the stones is usually between
(a) l to 1.4 O) l.5to2
(c) 2.4 to 2.8' (d) 4 to 5
7 In PERT analysis the timc estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow
(a) nomral distributioircirve O) Poissons's distribution curve
(c) p distribution cuwe (d) binomial distribution curve
8. Refractory bricks iesists
(a) high temperature (b) chenrical action
(c) dampness (d) none of these
9 Soundness of cernent is tested by
(a) Vicat apparatus O) Le-Chatelier apparatus
(c) Coqrpression testing machine (d) None of these
10. The property of material due to which it can be drawn into thin wires is known as
(a) Soforess (b) Hardness
G) Ductility (d) None of the above
Scrt*A SE${X
Text of page 300
1f. Good quality sand is never obtained from
(a) River o) Draitr
(c) Sea (d) Gravel powder
12. The following defects may arise in plaster wo* :
(a) Cracking O) Efflorescerce
(c) Peeling (d) AII the above
The number of cycles which a so"nding body makes in each unit of time
is called
13.
(a) Pitch o) Echo
(c) Revcrteration (d) None of above
14. Duco paints is
(a) water paint (b) cellulose paint
(c) binrminous Paint (d) oil paint
15. Outer projection ofa 'Tread' is called
(a) nosing o) treader
(c) st€P (d) going
15. Surthi is addcd to lime mortat to
(a) prevent shrinkage o) increase bulk
(c) decrease setting time (d) impart hydraulically
17. With increase ia moisture content the bulking of sand
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first incr€ases to certain maximum value and then decreases
(d) fust d€creases to 6q1ain inimum value and then increases
"
18. A series of steps without any landing in their direction is called
(a) riser O) tread
(c) nosing (d) flight
19. The compressive stength ofsand stone is
(a) 800 kglcm2 (b) 650k!cm2
(c) 550k!ca2 (d) 40Okglc:n2
20. The ultimate stsEngth of c€mcnt is provided by
(a) dicalcium silicate (b) tricalcium aluminate
(c) silica '.iEt (d) tricalcium silicate
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Text of page 302
21. Water utilizable by the plants is available in the soils mainly in the form of
(a) gravity wat€r O) c4illary water
(c) hygroscopic water (d) stored water
22. One tonne of wheat produced may consume wat€,r as much as
(a) 100 tonnes O) 500 tonnes
(c) 2000tonnes (d) 4O00 tonnes
23. The following factor affect the duty ofwater
(a) Method of Cultivation O) System of Irrigation
(c) Tpe of Crop (d) All the above
24. T\e;elation between the area of the land irrigated and the quantity of water required to be
supplied for growing a crop is
(a) water
Quantity of (b) Duty of wat€r
(c) Delta of wat€r (d) None of the above
25. The duty of water at the outlet is known as
(a) Time factor o) C:.pacity factor
(c) Outlet factor (d) None of the above
25. Which of the following has the mo(imum water apptcation efficiency ?
(a) Surface Inigation O) Lift Irrigation
(c) . Sprinkler lrrigation (d) Sub-surface Irrigation
27. CICA of a irrigation canal is 50,000 hectares, out of which 80% is C.C.A. If intensity of
irrigation for Rabi season is 6fflo and for Kharif season is 20%, then crop ratio will be
(a) 1.33 O) 3
(c) 4 (d) 0.33
28. Delta for a crop when its duty is 864 hecUcumec on the field, will be (ifbase period of this
crop is 120 days)
(a) 140 cm O) 130 cm
(c) l20cm (d) 110cm
29. If fte irrigation efficiency is 807o, conveyance losses are 20% al,ld the actual depth of
watering is 16 crn, the depth of water required at the cgnal outlet is
(a) l0cm (b) 15 cm
(c) 2ocm (d) 25 cm
30. A crop rcquires a total depth of wat€r of A meEes ov€r a base period of B days, then duty
D can be obtained by the following relation :
(a) D:8.64 B/A O) D:8.64 A/B
(c) D:8.64 xB x A (d) None ofthe above
Sctk-A 6 SES{14
Text of page 304
31, With the increase in quantity of water supplied, yield of most crops
(a) continuously increases O) continuously decreases
(c) increases upto a certain limit (d) None of the above
32. If y: average numerical deviation in de,pth of water stored fiom the average depth of
water ,d' stored in the root zone during irrigation, water distribution efEciency'(10) is
given by
(a) (l-dly)loo O) (1-YiQ100
(c) (y - d) / 100 rl ' (d) (d/Y - l) 100
33. If the optimum depth of kor watering for a crop is 15.12 cm, the outlet factor for the crop
for four weeks period in hectare/cunec is
(a) 1200 O) 1400
(c) 1600 (d) 1800
34. For a standing crop, the consumptive use of water is equal to thrc depth of water
(a) ev4orated by the crop
(b) transpired by the crop
(c) evapoFanspiration by the crop
(d) evapotanspiration by the orop and quantity ofv{at€r evaporated from adjace,nt soil
35. The lftarif crop is sown in
(a) month of October-November o) month of February-March
(c) whenever it is possible (d) month of June & July
36. Lining of irrigation channels
(a) may stop leakage of water o) creates water logging in near by areas
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
37. An area is Isrown as waterlogged, when
(a) area is full of salinity (b) wat€r evaporation stQps
(c) drainage by gravity stops (d) none of the above
38, In the enrpty condition of reservoir and with the elementary profile of a dam, the vertical
stess at heel and toe respectively are Sven by
(a) 0 and il2B (b) 2wlB and 0
(c) il2BandO (d) 0and2ilB
where 'w' is self weight of unit length of dam and B is the base width.
39. Hydraulic Jump occur when flow changes from
(a) super critical to sub-critical (b) sub-critical to super critibal
(c) critical to srper-critical (d) laminar to turbulent ,1r t i.,l
Serl€B-A " 8 SE${H
t
Text of page 306
,H). vertical drcpfall is satisfactory for a height upto
(a) 0.5 m O) 1.5 m
(c) 3.5 m (d) 5.0 m
41. Delta (A) of a croP means
(a) Area under the croP o) Crop p"riod
(c) Depth of water required by the cmp (d) Crop production
42. Side slopes generally kept for canals in sandy loam soil are
(a) l: I in cutting and l7r: I in filling O) l/:: l incuttingand2: I in fiUing
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) eoth(a) & (b)
43. The quantity of sulphates @PM) contained in good quality irrigation water is
(a) 0-192 (b) 195-480
(c) >480 (d) All 0re above
4,4. In case of channel routing, the storage is a function of
(a) Inflow discharge only (b) Outflow discharge only
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None ofthe above
45. Outlet discharge, for a particular crop, is given by
(a) Area / Outlet factor O) Outlet factor / Arca
(c) Area x Outlet factor (d) None of the above
46. A gravity dam may fail due to
(a) Ov€rturning o) Over shessing
(c) Sliding (d) All the above
47. Total force due to wave action on a gravity dam acts at a height of
(a) f ,uou" *r" ,oovoir surface O) | hw ,m"" tt ,o"r"oi,
" "urrr""
(c) $ t* utor" a" reservoir surface (d) ] m, "tou" oe reservoir surface
Where hw is the height of wave.
48. A divide wall is provided
(a) at right angle to the axis ofweir
O) parallet to the axis of weir and upstream of it
(c) parallel to the a:<is ofweir and downsueam ofit
(d) at an inclination of 45o to the a:tis of weir
Serica-A l0 sEs{4
Text of page 308
49. A river training work is generally rgquired when the river is
(a) aggrading t5pe (b) degnding type
(c) meandering type (d) both (a) and (b)
50. In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
(a) uniform (b) sub-critical
(c) critical (d) super critical
51. The most suitable material for the central impervious core of zoned ernbankment tpe dam is
(a) clay (b) coarse sand
(c) silty clay (d) clay mixed with fine sand
52. Attracting groynes are built
(a) perpendicular to the bank (b) inclined down stream
(c) inclined upstream (d) none of these
53. As per Lacey's Theory, the silt factor is
(a) Directly proportional to average particle size
O) Inversely proportional to average particle size
(c) Directly proportional to square root of average particle size
(d) Not related to average particle size
54. The depth ofrice root zone is
(a) 90 cm O) 80cm
(c) 70 cm (d) 60 cm
55. In which case will the canal water leakage be more ?
(a) Canal is in filling O) Canal is in cutting
(c) Canal is on natwal ground level (d) None ofthe above
56. The following is a type ofdam for storage ofwater based on structural behaviour :
(a) RiCrd (b) Non-rigid " :
(c) Buttress (d) All the above
57. The sinuosity of a meander is the ratio of
(a) Meander length and the width of meander
(b) Meander length and half width of the river
(c) Curved length and straight distance
(d) None ofthese
58. IfD is the depth of U/S pile the horizontal length of launching apron is generally gken as
(a) l.oD O) 1.5 D
(c) 2.0D (d) z.sD
Scrtes-A t2 sEs4{
Text of page 310
59. In siphon aqueduct, river is siphoned
(a) under the canal o) over the rivcr
(c) canal crosses the river level (d) none ofthe above
610. Tortuosity of a memdering river is always
(a) equal to I o) grEater than I
(c) less than I (d) greatcr than 0.1
61. Which of the following is not a form of prepipitation ?
(a) Snow *O) Rrin
(c) Hail (d) Smog
62. The probability that a T year flood occurs in any year is
(a) + o) tJ
.'(d)
(c)
'"{'J [+l
63. The probable manimum flood
(a) is less than standard project flood o) is mor€ than strndard Project flood
(c) is same as desigr flobd (d) none ofthe above
6,4. According to kcey's theory, the bed slope given by
(tt Pt
(a) ,*a, G) 3340 Ql/4
ea fu
(c)
ffiIz (d)
3340 Qr/6
where f is silt factor and Q is dischargs in m3/s.
65. Rain during cold weather season is due to
(a) high prcssure o) low pressure
(c) both(a)&(b) (d) none of the above
66. Hydrclogy is the scic,lrce which deals with
(a) Rain water o) River water
(c) Sea water (d) Surface and grouodwater
67. The level of underground watcr is calld
(a) water level o) underground water lcvel
(c) negative level (d) invert level
Sstc..A t{ sE$04
Text of page 312
6t. Fish ladder is Pmvided for
(a) catching fish (b) fisherman to go r4P and catch fish
(c) providing Passage to fsh (d) (a) md (b) together
69. Double mass curve technique is followed to
(a) check the consist€,ncy ofrain gauge record
O) find the average rainfall ovet a number of year
(c) find the number of rain gauge rcquired
(d) estimate the missing precipitation values
70. A current meter is used to measure the
(a) velocity of flow of water (b) depth of flow of warer
(c) discharge (d) none ofthe above
7t The amount of water stored in a river charmel without any artificid storage is called
(a) bank storage (b) river storage
(c) valley storage (d) dead storage
72. If allowable perce, tage error .in the estimate of basic rainfall is 'E' and co-efficient of
variation of rainfall is 'Cr'; then optimum number of rain gauges is give'lr by
(b) cnB
(a)
r[+
(c)
eJ" (d)
BI
73. Thc capacity - inflow ratio for a reservoir
(a) increases with the timc (b) decreases with the time
(c) is a constant factor oventime (d) may increase or decrease with time
74. 'Economical height of a dan' is that height for which
(a) cost per unit of storage is minimum O) net bcnefits ae maximum
(c) benefit cost ratio is maximum (d) overall cost is minimum
75. lf a stsucture with a useful life period N years is desiped for a T, year flood, then risk in
the desigp is given by
(a) (b) (Tl,,
+
1\N
(c) l- I (d) (,-ilf
\)
Scrlcr.A 16 SESM
Text of page 314
can be reduced by sprinkling
?6. Evaporation losses from the surface ofa reservoir AcetYl alcohol
(a) DDT O)
(c) Potassium Permanganate
(d) None of these
8 hr unit hydrographs of a basin occurs at t' and !, then
17. If peak discharge in 4 and
(b) \>tz
(a) \:b, (d) tr * tz I
(c) t <h
area 500 km2 i$ l5O Mrn3 and
corresponding
78 If observed annual runoff from a basin of
annual rainfall ou* m" r*io irir!ffi
JJ"-y"u, i. 75O mm" then runofl coelficient'will
be
(b) 0.67
(a) o.2
(d) 0.5
(c) 0.4
evaporation by E' then
79 If pan evaporation is denoted Ea and actual
(a) %rE (b) E>EP
(c) E:Ep (d) ESIh
of soil, then infilration rde will be
80. ff intensity ofrainfall is more than the infiltation c4acity
equal to infiltration caPacitY
(a) equal to therate ofrainfall O)
(c) more than rate of rainfall ial more than infiltration capacrty
E1. The following is a type ofprecipitation : (b) cyclonic
(a) convective (d) All the above
(c) orograPhic
flood discharge Q in cumecs is gven bY
82. According to Dicken's formula, the ll4
(a) CA?3 o) Ca-
(d) cA7/8
(c) 64sr6
where C = Dicken's coefficient
A = Area of the basin in sq. km.
83. The hydrologic equation states that
(a) Linflow: Loutflow
(b) Iinflow - Loutflow : corx$ant
i"i Subiuiface inflow : Subsurfaco out flow
(d) Linflow - X'outflow : Change in storage
84. Non-consumptive use of water is in (b) Ciry water suPPlY
(a) HYdro-Powergeneration (d) All of the above
(c) Fire fighting sES-04
18
Series.A
Text of page 316
85. Which of the following methods are used for the donrol of silting of reservoirs ?
(a) Control of sediment inflow O) Control of sediment deposit
(c) Removal of sedime,nt de,posis (d) All of the above
86. A 60% index ofwetness means
(a) rain excess of 40oZ o) rain deficiency of40%
(c) rain deficiency of60% (d) none of the above
8?. In which of the following fields of civil Engineering Thiesson Polygon Method is used ?
(a) Theory of Structures O) She,ngth of Materials
(c) Hydrology (d) None ofthe above
88. The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 10O mm' 80 mm' 60 mrL 40 mm
and 20 mm respectively, if the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the carchme,nt
area is earlier estimated as 50 mm/d8y, the total surface runoffwill be
(a) 50mm (b) 60mm
(c) 90 mm (d) 140 mm
E9. Unit Hydrograph Theory was enunciated by
(a) Menill Bernard (b) W.W. Homer
(c) Le-Roy K. Shermen (d) Robert E-Horten
90. The pressure less than the atmospheric pressure is known as
(a) Suctionpressure O) Vacuum pressure
(c) Negative pressure (d) All the above
91. For the estimate of high floods in fan-sh4ed catchment, the formula used is
(a) Dicken's formula (b) Ryve's formula
(c) Inglis formula (d) None of these
92. If the lwel of canal bed and high flood level of river have the RL's of 242.0 m artl 2t0'0 m
respectivelS than this type ofcross drainage work is called as
(a) Aqueduct (b) Barrage
(c) Dam (d) River
93. The precipitation is measured in terms of
(a) lntensityofpressure o) Depth of water
(c) Quantity of water (d) Volume of water
94. The eddies supporting silt are generatd according to Lacey's theory from
(a) Charmel's side only (b) Channel's bottom gnly
(c) Channel's sides and also bottom (d) None ofthe above
Series-A 20 sDsd4
a
I
Text of page 318
Whe,n there is an increase in atmospheric pressurc' the water
level in a well in a
95.
unconfined aquifer
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) does not change (d) none ofthe above
Dicken's forrnula the
96. For calculating the morimum flood discharge in Northern India by
value of coefficient 'C' is
(a) 13.9 o) 19.5
(c) I 1.4 (d) 22.4
vt In an ear0ren darn seepage through ernbankment is controlled by
(a) Stone colurnn @) Drain trenchas
(c) together
(a) and (b) (d)
None ofthe above
9t. 'Bank storage' in a dam resenroir
(a) increases computed reservoir capacity
O) decreases computed reservoir capacity
G) sometimes increas€s and sometimes decreases computed reservoir capacity
(d) has no effect on the compuled reservoir capacity
9. The ma:rimum quantity of water that can be guaranteed during a critical dry period is
called the following :
(a) Average yield (b) Safe Yield
(c) Secondary yield (d) None ofthe above
lfi). Perce,ntage of water available on earth that is saline is
(a) 33o/o O) 67%
(c) 97% (d) 0%
101. For large sewer maximum distance betwee'lr manbole may be
(a) 50m O) l00m
(c) 200m (d) 300m
llX!. The following is not a section for desip ofsewer system :
(a) Semi circular O) ElliPtical
(c) Horse shoe (d) Circular
65 i0'54 m/s, C = coefficient, m = Hydraulic depth in m,
103. The formula V = 0.85 crno
i = sloPc, V : velocity in m/sec, is lnown as
(a) Manning's formula (b)Bazin's formula
(c) Hazen-Wiltam's formula (d)Crumb & Burga's formula
Scrfcr.A 22 SES-04
Text of page 320
f(X. A nahad traP is Provided
(a) * the head of cach house drain o) at the outlet end of eh house drain
(c) at the junction of two house drain (d) All the above
105. If V = velocity dg a = friction factor, R = Hydrautic Radius (m), S = slope of oncrgt
gradient in m/m. Maming's equation for design of amitry sewcm i3
(a) v=| nrzsm O) v=| azrsra
(c) v=uRasrz (d) v=nRtas4
106. Manholes covcrs re made circulu
(a) for architectural reason
(b) to stre, gthe,n the cover
(c) to prevent falling of cover into the mmholc
(d) to make the e,ntry convenieirt
1fi7. Sewage treame,nt units ale g€'n€rally designod for
(a) maximum flowonly O) minimum flow only
(c) averageflowonly (d) (a) md (b) both
llts The rate ofsludge accumulation in a scptic tark is generelly ofthe order of
(a) l0 lit/person/year O) 30 lit/pcrson/),E r
(c) 100 lit / person / year (O 25 lit / pcrson / year
llD. Ce,ment concrae sewers ue suitable if tre ro+gcoutiry volocityia baweot
(a) 2.5 to 3.0 m/s O) 3.0 to 3.5 m/s
(c) 3.5 to 4.5 m/s (d) 4.5 to 5.5 tr/s
110. The gas generally found in sewers is
(a) Hydrogen Sulphide O) Carbondi+xidc
(c) Methae (d) All the above
I I I . Non-circulr and circular sewers are hydraulically oqud whe'n
(a) Cross-sectional areas of thc two me the eame
(b) Hydraulic mean depths are the same
(c) discharge velocitiee are the same
(d) dischrge is the same
112. Which of the following are thc safay equipments normally requircd in sewcr mrrintcnaace
work ?
(a) Gas mask O) Oxygen-brcathing apparatus
(c) Non-sparking tools (d) All of the above
Scri.FA 2a SDS{14
Text of page 322
I 13. If d is the depth of filled sectioq D is the diameter of the circula sewer and 0 is the central
angle subtended by the filled section al the centre of the circular sewer, the,n the
proportional depth d/D is obtained by the following relation :
(a) *=i(,-*.3) o) 3=i(,-*,9
(c) ?=i(, -*'3) (d) Noneoftheabove
114. S.W. pipes are generally not used for sewer mains because they are
(a) weak in compression (b) weak in tension
(c) hydraulically less efficient (d) less resistance to organic corrosion
.lt
II5. The internal diameter ofthe sewer should not be less than ;I
(a) 15 cm (b) 25 cm
(c) 50 cm (d) 75 cm.
116. The desip discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
(a) equal to rahfall O) rainfall + I DWF
(c) rainfall + 2 DWF (d) rainfall + 6 DWF
117. In hilly towns norrrally _ manholes are provided.
(a) Gully O) Drap
(c) AC (d) None ofabove
11& In order to keep the solid matter in suspended form, a certain minimum velocity of flow is
required, otherwise the solid particles will settle in the sewer, resulting in its clogging,
such a minimum velocity is known as
(a) critical velocity O) limiting velocity
(c) selfcleaning velocity (d) none of the above
119. The slope of 1.0 m diameter concrete sewer laid at a slope of I in 1000, develops a
velocity of I m/sec, when flowing full. When it is flowing half fult, the velocity or flow
through the sewer will be
(a) 0.5 m/s O) 1.0 m/s
(c) 1B u. (d) 2.0 rn/s
120. Shift ofa curve is
(a)
L2 L
(b)
6R 24R
L2 L2
(c) i*, (d)
24R l6R
Sericr.A 26 SE${N
Text of page 324
121. The lenglh of a ranging rod should be
(a) 1.5 to 2.0 m o) 2to3.0m
(c) 3 to 4.0 m (d) 2.5 to 4.5 m
122. Which of the following instruments is generally used for base line measureme,nts ?
(a) Chain (b) Metallict4e
(c) Steel tape (d) Invar tape
123. The method of finding out the difrerence in elevation bawoen two points for eliminating
the effect ofcurvature and refraction, is
(a) reciprocal levelling O) precise levelling
(c) differential levelling (d) flying levelling
124. If the distance between two poitrts A and B is I tm, the combined correction,for curvature
and refraction will be
(a) 0.6730m (b) 0.06735 m
(c) 1.0673 m (d) 1.6730 m
I 25. In the context of staff reading the corrections for curvature and refraction respectively re
(a) +and- (b) +and+
(c) -and+ (d) -and-
126. Bowditch Rule is applied in the adjustment of
(a) Open taverse O) Closed taverse
(c) Local attraction (d) None of the above
127. Curves in a vertical plane used to join two interscting grade lines or curves are called
(a) Compound curve O) Transition cauve
(c) Vertical curve (d) Reverse curve
128. Which of the following irstnrment is not used for plane table sunrey ?
(a) Plumb bob O) Theodolite
(c) Spirit level (d) Alidade
f
29. The radius of a simple circular curve is 30 m and the length of the specificO &rord is 3O m.
The degree of the curve is
'(a) s7.2g (b) s3.70
(c) ss.60 (d) 37.03
Serles-A 2t sD+p4
t
Text of page 326
130. An object situatod on other side of a riv€r and in rressible from plane table station can be
located by
(a) radiation O) intersection
(c)' traversing (d) resection
l3l. Probable error of arilhmaic mean of 'n' obscrvation is givc,n by, where E, is the probable
error of single obserrration.
E. E3
(a) + o) r/n- I
vn
(c)
E3
r/n+ I
(d)
f*
132. Total angle ofdeflection oftrangition cuwe is equal to
(a) spiral angle o) !2 spiral mgle
I !. spiral angle
(c) spiral angle (d)
3 4
133. Cross hair in surveying telescop€ are fitted
(a) in the objective glaas o) at the centse oftelescope
(c) at the optical ce,ntre of the eye piece (d) in the front ofeye piece
l3{. The correction to bc applied to each 30 m chain length along 0o slope is
(a) 30 (sec 0 - l)m O) 30 (sin 0 - l)m
(c) 30(cos0- l)m (d) 30(cor0- l)m
135. The number of horizontal c,ross hairs in a stadia diryhragrr is
(a) I O)2
(c) 3 (d) 4
136 The tangent length for a circulr cunre of radius R, if A is the deflection angle, is given by
(a) R*+ O) RranA
(c) TzRtanA (d) tn*0lo
137. The correction for sag is
(a) alwap additive
O) always substractive
(c) always zcro
(d) some time additive and some time substractive
Shrlc!.A :m SFS.ll4
Text of page 328
138. The length of long chord and tangent of a circular curve if radius R will be equal, if the
angle ofdeflection is
(a) 30o O) 90"
(c) 60o (d) l2O"
139. Main principle of surveying is to work
(a) from part to whole (b) ftom whole to part
(c) from higher level to lower level (d) fiom lower level to higher level
140. A circular curve is introduced to gradually change the
(a) direction (b) superelevation
(c) camber (d) slope
141. The chlorine dosage in water treatsnent depends upon
1. pH of water 2. CO2 3. Organic matter
(a) 7 and2 O) 2ail,3
(c) I and 3 (d) 1,2 afr,3
142. Afinosphere consists of 78% Nihogen and 2 I yo Oxygenby
(a) Weight O) Volume
(c) Density (d) None ofthe above
143. Sphere shaped bacteria are called
(a) Spiralla o) Bacilli
(c) Cocci (d) Trichobacteria
144. For sewage, flowing in old cast iron pipes, the value ofhead loss does
not depend on
(a) lengthofpipe (b) velocity offlow
(c) friction factor (O norie ofthe above
145. Tularemia disease is due to
(a) Bacteria o) Vin$
(c) Protozoa (d) All ofthe above
146. The colifonn organism in 100 mr of drinking water should not be more
than
(a) 1000 @) 4s0
(c) 2so (O I
147- The density in kg/cum (in situ) of well-compacted municipal solid
waste in landfill is in
the range of
(a) 100 to 300 (b) 310 to 500
(c) 550to 850 (d) 900 to 1100
Serlcs-A 32 sEs-{M
,, (
Text of page 330
1,t8. In break point chlorination the rcsidual chlorine
(a) is zero O) ls mrnrm[m
(c) is ma<imum ,nl (d) reappeals
149. The Water (Prevention and Contro,l of.!g[u!gn ) Act was enacted by Indian Parliament in
the Year
*'.r*
"' :r' '
(a) te72 (b) 1974
(c) le86 (d) r994
150. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource ?
(a) Coal (b) Water.
(c) Sunlight (d) None ofthe above
151. Storage ofwater by impounding is required where
(a) plenty of water is availablc in the stream in all seasons
O) exccss ofsuspended and dissolved maners are present in the wster
(c) therc is a large variation in quantity of the river flow from time to time
(d) none of the above
152. Cavities in toeth arc caused iffluoride concentration (mg/l) is less than
(a) l.s O) I
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
f 53. Tubidity in water is due to
(a) Algae o) Fung
(c) Organic salts (d) Colloidal particles
f 3{ In rapid sand filter the size of sand particles is desired in the mnge of
(a) 0.01 mmto0.lmm O) 0.02mmto0.3mm
(c) 0.35 mm to 0.6 mm (d) 2 mm to 5.0 mm
155. Solid waste reduction cannot be done by the follorviag :
(a) Reducing usefirl life ofproduct
O) Less use of material to marufacturc product t i'
(d) Alltheabove
156. Air valves are provided at
(a) Saddles o) Summits
(c) Dead end (d) Regularly at I lcn interval
Serlcc-A v sEs-,04
Text of page 332
157. In the physical composition of solid wastes following is considered :
(a) Density of solid waste rrF,pF ,o{b) Moisture content
(c) p^1i"1s 5ize analysis .+,ttrt, , rfd)
All above
rr+ \)j
158. If a : initial mass of sarnple, b - mass of sample after drying moisture content (7o) in
waste is given by formula
(a) (-d)"* o) (tuJ. 100
(c) (*J',* (d) (*")' I 00
159. Depletion of ozone layer in the stratosphere is likely to increa* the incidence of
(a) Lung cancer O) Skin cancer :
(c) Bronchitis (d) None ofthe above
160. The minimum suggested distance betweeir the bottom of.cesspool and the highest gragnd,
water table is
(a) 3.0m O) 5.0m
(c) 7.0m (d) 10.0m
161. Eflluent from a high rate Trickling filter is
(a) black and highly oxidised (b) lightly and oxidised
(c) brown aad not fully oxidised (d) well nitrified and free ftom odours
162. T"he unit in which both sedimentation and digestion p(rcesses of sludge take place
simultaneously is called
(a) Skimmingtank (b) Imhoff.-nt
(c) p"6i1us rqnk (d) Digestion tent .
163. Which of the following air pollutants is/re rerponsi$le fq pfutoc$mical smog ?
(c) Unbumt hydrocarbons (d) Carbonmonoxidc.
164. For the sarne solid conten! if the quantity of sludge with moisture conte,nt of 987q i!I:, ,,,
then the quantity of sludge with moiiture content bf 96% will-Ub i"
(a) .b O) t
(c) xx
, (d) i
Scrlcs-A 36 $ep.
Text of page 334
165. The end product after separation urd maerobic bact€rial digestion of organic municipal
solid wastes is called
(a) compost o) humus
(c) leachate (d) ashes
165. Silicosis is caused by which of the following ?
(a) oz O) Waste water
(c) Dust from cerne, rt factories (d) None of the above
167. The correct relation between Theoretical Orygen Dtmand (TOD), Biochemical Oxygen
Dernand @OD) and Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is
(a) TOD>BOD>COD (b) TOD>COD>BOD
(c) BOD>COD>TOD (d) COD>BOD>TOD
168. Which of the following is not having adverse effect on plant as air pollutant ?
(a) SOz O) COz
(c) Hydrogencyanide (d) None ofthe above
169. The chlorine demand of a water sample was found to be 0.2 mgl/. The amount of
bleaching powder containing 30% available chlorine to b€ added to heat one litre of such a
water sample is
(a) 0.67 mg (b) 0.06 mg
(c) 1.33 mg (d) 0.14 mg
170. To test Chemical olrygen Demand (COD) of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by
Potassium dichromate in the presence of
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid (d) Cihic acid
l7l. The minimum permissible degree of ourve for B.G. track in hilly area should be
(a) 16" O) l0o
(c) 40o (d) 50"
172. Forecast ofpopulation for water supply is done using
(a) Arithmetic Mean Method (b) Comparative Method
(c) Gr4hical Method (d) All the above
173. Method generally employed for desip of distributed network are
(a) Hardy{ross Method (b) Equivalent Pipe Method
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None ofabove
Series-A 38 sE$tl4
Text of page 336
174. The total rcquirement of water is artived by using the following code :
(a) 1171-1963
IS O) IS 1172-1963
(c) Isi 1173-1962 (d) IStt72'1962
175. Thc pipe meaat to carry overflow fiom batbs, wash basins and sinks to the drain are callcd
(a) Soilpipcs (b) Vcntilatingpipes
(c) Waste water pip€s (d) Anti-siphonago pipes
176. Method of distributing water are
(a) Gravitysupply (b) Pumped upply
(c) Pumped storage supply (d) All the above
177. A septic tank is a water resistmt r"nk wherc thc following operation takes place :
(a) sedimentation
O) sedime,ntation and digestion
(c) digestion
(d) decorposition oforganic and inorganic matter
17& The prese,nce of calcium and magncsiwn chloride in water causes
(a) softening O) bad tastc
(c) bardness (d) tubidity
179. Alum is a
(a) coagulant o) flocculmt
(c) catalyst (d) disinfectent
lfl). In a scdimeirttion tank
Lcngth - L width-B
D€ptt-D Dischrge- Q
Settling velsity of a particle is
(a) # o) _a-
ID
(c) qL (d) QBL
l8l. Tb targct of achieving an overall dcnsity of road le,nglh in third twenty yea Road
Developm€ot Plan (1981- 2001) was
(a) 32kmllo0h2 &) 45.7hillooh2
(e) 82 l@/100 km2 (d) l0o kD/100 km2
Scrtor-A 40 SD$IX
Text of page 338
1E2. In which ofthe following snrdies desire lieni are used ?
(a) studies
Speed O)Origin and destination studies
(c) Accident studies (d) None ofthe above
1t3. Grade compe,Dsation is not necessary for gradie,nts less than
(a) t% O) 2o/o
(c) 3o/o (d) 4o/o
184. Top ofrails ofa tack are placed
(a) horizontal (b) at an outward slope of I in 30
(c) at an inward slope of I in 20 (d) at an outward slope of I in 20
1t5. The shape of transition curve used by Indian Railway is
(a) Spiral O) Cubic parabola
(c) Sine curve (d) Circular
186. Based on location and firnction, Nagpur Road Plan has classified the roads in India in
(a) 2 categories O) 4 categories
(c) 5 categories (d) 6 categories
1&7. For cerrent concrete roads following camber is sufficient :
(a) | -z%o (b) 10 - ls %
(c) 25-30% (d) None ofthe above
lt& The formula for calculating superelevation for the hill road is
(a) ru) "=*
"=*
v2
(c) e:l7a (d)
y2
"=mp
where V is speed of vehicle and R is radius ofcurve.
I t9. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is
(a) 66.7 mm (b) 70.1mm
(c) 121.6 tnm (d) 136.0mm
190. A track is elastic mainly because of
(a) rail o) sleeper
(c) ballast (d) formation
Scrior-A 42 sEs{t4
Text of page 340
191. The rails are laid without bending at the cunre, where the degree of curve is
(a) less than 30 O) equal to 3o
(c) 4" (d) 50
192. Creeping ofrails can be checked by
(a) shairs (b) bearing plates
(c) anchors (d) spikes
193. In India, the raling gndient provided in plains for one locomotive ffain is
(a) 1 in 150 to I in 200 (b) I in 200to I in 250
(c) I in 250 to I in 300 (d) I in 300 to I in 350
194. Recommended grade oftar for grouting purpoqe is
(a) Rr-l (b) Rr-2
(c) Rr-3 (d) Rr-s
195. The Bitume,n grade 80/100 indicates
(a) penetration value (b) kinernatic viscosity
(c) API gravity (d) dynarnic viscosity
196. The walls which are necessary orr the hill'side of roadways where earth has to be retained
from slipping is called
(a) retaining wall (b) breast wall
(c) parapet wall (d) None ofthese
197. Traffic conflicts that may occur in a rotary inter-section are
(a) merging and diverging O) crossing and merging
(c) crossing and diverging (d) srossin& merging and diverging
198. In a shunting signal if fi6 r.4 6-6 is inclined at 45' it indicates
(a) stop (b) proceed
(c) proceed cautiously (d) none ofthe above
199. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first decreases and then increase,s after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
(d) first increases and the,n decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
2fl). Acute junctions are of the following tlpes :
(a) allpanedtype (b) slip round tlpe
(c) islandtype (d) All the above
Series-A u sEs{t4
I
Text of page 342
Space For Rough 1ryo.1 7 16tr{ *'frqEflr{
Serles-A 46 SE$IX
Text of page 346
AGRICT'LTI]RAL ENGII\EERING
PAPER-I
I The average capacity cubic m€ter of septic tatrk should not be less tban
(a) 2.s O) 2.1
(c) 2.o3 (d) z.ot
2. \Yhich is the strongest concrete mir ?
(a) l:2:4 O) 1:3:6
(c) l:4:8 (d) l:5:10
3. For slabs ard beams the grade of concrete mix generally used is
(a) l:2:4 G) 1:3:6
(c) l:4:8 (d) l:5:10
4. Rittinger's and Kick's law are related with
(a) Size rcduction O) Heat transfe,t
(c) Mass transfer (d) Momeatum
l. To sqrarate mustard from wheat the recommended separator is
(a) sepuatu
Indent cylinder O)
Specific gravity separator
(c) Spiral separator (d)
Air screen eeporator
6. ln which region of the corntry, Kothar type storage strucnlles are used
(a) East€m O)
lVest€m
(c) Northe,m (d) Soutbn
7. Amount of food grain consumed by one rat in a year is kC
(a) s O) l0
(c) 15 (d) 20
E. Rice polishing involves
(a) Removal of dust particles
O) Removalofhuskfrompaddy
(c) Removal of b,ran layer from hown rice
(d) Addition of white coating
9. Holding time under HTST pasteurizer is
(a) 15 seconds o) 30 seconds
(c) 45 seconds (d) I minute
10. Percent dal yield by CFTRI oethod is about
(a) 60 O) 7o
(c) 80 (d) 90
11. Sepration of grain by screening is done on the basis of
(a) Size O) Colour
(c) Tcxhlrc (d) None ofthe above
Serlc*.A 2 SESrll9
Text of page 348
lL Method used for cleaning of HTST pastcurizer is called
(a) sIP O) uP
(c) CIP (d) DIP
13. In thin layer drying, the grain d€pth is limited up to cm.
(a) 20 O) &
(c) 60 (d) 80
- oC.
14. In HTST pasteurizer, milk 15 fosaffi to at least
(a) s2 O) 62
(c) 72 (d) 82
-
15. Flow diversion valve is a part of
(a) Pasteurizer (b) Grader
(c) Dryer (d) Huller
15. Pycnometer method is used to determine
(a) Specific heat O) SPecific height
(c) Specific gravity (d) Specific energy
17. Which chemical is not used o control insects during grain storage ?
(a) Phosphine G) MethYle-Bromide
(c) Ethyline-di-bromide (d) Nitrogen
lt Safe moisture content for storing grains is %
(a) ts -20 (b) l0- 13
(c) 4-8 (d) 20-27
19, In a controlled atmosphere, storage of Auits, aPart from temPeraoue it is the level of the
following which is controlled :
(a) Oxygenalone (b) Ninogen alone
(c) Carbondioxide (d) Both carbon-di-oxide and oxygen
2fr. Respiration of grains generates
(a) Heat, oxygen and moishtrc
(b) Heat, moisore and carbon-di-oxide
(c) Hear, moisture and nirogen
(d) None ofthe above
21, The sequence of growth phases of micro-organism is
(a) Lag-Iogarithmic-docay-stationary
(b) Iogarithmic-lag-sationarydecay
(c) lngarithmic-lag{ecay-statimary
(d) l,ag-logarithmic-stationarydecay
?;L The vertical distance betweea any two consecutive contours is called
(a) Vertical equivalent O) Horimntal equivalent
(c) Contourinterval (d) Contour gradient
ScrlcrrA 4 sEs{t9
Text of page 350
23. Expression is separation of liquid from solids by
(a) Drying O) Evaporation
(c) Comdensatioo (d) Applied pressure
2L The size of motrlds for bricks should be the specified size of the b'ricks
(a) equal to O) smaller than
(c) longer than (d) none of the above
-
25. The difference between initial and equilibrium moisfiue content of a food is known as
(a) Unbound noisure content (b) Bound moisturc content
(c) Critical moisture content (d) Free moisture content
26. For steady state processes, accumulation of both mnss and energl will be
(a) less ttanzero (b) more than zero
(c) zqro (d) infinite
n. Most commonly used solvent in solvent extraction of oil is
(a) t€trachloride
Cafton O)
Petroleum spirit
(c) Kerosene (d)
Hexane
X Air temperarure in solar &ying in comparison to srm drying is kept
(a) lower (b) equal
(c) higb€r (d) multiple
D. Bulk grain can be stored flat upo a height of about -_--________ m
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.s
(c) 3.0 (d) 3.5
30. The entire Sukhui tlTe storage strucnEe supported by masonry pillar is 6 high as
_m
(a) 1.2 o) 1.35
(c) t.45 (d) 1.5
31. In Indian vegetarian diet pulses are major source of
(a) Carbohydmrc O) Protein
(c) Vitrmin A (d) vir.rnin B
32. In solvent extraction the quantities of oil left in cake is found as %
(a) 2to3 O) 1.5 ta2
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.7s
3.3. Which of rhe following is related to ISU dryer :
(a) Iondon State University O) Ludhiam Stat€ University
(c) Lousiana SAte University (d) Nome of the above
Scrlca.A 6 sE6{t
Text of page 352
v. The main factors responsible for the losses in quality and quantity of food gfains are
(a) Insects o) Rodens
(c) Dampness (d) All of the above
35. Hendersons' equation is used to det€rmirc
(a) Critical moisture conrcnt O) Critical temperatue
(c) Equilibrium moister content (d) None of ttre above
35. Operations like cleaning, grading drying, shelling, huling, polishing and grinding of
cereals are known as
(a) Pre-harvest technology of cereals
O)' Post-harvest techtrology of cereals
(c) Food t€cbtrology
(d) All of the above
37. Bukhari type structures are gercrally used to store
(a) Fodder O) Water
(c) Ctrain (d) Vegetables
3t. Food spoilage occurs due to
(a) Bacteria (b) Molds
(c) Yeast (d) All of the above
39. ISU type dryer was developed in
(a) rndia (b) England
(c) U.S.A. (d) Camda
q. Famstead should be located near a source of permanent
(a) Road O)
School
(c) supply
Electric (d)
Water supply
41. Each bag full of cement weighs about kC
(a) 30 (b) q
(c) 50 (d) fi
A. Lime and sand a good mix is considered to have the ratio of
(a) l:1 O) l:1.5
(c) l:2 (d) l:2.5'
43. Polishing is generally done in case of
(a) Wheatmilling O) Ricemilling
(c) Pgl milling (d) Gram milling
4 Maxim"m moisule cotrtent (w.b.) for safe sorage of wheat is %
(a) 20 O) 18
(c) 13 (d) 8
.t!t. In a bag stor:age structure the clear distance between the stacks is kept as m
(a) I (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
ScrteA t sEs.09
Text of page 354
6. The recommended temgeranue (oC) for safe storage of grapes is
(a) 4to5 o) l0 to 15
(d) ?n@25
(c) -ltol
qr. The ideal relative huuidig (%) for onioo storage is
(a) 60-70 O) 7o-7s
(c) 80-85 (d) 90-95
4& lte recomrnended relativ-e humidity for safe etorage of potalo is' i ''
- .rt
%
(a) 85 -90 o) 60-80
(c) 50-60 (d) 40-50
49. The recommended temperature fo safe storage of cabbage is "C
(a) -5 O) 0
(c) 5 (d) l0
50. The desired temperanfie for apple storagc is "C
(a)l O)s
(c) lo (d) 4
51. Janssen's equation is used to desip a
-
(a) Shallow bin (b) DcepbiD
(c) Bulfiari (d) IfuNhar
52- An ideal tqerature for sttragE of Potato is .o-C
(a) -5 (b) 0
(c) 4 (d) l0
53. Oilfromoilcakeisremovedby
(a) Expeller o) Ghmi
(c) Rotary mill (d) Solvc,Et extraction
54 Perpent oil conent in paftoiled paddy bran is
(a) l0 G) 2A
(c) 30 (d) 40
55. Partoiliag of rice includes the action of
(a) Water and chemical (b) Oil and chemical
(c) Watcr and teqerature (d) None of the above
56. The refrigcration is Epasur€d in tcrms of
(a) Kilogran d\rr Ton
(c) Iouleg b (d) Hore power
Srdc*.A 10 Stf,l0:'.t o
Text of page 356
Cl. Which is not the structutE us€d b store grain in nnal areas ?
(a) Dahej O) Morai
(c) Kothar (d) Kanaj
5& A process in which both, tte system and surrorrnding by any means what so ever rehrm to
their initial stafes after completion of process is known as
(a) Irreversible p,rocess O) Reversible process
G) Complex proccss (d) Simple procees
59. In grain separation thc aryte of inclination of screens from horizontal generally ranges as
degrec
(a) 20 -?s O) 15 - 18
(c) 4-t2 (d) 0-3
6.l. -Classification of cleaned products into variors quality fiactions OoeenOing upon various
comme,rcial values and other usages is lnown as
(a) Packaging O) Grading
(c) Mixing (d) Fixing
51. Which is not the eize reduction process ?
(a) Cnrshing O) ImPact
(c) Shearing (d) Mixing
6L The moisture content anaircd by a grain with rcspcct to a set of afmm@ic te'EPeraffie
and relative humidity is loown as
(a) Normal moisture cotrtent (b) Equilib'rium moisturc content
(c) Critical moisture content (d) Average moistur€ cooElt
63. Emry rollers are used in
(a) Wh€at mitring O) Q66a milling
(c) hrlsc rnilling (d) None of the above
& Rankine's formula is used to detcrmine
(a) Pressure O) TemPcrahrre
(c) Relativehumidity (d) Dryingthrc
65. During wintEr of the grains remains warmcr than the remaindcr of the bin
(a) near the wall
(b) centre of the bin below the up,per surfacc
(c) ccnte of-the bin near the bouom
(d) none of the above
6 Tolucne displacement method is used o determine
(a) Viecosity O) Bultd€nsity
(c) Truc deDsity (d) Moistrc content
61. Viability of seede can be increased by
(a) inocasing t€mpaaturE and dccreasing moisure
O) inoeasing both rcnperarurc ard Doisture cont$t
(c) &crcaeing bolh teryeranrc and moishlE contcnt
(d) dccreasing tcmperatulc and increasing moisture
e "8t*A t s8{,
Text of page 358
6E. The boostcr PumP is used itr
(a) LTlTPasteurization o) IITST Pasteurization
(c) Homogenization (d) Centrifirgal separation
59 Power rcquired for centrifugal pury is proportional to Where n is speed of
the puop.
--,
(a) n o) n2
(c) n3 (d) none of the above
70. PartoilingofPaddYisa
(a) thermal treatment oolY o) hydrothcrmal teatment
(c) hydro ueatment onlY (d) none of the above
71. Gmshof number is used in
(a) Confuction he€t transf€r O) Radiation heatranda
(c) Convection heat ransf€r (d) Qsav€ctieamnss transfer
7L Quality of grain during drying is d€pendent otr temp€'rature of
(a) hot air 6) ambient air
(c) gain (d) exhaust air
73. Net Positive suction llead (NPSID _ wit! increase in discharge pt'esslll€
(a) decr€ases O) increases
(c) remains constant (d) nonc ofthe above
oC
74. Seed grain <kying tempcr'ature is generally recomrcndcd as
(a) 60 O) 75
(c) 80 (d) 45
75. Wct bulb temp€ratle lines on psychrometric chart are -
(a) horizontal O) vcrtical
(c) inclined (d) curved
76 Insufficient flow by the centrifugal pump is due o
(a) s@toohigh O) suctionlifttoohigh
(c) impeller passage too clcan (d) none ofthe above
n. h a solvent extraction prccess of oit, pellaization is tte process ooruurn to thc
prepamtion of
(a) Soybean O) Groundnut
(c) Ricebran (d) Rapesed
7& At a constant speed of positive displacement pumps, tho dischargc rat€ with
increasc in heat
(a) increases O) decreases
(c) reoaitrs constant (d) nonc oftbc above
-
7!t. In chain surveying, following lines arc used :
(a) Base line, chcck line, contou line
(b) Baso line, contour line, tie line
(c) Check line, tie line, contour line
(d) Base line, check line, tie line
Scrloc-A 14 SES49
Text of page 360
t0. In plane surveying
(a) the cunranre of the earth is consideted
O) the surveys extent 6vs1 smsl'l alEas
(c) the surveys extend over large aras
(d) none ofthe above
tl. The area of the plot can be calculated by
(a) Mid cdinate nrle or average orrdinate rule
O) Trapezoidal rule or SimPson rule
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None ofthe above
r
tL Infallingfilmevaporator, theboilingpointisinflrieiicdlbi' rt'tr!'
(a) HydrostaticPressure
(b) Extemal pre.ssur€
(c) Both external pressure and hydrostatic head
(d) None ofthe above
el. The thim€r us€d for oil paint is
(c) caftotr t€tra chloride (d) none of the above
E4. Pseudoplastic fluids are
(a) shear rate thinning
(b) shear rate thickening -.l.i .
(c) time dependent
(d) both shear rate thinning and time dqbndent
t5. Wteat milting involves
(a) Break rolls and enrery'rolls ' (b) Reduction rolls and enery rolls
(c) Break rolls and reductim rollr (d) None ofthe above : "
E6. If n, is thearnount of husk, n, the arnount of unhulled grains.and q is the toal quantity of
grains, the effectiveness of hulling is
(a) (q-g/n, O) (n, -n Vn,
(c) Gr-g/ng (d) (n,-q/nt
tl. The quick hardening cement develops its fiIll strength afrer sening within
(a) two days O) ihree aaye
(c) fourdays (d) five daYs
t& The common size of bricks made in India is
(a) 20.5 x 10.25 x 7.5 cm O) 21.5 x 11.25 X 7.5 cn '
(c) 22.5x11.25x7.5cm (d) U.5xl2.5x7.5cm
t9. A planimeter is uscd o
(a) measure length of contour lines
O) measure area of a closed plan
(c) &aw contour lines
(d) survey in waler
Serlcc,A 16 SES"||9
I \
Text of page 362
9G Thc dircnsion of calcie arc
(a) NilT-2 (b) MLT2
(c) I\rL-2fr (d) Iv[-zrl
gL The parameter which ie least iryctant for selcction of a prry for irigadon ic
(a) Discharge O) Hurcpowct
(c) Ilead (d) Qualityofwater
,L Io an opcn channel water flowo duc to
(a) fore of gPvitY (b) atmosphcre p,rcssure
(c) dynamic preseure (d) static presue
9& Hydraulic jump is usedo
(a) increase flow encrgr (b) dissipole flow eoergy
(c) rcduccdep6offlow (d) none of tte above
t+ If tte value of Frqr& number is less thatr mp, the flow will be
(a) Critical flow (b) Supcr critical flow
(c) Sub-critical flow (d) Lominar flow
95. When both ends of a survey line uc not intcrvisible, thcn tbe method of ranging uscd as
(a) dircct ranging me6od (b) indirect ranging mclhod
(c) iqroper raneiry Eelhod (d) none of the above
'!X. In an qen channel flow, thc specitrc energy at critical flow condition would be
(a) Minimum (b) Maximun
(c) Average (d) ?ao
n. One squarc kilomctre Gm2) area ir equal to h€ctre
(a) 100 O) 1000
(c) l0 (d) &
S. A tlpe of survcy in which the curvanre of -
earth is taken into account is callcd ac
(a) Plane table survey O) Cieodctic sunrey
(c) Reconoaissance survcy (d) Nooc of the above
lD, The upper moot linc of scepge in an carth dam is also called as
(a) Water Eessure line (b) Hydraulic gradient line
(c) Pfuatic line (d) Parabolic sec,pagp line
lO. Co[torr lines, croes ridge lincs and valley lines ue on the aogle of
(a) 45o (b) 90o
(c) lEO" (d) 60P
101. Contor lim is a liqe joining the points of
(a) cqualelovation (b) equal slope
(c) cqul bearing (d) nonc of the abovc
SabA lt sE80
Text of page 364
lOL Which is thc method related to plane table survey ?
(a) Conduction method (b) Radiation method
i.l Multiplicatioa method (d) Subtraction method
103. In a pipe of uniform diameter loss of bc€d ar exit is
(a) 'i\rice that at inlet O) Four times thrt at inlet
G) One half at inlet (d) Samc as that at inlet
1(X. When water is added o ceoent ?
(a) Chemical reaction starts (b) Heat is abcofted
(c) Heat is generated (d) None of the above
105. Irregular area may be computed by an instnrmeirt known as the
(a) Partograph (b) Ptadnetcr
(c) Passometer (d) S@oret€r
105. The sum of interiu angle'e of a closed traversc is
(a) (2n-4)x90' (b) (24+4)x90o
(c) (n-4)x90o (d) (a+4)x9f
107. Pumps based oa method of energy imparted to thc liquid are
(a) Positive displaccment puq O) Variable displrcement pry
(c) Borh (a) and O) (d) Noae of thc above
10& The de,pth from which the liquid has to be lifted by the pump is lmown as
(a) Suctioohead (b) DeliverYhead
(c) Velocity head (d) Nome ofthe above
109. The cross slope of tte road is called
(a) Roadcrown o) Road gradient
(c) Road camber (d) None of the Sove
ff0. The quadrantal bearing in quadrantal system nevef, excceds
(a) 90o O) l80e
(c) 27O" (d) None ofthe above
111. Where is the submersible pump located ?
(a) over water in the weU
O) submerged in watcr but above draw down level
(c) submerged in warer below draw down level
(d) kept over ground
112. A suitable pump for a siuration where flooding is a hazrd is
(a) Turbine pump O) Centrifugal pump
(c) Submersible pump (d) None of the above
Scrler"A N sEs{tg
I
Text of page 366
113. A contour line rep'resents point of ,ft
(a) Differentelevations o) Equal elevations
(c) lteridgeline (d) The valley line
114 Increasing contours towards cetrtre repres€DB a k-'r.: .r;;
(a) Ridge O) Valley
(c) Hillock (d) Pond
115. A I km long straight line on 600 slo,pe will meqsure on a I : 1fi)00 scale as -a5i.orr-f,p
(a) 10 O) s
(c) (d) 0.5
; .,
116. Contour lines on a Dap cut one another only- in case of ..-, r.I n
(a) overhangirigcliff (b) aridgeline .
(c) avalley line (d) flat land
117. When the chain is found to be too long, the enor in measuring distance will be
(a) Positive ' (b)' Negative f;r I
(c) Compensating 'n'. t i (d) None of the above
I
11& Thc coricction to be applied to eacn'5d n cmin for a line measured along 60o sloie could
bem
(a) 3 (b) l0 r\\
(c) 15 (d) 45
ff9. A pipe of circular cross section of diameter 'd' is flowing half-fuII. It's hydraulic radius
rdll be
(a) d ' O) dt2 'i!
(c) dl3 (d) dt4
120. The hydraulic depth for a full-flowing semi-circular chpnel of radius 'r' will be
(a) t o) r12
(c) nl4 i\r i.,l )
(d) rD
121. If the Froude number for hydraulic ju4p is 4.0, it is called
jurnp
(a) Oscittating (b) Weak jump
(c) Steady jump (d) Strong jumP
UllL In a submersible pump, the motor and puop are such that
(a) only pump is submerged i
O) only motor is subrcrged
(c) both notu and pump are submerged
(d) none ofthe above
.i' i1
1113. Plasticity of concrete is measured by the
(a) Slump test o) Shesr test
(c) Reinforce rcst (d) None of the above
Scrlcs-A 22 r:riEfii0!,
I t
!
Text of page 368
T'A Which of the following glass is used in docs and windows ?
(a) Soda limc gtass (b) Lead glass
(c) Boro silicate glass (d) None of the above
t|,s. Ifthe spced ofa puop is doubled then thc head developed by it will be
(a) Double O) Tketircs
(c) Fourtires (d) Half
t26" The required shaft power for a centrifugal pump will be equal to
(a) Water horsepower / pump efficiency
O) Warcr horscpower x pump efficiency
(c) Pump efficiency / warer hosepower
(d) two times of water horsc,power
vn. A pump will not lift water, when
(a) direction of impeller rotation is reverse
O) pump is not primed high
(c) s@ of inpellcr is aes
(d) both (a) and (b)
tlI,. Pury efEciency is higberwhen
(a) iryeller blades are bent backward
(b) impeller are with straight blades
(c) impeller blades are ending radially
(d) all above
ttt. In a multistage centrifirgal pump
(a) trro or more impellers are keyed o a single shaft
O) iryellers are sunounded by gui& vancs
(c) pressur€ iB built in st€ps
(d) all above
130. Dynamic similarity between model and prototlpe means
(a)the similarity of forces (b)
the similarity of motion
(c)the similarity of shapp (d)
nme of the above
ilil. Elbows of large radius should be uscd toleduce frictiou and to have a flow of type
(a) turbulent O) uniform
(c) non-uniform (d) gravity flow
l:tz. In vertical urbine puup the shaft used rnadc of stainless steel in the length of only
(a) lm O) 2m
(c) 2.5m (d) 3 m
ut3. Mcthod of surveying in which tbe field wmh and ploniag are done simultaneously is
caltd
(a) Planctabling (b) Mapeing
(c) C.ompass sunreying (d) Drawing
r34 Tbe elcvation of a point can be determined by using the instrumc,nt named
(a) Cross staff O) Optical squar€
(c) dumpy level (d) Prismatic compass
Scrl*A u sEs49
Text of page 370
1it5. In a purying system, a float valve is placed at the
(a)
-cndofdeliverypipe O) endofsuctionpipe
G) bawcen suction pipe (d) ineide impeller of the pury
li5. Ftlfing-tcsting
watcr bcfore its opoation in a ce'ntrifirgll pump is calcd
<a) of pump G) energizing of pump
(c) primingofpury (d) noreoftheabove
1ii7. Dry ice is loown as
G) SofOn"a *arcr kept in moborc ftee cnvironment
O) Solidifiedheon-I2
(c) Solidifiedcarbondioxi&
(qt Solidifiednitrogen
13& T .hc specific encrgy diagram is a plot between specific energy and flow de,pth for a
m0stant
(i) Turbulence O) Discharge
(c) Specificforce (d) Specificyield
liD. Fu hig[ degrce of p,recision measuremcnt which type of tape is more suitable
(a) Clothtape O) MetallicuPc
(c) Stcel tape (d) Invar taPo
1(). Mcchanical efficiency of a centrifirgal pury is about
(a) &% O) fi%
(c) 90% (d) Noneoftheabove
Itll. hopeller pump arre used for
(a) low head and low discharge (b) high head and low discharge
(c) indcep tubewells with low suction (d) low head and high discharge
1t02. Gorge p,ressure at a point is equel to
(a) absolute pressure plus atmospheric pre.ssure
O) absolute Fe.ssure minus ahospheric pressnre
(c) vacuum prcssure plus abeolute pressure
(d) none ofthe above
143. Tbe opcration of levelling to.dctermine the elevation betweem two pohts is known as
(a) Simple levelling O) Fly levelling
(c) Difrerential levelling (d) None of the above
lrlrL The velocity with which water approaches a weir is called
(a) Velocity of flow O) Velocity of approach
(c) Velocity of Nappe (d) None ofthe above
lrl5. Thc discharge cspacity and efEciency of multistage pump is almost
(a) same as for a single suge of the pump
O) l6ss then as single stage pump
(c) more than single stage pump
(d) nonc ofthe above
ltrr{cr-A 26 SES'{19
t
Text of page 372
146 In gear pury number of gears fitted in a housing are
(a) on€ G) two
(c) thrce (d) four
14?. In an optical equare, the mirrus arc fxed at an angle of
(a) 3Oo ' i O) 60o
(c) 45o (d) 90"
. _.i
14& The impcllcr uscd for.pumpi4g sewerage is
(a) Op€n o)
(c) Non-clog (d) Od,6€d
149. Only linear EeasurErD€ob arc made by
(a) Ctain suwey O) Plane table survey
(c) Conpass survey (d) Theodolite suwey
150. Deposition at the boEom of a oeptic,tank is callcd
(a) Sewer G) Scum
(c) Sewerage " (d) Studge
151. Slump tcst ir pcrforoed to noaswe
(a) plasticityofconcretc (b) Young's nodulus of coacrete
(c) Coryressivc stress of coDctEE (d) Tensile stsess of concrrte
152. Gearpumpisa 1,., :r.:1 l:I
-,:q . .:-'
(a) Non-positivedisplacenentpqmp (b) Foeitivedirylacenentpump
(c) Centitugaltypepump (d) Noae ofthe above
Ul3. Cmtorulioos will always be
(a) Pamlcl b gffial slopc of the field (b) Across thc general slope of the field
154 The unit cost of aoy itcm of wortis dacrmid by using
(a) Specificotion O) Volune analyris
(c) Rarc analysis
" 14,Jd{ *.!ep..gomiS analysis ,-.i{ ., ..,
155. The rners of a subduace is ocasurod by
(a) Springbalance (b) Bcambalance.
(c) Caloriooter (O Hylrpoeter , ::l
1115. A mcchanical devicc uscd to incrcasc tbe pessure encrgy of a liquid is caluilt
(a) Machine O) Engine i''
(c) Pury (d) Allabove ;
f!2. tte otlect of a survey is to pqarc pran 6imap so tnatit nriy'repqefot oc *"
(a) Vertical plaae O) Huircntal plane "L"
(c) Circular phnc (d) None of the irbove
Salcr.A a .sEs{9
Text of page 374
lll& In Metric chain the length of cach link of tc chain is --
(a) 100 O) lsO
(c) 2fi (d) 2so
- idooticd nuncrical vdrs fa a
159. Celeius 8trd Fshrenhcit trry€raffrc scales havc tbe
tenperanne of
(a) O oC G) -40 oC
(c) -212"C (d) 32oC
160. A one cubic meter pcr eecond dischalpe is equal to liEe./scc@d
(a) 100 G) l0
(c) 1000 (d) s0
161. The tcng0 sf Fngineer's cbain is ft -
(a) s0 O) 100
(c) 2@ (d) ,l{)0
- which is pcrformod by having a singlc *atim ooly
l6:L Tho Ee6od of plane table surveying
(a) RadiatiotrEcthod (b) Intcrecctimmhod
(c) Travereirymcltod (d) Nonc oftbe abovc
16il. The rethod used to balance tI€ traverse is bascd on
(a) Risc aod fall ncthod O) Bowdirch's nrlc
(c) Collirnation nethod (d) Nonc of ttc above
164. Which of thcsc pumps arc abo calledthe axial flowpump ?
(a) C€oEitugBlFrry O)
GcorPury
(c) Propellopury (d) Noneoftheabovo
16t1. If Reynold's numb€r for a flow is 1500, tho flow would bc
(a) Irminarflow O)Turbuleirt flow
(c) Traosicntfbw (d) Noncofthcabovc
166. The impcllcr of a ceotrifugal prmp is gmcraly Eado of
(a) Stoel O)
Aluminium
(c) Castlrctr (d) CoePcr
1d7. The procese of strrengtbening the concreto by hydration of eurfrc is cdlcd
(a) Finishing O) Curing
(c) Mining (d) Reiufdcing
16& In pipc f,ows, thc frictional hcad loro is invcrecly propotiooal to
(a) Lcog0ofpipc (b) Squarcoflm$hofptF
(c) Diauacrofpipc (d) Squatlof dia@of dDo
8rlr.A ,C fitO
Text of page 376
bc
169. If tb slopes of channel bottom, hydraulic line and e,ncrgy line are equal the flow would
(a) Unifcm (b) Non-uniform
(c) Steady (d) None of the above
170. In a roctangular open channet" the qitical flow acnoss at 2 E dePth of flow, the specific
cn€rgy at ttir depth wiU be m
(a) I O)2
(c) 3 (d) 4
-
171. In an opcn channel flow, the spocific force for ctitical flow condition will be
(a) 7lro O) Avcrage
(c) Maxinun (d) Minimum
172. WhGn Mach nuobcr is more thnn l, the s@ of object will be
(a) Sonic O) SuPcr-sonic
(c) Subsonic (d) none of the above
173. Dip of nagpFric occdle at cquator fu deSree
(a) zcro G) 45
(c) 90 (d) 180
-
174 Whici punp opcrates using the conpreqed air injccted into water
(a) Verticalnubinepunp O) Airliftpump
(c) Submcrsiblepurnp (d) GearPury
f?5. ltc spod of a ccncifirgal pnmp N, and its dischargp Q are relatcd as
(a) Q*N O) Q*M
(c) Q* N (d) Qe ]11/2
176 Power rcquircocnt of a ccntrifugal pump will bccome maximuo' wheo iocmeasiag
(a) Diametcrooly O) S@of PunPonlY
(c) Diarcterands@bolh (d) Noneoftheabove
17. Ilcrddcvelqcd by accnrifirgal pump is popctional to
(a) Squucof a@of pump (b) S@of pmp
(c) Cubcofspccdofpury (d) Squarerootofs@ofpunp
l?t A thcodolite can measur€
(a) Diffcrence in level o) Bearing of line
(c) Zcoith angle (d) All the above
179. In brick wall constructioo when altcrnative cour*s have header aad stletchg, tbe bond il
called
(a) Fnglishbond O) Flemishbond
(c) Alt€mate bond (d) Nonc of the above
s*.A t, sf,ll49
Text of page 378
E-
1E0. Nozzle and vennri srE mein compo,n6ats of
(a) Centrifugal PurnP o) Jet pump
(c) Reciprocating pumP (d) Submersible pump
Itl. Grouting is a mixture of
(a) I : 2 parts cement and sand + water
O) I : 4 parts cement and sand + water
(c) 2 : 4 parts cement and sand + water
(d) None ofthe above
1E2. Which is the weakest concrete ?
(a) l:2r4 (b) I 3 6
(c) I :4:8 (d) I 5 I 0
183. Hollow bricks are used for
(a) Earthquake Proof [uilding (b) Reducing the cost
(c) Resistant against heat flow (d) Ornamental design
1t4. Which one of thc following is fluidised solid ?
(a) Flour O) Fruit juice
(c) Honey (d) coz
ItS. Open impeller is used in pumps to draw
(a) Clear water O) Water mixed with sand and clay
(c) Viscous liquid (d) None ofthe above
-
lE5. One ton refrigeration is equivdent to K caUmtn
(a) s0 (b) 500
(c) 1000 (d) 2000
-
lE7. A thin layer of qoal ur is applied on the surface of timber for
(a) Protection O) Preservation
(c) Insect resistance (d) None of the above
18t. Brine is solution of
(a) Sodium chloride in water o) Sugar + Magnesium chloride in water
(c) Ferrous chloride in water (d) Ammonia and glycerine
189. Action within a septic tank is
(a) Aerobic o) Anaerobic
(c) Aerobic and anaerobic both (d) None of the above
190. Anidealfluidis
(a) Incompressible (b) Does not resist shear
(c) Has zero viscosity (d) All the above
Scri€-A v sEs{9
(
I
Text of page 380
This
19I. Tte channels of fust kitrd have a unique depth in uniform flow for a given discharge'
unique depth is called as
(a) depth
Special O) Critical depth
G) Uniform depth (d) Alternate depdr
192. A hand pump is an example if which type of pump :
(a) Turbinepump O)
Centrifugalpump
(c) Submersible pump (d) Reciprocating pump
193. A rectangular cross section is the most efficient when the flow depth is equal to
(a) Bottom width (b) Halfofbottomwidth
(c) Two times of bottom width (d) Four times of bottom width
194. If pump is not lifting required amount of water then the pump is suffering with the
problem of
(a) speedmaybeveryhig[ o) suction head may be very low
(c) suction pipe maY be chocked (d) none of the above
195. Water can be lifted from depth beyond 45 meters by
(a) Centrifugal pump O) Submersible pump
(c) Propellerpump (d) Jet PumP
196. The sum of pressure head and elevation head is known as
(a) Kjnetic head O) Critical head
. (c) Pieznmetric head (d) Acceleration head
19. In material construction, the word R.C.C. stands for
(a) Raised Cost Calculations
(b) Reinforced Cement Concrete
(c) ReinforcedCriticalConsruction
(d) Rat€ Contract Calculations
198. Which of the following will have least value oJ thermal conductivity :
(a) Copper O) Water
(c) Glass (d) Air
199. Which cons1ilo"a1 6f \r,,[st6 milk is not available in 5f,i6 milk powder ?
(a) Protein (b) Fat
(c) Carbohydrate (d) AII the above
200. Testing of sones is done by
(a) Stnith's test (b) Acid test
(c) Absorption test (d) AII of the above
Series-A x sEs.{t9
I
Text of page 383
Spoce For Rough Work / mud tffiqqqf SES!0, 39 Series-A
Text of page 386
AGRICTJLTT]RAL ENGINEERING
PAPER,- TI
1. l,aminar flow condition in open channel exists if the Reynold's dumb€r is less than
(a) 5m O) 2000
(c) 15m (d) 1000
2, How the emitter flow varies with kinematic viscosity in non-orifice typ€ emitters ?
(a) Directly proportional O) lnversely proportional
(c) Square root of kinematic viscosity (d) None of the above
3. A parshall flume can be used convbniently on
(a) flatter grades O) mild slopes
(c) both(a)and(b) (d) None of the above
4. A cut tbroat flume is a modiEed form of
(a) Cipoletti weir o) Parshall flume
(c) H-flume (d) None of the above
S. Wheat crop requires 45 cm of water during 120 days of its irriguion period. The total area
ofland iffigated with a flow of20 tps for 22 hours a day shall be
(a) w2jAtn (b) 42.2Ahs
G) 204.?Aha (d) Nmeoftheabove
6. Sides ofan earthen cbaonel will be stable if its slope
(C) does not exceed the angle of repose O) excee{s tde angle of repose
(c) is kept sarc as angle of repoee (d) None of the above
7 The best hy&aulic cross-s€ction of a trapezoiOal channel under favorablc strucflal
conditioa ie
(a) b=X. o) b=dt2
(c) b=2ituOt2 (d) b=4d
t. The averagO power coefEcient of the standard USWB class A pan evaporimepr used for
evaporatiotr is
(a) 0.8s G) 0.70
(c) 0.90 . (d)1.00
9. Iq chcck basin desip thc usefol thumb nrle is 6st the ntio of waler spread tire rcquired
to cover the entip basin to thc tinc required to infltrate ttc net depth of irrigatiolt is
(a) 0.2s O) o.75
(c) 2.OO (d) Noneoftheabove
Srirtce-B 2 SES40
Text of page 388
10. In drainage projects the desip return pcriod usually ranges from
(a) 5 - 25 years o) 25 - 50 years
(c) 50 - 75 years (d) 75 - 100 yars
11. Steady state drainage desip equ4tion assumes that the drain discharge -
(a) exceeds the recharge to the ground water
O) equals the recharge to the ground water
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None ofthe above
12. Saline soil has a pH value
(a) > 8.5 o) Equal to 8.5
(c) 8.5 to 10.5 (d) less than 8.5
13. The thickness of a spillway apron depends on
Water velocity
(c) Upliftpressure (d) AII of the above
14. Darcy's law is valid for
(a) Trrbulent flow o) Laminar flow
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Non6 of the above
15. If the speed of a centrifirgal pump is double4 the power required will be increased by
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times
(c) 6 times (d) 8 times
16. The rnodmfim non-eroeive velocity of a water st1eam which is used for desiSning furows
laid at 0.2 percent longiodinal slope should be
(a) I liue/sec O) 3 litredsec
(c) 4litreVsec (d) 5lires/sec
17. Blinding of tiles refers to
(a) trrenching of the drains (b) laying the tiles
(c) joining the tiles (d) covering the tiles with loose earth
lE Fnom the hydraulic efficie.ncy point of view, tte moet effipicnt cross-soction of an open
channel ie
(a) semi-circular () trapezoidal
(c) parabolic (d) rcctangular
Scrles.E 4 sFs.l0
'".t:i
Text of page 390
19. The depth of flow over a sha4r crested r€ctangulc weir should not be more than about
(a) half the crest width o) two-third of the crest width
(c) three-fourth of the qest widh (d) tbe width of the weir
20. Spike tooth harrows and spring tine harrows are classified as
(a) disk irarrows O) drag harrows
(c) blade hturows (d) None of the above
21. The process of separating graios tom a mixUre of grain and chaff in an air stleam creared
artificially or nahrally is called
(a) Winnowing 6) Threshing
(c) I'Ian esring (d) None of Oe above
22. TheolpadtbresherisPulledbY
(a) Tractor (b) Pair of bullocks
(c) Power tiller (d) None of the atiove
23. Fluted roller of a seed drill is driven by
(a) Rectangular shaft o) Square shaft
(c) Round shaft (d) Noneoftheabove'
24. The subsurface tillage tools that work at a shallow depth and do trot tum the soil are called
as
(a)
,Uskplough o) Ridger
(c) 'Sweeps (d) None of the above
25. A mower knife is said to be in proper regiptration when the knife section stops in lhe
(a) left side ofthe guard (b) right side ofthe guard
(c) behind the guard (d) centne of the guard
26. Disc angle adjustment influences
(a) Depth ofcut o) Width of cut
(c) Soil break uP (d) Direction of travel
27. The cutter bar of a tractor operated mower cdinarily makes
(a) 800 - 120 srokes/min O) 1600 - 20fl) strokedmin
(c) ZO0 - 2800 strokes/min (d) 3200 - 3600 strokes/min
2& The type of finrow opener recommended for use in hard or trashy ground and in sticky soil
is
(a) single disc type o) sErb runtrer typ€
(c) full or currred runner type (d) hoe type,
Scdc.E 6 sEs-*
Text of page 392
29. Vertical zuction of a plough influences
(a) pulverization o) depth ofcut
(c) width of cut (d) dircction of pull
30. For maximum moisture consen'ation ploughing is done with
(a) MB plough (MouldBoardPtough) O) Cultivator
(c) ChiselPlough (d) Disc hanow
31. The application rate of ULV sprayer per hectare is
(a) upto 5 litres G) 5 - 100 litres
(c) 4OOlitres (d) None ofthe above
32. The vertical distance betwe€n the point of sharc to the beam of plough is called
(a) the vertical suction O) throat clearance
(c) hqizontal suction (d) None of the above
33. The machine used for cutting grasses is known as
(a) Reaper (b) Mower
(c) Windrower (d) Combine harvester
3. Which one of the following is not a prinary tillage equipment ? '.>
(a) Meson plough O) Disc Plough
(c) Desiplough (d) Cultivator
35. The type of bearing generally used to support the disc on a standard disc plough is
(a) Ballbearing O) Tapered roller bearing
(c) Plain roller bearinC (d) Bush bearing
36. Marerial used for manufacture of cultivator shovel :
(a) Brass O) Gun metal
(c) Mild steel (d) Chilled cast iron
37. The two types of cylinders used in wheat power thresher are
(a) serrated disc and rasp bar (b) spike tooth and wire loop type
(c) spike tooth and hammer mill (d) hammer mill and flails
Sctrlca.B 8 SES-10 tt'
I
Text of page 394
3t. A 2 m combine is operating ar 4 kmph with an overall efEciency of 75%. The area covered
by it (ha/h) will be
(a) 0.6 O) 1.0
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.4
39. A thresher causes more s€ed damage if
(a) feed rarc is increesed" o) clearance is incrcased.
(c) speed is reduced. (d) speed is increased.
40. Power sprayers are operated at a prcssure
(a) 22-55kgtm2 o) l0-?-Okglmz
(c) 5-l0kg/m2 (d) less thon 5 kg/m2
41. The optimum operating s@ of a rctor in a rotavatet is
(a) more than 500 rpn O) 350 - 500 rpm
(c) 150-350rpm (d) 20-150rpm
-
42. A subsoiler is best suited for
(a) shallow ploughing o) intercultivation
(c) breaking hard pan (d) All ofthe above
4t. The opemting spoed of power sprayers varies from
(a) 4.8 - t knph (b) 10 - 20 knph
(c) l5-30kmph (d) 20-30knph
tl4 Angle of seed hole displacement for picking eeed by seed plate in a pneunatic vegetable
planter for sowing radish is
(a) 7.5o O) l5o
(c) 22.5" (d) 30o
45. Concavity of disc in disc hanow causes effect on
(a) penetration O) pulverization
(c) depthoffinrow (d) both(a)and0)
45. Tilt angle ie associated with
(a) Ctltivator (b) Disc plough
(c) Mould board plough (d) Rotavator
Serlcr-B l0 sE$r0
Text of page 396
47. The planter which works on suction principle is
(a) pneumatic planter O) inclined plate planter
(c) seed planter (d) none of the above
r[t. The drawbar pull of a tractor is measured by
(a) Hour - meter (b) Hydrometer
(c) Dynamometer (d) Current meter
49. The procedure for testing the seed &ill for correct seed rate is called
(a) calibration of seed drill O) seed drill testing
(c) evaluation of seed drill (d) None of the above
50. The usual height of paddy stabbles after combine harvesting is
(a) l5-20cm (b) 30-60cm
(c) 60 - 70 cm (d) More than 75 cm
51. Deep ploughing is done beyond depths of about
(a) l0 - 12 cm O) 12- 15 cm
(c) 15 -20cm (d) >30cm
52. The tilt angle (in degree) in standard disc plough is
(a) t5-25 (b) 26-35
(c) 36-45 (d) 46-60
53. Salvage or Junk value of a machine is
(a) 5% of initial cost o) 10% of initial cost
(c) 15% of initial cost (d) None of the above
54. Scouring ability of a tillage tool is affected by
(a) coefficient of soil - metal friction O) soil cohesion
(c) soil adhesion (d) All of the above
55. The rake angle of a sweep type cultivator is
(a) 60degree (b) 70 degree
(c) 9Odegree (d) None of the above
Serlcs-B t2 sEs-10
Text of page 398
56. The manually op€[atEd knapsack spra.yer worts on the principle of
(a) Hy&aulic energy O) Gaseous energy
(c) Cenrifrrgal energy (d) Kinetic energy
57 . Boulon's well frrnction is associatcd with semi-confined aquifer having
(a) Exccssive yield O) Normal yield
(c) Delayedyield (d) None ofthe above
5t. The ratio of Dro and Dro sieve sizes in sieve analysis of Sranular EratErial is called
(a) Well coefficient o) Uniformity coefficient
(c) Recharge coefficient (d) None of the above
59. The well development technique tbrougb purying that can also be uscd for cleaning a
clogged strainer
(a) B6gkwerhing O) Air washing
(c) Both (a) aod (b) (d) None ofthe above
60. Leakage factor and hydraulic resistance are imporaot properties of the
(a) unconfined aquifer (b) semi+onfined aquifer
(c) confnedaquifer (d) All of the above
61. Which of the following ir a method of tubewc[ dri[iog ?
(a) Percussion drilling O) Rotary drilling
(c) Cue&illing (d) Alloftheabove
62- In alluvial foroations the economical nethod of drilling is
(a) dfu€ct rctary G) rEvcnle rotary
(c) cabletool (d) DTH
6& ffiich of the following aquifer is relatcd to the t€rm specific yield ?
(a) unconfined aquifer (b) confined and unconfincd aquifers
(c) confned aquifer (d) None ofthe above
& By doubling the seven diamet€r of a well in an unconfined aquifer the di$har8p i8
increased oly about
(a) tw G) 2%
(c) 20% (d) t@%
Scrlca.B 14 SES'10
Text of page 400
65. Which of the following cases is associated with surging ?
(a) Gravel packing O) Well drilling
(c) Well development (d) Sealing of saline water
6. The lines joining points of equal depth of ground wat€r level are known as
(a) Isohytes O) Isochrones
(c) Isobars (d) Isobaths
tl. Specific yield of clay formation varies from
(a) r-t0% O) 5-15%
(c) t0-ts% (d) t5-20%
6t Formations that contain wate,r but trammits water at a slow rate is called as
(a) Ilard pan O) Aquifer
(c) Aquiclude (d) Aquituge
$. For a water haring smta, the sum of specific yield and specific retension is equal to
(a) void ratio (b) porcsity
(c) butkdensity (d) specificgravity
70. This method is applicable for well hydraulics under the conditioos
(a) unsteady state flow in a confircd aquifer
(b) unsteady stat€ flow in an unconfircd aquifer
(c) steady state flow in a confined aquifer
(d) steady sate flow in an unconfined aquifer
71. Based on the sieve analysis of the aquifer marerial, the uniformity coefficient of a uniform
material is
(a) more than 2 (b) less than 2
(c) more than 4 (d) mote then 8
72. Diamercr of a dug well varies from
(a) 2to 10m (b) 5tol0m
(c) 10to20m (d) l0to 15 m
73. For developm.ent of well using compressed air, the capacity of the compressor is usually
(a) t.Sl{Ilc# O) 2okstc#
(c) ?sk4lc# (d) 30 kg/cm2
Ss{cr.B 16 sEs.lo
Text of page 402
74. For a watershed having streams of oder l, 2, 3 and 4 the basin order witl be
(a) I O)2
(c) 3 (d) 4
75. Rill erosion is the advanced stage of
(a) Rain drop erosion (b) Gully erosion
(c) Sheet erosion (d) None of the above
76. The Stanfo,rd model is used to
(a) estimate the soil lcs o) estimate the runofr
(c) estimate the rainfall depth (d) estimation of soil formation
77. The value of 'c' in r*ional equation is generally
(a) less than I O) moe than I
(c) equdto5 (d) All of the above
7& The basic assumptions of unit hydrograph theory are
(a) Nonlinear response and tirc invariance
(b) Time invariance and linear response
(c) Linear responsc and linear time variance
(d) Non-linear time variance and linear rcspo l€
79. The time of concentration of a watershc.d is p,roportiooal to
(a) L1.77 O) 543ei
(c) 5o'3ts (O 1l'7750'385
E0. Rational formula is used to compute
(a) Desip discharge for flat land o) Dasip disc.harge for slop,py land
(c) Desip peak rainfall (d) Design peak runoff rate
81. Contour bunds are adopted in
(a) High rainfall regions (b) Low rainfall regions
(c) Highly pervious soils (d) None of the above
t2^ Class IV qpe lands are
(a) suitable for cultivation o) not suitable for cultivation
(c) partly suitable for cultivation (d) None ofthe above
"
Scrlea.B 18 sEs-10
I I
Text of page 404
t3. Froude number is the ratio of
(a) Inertia force to the shear force
(b) Inertia force to viscous force
(c) Viscous force to the gravitational force
(d) lnertia force to the gravitational force
E4. For desiga of grassed waterway the average grade used is
(a) t% O) 5%
(c) r0?o (d) t5%
E5. The she€t of water which overllows a weir is called as
(a) Head (b) Static Head
(c) Nappe (d) AII ofthe above
E6. Which of the following may be used for measurement of water discharge ?
(a) By rectangular weir (b) By 90" V norch
(c) By orifice (d) All ofthe above
E7. Isohyets are the lines of equal
(a) temperatues o) pressure
(c) precipitation (d) None of the above
88. Erosion index is based on rainfall intensity
(a) I,s O) I3o
(c) los (d) 160
E9. A 4-hour unit hydrograph means
(a) I cm depth of rainfall over the entire watershed
O) I cm of rainfall excess over the entte waterched
(c) a hydrograph resulting from an instantaneous application of I cm rainfall excess
over the entire watershed
(d) The stream flow for four hours
90. A 4 hour rainfall in a catchment of 250 sq. km, produces rainfall depths of 6.2 cm and 5.0
cm in successive 2-hour unit period. Assuming the $ index of the soil to be 1.2 cm per
hour, the runoff volume in ha.m will be
(a) 16 O) 22
(c) 1600 (d) 22ffi
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91. 'Cox' formula is used to determine
(a) Rainfall velocitY
O) Rahfdlhtensity
(c) Vertical interval between conour bunds
(d) Earthwoft inPonddesign
yt. Conour bunds arc suitable h ar€8s having rainfall
(a) mor€ rhen 15(X) mm (b) less than 600 mm
(c) 6(X) - 900 mm (d) None ofthe above
93. The critical flow condition in a channel occurs when spocific energy is
(a) naximum O) minimum
(c) TEro (d) negative
v. The phenomenon of removal of material ftom the foundation of stnrchre through seepage
water i6 called as
(a) pipins o) sliding
(c) overtuming (d) None of the above
95. For rcctangular channels the minimnm specific energy is
(a) 2/3 times cdtical d€pth O) 3/2 times critical depth
(c) 5/4 times critical depth (d) None of the above
96. In a &op stnrcurc safety against tension can be achieved by assuming that the resultant of
the forces on the head wall pass through
(a) the middle one-third of the base (b) the left one-third of the base
(c) the rig(t one-third ofthe base (d) any point on the base
n. On flat lands which of the following types of gullies are formed ?
(a) Lshaped O) V-shaPed
(c) U-shaped (d) Rectangular shaped
S. The spacing of check dam is keat between
(a) 25-75m (b) 150 - 450 m
(c) 80- l80m (d) 75-100m
ylr. Q[scf dams arc provided with the mrin slj€ctiv6 sf
(a) pondirg of water O) s4using upstream sedimentation
(c) to reduce channel slope (d) All the above
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llX). Flood routing tecbniques are generally used for
(a) flood forecasting (b) desip of spillways and reservoir
(c) flood protection worts (d) None of the.above
101. Graded bund is used for safe disposal of excess nrnoff in the area with
(a) Hig[ rainfal O) Relatively impervious soil
(c) Lowrainfall (d) All the above
lOa Rill erosion usually begins in the
(a) lower part of land sloPe o) up,pcr part of land slope
(c) middle part of land sloPe (d) entire length of the land sloPe
103. Those grrtlies whose dimension does not change with time are called as
(a) Activp gullies O)U-shaped gullies
(c) Inactive gullies (d) v-shaped gullias
lM. Drop inlet spillways are locarcd at the Place of
(a) medium gully slo,pe O) high depression
(c) gullyface (d) upstream area of gully
105. The diffe,rence in elevation between top of the dam aod normal rcservoir level is called as
(a) minimumfreeboard O) maximum freeboard
(c) critical free board (d) normal free board
106. The Manning's coeffrcient of roughness for grassed channels is specifically known as
(a) Retardance coefficient O) Coefficient of discharge
(c) Manning's constant (d) Flow coefficient
107. Coarse textured soils erode mninly through
(a) surface creep O) saltation
(c) suspension (d) None of the above
1llB. Strip cropping for erosion control is more effective when it is practiced undcr
(a) Terracing O) CroP roution
(c) Bunding (d) Mono'croPPing
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109. Bafier slope in bench terraces is primarily provided for
(a) Moisture retention O) Controlling sloughing
(c) Both (a) & O) (d) Stability to the fill material
110. The most suitable stnrcoEr for reduciag channel grades is
(a) drorpspillway O) chute spillway
(c) drop inlet spillway (d) culvert
ll1. In wet field thp traction of tractor can be improv€d by using
(a) Bigger size of tyre O) Additional weigbt
(c) Cagewheel (d) None ofthe above
112. 'Tachometet''is used to measure
(a) pressure (b) powef,
(c) rp6 (d) All the above
llit. The maximum noise level of a tractor near the operator's esr should not exceed
(a) 8s dB O) 9OdB
(c) l00dB (d) 95dB
114. Thermostat valve is used in
(a) Lubrication system o) Steering systen
(c) Braking system (d) Cooling system
115. In a tractor the three point hitch is operated by
(a) PTo O) Gear sysrcm
(c) Hydraulic control (d) Differential
116. Which of the following is a component of petrol engine ?
(a) Idector O) Carbureuor
(c) Fuel injection pump (d) All oftheabove
117. The power transmitting unit of a mower consists of
(a) main axle O) gea$
(c) crankshaft and pitmen (d) All of the above
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llt. In ractors, the wheel alignment can be adjusted by
(a) drag link O) radius link
(c) both (a) and O) (d) varying the length of the rod
119. The compression ratio of the diesel engine are in the order of
(a) 4:ltoE:l O) 9:lol3:l
(c) 14:lto20:l (d) 21 :1o30:1
1Z). Specific fuel consumption of petrol engine is
(a) 200 gm/bhp hr O) 290 gr/bhp hr
(c) 350gm/bhphr (d) 150 gu/bhp hr
121. ASAE standard PTO speed (rpm) is
(a) 536 o) 1000
(c) 1440 (d) 2000
122. T\e inflation pressure (kdcm2) in the rear wheels of the tractor for field operations vary
between
(a) 1.3 - 1.7 o) 2.2-2.6
(c) 1.8 -2.1 (d) 0.8 - 1.2
123. The most used and least efficient power outlet of a tractor is
(a) power take off shaft in the front O) power take off shaft in the rear
(c) drawbar in the rear (d) None of the above
12. Spark plug is used in
(a) petrol engine o) biodiesel fuelled engine
(c) diesel engine (d) All of the above
125. Govemor hunting occurs due to
(a) deficiency of fuel o) inefficient working of govemor
(c) combustion of excess fuel in engine (d) all of the above
126. Blue smoke is produced in engine dtte to
(a) excess fuel consumPtion
O) overheating of engine
(c) combustion of lubricating oil with fuet
(d) None ofthe above
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127. Tbcoretical cycle on which a petrol engine works, is
(a) Camot cYcle G) Ofto cYcle
(c) RankinecYcle (d) Dual cYcle
111& The r*iprocating motion of piston is converted to rotary
motion of flywheel by
(a) crankshaft (b) piston
(c) connecting rod (d) All the above
1l!9. Chote is used h ca$ur€tsor elrgirc
(a) before starting the engine o) before closing the engine
(c) both (a) and O) (d) None of the above
130. The power outlet from a tracttr fu agricultural operations are
(a) byPTOshaftandpowerlift G) bybeltpulleyanangement
(c) byhitchesaddrawbar (d) Alloftheabove
131. Differential in tractor increases the wheel speed while uming
of
(a) both the wheels O) inner wheel
(c) outer wheel (d) None ofthe above
132. Tbe power devel@ by an average pair of bullocks is about
(a) 1.75 HP (b) I.OHP
(c) 0.75 HP (d) 2.OHP
l33.Ifooewheelofatractorislockedbydifferentiallock,thes@oftbeotherwheclis
ineeased by
(a) 3 tines (b) 4tircs
(c) 1.5 times (d) 2 tioes
l34. A tmcttr with 2l splines PTO shaft will have standard speed of
(a) 1000 rpm o) 540rpm
(c) 10t0 rpm (d) 15fl)rpm
1Al. The diffoential unit of a tractor has a set of
(a) rack and Pinion gear O) spur gears
(c) bevel gears (d) worm and gear
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136. CentralFarmMachineryTrainingandTestinglnsthrrc(CFIvITTDislocatedat
(a) Delhi o) Hissar
(c) Budni (d) Both (b) & (c)
13?. In tractor the driving wheel requires power supply at
(a) low rpm O) high torrque
(c) low rpm and high torque (d) high rpm and low torque
lilt The most common t1rye of cooling system found in general purpose tracors is
(a) Air cooling O) Thermo-siphon sysrcrn
(c) Open jacket system (d) Force feed water circulation system
19. Injection pressure of the fuel nozzle in diesel engine is
f"l tzo-zwl(F,c# G) 5o- lookg/cm2
(c) 35-459td (d) >2ffik9"*
ll0. Standard s@ of P.T.O. is
(a) 2000rPm o) 1440rpm
(c) 1000rPm (d) 5,10 rpm
141. The maximum human tolerance to vibration is
(a) 8-t2Ez (b) 6-10H2
(c) 4 -Lttz .(d) None of the above
142. A two-stroke cycle engine can be operated in
(a) clockwise direction O) anti-clocktrise direction
(c) in both the directions (d) None of the above
l4S.Ingeneraltheweightdistributiooonrearandftontaxleofanlndiantractoris
(a) 40 60 (b) 60 N
(c) 70 30 (d) 80 20
ranges ftom
1114. The kingpin inclination' in steering system of a tractor
(a) 15 20 degrces o) 10 15 &grees
-
-
(c) 6 - 9 degrees (d) 0 - 5 degree
145. The tetra ethyl lead is added to the fuel to improve
(a) viscosity of fuel O) cetane number
(c) flashPoint (d) octane number
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il6 Tracttrs arc mostlv equipp*i#tl[iO tp""Oengines nrnning 8t about
o) ,1000 rpm
(a) 2000rpm
(c) 5fl)rpm (d) 6000 rpm
as
147. the mechanical officieocy of ao engine is expressed
(a) ffix roo O) ffix rm
(d) Noneoftheabove
(c)
ffifB"rm
14& In a 4 shoke diesel engioe during the coryression stroke
(a) the inlet valve is open. O) the exhaust valve is open'
(c) both valves ue open. (d) both valves are cloced'
L9. TappetisaPartof
(a) Fngrnc lubrication s,stem o) Engine irrigation sYstem
(c) Fngne valve opcratingl system (d) None of the above
by
150. Oil pump used ia forced feed lubrication systcm is driv€T
(a) camsbaft
(b) crankshaft
(c) flywheel (d) None of tbe above
151. Thc antitnock quality of a peuol ie derermincd by
(a) Cetane number o) Octane number
(c) Iftocking index (d) None of the above
152. The common fring o,rder fc 4 cylinder engioc is
(a) r-3-4-2 O) | -2-4-3
(c) r-2-3-4 (d) both (a) and (b)
153. In tyre size 12.4 x 28, the nunber 12'4 reprcsens
(a) sectional diarnetcr of t'Yre o) tyre p[essu[€
(c) ply rating oftYre (d) Rimdiaoeter
l54Whichof6cfollowiogmrrcesofenergyisthcrcnewablewgy?
(a) Cosl (b) Narural gas
(c) Petrol (d) Witrd
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155. At STP, otre gram of hydrogen occupies a volume of
(a) 9.4 lire O) 10'5 litre
(c) I1.2 litre (d) None of the above
155. ln an adiabatic process which of the following is corrcrt ?
(a) q=AE+W O) AF.=q
(c) pAV=O (d) q=0
when temperature
157. The shange of state of a gas wittr respect to pressur€ and volume'
remains constant, is called
(a) Charle's law o) Boyle's law
(c) Otto cycle (d) Diesel cycle
15E. A diesel engine works on the principle of
(a) variable Pressure cYcle o) variable volume cycle
(c) constatrt Pr€ssure cycle (d) None of the above
159. The specific hear at constant pressue of a real gas
(a) increases with increase in temperature
O) Decreases with increase in temperahue
(c) Remains constant with increase in temperature
(d) None ofthe above
160. A steam engine is an
(a) I.C. Engine o) Compression ignition engine
(c) Spark ignition engine (d) Extemal combustion engine
161. An adiabatic process takes place at
(a) constant heat o) constant enthalPY
(c) constantt€mperature (d) constant pr€ssure
162. A process in which volume of a system remains constant is called
(a) Isobaric process o) Adiabatic process
(c) Isochoric process (d) Isothermal process
163. For the same compression ratio efficiency of Otto cycle is
(a) same as diesel cycle O) more than diesel engine
(c) less than diesel engine (d) None of the above
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164.APerfectgasatnocisheatedatconstailp[Essufetillitsvolumeisdoubled.Thefinal
tenperanre of the gas will be
(a) 54 oC G) 3n oC
("i 6oooc (d) 654"c
of 6xed
155. A ctosed tbermodynamic system is a system
(a) Energy O) Mass
(c) Temperaturc (d) None ofthe above
166.Tbel,lesthestistheasouDtofheatransferrequiredtocauseaphasechangeinunitmnqs
of a substance at a
(a) coastatrt Pressure o) consta[t tEmperah[e
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
a propertY called
157. The second law of ttermodynamics leads to
(a) EntroPY O) EnthalPY
(c) Heat (d) \Vqk
16& In an Isothermal Process
(a) Teopcramreincreasesgradually (b) Prrssurc remains cotstant
(c) No change in iatcroal energY (d) Yoluoe remains consta[t
ie to regutarc the flow of water
169. Ibe function of following finings in boiler
(a) stoPvalve (b) feed cbcck valve
G) eafaY valve (d) Blow offcock
170. Tberoal efficicncy of a diesel engire is about
(a) 4% G) 54Eo
(c) @Eo (d) 34%
lTl.ThecetanenumberisthepcrcentageofcetaoeinthemixnrreofcetaneaodAlphamcthyl
aepthalene bY
(b)
(a) lVeight Mass
None of the above
(c) Volume (d)
called as
17a Power available at the crank 8haft of tbe engine is
(a) BHP o) IHP
(c) FIIP (d) Noneoftheabove
tirne of injection and rirne of ipition is called
173. In a diesel engine, the duration bt'*usa
(a) period of iPition o) delay period
(c) explosion Period
(d) buming Pedod SE$f.
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Text of page 424
174. The thermal efficiency of a thcoretical Otto cycle
(a) increases with increase in compression ratio
O) increases with increase in isenropic index
(c) docs not depend on plessure ratio
(d) follows all the above
175. lVork done in a free expansion Proc€stl is
(a) 7*ro (b) Minimum
(c) Maximum (d) Positive
176. The value of universal gas constatrt in SI unit is
(a) 0.El34l/moldl( O) 8.314 J/mole./K
(c) l/mole/K
E3l4 (d) 83.14 J/mole/K
17. Delta rePresens
(a) a c'rop total depth of water requircd by
O) seasonal water requirement
(c) dailY water requirement
(d) monthly watEr requLement
17t. Minor inigatiotr Foject have cultural command area
(a) less than 2000 hectares G) 10'000 hectares
G) 2000 to 10,000 hectsrcs (d) 15fi) hectares
f79. At permaneot wilting point soil moishre tension is
(a) 5 o 50 bars G) 50 bars
(c) 5 to lO ba$ (d) 7 to 32 atmosPhele
1t0. A tile drainage system consists of
(a) tile drain o) submain
(c) drainage outlet (d) All of the above
Itl. A drainage canal discharges 0.2 m3/sec of water from 250 hectares arc4 the drainage
coefficient of the land will be
(a) 2 mm o) 7mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 7cm
gross arnount of
r&. If the net amount of irrigation is 8 cm and field efficiency is 75%, thc
water to be applied to the field will be
(a) 10.65cm o) 8.75 cm
(c) 10.66 mm
(d) 8.75 mm
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1t3. The velocity of water though pipes and open chann:I8 Eay be estimat€d by
(a) Chezy's formula @) Mnnning's foimula
(c) by (a) & (b)both (d) None ofthe above
1E4. A centrifrrgal pump has a discharge of 5400 lities per minute with total head of 20 metres.
If the overall efficiency of the pumpset is 64 pe,lcent the sizr of the required electric motor
will be
(a) UHP O) 37.5 HP
(c) 2E IIP (d) 2oHP
lEll. If gross inigation is 15 cm and irrigation efEciency is 80%, then net irrigation will be
(a) 10cm (b) l2cm
(c) l5cm (d) 19 cm
1t6. Evapotranspiration is directly measured by
(a) Penmen - Monteith method o) Blaney{riddle method
(c) Penman Method (d) Lysiemeter method
1E7. The gauge used to measure the depth of flow over a weir is locarcd upstream of a weir at a
distance of about
(a) rwice the ap,proximate head O) thrice the approximate head
(c) four times the approximatehead (d) equal to approximate head
ItE. For medium loem soils, the le,ngth of the border should be
(a) 60- l20m O) 100- l80m
(c) 150-3ffim (d) 300-500m
1E9. For bett€r uniformity of water aprplication in sprinker irrigation percent overlap should
(a) decrease with the increase ic. wind velocity
(b) increase with the increase in wind velocity
(c) tr-50%
(d) b1o%
190. If 'O' be the curvaqre angls 6f6a opea ditch the radius of curvature (r) of the orpen ditch
in metres can be calculated usiag tle formula
(a) R= l5lsin(0/4) (b) R= l5lsin(0/2)
(c) R= l5lcos(0/4) (d) R= l5/cos(012)
191. 20 -,{O rule is used o compute the
(a) head loss in a drainage PiPe
O) slope of drainage dirch
(c) desip discharge below the function point of the dirch
(d) hydraulic radius of drainage ditch
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Text of page 428
ilI2" thc spqcing of mole drain varies from
(a) 1.5 to 2.5 m o) 10- 15 m
(c) l2-l3m (d) 5-10m
193. The drainable pcosity of clay soil varies from
(a) l0 - 15% by volume O) 18 - 35% by volume
(c) 3- ll% by volume (d) 15 -20% by volume
194. The relationship between porosity (n) and rroid ratio (e) is given by
(a) ,=fte ^. s=I;
(b) n
'/
1+e (d) Both(a)and(b)
(c) n=-;
195. In sprinkler irrigation normally water application is considered to be satisfactory when
(a) UnilGmity coefficient (Cu) is lfi) percent
O) Uniformity coefficient is E0% or above
(c) Warer is uniformly distributed
(d) All tle above
196. The depth of flow over a sharp crasted rectangular weir shoultl not be more than
(a) widrh of weir O) half of the crest width
(c) twothird of the crest width (d) three-fourth of the crest width
l9il. A soil sample has a porosity of 40 percent, its void ratio is
(a) 0.06 O) 0.28
(c) 0.,!0 (d) 0.66
19& Minimum slope of an earthen channel for polyethylene lining is
(a) 1.5:1 O) 2:t
(c) 2.5:t (d) 3:1
199. The principle of wo*ing of a oeter gate is
(a) Free flow circular cifice o) free flow rectangular orifice
(c) submerged flow circular orifice (d) submerged flow rectangular orifice
200. The capacity of major distributory in India usually varies from
(a) 0.75 to 5.5 cusec O) 4.0 to 8'5 cumec
(c) 4.0 to 8.5 cusec (d) 0.75 !o 5.5 cumec
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Space For Rough 1'65 /w.ur{*.frnqq{r
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Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 432
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.