UKPSC AE 2013: Uttarakhand Assistant Engineer (AE) Exam, AE Civil Engineering (Paper-I)
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CIVIL ENGINEERING (PAPER - I)
In laminar flow between parallel plates, the ratio of maximum velocity and average velocity
of flow is:-
(a) 2.0 (b) 1,33
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.0
2. Pitot tube measures:-
(a) Pressure head only (b) Total head only
(c) Velocity head only (d) Above all
3. The loss of energy due to sudden enlargement in a pipe is given by:-
(a) V2/2g (b) kV2/2g
(c) 0.5V7/2g (d) (V1 -V,)2/2g
(Where symbols have their usual meanings)
4. A model of a spiliway with scale ratio 1:9 is to be tested in a laboratory. What will be the
discharging capacity of the model if the discharge over prototype spillway is 486m3/sec?
(a) 0.25m3/sec (b) I .OmVsec
(c) 2m3/sec (d) 2.5m3/sec
5. If the flow around a sphere is taking place with Reynolds Number isjust greater than 500x I 03,
the value of CD will be : (CD= Drag coefficient):-
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.20
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.10
6. For flows through porous media, Darcy's law is applicable when Reynold's Number is:-
(a) 2 (b) =0.1
(c) >1 (d) 1
7. Cavitation in a pipe is caused when:-
(a) High velocity (b) Pressure approaches vapour pressure
(c) Low velocity (d) None of the above
8. Continuity equation is based on the principle of:-
(a) Conservation of mass (b) Conservation of energy
(c) Conservation of momentum (d) None of the above
9. If Vs is the tangential velocity of flow around a curved path and R is the radius of curvature,
the normal acceleration for the flow will be:-
(a) Vs/R (b) Vs/R2
(c) V2s/R (d) V2s/R2
ESE-004 (2) Series-B
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10. A spherical particle of diameter 0.4 mm is falling in water with a velocity of 0.4 mlsec, the
drag coefficient for the particle will be:-
(a) 1.50 (b) 15.00
(c) 180.00 (d) 150.00
11. Moody's diagram is drawn between:-
(a) Friction factor and Reynold's number
(b) Friction factor, Reynold's number and relative roughness
(c) Friction factor and relative roughness
(d) None of the above
12. To avoid an interruption in flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided:-
(a) At the summit
(b) At the inlet
(c) At the outlet
(d) At any point between inlet and outlet
13. If the conjugate depth before and after the jump are 0.5 m and 2.5 rn respectively, the loss of
energy in the hydraulic jump will be:-
(a) 0.80m (b) 3.20m
(c) 6.40m (d) l.60rn
14. For a two dimensional flow, the stream function is given by cu =2xy. The velocity at a point
(3, 4) is equal to:-
(a) 6mlsec (b) 8m/sec
(c) lOm/sec (d) 12m/sec
15. Mach number is the ratio of:-
(a) Inertia forceto viscous force
(b) Characteristic velocity to velocity of sound
(c) Viscous force to inertia force
(d) Velocity of sound to characteristic velocity
16. The pressure rise due to water hammer depends upon
(a) Velocity of flow of water in pipe
(b) Length of pipe
(c) Time taken to close the valve
(d) All the above
ESE-004 (4) Series-B
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17. Dimension of the kinematic viscosity is:-
(a) L21' (b) ML 2T 2
(c) ML'T' (d) None of the above
18. The coefficient of discharge, Cd in terms of C and C is given by (Notations have their usual
meaning):-
Cv
(a) Cd= (b) C=CxC
C d v c
Cc
(c) Cd = (d) None of the above
19. For laminar flow in a circular conduits, the energy correction factor a is taken as:-
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.03
(c) 2.00 (d) 2.50
20. To study the cruising of supersonic missiles in air by using dimensional analysis technique,
which of the two dimensionless numbers will be of significance:-
(a) Reynolds number and Froude's number
(b) Weber number and Mach number
(c) Weber number and Froude's number
(d) Reynolds number and Mach number
21. Lining of a canal is necessary:-
(a) To prevent erosion of bed and sides due to high velocities
(b) To minimize the seepage of losses
(c) To increase the discharge by increasing velocity
(d) All of the above
22. A channel designed using Lacey's theory has mean velocity of 1 rn/sec and silt factor of one,
the hydraulic radius for channel will be:-
(a) 2m (b) 2.5m
(c) 1.Om (d) 0.50m
23. The Purpose of cross regulator in a canal is:-
(a) To regulate water supply in the off-taking channel
(b) To regulate water supply in the main channel
(c) To head up water for adequate supply into the off-taking channel
(d) To regulate excessive flood water
ESE-004 (6) Series-B
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24. Entry of silt into the canal is controlled by:-
(a) Silt excluder (b) Silt extractor
(c) Silt ejector (d) Head regulator
25. In the hydraulic jump, the flow condition is:-
(a) Gradually varied (b) Rapid
(c) Un-steady (d) None of the above
26. The maximum compressive force in a gravity dam exists when the reservoir is full:-
(a) At the heel (b) At the centre of base
(c) Within middle third of base (d) At the toe
27. The most adverse condition for stability of slope for the upstream face of an earthen dam is:-
(a) Steady seepage (b) Reservoir empty
(c) Sudden draw down (d) None of the above
28. In a river, spurs are provided:-
(a) To train the flow along a specified course
(b) To confine the width of river
(c) To reduce the flood peak
(d) None of the above
29. At the site where an aquaduct is constructed, the width of river is 111 m. If there are 6 piers
(each of width I m), the width of water way will be:-
(a) 5m (b) lOm
(c) I5m (d) 20m
30. Which of the following dams of India is an example of arch dam?
(a) Tehri dam (b) Idukki dam
(c) Bhakra dam (d) Sardarsarovar dam
31. For uniform flow in a rectangular channel which one is correct statement
(S0 bed slope, Sf energy slope, and S water surface slope):-
(a) (b) Sb >Sf >S
5b S> S
(d)
(c) 5b = Sf= S Sf >Sh>S%V
ESE-004 (8) Series-B
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32. Lacey's regime equation for longitudinal slope, 'S' of canal is given by
(Q = discharge, f= Lacey's factor and R = Hydraulic mean radius):-
(a) S=f/8980R' (b) S=f 5hl3 / 8990RI
(c) S=f 5"3 / 3340Q"6 (d) None of these
33. A soil composed of loose granular graded material which can be scoured off with the same
ease with which it is deposited is known as:-
(a) Silty loam (b) Incoherent alluvium
(c) Sandy clay (d) Regime silt
34. The discharge per unit draw down at the well is known as:-
(a) Specific yield (b) Specific storage
(c) Specific retention (d) Specific capacity
35. According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is:-
(a) Zero (b) Unity
(c) Irifinity (d) Very large
36. In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto:-
(a) 6 cumecs (b) 14 cumecs
(c) 10 cumecs (d) 20 cumecs
37. If the sediment size is 0.81 mm the silt factor will be:-
(a) 1.721 (b) 1.010
(c) 0.900 (d) 1.584
38. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spiliway in this
condition is:-
(a) Straight drop spiliway (b) Chute spiliway
(c) Shafi spillway (d) Ogee spiliway
39. If critical velocity ratio C.V.R is 2.0, one of the following will occur:-
(a) Silting in canal
(b) Scouring in canal
(c) Both silting & scouring
(d) None of the above
40. By using Bligh's theory for the design of floor if residual head at any section is 0.42 m and
specific gravity of material is 2.4, what will be thickness of floor?
(a) 0.50m (b) 0.40 m
(c) 0.25 m (d) 0.30m
ESE-004 (10) Series-B
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b
41. In case of gravity dam of base width 'b', if the resultant passes with an eccentricity of
what will be ratio of maximum compression stress and maximum tensile stress:-
(a) 2 (b) 0
(c) I (d) 6
42. If the Froude number of a hydraulic jump is more than 9, this jump is classified as:-
(a) Weak jump (b) Strong jump
(c) Oscillating jump (d) None of these
43. Discharge Q in a triangular weir varies as :-
(a) H (b) H' 5
(c) H° 5 (d) H25
44. In a confined aquifer, one of the following condition occurs:-
(a) Water surface under the ground is at atmospheric pressure
(b) Water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturations
(c) Water is under pressure between two impervious strata
(d) None of above
45. A rectangular open channel carries a discharge of 15 cumecs at depth of flow as 1.5 m and
bed slope as 1:1440. If only slope is changed to 1:1000 with same depth of flow, discharge
will be:-
(a) 21.6 cumecs (b) 18.0 cumecs
(c) 14.4 cumecs (d) 12.5 cumecs
46. For a uniform flow with depth of 0.6 m and Froude number of 2.0 in a rectangular channel,
the specific energy will be :-
(a) 0.8 m (b) 2.6 m
(c) 4.8m (d) l.8m
47. In a horizontal rectangular channel, the conjugate depths of flow before and after the hydraulic
jump are observed as 0.25 m and 1.25 m, the energy loss due to jump will be:-
(a) 0.80m (b) 1.00m
(c) 1.25m (d) 1.50m
48. The discharge through a V- notch varies as:-
(a) H"2 (b) H
(c) H312 (d) H5'2
ESE-004 (12) Series-B
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49. A trapezoidal channel with a base width of 5 m and side slope (2H: 1 V) conveys water with
a depth of 1.0 m at a velocity of 3.13 rn/sec. The flow in the channel will be:-
(a) Unsteady (b) Super critical
(c) Critical (d) Subcritical
50. As per IS code, the minimum grade of concrete for the design of prestressed concrete structure
is:-
(a) M20 (b) M25
(c) M15 (d) M30
51. In a slab, the minimum reinforcement using steel of grade Fe 415 is:-
(a) 0.12% of its gross sectional area (b) 0.20% of its gross sectional area
(c) 0.15% of its gross sectional area (d) 0.10% of its gross sectional area
52. If nominal shear stress r exceeds the design shear strength of concrete r the shear
reinforcement as per IS-456 will be provided for shear stress equal to:-
(a) r (b) r
(c) r-r (d) r+ r
53. The purpose of high tensile strength steel wires in prestressed concrete is:-
(a) To provide adequate bond stresses
(b) To impart compressive stress in concrete
(c) To resist tensile stresses
(d) All the above
54. Which of the following losses occurs only in post-tensioning pre-stressed concrete structures:-
(a) Loss due to friction (b) Shrinkage of concrete
(c) Creep of concrete (d) Elastic shortening of concrete
55. Minimum reinforcement in a circular concrete column as per IS-456 is:-
(a) 4 bars of 12 mm
(b) Greater of 0.80% of cross-sectional area 4 bars of 12 mm
(c) 6 bars of 12 mm
(d) Greater of 0.80% of cross-sectional area and 6 bars of 12 mm
56. Span to effective depth ratio for a continuous beam with steel grade of Fe 415 should not be
more than:-
(a) 7 (b) 20
(c) 26 (d) 48
ESE-004 (14) Series-B
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57. In reinforced concrete footing on soils, minimum thickness at the edge should normally not
be less than
(a) 250 mm (b) 150 mm
(c) 100 mm (d) 200 mm
58. The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied
column is about:-
(a) 5% more (b) 5% less
(c) 10% more (d) 10% less
59. For the purpose of the design of reinforced concrete footings, pressure distribution is assumed
to be:-
(a) Parabolic (b) Linear
(c) Hyperbolic (d) None of the above
60. Hoop tension in a RCC water tank will be resisted by:-
(a) Steel alone
(b) Concrete alone
(c) Partly by concrete and partiy by steel
(d) None of the above
61. The factor used to account for the difference in strength indicated by cube test and the strength
of concrete in structures:-
(a) 0.67 (b) 0.87
(c) 1.15 (d) 1.87
62. The working stress method of design of RC members is known as:-
(a) Non-deterministic approach (b) Deterministic approach
(c) Probabilistic approach (d) None of the above
63. For assessing the strength of a structure for limit state of collapse, the values of partial safety
factors for concrete and steel are taken respectively as:-
(a) l.l5andl.5 (b) l.5andl.5
(c) l.5andl.15 (d) l.l5andl.15
64. In a R.C. column, the spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column
should not exceed:-
(a) 250 mm (b) 200 mm
(c) 350 mm (d) 300 mm
ESE-004 (16) Series-B
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65. The value of limiting moment of resistance of a RC beam for M25 grade of concrete and
Fe 500 grade of steel is given by (Notations have their usual meaning):-
(a) 3.33 bd2 (b) 3.38 bd2
(c) 3.35 bd2 (d) 3.44 bd2
66. A square column section of 350 mm x 350 mm is reinforced with four bars of25 mm diameter
and four bars of 16 mm diameter. The transverse reinforcement will be:-
(a) 5mmdia@240mmc/c (b) 8mmdia@300mmc/c
(c) 6 mm dia 350 mm c/c (d) 8 mm dia 500 mm c/c
67. In case of a one way slab, the main reinforcement is provided:-
(a) Along longer span
(b) Both along shorter and longer span
(c) Along shorter span
(d) 50% on the shorter span and 50% on longer span
68. If a beam fails in bond, its bond strength can be increased most economically by:-
(a) Using thinner bars but more in number
(b) Increasing the depth of beam
(c) Using thicker bars but less in number
(d) Providing vertical stirrups
69. In a circular water tank if D is the diameter of the tank, H is depth of water with flexible
joints at the base. If Y is the specific weight of water, the hoop tension at the base of wall is:-
(a) YHD (b) YHD/2
(c) YHD/3 (d) YHD/4
70. An isolated 'T' beam is used on walkwaay. The beam is simply supported with an effective
span of 6m. Effective width of flange for shown figure is :-
- 1000 mm -1
I _____IIi&omm
460 mm
H
300 mm
5O m
(a) 1000 mm (b) 1100mm
(c) 1260 mm (d) 2200 mm
71. A singly reinforced concrete beam of 300 mm width and 750 mm effective depth is provided
with 2000 mm2 steel. If the modular ratio is 15. the depth of neutral axis will be:-
(a) 200 mm (b) 350 mm
(c) 300 mm (d) 400 mm
ESE-004 (18) Series-B
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72. A prestressed concrete beam of size 300 mm x 900 mm is prestressed with an initial
pre stressing force of8lO kN at an eccentricity of 360 mm at mid span. Stress at the top fibre
due prestress alone (- :Tension, (+) Compression):-
(a) +3 N/mm2 (b) -7.2 N/mm2
(c) + 10.2 N/mm2 (d) -4.2 N/mm2
73. Raft foundation is useful where:-
(a) Soil having low bearing capacity
(b) Heavy loads are transferred through columns
(c) Super structure is sensitive to differential settlement
(d) All the above
74. In the case of columns of minimum dimension of 200 mm or under, whose reinforcing bars
do not exceed 12 mm, a nominal cover may be provided:-
(a) 40 mm (b) 25 mm
(c) 20 mm (d) 50mm
75. In limit state method of design for RCC flexural members, the centre of gravity of the
compressive force acting on the section from the top most fibre of concrete is at a distance
of:-
(a) 0.36 of the depth of neutral axis (b) 0.57 of the depth of neutral axis
(c) 0.42 of the depth of neutral axis (d) None of the above
76, In a doubly reinforced concrete beam, if d is the effective cover to compression
reinforcement, xm is depth of neutral axis, the strain at the level of compression reinforcement
is given by:-
( d' ( d'
(a) eC = 0.00035 1 (b) eC= 0.0035 I
' xm) xm
(c) e = 0.002 ('1—__.) (d) e = 0.0035 12--—
' xm \ xm
77. The maximum depth of neutral axis in a RC beam for Fe 415 grade of steel is :-
(a) 0.53d (b) 0.46d
(c) O.67d (d) 0.48d
78. The maximum strain in steel bars in tension zone of R.C. beam is given by :-
(Where symbols have their usual meaning):-
0.87c 0.87
(a) + 0.02 (b) + 0.0002
E F,
0.87c
(c) + 0.002 (d) None of the above
E
ESE-004 (20) Series-B
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79. For a T beam, the minimum tension reinforcement should not be less than that given by:-
(Where symbols have their usual meaning):-
A0 0.88 A0 0.85
(a) (b)
b,d a bd = aCk
A0 = 0.87 A0 0.85
(c) (d)
bd
80. As per IS 456:2000, the modulus of elasticity of concrete can be assumed as:-
(a) 5000 [} (b) 6000
(c) 6700 (d) 4500
81. The fixed support in a real beam becomes in the conjugate beam as:-
(a) Roller support (b) Hinged support
(c) Fixed support (d) Free support
82. If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, the copper bar will be under:-
(a) Shear (b) Tension
(c) Compression (d) Torsion
83. A three-hinged symmetrical arch is loaded as shown in the figure below. Which one of the
following is the magnitude of the correct horizontal thrust?
2P
(a) 2.66 P (b) 2P
(c) 1.5P (d) 0.75 P
84. The deflection at the mid span of beam AB by unit load method will be:-
w per unit length
El Constant
H L
(a) wL4 / 128E1 (b) wL4 / 384E1
(c) 5wL4 / 128L (d) None of above
ESE-004 (22) Series-B
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85. What are the bending moments at ends and of uniform fixed beam AB as shown in
figure when two concentrated loads acts at spans?
i I
2 4
(a) wL (b) wL
6 8
(c) wL (d) wL
86. A beam is hinged at end and fixed at ®. If moment M is applied at end ®, the moment
developed at end will be:-
(a) —M (b) M
(c) M/2 (d) —M/2
87. For the following cantilever beam as shown in figure, the change in clockwise slope between
& © by moment area theorem will be :-
w
El Constant
(a) wL2/4E1 (b) M/EI
(c) wL2/2E1 (d) None of the above
88. The shear stress on a beam section is maximum :-
(a) On the extreme bottom surface fibres
(b) At the neutral axis of the section
(c) At the free edges
(d) On the extreme top surface fibres
89. A simply supported beam with rectangular cross section is subjected to a concentrated load at
mid span. If the width and depth of beam are doubled, the deflection at mid span will be
reduced to:-
(a) 6.25% (b) 12.5%
(c) 50% (d) 25%
90. What is the deflection at the mid span for the simply supported beam shown in figure:-
P
'I,
17 El
L/2 )( LI2—
(a) 0 (b) PL3 / 3E1
(c) PL3 / 48E1 (d) PL3 / 96E1
ESE-004 (24) Series-B
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91. The forces in the members AC and AB for the truss shown below will be respectively
(+ tension, - compression):-
(a) — P/cos 60 and + P tan 60 (b) — P/cos 60 and zero
(c) zero and + P tan 60 (d) zero and zero
92. The effective length of a column of length L fixed against rotation and translation at one end
whereas the other end is free, is:-
T
L
.1
(a) 0.5 L (b) 0.7L
(c) 2L (d) 1.414L
93. Section modulus for hollow circular section of outer diameter 'D' and inner diameter 'd' is:-
(a) 4 - d4) (b) (1) - d4)
64D (D 32D
(c) (D3 - d3) (d) (D3 - d3)
64D 32D
94. The maximum bending moment in a beam under a wheel load caused by a train of moving
load, is :-
(a) When this wheel and the C.G. of the total load system are equidistant from the ends
of the beam.
(b) Always at the centre
(c) Closest to CG of loads
(d) None of above
95. For a statically indeterminate pin jointed plane frame, the relation between number of 'm'
and number ofjoints 'j' is expressed as:-
(a) m3j-6 (b) m>2j-3
(c) m=2j-3 (d) m>3j-6
96. Bulk modulus is defined as ratio of:-
(a) Direct stress and volumetric strain
(b) Longitudinal stress and shear strain
(c) Shear stress and shear strain
(d) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain
ESE-004 (26) Series-B
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97. What is the ordinate of influence line at ® for reaction RD as shown in following figure:-
A B C D
•
2m --2m-- 4m -
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.2
(c) 0.5 (d) Zero
98.- Influence line diagrams can be drawn for:-
(a) Only beams (b) Beams, arches, trusses etc.
(c) Only arches (d) Only trusses
99. In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the members meeting at
any joint is. always:-
(a) Zero (b) Less than 1
(c) Greater than! (d) 1
100. In column Analogy method, the area of an analogous column for fixed beam of span L' and
flexural rigidity 'El' is taken as:-
(a) LIE! (b) L/2E1
(c) L/3E1 (d) L/4E1
101. The strain energy stored in a member due to bending moment M is given by:-
rM 3dx 1 M 2 dx
(a) I (b)
AE AE
M 2 dr 1 Mdx
(c) $ 2E1 (d)
El
Where symbols have their usual meanings
102. A rigid jointed plane frame as shown below will have:-
P
+
-+
L12
- L -'
(a) Sway to right (b) Sway to left
(c) Not sway (d) None of above
ESE-004 (28) Series-B
Text of page 30
103. The slope deflection in structural analysis fall in the category of:-
(a) Force method
(b) Flexibility method
(c) Consistent deformation method
(d) Stiffness method
104. In a two hinged parabolic arch an increase in temperature will :-
(a) Decrease the horizontal thrust (b) Increase the bending moment
(c) Increase the horizontal thrust (d) Make no change in horizontal thrust
105. The pin jointed frame as shown in following figure is:-
'I,
(a) A perfect frame (b) A redundant frame
(c) A deficient frame (d) None of above
106. The bending moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a point load will
be of shape:-
(a) Triangle (b) Parabola
(c) Rectangle (d) Cubic Parabola
107. The ratio of and for beam as shown will be:-
WI unit length
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1
(c) 1:1 (d) 1:3
108. The degree of static indeterminacy N and the degree of kinematic indeterminacy, Nk for the
plane frame as shown neglecting axial deformation are given by:-
(a) N=6, Nk =ll (b) N=4, Nk =6
(c) N=6, Nk =6 (d) N=4, Nk =4
ESE-004 (30) Series-B
Text of page 32
109. A fixed beam of span L, is subjected to a uniformly distributed load w per unit length. If beam
has constant flexural rigidity, the fixed end moment is:-
(a) wL2 / 4 (b) wL2 / 6
(c) wL2 / 8 (d) wL2 / 12
110. Which of the following statement is correct for flexibilty method of analysis:-
(a) The method is used to analyse determinate structures.
(b) The method is used only for manual analysis of indeterminate structures.
(c) The method is used for analysis of indeterminate structures with lesser degree of
static indeterminacy.
(d) The method is used to analyse flexible structures.
111. Rankine's formula is used for the analysis of steel compression member if the slenderness
/
ratio(— )is:-
1 /
(a) 120< — <200 (b) 200< —<250
r r
1
(c) 100 < — <150 (d) None of above
112. In plate girders, the web plate is provided with stiffness when the ratio of clear depth to
thickness of web is greater than :-
(a) 58 (b) 85
(c) 68 (d) 75
113. In plastic design of structures, if degree of statical indeterminacy is '1', the numbers of hinges
'p' required to convert the structure into mechanism is given by:-
(a) p=i+3 (b) p=i+2
(c) p=i+l (d) None of above
114. Allowable average shear stress in an un-stiffened web for beams made of steel of grade
250 N/mm 2 is:-
(a) 250 N/mm2 (b) 165 N/mm2
(c) 150 N/mm2 (d) 100 N/mm2
ESE-004 (32) Series-B
Text of page 34
115. A steel plate of 300 mm width and 10mm thick has the diameter of the bolt hole as 20mm.
The net section of the plate is:-
(a) 1800 mm2 (b) 2800 mm2
(c) 3000 mm2 (d) 2700 mm2
116. ''b
is the moment of inertia of the rolled beam section, 'Ar ' is the area of cover plates in
one flange and 'h' is the distance between the centroid of the top and bottom flange plates,
moment of intertia of builtup plate girder is given by:-.
(a) (b) l=[I b +2A P J]
2
(h 1
(c) (d) I=[Ib+3A P Jj
117. If 'M' is maximum moment in the plate girder, 'P' is allowable bending stress and 'ta . is the
thickness of web, Economical depth for a plate girder is given by:-
(a) j(M/P) * (b) I .2J(M/P) * r w
(c) l.1jM/(P.t) (d) 1 .3.J(M/P) *, w
118. Normally, the pitch of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than:-
1 1
(a) of span (b) of span
2
1
(c) of span (d) of span
119. Gantry girders are designed to resist :-
(a) Lateral loads (b) Lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
(c) Longitudinal and vertical loads (d) Lateral and longitudinal loads
120. As per IS code, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression flange (thickness 't') of a built
up beam is:-
(a) Lesser of 200 mm and 12t (b) Lesser of 250 mm and 12t
(c) Lesser of 200 mm and 16t (d) Lesser of 250 mm and 16t
ESE-004 (34) Series-B
Text of page 36
121. In a plate girder. bending moment is primarily resisted by:-
(a) Web plate (b) Flange plate only
(c) Flange angle only (d) Flange plate and flange angle
122. The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of:-
(a) Rivet hole (b) Rivet measured before driving
(c) Rivet measured after driving (d) None of the above
123. Which of the following sections will have large shape factor:-
(a) Diamond (b) Rectangle
(c) I-section (d) Solid circular section
124. Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs?
(a) Angle section (b) Box type section
(c) Channel section (d) None of the above
125. Load factor is defined as:-
(a) Ultimate load I yield load (b) Yield load / working load
(c) Ultimate load / working load (d) None of the above
126. The effective length of a column, held in position and restrained in direction at one end and
the other end is free, is equal to:-
(a) 0.67L (b) L
(c) 1.2L (d) 2.00L
127. The permissible bending stress in the slab base of steel columns for all grades of steel is
limited to:-
(a) 185 N/mm2 (b) 165 N/mm 2
(c) 175 N/mm2 (d) 200 N/mm2
128. The members which support covering material of a steel roof truss are:-
(a) Rafters (b) Purlins
(c) Struts (d) Batens
ESE-004 (36) Series-B
Text of page 38
129. Which of the following types of the riveted joint is free from bending stress:-
(a) Butt joint with single cover plate
(b) Lap joint
(c) Butt joint with double cover plate
(d) None of the above
130. The effective length of filet weld should not be less than:-
(a) Two times weld size (b) Six times weld size
(c) Weld size (d) Four times weld size
131. For a rivet of 20mm diameter, the diameter of hole will be taken as:-
(a) 18.5mm (b) 21.5 mm
(c) 21mm (d) 19mm
132. The value of Poissons ratio for structural steel in the elastic range is taken as:-
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.2
(c) 0.15 (d) 0.50
133. In upper bound theorem plastic analysis for a given frame subjected to a set of loads P. the
value of P which is found to correspond to any assumed mechanism must be:-
(a) Greater than the collapse load P
(b) Less than the collapse load P
(c) Either greater than or equal to collapse load P
(d) None of the above
1 34. The plastic theory is generally used for:-
(a) Columns only (b) Beams only
(c) Roofs only (d) Rigid frame structures
135. Which of the following elements of a pitched roof industrial steel building primarily resist
lateral load parallel to the ridge?
(a) Purlins (b) Bracings
(c) Truss (d) Columns
ESE-004 (38) Series-B
Text of page 40
136. Two flats (110mm x 16mm) and (110mm x 12mm) are welded by V butt weld. If permissible
stress is 142 N/mm2, the strength of weld will be:-
(a) 167.75 kN (b) 195.56kN
(c) 187.44kN (d) 210.25 kN
137. Factor of safety is the ratio of:-
(a) Yield stress and working stress
(b) Tensile stress and working stress
(c) Compressive stress and working stress
(d) Bearing stress and working stress
138. The load factor applied to dead loads or live loads in the design of steel structures is:-
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.5
(c) 1.7 (d) 2.2
139. The shape factor of an I-section is:-
(a) 1.04 (b) 1.14
(c) 1.70 (d) 2.00
140. In the 'T' section as shown in figure, distance of neutral axis from top is:-
400 mm —
I ______IIioomm
A
500mm
H
100mm
(a) 100 mm (b) 200 mm
(c) 300 mm (d) 216 mm
141. A soil sample has liquid limit = 45%, plastic limit of 25%, shrinkage limit = 15% for natural
water content of 30%, the consistency Index for the sample is:-
(a) 40% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) 60%
142. Westergaard's analysis for stress distribution beneath loaded area is applicable to:-
(a) Sandy soil (b) Stratified soil
(c) Clayey soil (d) Silty soil
ESE-004 (40) Series-B
Text of page 42
143. The permeability of following is very low:-
(a) Clay (b) Sand
(c) Silt (d) Gravel
144. The minimum allowable factor of safety against sliding for a cantilever retaining wall is:-
(a) 3.0 (h) 2.0
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
145. Liquifaction of sand is:-
(a) Sand enhance its shear strength due to oscillatory motion
(b) Sand looses its shear strength due to oscillatory motion
(c) Sand enhances its bearing capacity due to oscillatory motion
(d) None of above
146. Darcy's law is not applicable for flow in:-
(a) Fine sands (b) Clays
(c) Silts (d) Gravels
147. An over dried soil mass of 200 gm is placed is pycnometer and completely filled with water.
Combined mass of bottle, soil and water is 1605 gm. Calculate specific gravity of soil if
pycnometer with water alone has weight of 1480 gm:-
(a) 2.63 (b) 2.65
(c) 2.67 (d) 2.69
148. Density Index is the term used to express relative compactness of:-
(a) Cohesionless soil only (b) Cohesive soil only
(c) Cohesive and cohesionless soils (d) All the above
149. In laboratory, coefficient of permeability of soil is determined by one of the following methods:-
(a) Pumping-out test (b) Pumping-in test
(c) Horizontal capilarity test (d) Constant Head test
ESE-004 (42) Series-B
Text of page 44
150. Due to large leakage and flood damage problems, following type of coffer dam is not preferred:-
(a) Braced type (b) Cantilever sheet pile type
(c) Cellular type (d) Double wall type
151. H-Piles is a type of one of the following piles:-
(a) Concrete Piles (b) Timber Piles
(c) Steel Piles (d) Composite Piles
152. Rotation of Machine foundation about Y, Z and X axes are respectively known as:-
(a) Yawning, Pitching and Rocking (b) Pitching, Yawning and Rocking
(c) Rocking, Pitching and Yawning (d) Rocking, Yawning and Pitching
153. A cohesive soil yields a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 during a standard Proctor
Compaction test. What would be its void ratio if the specific gravity is 2.60:-
(a) 0.552 (b) 0.625
(c) 0.7 12 (d) 0,583
154. The water content of a soil remains unchanged during the entire test in:-
(a) Drained test
(b) Consolidated undrained test
(c) Unconsolidated undrained test
(d) None of these
155. If the porosity of a soil sample is 40%, void ratio for this sample would be:-
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.70
(c) 0.60 (d) None of the above
156. The permeability of a soil sample depends upon:-
(a) Size of the particles (b) Shape of the particles
(c) Void ratio (d) All of the above
157. If the value of uniformity coefficient of a soil sample is nearly equal to one. This sample will
be designated as:-
(a) Well graded soil (b) Uniformly graded soil
(c) Poorly graded soil (d) None of the above
158. If a soil sample is dried beyond its shrinkage limit, this sample will show:-
(a) No volume change (b) Moderate volume change
(c) Low volume change (d) Large volume change
ESE-004 (44) Series-B
Text of page 46
159. The void ratios at the densest, loosest and the natural states of a sand deposit are 0.2, 0.6 and
0.4 respectively. Relative density for this deposit will be:-
(a) 90% (b) 80%
(c) 50% (d) 25%
160. The process by which the soil particles are artificially rearranged into a closer state of contact
by mechanical means in order to decrease the porosity, is known as :-
(a) Consolidation (b) Compaction
(c) Settlement (d) None of the above
161. The relation between void ratio 'e', water content 'W', specific gravity 'G' and degree of
saturation 'Sr' for a soil sample is:-
WG WSr
(a) e= Sr (b) e= G
W
(c) e= (d) None of the above
GSr
162. Undisturbed soil samples are obtained by:-
(a) Thick walled samplers (b) Direct excavations
(c) Thin walled samplers (d) Augers
163. A soil sample has bulk density of2l kN/m3 and water content 8%. Dry density of the sample
is:-
(a) 19.00 kN/m3 (b) 18.44 kN/m3
(c) 22.68 kN/m (d) 19.44 kN/m3
164. A load of 4000 kN is uniformly distributed over an area of 3m x 3m. Average vertical stress
at a depth of 2m below will be (assuming 2 vertical 1 horizontal distribution):-
(a) 250 kN/m2 (b) 160 kN/m2
(c) 200 kN/m2 (d) 220 kN/m2
165. The permeability of a soil sample will be if entrapped air is present in the sample:-
(a) Decreased (b) Unaffected
(c) Increased (d) None of above
166. Most suitable method for drainage of fine grained soil is:-
(a) Well point system (b) Vacuum method
(c) Electro-osmosis method (d) Deep well system
ESE-004 (46) Series-B
Text of page 48
167. A cantilever sheet pile derives its stability from:-
(a) Self-weight of sheet pile (b) Lateral resistance of soil
(c) Anchor road (d) None of the above
168. If a weak plane exists above the toe of typical slope, the probable failure of the slope is
expected as (considering the stability of the slope):-
(a) Slope failure (b) Base failure
(c) Transitional failure (d) Toe failure
169. According to Terzaghi's equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting on cohesive
soil (C =l0kN/m2 ) per unit depth and unit width (Nc = 5.7) will be:-
(a) 47 kN/m2 (b) 67 kN/m2
(c) 57 kN/m2 (d) 77 kN/m2
170. The maximum differential settlement in isolated footings on sandy soils shall not exceed:-
(a) 40 mm (b) 100 mm
(c) 65 mm (d) 25 mm
171. The major loss of hydraulic energy in pipe flow occurs in long pipe due to:-
(a) Sudden enlargement (b) Friction
(c) Sudden contraction (d) Gradual enlargement or contraction
172. The best hydraulic channel cross-section should have:-
(a) Least cost
(b) Minimum wetted perimeter
(c) Maximum area for a given flow
(d) Minimum roughness coefficient
173. The conditions for the flow of fluid in Bernoulli's equation are assumed as:-
(a) Steady, incompressible and ideal
(b) Steady, irrotational and uniform
(c) Steady, uniform and incompressible
(d) None of the above
174. The Gases are considered incompressible if Mach number is
(a) = 0.50 (b) > 0.30
(c) =I (d) < 0.20
ESE-004 (48) Series-B
Text of page 50
175. The type of vortex for the flow of water in a wash basin, when it is being emptied through a
central opening, is called:-
(a) Forced vortex (b) Rotational vortex
(c) Free vortex (d) Rankine vortex
176. The expression for kinematic viscosity of a fluid is:-
(a) Dynamic viscosity x density (b) Dynamic viscosity I density
(c) Dynamic viscosity x pressure (d) None of above
177. Choose the most correct statement for pipe in series problems:-
(a) The discharge is same through each pipe
(b) The discharge through each pipe is additive to total discharge
(c) The head loss is the same through each pipe
(d) None of the above
178. Surge tank in a pipe line is used to:-
(a) Reduce the loss of head due to friction in pipe
(b) Make the flow uniform in pipe
(c) Release the pressure due to water hammer
(d) None of the above
ReJ7
179. For turbulent flow through rough pipe, the factor
RIk
(Notation have their usual meaning):-
(a) <16 (b) >400
(c) >70 (d) <70
180. Notches are used to measure:-
(a) Flow rate (b) Velocity
(c) Pressure (d) All above
ESE-004 (50) Series-B
Text of page 52
Space For Rough Work/ ci,14 ESE-004 (52) Series-B
Text of page 53
Space For Rough Work/ cl,I ESE-004 (53) Series-B
Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 53
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.