UKPSC AE 2013: Uttarakhand Assistant Engineer (AE) Exam, AE Mechanical Engineering (Paper-I)
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Mechanical Engineering (Paper-I)
1. Which one of the following is closest to the purest form of iron?
(a) Cast iron (b) Wrought iron
(c) Grey cast iron (d) Mild steel
2. Addition of magnesium to cast iron increases its:-
(a) Hardness (b) Corrosion resistance
(c) Creep resistance (d) Ductility
3. Which one of the following cannot be recycled?
(a) Thermoplastics (b) Themiosets
(c) Elastomers (d) Polymers
4. Th'e most suitable manufacturing process for machining a turbine blade made of nimonic
alloy is:-
(a) Milling and lapping (b) Electric discharge machining
(c) Ultrasonic machining (d) Electro-chemical machining
5. Strain in direction at right angle to the direction of applied force is known as:-
(a) Lateral strain (b) Shear strain
(c) Volumetric strain (d) None of the above
6. If the diameter of the hole is subjected to considerable variation, for locating in jigs and
fixtures, the pressure type locator used is: -
(a) Conical locator (b) Diamond pin locator
(c) Vee-locator (d) Cylindrical locator
7. Inter electrode gap in electro-chemical grinding is controlled by controlling the:-
(a) Pressure of electrolyte flow (b) Applied static load
(c) Size of abrasives in the wheel (d) Texture of the workpiece
8. Pneumatic comparators work on following theory:-
(a) Newton's theory (b) Bernouli's theory
(c) Pascal's theory (d) Legendrcs theory
ESE-06 (2) Series-B
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9. In machining processes, the percentage of heat generated in shear action is carried away by
the chips to the extent of:-
(a) 10% (b) 25%
(c) 50% (d) 90%
10. For a two dimensional stress system. the coordinates of the centre of Mohr circles are?
Q — r +r
0 (b) 0,
2 2
c +y
x y O°Y
,0 (d)
2
11. Which of the following is not a limitation for ECM process:-
(a) Very expensive
(b) Sharp corners are difficult to produce
(c) Surface finish is not good
(d) Use of corrosive media as e1ctro1yte makes it difficult to handle
12. The rate of work material removal in USM operation is proportional to the:-
(a) Volume of work material removed per impact
(b) Number of particles making impact per cycle
(c) Frequency of vibration
(d) All of the above
13. Which of the following is not the assumption in Merchant's theory :-
(a) Tool is perfectly sharp
(b) Shear is occurring on a plane
(c) Uncut chip thickness is constant
(d) A continuous chip with built up edge (BUE) is produced
14. Which technique is utilized to find percent idle time for man or machine?
(a) Work sampling (b) Time study
(c) Method study (d) ABC analysis
15. In Electro-chemical machining material removal is due to:-
(a) Corrosion (b) Erosion
(c) Fusion (d) Ion displacement
ESE-06 (4) Series-B
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16. In simplex method of linear programming the objective row of the niatrix consists of:-
(a) Names of the variables (b) Coefficient of the objective function
(c) Slack variables (d) None of the above
17. Which one of the following type of layout is used for the manufacturing of large aircrafts?
(a) Product layout (b) Process layout
(c) Fixed position layout (d) Combination layout
18. Which of the following operations does not use ajig?
(a) Turning (b) Drilling
(c) Reaming (d) Tapping
19. The quality of machined surface depends on:-
(a) The material of the workpiece (b) Rigidity of machine work-tool system
(c) Cutting conditions (d) All of the above
20. The tool life of a cutting tool mainly depends on:-
(a) Cutting speed (b) Tool geometry
(c) Ambient temperature (d) None of the above
21. Use ofjigs and fixtures leads to:-
(a) High operational cost (b) High maintenance cost
(c) High Initial cost (d) High manufacturing cost
22. For the two shafts connected in parallel, which of the following in each shaft is same?
(a) Torque (b) Shear stress
(c) Angle of twist (d) Torsional stiffness
23. Lee and Shaffer equation showing relationship between rake angle (a), shear angle (q) and
friction angle (fi) is expressed as:-
a ,r
(a) Ø= -..fl+ -- (b) Ø -4- +fl -a
a
(c) (d) Ø=+fi -
24. Metal in electro-chemical machining process is removed by:-
(a) Migration of ions towards the tool
(b) Ionization and shearing
(c) Chemical action and abrasion
(d) Chemical etching
ES&06 (6) Series-B
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25. In an orthogonal cutting operation, the chip thickness and the uncut thickness are equal 0.45mm
each, If the tool rake angle is 00, the shear plane angle is :-
(a) 18° (b) 30°
(c) 450 (d) 60°
26. In a single point turning operation Taylor's exponent is 0.25. If the cutting speed is halved
then the tool life will become:-
(a) Half (b) Two times
(c) Eight times (d) Sixteen times
27. Standardization deals with the characteristics of product that include:-
(a) Its dimensions
(b) Method of testing the product
(c) Composition and properties of its material
(d) All of the above
28. The critical speed of a shaft is affected by its:-.
1. Eccentricity
2. Span
3. Diameter
Which of the above are correct?
(a) I and 2 (b) land3
(c) 2and3 (d) I..2and3
29. Whirling speed of a shaft coincides with the natural frequency of its:-
(a) Longitudinal vibration (b) Transverse vibration
(c) Torsional vibration (d) Coupled bending torsional vibration
30. Experts of same rank assemble fcr product development in:-
(a) Delphi technique (b) Brain storming
(c) Direct expert comparison (d) Morphological analysis
31. A production line is said to be balanced, if at each station:-
(a) There is equal number of machine (b) There is equal number of operators
(c) Waiting time for service is same (d) Operation time is same
ESE-06 (8) Series-B
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32. When ordering cost is increased to 16 times, the EOQ will be increased to:-
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times
(c) 8 times (d) None of the above
33. Manufacturer's risk is the probability of:-
(a) Rejecting a good lot which otherwise would have been accepted
(b) Defective batch being accepted which otherwise would have been rejected
(c) Bad components in a lot
(d) None of the above
34. Term "Value" in value engineering refers to :-
(a) Total cost of the product (b) Selling price of the product
(c) Utility of the product (d) Manufacturing cost of the product
35. Which one of the following shows the percentage of the area in normal distribution curve for
± 2 a limits?
(a)• 99.73 % (b) 95.45 %
(c) 68.26 % (d) None of the above
36. In sampling, AQL stands for:-
(a) Average quality level (b) Acceptable quality level
(c) Asymmetric quality level (d) Available quality level
37. There are 'm' rows and 'n' columns in a transportation problem. Degeneracy will occur if the
number of allocations are:-
(a) Less than (m + n-I) (b) Greater than (m + n -1)
(c) Equal to (m + n -1) (d) Less than (m - n -1)
38. C-chart is based on one of the following:-
(a) Number of defects per unit of a product
(b) Fraction defectives in the sample
(c) Number of defectives in the sample
(d) None of the above
39. TQM is related to:-
(a) Quality control (b) Control chart
(c) Sampling (d) Work study
ESE-06 (10) Series-B
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40. The point of contraflexure occurs in:-
(a) Cantiliver beams (b) Simply supported beams
(c) Overhanging beams (d) Fixed beams
41. In High velocity forming, the forming speed is greater than:-
(a) 3mls (b) 5mls
(c) 8 rn/s (d) 15 rn/s
42. Which control chart is used to measure variability of 'Variability with in the sample':-
(a) chart (b) c chart
(c) u chart (d) cr chart
43. If the demand for an item is doubled and the ordering cost is halved, the economic order
quantity for the item will be :-
(a) A half of the earlier quantity (b) Double of the earlier quantity
(c) Increased by a factor of (d) Will remain unchanged
44. An industry produces 300 spark plugs in one shift of 8 hours. If standard time per piece is 1.5
minute, the productivity would be:-
(a) 3/4 (b) 5/8
(c) 7/16 (d) 15/16
45. If 'm' is the number of constraints in a linear programming problem with two variables 'x'
and 'y' and non-negativity constraints x & yO. The feasible region in the graphical solution
will be surrounded by:-
(a) mImes (b) m+1 lines
(c) m+2 lines (d) m+4 lines
46. Effect of stockout of a commodity is:-
(a) Loss of profit (b) Loss of customers
(c) Loss of goodwill (d) All of the above
47. The annual demand for an item is 3200 parts. Unit cost is Rs. 6 and the inventory carrying
charges are estimated as 25% per annum. If the cost of one procurement is Rs. 150, what will
be the number of orders per year?
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 10
ESE-06 (12) Series-B
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48. In queuing theory, the ratio of mean arrival rate and the mean service rate is termed as:-
(a) Work factor (b) Utilization factor
(c) Slack constant (d) Production rate
49. If in graphical solution of linear programming problem, the objective function line is parallel
to the line representing constraint equation, then the solution of problem is:-
(a) Infeasible solution (b) Unbound solution
(c) Multiple optimum solution (d) None of the above
50. Low helix angle drills are used for drilling holes in:-
(a) Plastics (b) Copper
(c) Cast steel (d) Carbon steel
51. In a queuing problem, if the arrivals are completely random then the probability distribution
of number of arrivals in a given time follows:-
(a) Normal distribution (b) Poisson distribution
(c) Binomial distribution (d) Exponential distribution
52. In ABC analysis of inventories, 'A' items usually constitute:-
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 70%
53. Increase in economic order quantity results in:-
(a) Increase in inventory carrying cost
(b) Decrease in ordering cost
(c) Decrease in total cost
(d) Total cost first decreases and then increases
54. In ABC analysis items are classified in three categories namely A, B, and C in accordance
with their:-
(a) Values (b) Number
(c) Characteristics (d) Priorities
55. Control limits of a X chart are:-
(a) X±a X ± 2cT
(c) X ± 3a X ± 6q..
ESE-06 Series-B
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56. Following is not a method of solving a transportation problem:-
(a) Northwest corner method (b) Least cost method
(c) Vogel's approximation method (d) Dynamic method
57. If work station times are not same, the overall production rate of an assembly line is determined
by the:-
(a) Fastest station time
(b) Slowest station time
(c) Averae of all station times
(d) Average of slowest and fastest station times
58. Which one of the following is not the control chart for attributes:-
(a) p chart (b) c chart
(c) R chart (d) chart
59. At breakeven point:-
(a) Sales revenue > total cost (b) Sales revenue = total cost
(c) Sales revenue <total cost (d) None of the above
60. In operating characteristics curve, abscissa (x-axis) represents:-
(a) Number of defectives (b) Percentage defectives
(c) Sample number (d) Probability of acceptance
61. For a vibrating system with viscous damping, the characteristics equation is given as: -
M +c +kx=O
If the roots of the characteristics equation are real and equal, the system is:-
(a) Over damped (b) Critically damped
(c) Underdamped (d) Cannot be predicted
62. For isotropic materials, shear and elastic moduli are related to each other and to Poissons
ratio according to:-
(a) E=G(1+2v) (b) E2G(l+v)
(c) E = G (2+ v) (d) E= v (2+G)
63. A body is having a simple harmonic motion. Product of its frequency and time period is equal
to:-
(a) Zero (b) One
(c) Infinity (d) 0.5
ESE-06 (16) Series-B
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64. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under torsion is:-
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum
(c) Zero (d) Unpredictable
65. The resultant deflection of a beam under unsymmetrical bending is:-
(a) Parallel to the neutral axis (b) Perpendicular to the neutral axis
(c) Parallel to the axis of symmetry (d) Perpendicular to the axis of symmetry
66. Euler's formula holds good for:-
(a) Short columns only
(b) Long columns only
(c) Both long and short columns
(d) Weak columns
67. In a beam when shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be:-
(a) Zero (b) Maximum
(c) Minimum (d) Infinity
68. The point of contraflexure occurs in:-
(a) Cantilever beams (b) Simply supported beams
(c) Overhanging beams (d) Fixed beams
69. In thick cylinder, the radial stresses in the wall thickness:-
(a) is zero
(b) negligible small
(c) varies from the inner face to outer face
(d) None of the above
70. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a maximum shear stress of 140MPa. Magnitude of
maximum normal stress developed in the shaft is:-
(a) 60 MPa (b) 9OMPa
(c) 110 MPa (d) 140 MPa
71. A hollow shaft has external and internal diameters of 10cm and 5cm respectively. Torsional
section modulus of shaft is:-
(a) 375 cm3 (b) 275 cm3
(c) 184 cm3 (d) 84 cm3
ESE-06 (18) Series-B
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72. Two cars 'A' and 'B' move at l5mls in the same direction. Car 'B' is 300m ahead of car 'A'.
If car 'A' accelerate at 6m1s2 while car 'B' continues to move with the same velocity, car 'A'
will overtake car 'B' after:-
(a) 7.5s (b) lOs
(c) 12s (d) 15s
73. Two balls are dropped from a common point after an interval of I second. If acceleration due
to gravity is 1 Omls2, separation distance 3 second after the release of the first ball will be:-
(a) 5m (b) 15m
(c) 25m (d) 30m
74. A ball of 2kg drops vertically onto the floor with a velocity of 20m1s. It rebounds with an
initial velocity of l0mls, impulse acting on the ball during contact will be:-
(a) 20 N•s (b) 40 N•s
(c) 60 N•s (d) 30 Ns
75. Kinetic energy of a solid cylinder of mass 'm', radius 'r' and angular velocity w is:-
1 1 2
(a) - mr U) 2 (b) — mr
3
1
(c) i-mr22 (d) mr22
c
76. Impulse is:-
(a) Minimum momentum (b) Maximum momentum
(c). Average momentum (d) Final momentum - Initial momentum
77. A cable with uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the following
shape:-
(a) Straight line (b) Parabola
(c) Ellipse (d) Hyperbola
78. Mohr's circle may be used to determine following stress on an inclined plane:-
(a) Normal stress (b) Principal stress
(c) Tangential stress (d) All of the above
79. State of plane stress at a point is described by
and 0
The normal stress on a plane inclined at 45° to the horizontal is:-
(a). 27 (b) -ña
(c) .jcr (d) o
ESE-06 (20) Series-B
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80. If load at the free end of the cantilever beam is gradually increased, failure will occur at:-
(a) In the middle of beam (b) At the fixed end
(c) Anywhere on the span (d) None of the above
81. Kinematic pair constituted by cam and follower mechanism is:-
(a) Higher and open type (b) Lower and open type
(c) Lower and closed type (d) Higher and closed type
82. If the diameter of a long column is reduced by 20 percent, the reduction in Euler buckling
load in percentage is nearly:-
(a) 4 (b) 36
(c) 49 (d) 59
83. Ultrasonic machining is best suited for:-
(a) Amorphous material (b) Brittle material
(c) Non ferrous material (d) All of the above
84. Acolunm of length 1' is fixed at both the ends. The equivalent length of the column is:-
(a) 2/ (b) 0.5 1
(c) 4! (d) 1
85. The Coriolis component of acceleration acts:-
(a) Along the sliding surface (b) Perpendicular to the sliding surface
(c) At 45° to the sliding surface (d) None of the above
86. A slider on a link rotating with angular velocity ' ' have linear velocity' v' The magnitude
of Coriolis component of acceleration is:-
(a) vw (b) 2vo
VO)
(d)
2
87. Coriolis component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that has:-
(a) Tangential acceleration (b) Centripetal acceleration
(c) Linear motion (d) Rotational motion
88. When the applied force is less than the limiting frictional force, the body will:-
(a) Start moving (b) Remain at rest
(c) Slide backward (d) Skid
ESE-06 (22) Series-B
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89. Critical speed of a shaft depends on:-
(a) Diameter of disc (b) Length of shaft
(c) Eccentricity (d) All of the above
90. Which of the following equilibriumequation should be satisfied by the joints in truss:-
(a) H=0jM=0 (b) EH=:O,V=O
(c) EV=O,M=0 (d) H=O,>V=OandM=0
91. When the number of members 'n' in a truss is more than 2j-3, where 'j' is the number of
joints, the frame is said to be:-
(a) Perfect truss (b) Imperfect truss
(c) Deflcient truss (d) Redundant truss
92. Turning a key into the lock is a case of:-
(a) Coplaner forces (b) Non-coplaner forces
(c) Couplc (d) Moment
93. When a wire is stretched to double its original length, the longitudinal strain produced in it
is:-
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
94. The electrolyte used in ECM process is:-
(a) Transformer oil (b) White spirit
(c) Aqueous solution of common salt (d) None of the above
95. According to law of transmissibility of forces, effect of force acting on the body is:-
(a) Different at different points of the body
(b) Minimum when it acts at centre of gravity of the body
(c) Maximum when it acts at centre of gravity of the body
(d) Same at every point in its line of action
96. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr's circle is:-
(a) Equal to the radius of Mohr's circle
(b) Greater than the radius of Mohr's circle
(c) ,j times the radius of Mohr's circle
(d) Could be any of the above
ESE-06 (24) Series-B
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97. The ratio of the compressive critical load for a long column fixed at both the ends and a
column with one end fixed and the other end being free is:-
(a) 2:1 (b) 4:1
(c) 8:1 (d) 16:1
98. Elongation of bar under its own weight as compared to that when the bar is subjected to a
direct axial load equal to its own weight will be:-
(a) The same (b) One fourth
(c) A half (d) Double
99. A simply supported beam of length '1' has uniformly distributed load 'w' kilogram acting per
unit length. Bending moment at mid span is:-
w12
(a) (b)
w12
(c) (d) None of the above
2
100. Uniformly distributed load 'w' act over per unit length of a cantilever beam of 3m length. If
the shear force at the midpoint of beam is 6kN, what is the value of 'w' :-
(a) 2 kN/m (b) 3 kN/m
(c) 4 kN/m (d) 5 kN/m
101. Elastic constants E, G and K are related by the expression:-
GK 2GK
(a) (b) E= 2K+G
E= 2K+G
3GK 9GK
(c) (d) E— 3K+G
E— K+2G
102. A material has elastic modulus of 120 GPa and shear modulus of 50 GPa. Poisson's ratio for
the material is:-
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2
(c) 0.3 (d) 0.33
103. A simply supported beam of length '1' carries a point load 'W' at the midspan. Deflection in
beam at the centre will be:-
wi3 wi3
(a)
3E1 8E1
wi3 5 WI 3
(c)
48E1 384 El
Series-B
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104. An object falls from the top of a tower. If comes down half the height in 2 seconds. Time
taken by the object to reach the ground is:-
(a) 2.8s (b) 3.2s
(c) 4.Os (d) 4.5s
105. A body moving with a velocity of 1 m/s has kinetic energy of 1.5 Joules. Mass of the body is:-
(a) 0.75 kg (b) 1.5kg
(c) 3.0 kg (d) 30kg
106. A particle is projected at such an angle with the horizontal that the maximum height attained
by the particle is one-fourth of the horizontal range. The angle of projection should be:-
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 75°
107. A bullet of 0.03 kg mass moving with a speed of 400 m/s penetrates 12cm into a block of
wood. Force exerted by the wood block on the bullet is:-
(a) 10kN (b) 20kN
(c) 25 kN (d) 30kN
108. A block resting on an inclined plane begins to slide down the plane when the angle of inclination
is gradually increased to 30°. The coefficient of friction between the block and the plane is:-
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.578
(c) 0.72 (d) 0.866
109. The shearing area of a key of length '1', breadth 'b' and depth 'd' is equal to:-
(a) bxd (b) lxd
(c) lxb
110. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a:-
(a) Reverted gear train (b) Simple gear train
(c) Sun and planet gear (d) differential gear
ill. Universal joint is an example of:-
(a) Lower pair (b) Higher pair
(c) Rolling pair (d) Sliding pair
ESE-06 (28) Series-B
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112. The outer circle of spur gear is called as:-
(a) Pitch circle (b) Addendum circle
(c) Dedendum circle (d) Base circle
113. Axes of a pair of spur gears are 200 mm apart. The gear ratio is 3:1 and number of teeth on
pinion is 20. The module of the gear is:-
(a) 4 mm (b) 5 mm
(c) 8mm (d) 10mm
114. In a flat belt drive, slip between the driver and belt is 1% and that between belt and follower
is 3%. If the pulley diameters are same, the velocity ratio of the drive is:-
(a) 0.99 (b) 0.98
(c) 0.97 (d) 0.96
115. In case of a flywheel, maximum fluctuation in energy is:-
(a) Sum of maximum and minimum energies
(b) Difference of maximum and minimum energies
(c) Ratio of maximum and minimum energies
(d) Ratio of minimum and maximum energies
116. Which pair of gears usually has higher frictional losses :-
(a) Spur gears (b) Helical gears
(c) Bevel gears (d) Worm and worm wheel
117. Average tensions on the tight side and slack side of a flat belt drive are 700 N and 400 N
respectively. If linear velocity of the belt is 5mls, the power transmitted will be:-
(a) 1.5kW (b) 2.5kW
(c) 2.8kW (d) 3.0kW
118. Which one of the following in-line engine working on a four stroke cycle is completely
balanced inherently?
(a) 2 cylinder engine (b) 3 cylinder engine
(c) 4 cylinder engine (d) 6 cylinder engine
119. If Hartnell governor uses a spring of greater stiffness, it will become:-
(a) Less sensitive (b) More sensitive
(c) Remain unaffected (d) Isochronous
ESE-06 (30) Series-B
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120. A disc clutch has n1 discs on driving shaft and n2 discs on driven shaft. Number of pairs of
contact surfaces will be:-
(a) n1+n2 (b) n1 +n2+l
(c) n1 + n2-1 (d) n1 - n2
121. A spring controlled governor is found unstable. It may be made stable by:-
(a) Increasing spring stifihess (b) Decreasing spring stiffness
(c) Increasing ball weight (d) Decreasing ball weight
• 122. Centre distance between two involute teeth gears of base radii R and rand pressure angle 0,
is expressed by:-
(a) (R + r) Sin (b) (R + r) Cos
R+r R+r
(c) (d) Cos q5
Sin 0
123. An engine running at 150 r.p.m. drives a shaft with belt arrangement. If diameter of engine
pulley is 55 cm and shaft pulley 33 cm, find the speed of shaft:-
(a) 100 r.p.m. (b) 150 r.p.m.
(c) 200 r.p.m. (d) 250 r.p.m.
124. In EDM process the tool and workpiece are separated by:-
(a) Electrolyte (b) A metal conductor
(c) Dielectric fluid (d) None of the above
125. The equivalent bending moment under combined action of bending moment 'M' and torque
'T' is :-
(a) ,I 2 + T2 IM2 +T2
2
(c) -(M + /M2 + T2 )
M~M2 + T2
126. Lewis equation in gears is used to find the:-
(a) Bending stress (b) Tensile stress
(c) Centrifugal stress (d) Fatigue stress
ESE-06 (32) Series-B
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127. A spring mass system shown in Figure is actuated by a load P = 0.75 sin2t. If mass of the
N
block is 0.25 kg and stiffness of the spring is 4—, displacement of the block will be:-
P=0.75 Sin2t
Figure
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
(c) 1.0 (d) 2.25
128. Dimensional fonnula ML 2 T represents:-
(a) Work (b) Force
(c) Momentum (d) Power
129. A framed structure is said to be perfect if the following correlation is met between the number
of joints 'j' and the number of the members 'm':-
(a) m=2j-3 (b) m3j-3
(c) m2j-1 (d) mj-2
U)
130. If ratio of excitation and natural frequency of vibration = ; the transmissibility of
vibration will be :-
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
131. Which one of the following is the preferred mode of transmission of power from one shaft to
another when distance between the shafts is relatively small:-
(a) Gears (b) Belts
(c) Ropes (d) Chains
132. If there is a gradual reduction in amplitude of vibration with time, the body is said to be in:-
(a) Free vibration (b) Forced vibration
(c) Damped vibration (d) Undamped vibration
133. Porter governor is a:-
(a) Pendulum type governor (b) Dead weight type governor
(c) Spring loaded governor (d) Inertia type governor
(34) Series-B
ESE-06
Text of page 36
134. Sensitivity of an isochronous governor is:-
(a) Zero (b) One
(c) Two (d) Infinity
135. Velocity of the belt for maximum power transmission by the belt and pulley arrangement is:-
IT
/ max
3m \f 4m
IT IT
Ima, / max
V5m V ni
136. Which type of gears are used in connecting two coplaner and intersecting shafts?
(a) Spur gear (b) Bevel gear
(c) Helical gear (d) Worm and worm wheel
137. Which one of the following does not require a flywheel?
(a) Steam engine (b) Engine driven press
(c) CI engine (d) Gas turbine
138. If' p' is the actual coefficient of friction in a belt moving in grooved pulley and groove angle
is 2 a. The virtual coefficient of friction will be:-
p
(a) 1..
(u)
sina cosa
(c) p sin a (d) P CoS a
139. Magnification factor for a single degree of freedom vibration is expressed by:-
X 1 x_ 1
(a) (b)
— ij( 1 r )2 + (2Cr)2 /(l + r)2 + (2Cr)2
X 1 X
St.—
(c) X (d) x
St — .J(1 —r) —(2Cr)2
140. Primary unbalanced force due to inertia of reciprocating parts in a reciprocating engine is
given by:-
(a) mri, 2 sinO (b) m 2 rcosO
2 (sin29 mco2r(C052J
(c) ma ri (d)
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141. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum
manner is called:-
(a) Linear programming (b) Network analysis
(c) Queueing theory (d) None of the above
142. For a speed reduction of 50: 1, which gear arrangement will be used?
(a) Spur gears (b) Bevel gears
(c) Worm and worm wheel (d) Herringbone gears
143. For a 200 full depth involute gear teeth system, minimum number of teeth on a pinion is:-
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 18
144. In a spring mass system if one spring of same stiffness is added in series, new frequency of
vibration will be:-
(a) (b)
(c) -k(O (d)
(on
145. During the dwell period of the cam, the follower:-
(a) Remains at rest (b) Moves in a straight line
(c) Moves with uniform speed (d) Does simple harmonic motion
146. Which one of the following correctively expresses the sensitivity of a governor?
N1—N2
2N1 N2 (b) 2N1 N2
2(N1 +N 2 ) 2(N1 —N2 )
N1 N, (d) N1 +N2
147. Which one of the following is electrically most conductive?
(a) Copper (b) Silver
(c) Aluminium (d) Gold
148. A relatively large plate of glass is subjected to a tensile stress of 40 MPa. If specific surface
energy and Elastic modulus for glass are 0.3 JIm2 and 69 GPa, respectively, the maximum
length of a surface crack that is possible without fracture is:-
(a) 4.1 pm (b) 8.2 pm
(c) 41 pm (d) 82pm
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149. In the graphical method of linear programming problem the optimum solution would lie in
the feasible polygon at:-
(a) Its one corner (b) Its center
(c) The middle of any side (d) None of the above
150. Coordination number for FCC crystal structure is:-
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 12
151. Atomic packing factor for unit cell of HCP crystal structure is:-
(a) 0.68 (b) 0.52
(c) 0.74 (d) 0.82
152. Relationship between atomic radius R and unit cell length 'a' for BCC crystal structure is:-
4R
(a) a= (b) a=2RJE
2R
(c) a= (d)
I-,
-'I-, a=3RJ
153. Which statement is not true in case of martensite?
(a) Crystal structure is BCC
(b) Transformation does not involve diffusion
(c) Grains are plate like or needle like in appearance
(d) It is a non-equilibrium phase
154. Which of the following statements is not true for diamond?
(a) It is hardest known material (b) Diamond is non-metallic
(c) It has high thermal conductivity (d) It has a very high electrical conductivity
155. Which one of the following has the highest value of specific stiffness?
(a) Steel (b) Aluminium
(c) Fibre glass (d) Carbon fibre composite
156. If a material expands freely due to heating, it will develop:-
(a) Thermal stresses (b) Tensile stresses
(c) Compressive stresses (d) No stresses
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157. Crystal lattice structure for mild steel is:-
(a) Single cubic (b) BCC
(c) FCC (d) HCP
158. In tensile test of mild steel, necking will start:-
(a) At lower yield stress (b) At upper yield stress
(c) At ultimate tensile stress (d) Just before fracture
159. Which medium is used for fastest cooling during quenching of steel?
(a) Air (b) Oil
(c) Water (d) Brine (salt water)
160. Compressive test performed on cast iron will have fracture occurring:-
(a) Along an oblique plane (b) Along the axis of load
(c) Perpendicular to the axis of load (d) None of the above
161. Eutectoid steel consists of:-
(a) Fully pearlite (b) Fully Austenite
(c) Ferrite + Pearlite (d) Cementite + Pearlite
162. Maximum principal strain theory of failure gives satisfactory result for:-
(a) Brittle materials only (b) Brittle as well as ductile materials
(c) Ductile materials only (d) None of the above
163. Property of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as:-
(a) Ductility (b) Toughness
(c) Elasticity (d) Hardness
164. Which one of the following is weaker than hydrogen bonds?
(a) Ionic bond (b) Vander Waals bond
(c) Covalent bond (d) Metallic bond
165. Increase in ferrite phase in steel leads to increase in:-
(a) Strength (b) Hardness
(c) Ductility (d) Brittleness
166. Austenite decomposes into ferrite and cementite at a temperature of:-
(a) 727 °C (b) 1148°C
(c) 1495 °C (d) 1539°C
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167. Slow plastic deformation in metals under a static load over a period of time is:-
(a) Fatigue (b) Endurance
(c) Creep (d) Dislocation
168. Which of the following statements is not true for austenitic stainless steels?
(a) They are hardened and strengthened by cold working
(b) They are most corrosion resistant amongst stainless steels
(c) Austenitic phase is extended to room temperature
(d) They are magnetic in nature
169. The crystal structure of alpha iron is:-
(a) Body centered cubic (b) Face centered cubic
(c) Hexagonal closed pack (d) Simple cubic
170. 18/8 stainless steel contains:-
(a) 18% vanadium, 8% chromium (b> 18% chromium, 8% nickel
(c) 18% tungsten, 8% nickel (d) 18% tungsten, 8% chromium
171. Important property requirements for tool materials employed for high speed machining are:-
(a) Impact strength, melting point and hardness
(b) Hot hardness, wear resistance and toughness
(c) Melting point, toughness and shear strength
(d) Shear strength, wear resistance and impact strength
172. Carbon content is highest in :-
(a) Mild steel (b) Eutectoid steels
(c) Hypoeutectoid steels (d) Hypereutectoid steels
173. Principal stress at a point in a plane stressed element are: a- a , 500 N/rn2
Normal stress on the plane inclined at 45° to x-axis will be:-
(a) 0 (b) 500 N/rn2
(c) 707 N/rn2 (d) 1000 N/rn2
174. If there are bad effects on strain hardening on a cold formed parts, the part must be:-
(a) Annealed (b) Tampered
(c) Hardened (d) Normalised
(44) Series-B
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175. Cold working is the process of deforming a metal plastically:-
(a) At recrystallization temperature (b) Below recrystallization temperature
(c) Above recrystallization temperature (d) At annealing temperature
176. Which one of the following materials is most elastic?
(a) Rubber (b) Steel
(c) Aluminium (d) Glass
177. The temperature at which new stress free grains are formed in the metal is called:-
(a) Critical temperature (b) Eutectic temperature
(c) Recrystallization temperature (d) Yield temperature
178. Toughness of steel is increased by adding:-
(a) Nickel (b) Sulphur
(c) Chromium (d) Tungsten
179. In rolling process, the state of stress of the material undergoing deformation is:-
(a) Pure compression (b) Pure shear
(c) Compression and shear (d) Tension and shear
180. Which one of the following is a point imperfection?
(a) Vacancy (b) Frenkel defect
(c) Schottky defect (d) All of the above
ESE-06 (46) Series-B
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Space For Rough Work/ ci4 * ESE-06 (48) Series-B
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Space ForRough Work/t cpi4 \31hI ESE-06 (49) Series-B
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Space ForRough Work/T5 4*4 ESE-06 (50) Series-B
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Space For Rough Work/ cii4 ESE-06 (51) Series-B
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Space For Rough Work/ cii4 AL ESE-06 (52) Series-B
Official key not published for this paper.
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Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.