UKPSC AE 2022: Uttarakhand Combined State Engineering Service Examination, CIVIL ENGINEERING (PAPER II)
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1. What should be the shape of ‘STOP’ sign board in India as per IRC guidelines ?
(a) octagonal with white border and red background.
(b) downward equilateral triangle with white border and red background.
(c) circular with white border and red background
(d) None of these
2. Which of the following traffic survey data is plotted by means of ‘Desire lines’ ?
(a) Speed and delay (b) Traffic volume
(c) Origin and destination (d) All of these
3. Traffic density is
(a) Number of vehicles in a specific direction per lane per day
(b) Number of vehicles in a specific direction per hour
(c) Number of vehicles per unit length of a lane at a given instant
(d) Maximum number of vehicles passing a given point in one hour
4. Design of horizontal and vertical alignment, super elevation and sight distance are
primarily influenced by
(a) Width of the vehicle (b) Length of the vehicle
(c) Height of the vehicle (d) Design speed of the vehicle
5. If the difference in elevation of an edge of the carriage way, 9 m wide, and its crown is 15
cm, then the camber is provided at a rate
(a) 1 in 15 (b) 1 in 60 (c) 1 in 45 (d) 1 in 30
6. Maximum vehicular flow beyond which the rotary may not be functioning efficiently is
(a) 500 vehicles per hour (b) 500 vehicles per day
(c) 5000 vehicles per hour (d) 5000 vehicles per day
7. The maximum deficiency in super elevation in B.G. track that is permitted is
(a) 20 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 60 mm (d) 75 mm
8. Shape of transition curve used on railways is
(a) elliptical (b) cubic parabola (c) spiral (d) hyperbola
9. The radius of relative stiffness used in the design of cement concrete pavement DOES
NOT depend on
(a) modulus of subgrade reaction (b) wheel load
(c) Poisson’s ratio of concrete (d) None of these
Series-A 2 CES-05
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1. IRC ‘’
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. ‘ ’ ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3. –
(a)
(b)
(c) , ,
(d)
4. , , :
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
5. 9 . - (carriage way) 15 .. ,
(camber) –
(a) 1 in 15 (b) 1 in 60 (c) 1 in 45 (d) 1 in 30
6. ,
(a) 500 (b) 500
(c) 5000 (d) 5000
7.
(a) 20 .. (b) 40 .. (c) 60 .. (d) 75 ..
8.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9. (radius of relative stiffness)
?
(a) (b)
(c) (Poisson) (d)
CES-05 3 Series-A
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10. Ruling gradient on a motor gauge track is 1 in 200. If the track is laid with a 5 curve, then
the allowable ruling gradient on the curve would be
(a) 1 in 200 (b) 1 in 285.71 (c) 1 in 333.3 (d) 1 in 400
11. The longitudinal movement of rails on a railway track is technically known as
(a) buckling (b) hogging (c) creep (d) None of these
12. Switch angle on a railway track depends upon which of the following ?
(i) heel divergence (ii) length of tongue rail
(iii) flange way clearance (iv) throw of switch
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
13. The Curve Lead (CL) for a 1 in 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight B.G. track (1.676 m
wide) would be
(a) 28.49 m (b) 21.04 m (c) 14.24 m (d) 7.45 m
14. Considering the length of rail as 13 m and sleeper density of (M + 5), the number of
sleepers required in the construction of 910 m long B.G. railway track would be
(a) 1310 (b) 1260 (c) 1170 (d) 1050
15. A section of B.G. railway track has a 4 horizontal curve and a gradient of 1 in 200. The
total resistance to traction due to gradient and curvature on the track would be
(a) 0.38% of weight (b) 0.46% of weight
(c) 0.62% of weight (d) 0.66% of weight
16. In railways, a triangle formation of track is mainly provided for
(a) diverting trains from main line to branch line
(b) crossing over between parallel tracks
(c) changing direction of engines through 180
(d) shunting wagon in yards
17. Bearing plates are used to fix
(a) flat footed rails to the wooden sleepers
(b) double headed rails to the wooden sleepers
(c) bull headed rails to the wooden sleepers
(d) None of these
18. On a railway track, “points and crossings” are used to change
(a) Gauge (b) Gradient (c) Direction (d) All of these
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10. (track) 1 in 200 5
(a) 1 in 200 (b) 1 in 285.71 (c) 1 in 333.3 (d) 1 in 400
11. (track) –
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12. ?
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(a) (i) (ii) (b) (ii) (iii) (c) (iii) (iv) (d) (i) (iv)
13. , 1.676 . , 1 in 8.5 (CL) –
(a) 28.49 . (b) 21.04 . (c) 14.24 . (d) 7.45 .
14. 13 m (M + 5)
910 .
(a) 1310 (b) 1260 (c) 1170 (d) 1050
15. 4 1 in 200
?
(a) 0.38% (b) 0.46%
(c) 0.62% (d) 0.66%
16. , :
(a)
(b)
(c) 180
(d)
17. (Bearing)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18. , ‘ ’ ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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19. In a permanent way of a railway track, the function of ballast layer is to
(a) transfer load from sleeper to formation.
(b) provide elasticity to the track.
(c) provide drainage in the track.
(d) All of these.
20. The distance through which the toe of the tongue rail moves sideways to provide a path for
the desired direction over the turnout is known as
(a) heel divergence (b) throw of the switch
(c) flangeway clearance (d) heel clerance
21. At stations, where the space is limited, the direction of a locomotive is changed using
(a) traverser (b) turn table (c) triangle (d) scotch block
22. Fish bolts used on railways track are made up of
(a) Cast iron (b) Low carbon steel (c) High carbon steel(d) Stainless steel
23. Number of fish bolts per fish plate used in Indian Railways is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
24. The maximum degree of curvature on a meter gauge railway track is limited to
(a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 30 (d) 40
25. The arrangement, where a left-hand rail of one track crosses the right-hand rail of another
track or vice-versa at a small angle, is known as
(a) Acute angle crossing (b) Diamond crossing
(c) Square crossing (d) Obtuse angle crossing
26. The main function of sleeper used in railways track is
(a) to support rails
(b) to hold rails at correct gauge
(c) to distribute load from the rails to the ballast
(d) All of these
27. If the magnetic bearing of the Sun at noon in southern hemisphere is 167, the magnetic
declination at that place would be
(a) 77 N (b) 23 S (c) 13 E (d) 13 W
28. If ‘’ is the angle of deflection at the curve and, ‘T1’ and ‘T2’ are the point of tangencies,
then the angle between the tangent at ‘T1’ and long chord ‘T1 T2’ would be
(a) /4 (b) /3 (c) /2 (d)
29. Coning of wheels of a train wagon
(a) provide a possibility of lateral movement of wheels on rails.
(b) provide smooth running of trains on rails.
(c) reduce excessive wear of inner face of rails.
(d) All of these
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19. (permanent way) ballast layer
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
20. , , ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
21. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22.
(a) (b) (Low)
(c) (d)
23. ( )
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
24.
(a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 30 (d) 40
25. ,
,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
27. 167
(a) 77 (b) 23 (c) 13 (d) 13
28. ‘’ ‘T1’ ‘T2’ , ‘T1’
‘T1 T2’
(a) /4 (b) /3 (c) /2 (d)
29. (coning) –
(a)
(b) ,
(c)
(d)
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30. An absence of a spherical aberration in a telescope is called
(a) Achromation (b) Chromitation (c) Alphanation (d) Ablation
31. Most important factor, out of the following, in selecting a triangulation survey station is
(a) distance between the two stations
(b) intervisibility
(c) intervisibility and well conditioned triangle
(d) accessibility and distance
32. A chain was used to measure a distance of 150 m. The designated length of the chain was
30 m. On testing, the length of the chain was found to be 30.01 m long. The actual length
measured is
(a) 149.95 m (b) 150.00 m (c) 150.05 m (d) 151.00 m
33. In a survey it was found that the RL of first point is 104 m and the RL of last point is 102.5 m.
If the cumulative rise is 40 m, then the cumulative fall will be
(a) 41.5 m (b) 38.5 m (c) 42.5 m (d) 37.5 m
34. Due to sag in the tape used to measure distance, the correction will be
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Sometime positive and sometime negative
(d) No correction is required
35. The sum of interior angles of a closed traverse having ‘n’ number of sides is equal to 720.
The number of sides in the traverse are
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
36. RL of a point ‘A’ is 100 m and the back sight reading on ‘A’ is 2.5 m. If the fore sight
reading on point ‘B’ on the ceiling of the roof is 2.2 m, then the RL of point – B would be
(a) 100.3 m (b) 99.7 m (c) 95.3 m (d) 104.7 m
37. In a triangulation network, at least one line that needs to be measured accurately to
calculate the site of the triangle is known as
(a) Check line (b) Tie line (c) Base line (d) Side line
38. A series of closed contour lines on a map, with values changing from lower to higher
towards inside, depicts a
(a) ridge (b) hill (c) slope (d) depression
39. A triangulation station, which is located close to the main station, as it could not be located
or setup instrument over it due to obstruction, is known as
(a) intermediate station (b) tie station
(c) satellite station (d) secondary station
40. The latitude and departure of a line PQ are + 78 m and – 45.1 m respectively. The whole
circle bearing of the line PQ would be
(a) 30 (b) 150 (c) 120 (d) 330
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30.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
31. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
32. 150 . 30 .
30.01 .
(a) 149.95 . (b) 150.00 . (c) 150.05 . (d) 151.00 .
33. RL 104 . RL 102.5 .
(cumulative rise) 40 . (cumulative fall)
(a) 41.5 . (b) 38.5 . (c) 42.5 . (d) 37.5 .
34.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
35. ‘n’ 720
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
36. ‘A’ (RL) 100 . 2.5 .
‘B’ - 2.2 . ‘B’ (RL)
(a) 100.3 . (b) 99.7 . (c) 95.3 . (d) 104.7 .
37. , ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
38. , ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
39. (station), (station)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
40. PQ : + 78 . – 45.1 . PQ
(a) 30 (b) 150 (c) 120 (d) 330
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41. A road is laid in plain terrain of an urban area. Design speed is 80 km/h., radius of
horizontal curve is 240 m. Minimum length of a transition curve would be
(a) 32 m (b) 42 m (c) 52 m (d) 72 m
42. A summit curve is formed at an intersection of 3 upgrade followed by a 5 downgrade.
For a stopping sight distance of 128 m the length of summit curve would be
(a) 271 m (b) 298 m (c) 322 m (d) 340 m
43. The operation of revolving a plane table about its vertical axis so that all the lines on the
sheet become parallel to the corresponding lines on the ground is known as
(a) Orientation (b) Levelling (c) Centering (d) Setting
44. If the whole circle bearing is 315 20, then its quadrantal bearing would be
(a) S 36 30 W (b) N 44 40 W (c) N 57 24 W (d) N 45 40 W
45. Radius of 1 curve of arc length 30 m would be
(a) 573 m (b) 1146 m (c) 1719 m (d) 3000 m
46. The correction for refraction as applied to levelling staff reading is given by
[d = length of sight;
R = radius of the earth]
1 d2 1 d2 1 d2 1 d2
(a) + 7 2R (b) – 7 2R (c) + 7 R (d) – 7 R
47. The precipitation caused by natural rising of warmer lighter air in colder and denser
surroundings is called
(a) convection precipitation (b) orographic precipitation
(c) cyclonic precipitation (d) None of these
48. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
(a) Shorter duration from longer duration
(b) Longer duration from shorter duration
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
49. A river has an average surface width of 20 m and length 60 km. If the evaporation
measured in the vicinity of river by a US Class – A Pan is 0.50 cm/day, Pan coefficient is
0.7, then the volume of water evaporated in a month of 30 days in m3 is
(a) 180 103 (b) 180 (c) 12.6 106 (d) 126 103
–
50. For a given storm, the ratio of average rainfall depth P and highest rainfall P0 is given by
[A = Area of catchment in km2].
(a) k exp (–A) (b) exp (–k An) (c) – kAn (d) a constant
51. A curve, which is composed of two arcs of different radius and both having centers on
opposite side of the tangent in between, is known as
(a) simple curve (b) compound curve (c) reverse curve (d) vertical curve
Series-A 10 CES-05
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41. 80 /.
240 .
(a) 32 . (b) 42 . (c) 52 . (d) 72 .
42. 3 5 128 .
–
(a) 271 . (b) 298 . (c) 322 . (d) 340 .
43.
,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
44. 315 20 ,
(a) S 36 30 W (b) N 44 40 W (c) N 57 24 W (d) N 45 40 W
45. 30 . 1
(a) 573 . (b) 1146 . (c) 1719 . (d) 3000 .
46.
[d =
R = ]
1 d2
–
1 d2
–
1 d2 1 d2
(a) + 7 2R (b) (c) + 7 R (d)
7 2R 7 R
47. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
48. S-
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
49. 20 . 60 .. US Class –
A 0.5 ../ 0.70 , 30
( . ) ?
(a) 180 103 (b) 180 (c) 12.6 106 (d) 126 103
50. , P– P0 –
[A = , 2 ]
(a) k exp (–A) (b) exp (–k An) (c) – kAn (d)
51. ,
, –
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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52. A direct runoff hydrograph due to an isolated storm was triangular in shape with a base of
60 hr. and a peak of 100 m3/s. If the catchment area is 500 km2, the effective rainfall of the
storm is
(a) 1.08 cm (b) 2.16 cm (c) 21.6 cm (d) 10.0 cm
53. The type of rain gauge used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible area is
(a) Floating type (b) Weighing bucket type
(c) Tipping bucket type (d) Simon’s rain gauge
54. Rainfall of 5 cm occurs on a catchment area of 0.01 km2. If the run off coefficient is 0.70,
then the run off from the catchment area is
(a) 35 105 litres (b) 50 105 litres (c) 35 104 litres (d) 50 104 litres
55. If the area between two isohytes of 35 cm and 45 cm is 100 km2, and between isohytes of
45 cm and 55 cm is 300 km2, then the average rainfall over the 400 km2 area is
(a) 45 cm (b) 47.5 cm (c) 48 cm (d) 50 cm
56. Probability of 10 year flood to occur at least once in the next 10 years is
(a) 100 % (b) 50 % (c) 65 % (d) 35 %
57. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
(a) Capacity to outflow ratio (b) Capacity to inflow ratio
(c) Specific storage to specific yield ratio (d) Outflow to inflow ratio
58. Isopleths are imaginary lines which show
(a) equal height of land (b) atmospheric pressure at equal height
(c) equal depth of evapo-transpiration (d) equal amount of rainfall
59. If duty for crop is 864 hect/cu.m. then for a base period of 100 days the delta of the crop
will be
(a) 100 cm (b) 110 cm (c) 120 cm (d) 130 cm
60. Perched aquifer is located within
(a) Confined aquifer (b) Unconfined aquifer
(c) Aquiclude (d) Floridian aquifer
61. Through DAD analysis, the maximum average depth over an area of 103 km2 due to one-
day storm was found to be 76.5 cm. For the same area, the maximum average depth for a
3-day storm can be expected to be
(a) < 76.5 cm
(b) = 76.5 cm
(c) > 76.5 cm
(d) greater or less than 76.5 cm depending upon type of rainfall
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52. 60
100 .3/. 500 ..2
(a) 1.08 (b) 2.16 (c) 21.6 (d) 10.0
53. , - ,
(a) (b) -
(c) - (d)
54. 0.01 ..2 , 0.7 , 5 ..
(run off)
(a) 35 105 (b) 50 105 (c) 35 104 (d) 50 104
55. 35 45 100 2 45 55
300 2 400 2
(a) 45 (b) 47.5 (c) 48 (d) 50
56. 10
(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 65% (d) 35%
57. (Trap) , :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
58. , ,
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
59. 864 ./3 100 –
(a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 120 (d) 130
60. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
61. DAD 1- 103 2 76.5 ..
3- :
(a) < 76.5 ..
(b) = 76.5 ..
(c) > 76.5 ..
(d) 76.5 .. ,
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62. Penman’s evapotranspiration equation is based on
(a) Water budget method
(b) Energy balance method only
(c) Energy balance and mass transfer method
(d) Water budget method and energy balance method
63. As a precipitation measuring device, Symon’s rain gauge
(a) measures intensity of rainfall
(b) measures depth of snowfall in hilly regions
(c) measures area of rainfall covered
(d) records depth of rainfall stored
64. Infiltration index (-index) takes into account
1. loss due to evaporation
2. loss of water due to transpiration
3. loss of water due to initial absorption into soil
4. loss of water draining down to water table
Correct statements are
(a) all four are correct (b) only three are correct
(c) only two are correct (d) only one is correct
65. Applying Darcy’s law in a porous media flow, Reynolds Number has to be less than one,
and is defined as
Discharge velocity * Maximum grain size
(a) Dynamic viscosity
Actual velocity * Average grain size
(b) Kinematic viscosity
Discharge velocity * Mean particle size
(c) Kinematic viscosity
Mass velocity * Pore size
(d) Dynamic viscosity
66. Four rain gauge stations in a catchment area have recorded 20, 25, 22 and 15 cm of rainfall
respectively. If their Theissen weights are 0.3, 0.4, 0.1 and 0.2 respectively, then the
average depth of rainfall in the catchment is
(a) 19.2 cm (b) 20.2 cm (c) 21.2 cm (d) 22.2 cm
67. The method of irrigation used for orchards is
(a) free flooding (b) border flooding
(c) check flooding (d) basin flooding
68. For a standing crop, the consumptive use of water is equal to the depth of water
(a) Transpired by the crop
(b) Evaporated by the crop
(c) Transpired and evaporated by the crop
(d) Used by crop in transpiration, evaporation and also the quantity of water evaporated
from adjacent soil
69. Useful storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored between
(a) Minimum and average reservoir level. (b) Minimum and maximum reservoir level.
(c) Minimum and full reservoir level. (d) Full and maximum reservoir level.
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62. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) mass (d)
63. –
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
64. : (-) –
1. 2. -
3. 4.
:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
65.
* *
(a) (b)
* *
(c) (d)
66. : 20, 25, 22 15
0.3, 0.4, 0.1 0.2
(a) 19.2 (b) 20.2 (c) 21.2 (d) 22.2
67.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
68. , ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) ,
69. :
(a) (b)
(c) - (d) -
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70. Water application efficiency is the ratio of
(a) Flow duty and quantity duty
(b) Duty and delta
(c) Water quantity stored in root zone and water quantity delivered
(d) Duty for rabi crop and duty for Kharif crop
71. The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop
during the full growth is known as
(a) effective irrigation requirement (b) consumptive use
(c) consumptive irrigation requirement (d) net irrigation requirement
72. Following data were noted from an irrigation field :
(i) Field capacity = 20%
(ii) Permanent wilting point = 10%
(iii) Permissible depletion of available soil moisture for the crop = 50%
(iv) rd of soil = 15 kN/m3
(v) Effective rainfall = 50 mm
The net irrigation requirement for the crop having 1 m root zone depth will be –
(a) 75 mm (b) 125 mm (c) 50 mm (d) 25 mm
73. When 8 cumec of water is supplied to a 40 hectare field for 4 hours then 216 mm water is
stored in root zone. The efficiency of applied water is
(a) 65 % (b) 70 % (c) 75 % (d) 80 %
74. A river training work is generally required when the river is
(a) aggrading type (b) degrading type
(c) meandering type (d) both (a) and (b)
75. The optimum depth of Kor watering for sugarcane is about
(a) 12.0 cm (b) 16.5 cm (c) 20.0 cm (d) 24.5 cm
76. For the upstream face of an earthen dam the most adverse condition or the stability of
slope is
(a) Sudden drawdown (b) Sloughing of slope
(c) Steady seepage (d) During construction
77. By providing a top width for roadways and free board in the elementary profile of a gravity
dam, the resultant force for full reservoir condition will
(a) shift towards the toe (b) shift towards the heel
(c) not shift at all (d) None of these
78. A clayey soil has a field capacity of 35% and permanent wilting point of 20%. If the
specific weight of the soil is 12.25 kN/m3, then the available moisture holding capacity in
0.8 m depth of soil constituting the root zone depth of a crop is [g = 9.81 m/s2]
(a) 15.6 cm (b) 17.5 cm (c) 20.8 cm (d) 36.4 cm
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79. Seepage through foundation of an earthen dam is controlled by
(a) Rock toe (b) Drainage filter
(c) Impervious cut-off (d) Inverted filter
80. The total water pressure per meter on a gravity dam due to 20 m depth of water would be
[water density = 1000 kg/m3]
(a) 2 104 kg (b) 2 106 kg (c) 2 105 kg (d) 2 107 kg
81. The alternate name of the ridge canal is
(a) Contour canal (b) Side slope canal
(c) Watershed canal (d) None of these
82. A contour canal is defined as
(a) a canal which may frequently encounter cross-drainage works.
(b) a canal which can irrigate on both sides.
(c) a canal which is not supposed to do irrigation.
(d) None of these.
83. A shaft spillway is generally provided at
(a) inside the body of a gravity dam (b) inside the upstream reservoir
(c) inside the downstream reservoir (d) on side flanks of the main dam
84. Which one of the following is a part of a river training system ?
(a) metering flume (b) silt excluder
(c) aqueduct (d) groynes
85. Consider the statements related to phreatic line in a homogenous earth dam
1. elliptical in shape
2. an equipotential line
3. top most flow line with zero water pressure
4. approximately a parabola
The correct statements are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
86. An earthen embankment is founded on a previous foundation of finite depth. A flownet
analysis gives 6 flow channels and 18 equipotential drops. Head of the water lost during
seepage is 6 m. Coefficient of permeability of previous strata is 4 10–5 m/min. Seepage
loss through embankment per metre length would be
(a) 0.3456 m3/day (b) 0.1152 m3/day
(c) 0.0648 m3/day (d) 0.0216 m3/day
87. In a saddle-syphon spillway, an air vent is provided at the level of the full reservoir surface
(a) to break the syphonic action at that level.
(b) to initiate a syphonic action at that level.
(c) to prevent cavitation.
(d) to maintain ventilation inside the syphon.
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79. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
80. 20 .
[ = 1000 ../3]
(a) 2 104 (b) 2 106 (c) 2 105 (d) 2 107
81.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
82.
(a) - (b)
(c) (d)
83.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
84. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
85. :
1. 2. - (equipotential line)
3. 4.
(a) 1, 2 3 (b) 2, 3 4 (c) 3 4 (d) 4
86.
6 18 6 .
4 10–5 / –
(a) 0.3456 3/ (b) 0.1152 3/ (c) 0.0648 3/ (d) 0.0216 3/
87. -
(a)
(b)
(c) (cavitation)
(d)
CES-05 19 Series-A
Text of page 20
88. In ordinary residential buildings, the damp proof course is provided at
(a) foundation level (b) water table level
(c) plinth level (d) floor level
89. In sanitary plumbing of a building, a two-way pipe system signifies
(a) separate soil pipe and waste pipe without vent pipe.
(b) a soil-cum-waste pipe and a ventilation pipe.
(c) separate soil and waste pipe and a common ventilation pipe.
(d) separate soil pipe and waste pipe and each with own vent pipe.
90. The most correct statement related to drip irrigation system is
(a) has high evaporation losses
(b) is not available for scattered trees and plants
(c) requires elaborate levelling of ground to be effective
(d) has high water application efficiency
91. The spacing of the drains to relieve water-logged land is directly proportional to the
(a) depth of drain below the ground surface
(b) depth of impervious strata from the drain
(c) depth of drain below the water level
(d) square root of the coefficient of permeability of the soil to be drained
92. Which one is water borne disease ?
(a) Typhoid (b) Cholera
(c) Infectious hepatitis (d) All of these
93. Drop manholes are the manholes
(a) without entry ladders (b) without manhole cover
(c) with depth more than 3.5 m (d) having drains at different levels
94. The trap used for a water closet is called
(a) gully trap (b) p-trap (c) intercepting trap (d) anti-syphon trap
95. The permissible limit of total hardness, as CaCO3, in drinking water as per IS 10500 : 2012
is
(a) 250 ppm (b) 300 ppm (c) 200 ppm (d) 500 ppm
96. Maximum failures of an earthen dam occurs due to
(a) U/S face erosion due to velocity of water.
(b) Slipping of slopes being rather steep.
(c) Leakage through cavities in dam structure.
(d) Overtopping due to insufficient height or spillway capacity.
Series-A 20 CES-05
Text of page 22
97. The preferred shape of sewer in a combined sewerage system is
(a) Circular (b) D-shape (c) Horse shoe (d) Egg shaped
98. The initial design period of a sewage treatment plant is
(a) 25 to 30 years (b) 20 to 25 years (c) 10 to 15 years (d) 5 to 10 years
99. Water distribution systems are designed with reference to
(a) average daily demand
(b) maximum daily demand and fire demand
(c) fire demand only
(d) average hourly demand
100. ‘Refuse’ term does not generally include
(a) excreta (b) putrescible solid waste
(c) ashes (d) non-putrescible solid waste
101. Which of the solid waste disposal method is most acceptable ecologically ?
(a) Composting (b) Sanitary landfills
(c) Pyrolysis (d) Incineration
102. No treatment to the sewage is given if dilution factor is
(a) less than 150 (b) between 150 and 300
(c) between 300 and 500 (d) more than 500
103. The correct sequence of treatment processes, given below, in a water treatment plant are
1. Filteration
2. Chlorination
3. Sedimentation
4. Coagulation
5. Flocculation
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 (c) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
104. The minimum Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in ppm, in a river for the survival of aquatic life is
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) zero
105. Waste stabilization ponds can be
(a) aerobic (b) anaerobic (c) facultative (d) any of these
106. The most efficient method of BOD removal is
(a) oxidation ditch (b) trickling filter
(c) oxidation pond (d) aerated lagoon
107. Friction factor for a pipe can be found from which of the following diagrams ?
(a) Mohr’s diagram (b) Moody’s diagram
(c) Reynold’s diagram (d) Friction diagram
Series-A 22 CES-05
Text of page 23
97. ,
(a) (b) -
(c) (d)
98.
(a) 25 30 (b) 20 25 (c) 10 15 (d) 5 10
99.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
100. ‘’
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
101. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
102.
(a) 150 (b) 150 300
(c) 300 500 (d) 500
103. :
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 (c) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
104. , (DO)
(... )
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d)
105.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
106. BOD
(a) (b) (c) (d)
107. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
CES-05 23 Series-A
Text of page 24
108. The solubility of oxygen in sewage as compared to its solubility in distilled water is about
(a) 80 % (b) 95 % (c) 98 % (d) 100 %
109. Between BOD and COD, the greater of the two is
(a) BOD (b) COD
(c) both are equal (d) depends on sewage quality
110. The waste water coming from kitchens, bath rooms and wash basins is known as
(a) sullage (b) domestic sewage
(c) sewage (d) drainage discharge
111. Self cleansing velocity is
(a) Maximum velocity of flow required to maintain a certain amount of solids in flow.
(b) Minimum velocity of flow required to maintain certain amounts of solids in flow.
(c) Flow velocity as would be sufficient to ensure that sewage does not remain in the
sewer.
(d) Flow velocity as would be sufficient to flush out any deposited solids in the sewer.
112. Which of the following type of valve allows water to flow in one direction but prevents in
reverse direction ?
(a) Sluice valve (b) Air relief valve (c) Reflux valve (d) None of these
113. Which of the following pipe is commonly used to resist corrosion from H2S ?
(a) Asbestos cement pipe (b) RCC pipe
(c) Glazed wire pipe (d) None of these
114. If an industrial waste water with flow of 2 m3/s and BOD concentration of 250 mg/litre
joins a stream with flow of 18 m3/s having BOD concentration of 10 mg/litre, then the
BOD concentration of the stream downstream of the confluence will be [in mg/litre]
(a) 9 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 34
115. The standard BOD of water is taken for
(a) one day (b) three days (c) five days (d) seven days
116. Water seal is provided in
(a) wash basin (b) urinal (c) water closet (d) kitchen sink
117. The self-cleaning velocity for all sewers in India is usually
(a) Less than 1.0 m/s (b) 1.0 m/s to 1.2 m/s
(c) 1.5 m/s to 2.0 m/s (d) 3.0 m/s to 3.5 m/s
118. Five day BOD at 15 C of the sewage of a town is 100 kg/day. If the 5-day BOD per head
at 15 C for standard sewage is 0.1 kg/day, then the population equivalent is
(a) 100 (b) 1000 (c) 5000 (d) 10000
Series-A 24 CES-05
Text of page 25
108.
(a) 80% (b) 95% (c) 98% (d) 100%
109. BOD COD –
(a) ... (BOD) (b) ...(COD)
(c) (d)
110. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
111. - –
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
112. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
113. H2S ?
(a) (b) ...
(c) (d)
114. 2 3/. BOD 250 /
18 3/. BOD 10 ../ ,
BOD ../
(a) 9 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 34
115. BOD ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
116. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
117.
(a) 1.0 ./. (b) 1.0 ./. 1.2 ./.
(c) 1.5 ./. 2.0 ./. (d) 3.0 ./. 3.5 ./.
118. 15 . BOD 100 /
, 15 . BOD 0.1 ../ –
(a) 100 (b) 1000 (c) 5000 (d) 10000
CES-05 25 Series-A
Text of page 26
119. Air binding phenomenon in rapid sand filters occurs due to
(a) excessive negative head (b) mud ball formation
(c) higher turbidity in the effluent (d) low temperature
120. As compared to higher pH values the contact period required for efficient chlorination at
lower pH values is
(a) same (b) longer (c) smaller (d) None of these
121. Primary air pollutants are
(a) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide (b) Ozone and carbon monoxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide and ozone (d) Nitrogen oxide and ozone
122. Electrostatic precipitators are used as pollution control device for the separation of
(a) SO2 (b) NOx (c) hydrocarbon (d) particulate matter
123. The multiplying factor usually adopted to obtain maximum daily demand of water from
the average daily demand of water is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.7
124. 2000 m3 of water is supplied per day to a city after treating it with Cl2 dose of 0.60 ppm.
For this purpose, the requirement of 30% bleaching powder per day would be
(a) 4 kg (b) 12 kg (c) 40 kg (d) 120 kg
125. India has been divided into biographical zones equal to
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
126. Sunderban is a biosphere reserve of India located in
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Odhisa (c) Greater Nicobar (d) West Bengal
127. Secondary carnivore belongs to trophic level
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
128. Commonly used hand pump is a
(a) reciprocating pump (b) centrifugal pump
(c) rotary pump (d) axial flow pump
129. Corrosion in pipe in due to
(a) dissolved oxygen in water (b) pH value of water
(c) impurities in the material (d) All of these
Series-A 26 CES-05
Text of page 27
119. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
120. pH , pH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
121. –
(a) -
(b) -
(c) -
(d)
122. ?
(a) SO2 (b) NOx (c) (d)
123. ,
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.7
124. 2000 3 0.60 ...
30%
(a) 4 .. (b) 12 .. (c) 40 .. (d) 120 ..
125. - ?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
126. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
127. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
128.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
129. –
(a) (b) pH
(c) (d)
CES-05 27 Series-A
Text of page 28
130. Mesosphere is the layer of atmosphere above surface of earth at approximately height as
(a) 50000 m to 85000 m (b) 10000 m to 15000 m
(c) 15000 m to 50000 m (d) above 300000 m
131. A common absorbant used in water and waste treatment is
(a) medium size sand (b) wood particles
(c) activated carbon granules (d) chlorine
132. The Sludge Volume Index (SVI) ranges between
(a) 0 to 50 ml/gr. (b) 50 to 150 ml/gr. (c) 150 to 200 ml/gr. (d) 200 to 250 ml/gr.
133. The method which is generally used for the design of water distribution system is
(a) Darcy – Weisback equation (b) Manning’s equation
(c) Hardy – Cross method (d) None of these
134. Global environmental temperature is likely to increase due to
(a) soil erosion (b) water pollution
(c) use of fossil fuel (d) use of solar energy
135. For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/s and the detention time
is 2 minutes, then the length of chamber is
(a) 16 m (b) 27 m (c) 14 m (d) 24 m
136. Eutrophication of water bodies is caused due to
(a) discharge of heavy metals
(b) excessive discharge of nutrients
(c) excessive discharge of suspended solids
(d) excessive discharge of chlorides
137. Thermal Power Plants, based on burning of coal, pollute atmosphere by adding to it
(a) CO2 and CO (b) SO2 and H2S
(c) NOX and SOX (d) NOX and SOX and particulate matter
Series-A 28 CES-05
Text of page 29
130. , ,
(a) 50000 . 85000 . (b) 10000 . 15000 .
(c) 15000 . 50000 . (d) 300000 .
131. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
132. (SVI)
(a) 0 50 ./. (b) 50 150 ./.
(c) 150 200 ./. (d) 200 250 ./.
133. ,
(a) – (b)
(c) – (d)
134. , –
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
135. , 0.2 ./. (detention time) 2 ,
(a) 16 . (b) 27 . (c) 14 . (d) 24 .
136.
(a)
(b) -
(c)
(d)
137. , –
(a) CO2 CO (b) SO2 H2S
(c) NOX SOX (d) NOX SOX
CES-05 29 Series-A
Text of page 30
138. The most common used retarder in cement is
(a) Gypsum (b) Calcium Chloride
(c) Calcium Carbonate (d) None of these
139. The frog of the brick in brick masonry is kept on
(a) bottom face (b) top face (c) shorter side (d) longer side
140. In a staircase, the height of riser is 15 cm and the number of treads are 18. If the stair has
two flights, the height of stair will be
(a) 2.85 m (b) 3.00 m (c) 2.70 m (d) 3.15 m
141. Hardest mineral among the following is
(a) Feldspar (b) Garnet (c) Quartz (d) Amphibole
142. Excess of silica content in clay for making bricks makes them
(a) melt on burning up (b) warp on burning
(c) brittle on burning (d) develops cracks on burning
143. Main content of wall putty are
(a) Calcium carbonate and Linseed oil (b) Magnesium sulphate and Turpentine oil
(c) Magnesium sulphate and Linseed oil (d) Calcium sulphate and Turpentine oil
144. Crushed pottery can be used to manufacture
(a) Fire bricks (b) Clay tiles (c) Stone bricks (d) Terracotta
145. Number of bricks required for one cu.m. of brick masonry is
(a) 200 (b) 400 (c) 500 (d) 600
146. In fire proof paint, the main constituent is
(a) copper powder (b) lead powder
(c) aluminium powder (d) asbestos fiber
147. To produce high alumina cement, following are fused together
(a) Gypsum, Clay, Lime stone (b) Gypsum, Bauxite, Lime stone
(c) Lime stone, Chalk (d) Bauxite, Lime stone
148. The compressive strength of concrete is higher than tensile strength, by approximately
(a) 2 times (b) 5 times (c) 10 times (d) 20 times
149. 10% of the cost of work is given to the contractor as mobilization advance
(a) when 10% of the work is completed
(b) when work at site is started
(c) before start of construction, for preparation to start the work
(d) during construction work for payment of salary to staff
150. The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
(a) 4% to 6% (b) 10% to 12% (c) 15% to 20% (d) 25% to 30%
Series-A 30 CES-05
Text of page 31
138.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
139.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
140. 15 18 ()
(a) 2.85 m (b) 3.00 m (c) 2.70 m (d) 3.15 m
141. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
142. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
143.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
144. , :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
145. .
(a) 200 (b) 400 (c) 500 (d) 600
146.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
147. :
(a) , , (b) , ,
(c) , (d) ,
148.
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 20
149. 10%
(a) 10%
(b)
(c) ,
(d)
150.
(a) 4% 6% (b) 10% 12% (c) 15% 20% (d) 25% 30%
CES-05 31 Series-A
Text of page 32
151. Scheduling method followed for prioritization of jobs in a project is known as
(a) Critical ratio method (b) Event flow method
(c) Short interval method (d) Slotting method
152. The estimate of expected time of completion of an activity is defined by
[Consider, to = optimistic time
tp = pessimistic time
tm = most likely time]
(a) (tp + to + 2tm)/2 (b) (tp + to + 3tm)/3
(c) (tp + to + 4tm)/4 (d) (tp + to + 4tm)/6
153. Ultimate strength to cement in cement concrete is provided by
(a) Tri calcium silicate (b) Di calcium silicate
(c) Tri calcium aluminate (d) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
154. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is known as
(a) Total float (b) Duration (c) Interfering float (d) Free float
155. The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log towards bark and narrower
towards the pith are known as
(a) Heart shakes (b) Cup shakes (c) Star shakes (d) Rind galls
156. As compared to ordinary Portland cement, high alumina cement has
(a) higher initial setting time but lower final setting time.
(b) lower initial setting time but higher final setting time.
(c) higher initial and final setting time.
(d) lower initial and final setting time
157. Type of pointing in V-shaped projection outside the wall surface is provided, is called
(a) Recessed pointing (b) Weather pointing
(c) V-pointing (d) Tuck-pointing
158. In an air conditioned building a door has to serve both purposes of opening and closing.
The most suitable type of door for this purpose is
(a) Swinging door (b) Sliding door
(c) Roller shutter door (d) Revolving door
159. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement regarding project flow ?
(a) Arrow indicates activity of project in the network.
(b) Size of the arrow indicates time expected to be consumed in that activity.
(c) Tail of the arrow indicates beginning of the activity.
(d) Head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity
Series-A 32 CES-05
Text of page 33
151.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
152. :
[, to =
tp =
tm = ]
(a) (tp + to + 2tm)/2 (b) (tp + to + 3tm)/3
(c) (tp + to + 4tm)/4 (d) (tp + to + 4tm)/6
153.
(a) - (b)
(c) - (d)
154. , ,
,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
155. (pith) ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
156. ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
157. V- ,
(a) (b) (c) V- (d) -
158.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
159. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
CES-05 33 Series-A
Text of page 34
160. Sandstone is a
(a) Sedimentary rock (b) Metamorphic rock
(c) Igneous rock (d) Volcanic rock
161. The operation of racking out of masonry joints for about 13 mm depth and then filling
them up with rich (1 : 3) cement-sand mortar is called
(a) Dressing (b) Pointing (c) Hipping (d) Surfacing
162. With the increase in moisture content the bulking of sand
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases to a maximum value and then decreases
(d) first decreases to a minimum value and then increases
163. Which of the following stores is used for decorative work in the buildings ?
(a) Granite (b) Basalt (c) Slate (d) Diamond
164. Increasing the content of carbon in steel results in
(a) increase in tensile strength (b) reduction in tensile strength
(c) increase in ductility (d) no effect
165. Mortar usually used in masonry work is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1:6 (d) 1 : 10
166. Sand in mortar is used for
(a) increasing the volume of mortar (b) reducing the shrinkage of binder
(c) reducing cracks in mortar after drying (d) All of these
167. Benkelman beam deflection method is used for the design of
(a) rigid overlay on rigid pavement (b) flexible overlay on flexible pavement
(c) flexible overlay on rigid pavement (d) rigid overlay on flexible pavement
168. Vehicles are moving at a speed of 60 km/h on a road having circular horizontal curve of
radius 128 m. Considering the coefficient of lateral friction as 0.15, the design super-
elevation would be
(a) 0.07 (b) 0.015 (c) 0.022 (d) zero
169. Enoscope is used to determine
(a) Spot speed (b) Average speed (c) Travel time (d) None of these
170. The type of door commonly used for garages and godowns is
(a) Rolling shutter door (b) Swing door
(c) Revolving door (d) Flush door
Series-A 34 CES-05
Text of page 35
160.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
161. , 13 mm : (1 : 3) –
(a) (b) (c) (d)
162.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
163. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
164. ()
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
165. :
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 6 (d) 1 : 10
166.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
167. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
168. 60 ./. 128 .
0.15 , –
(a) 0.07 (b) 0.015 (c) 0.022 (d)
169. _____
(a) (b) (c) (d)
170. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
CES-05 35 Series-A
Text of page 36
171. The values of ruling gradient and limiting gradient in a plain terrain as per IRC guidelines
are
(a) 1 in 12 and 1 in 15 (b) 1 in 15 and 1 in 12
(c) 1 in 20 and 1 in 30 (d) 1 in 30 and 1 in 20
172. Minimum length of overtaking zone, as per IRC guidelines, is equal to
(a) overtaking sight distance
(b) two times of overtaking sight distance
(c) three times of overtaking sight distance
(d) five times of overtaking sight distance
173. Two vehicles are approaching each other from opposite direction at a speed of 25 m/s on a
lane. Assuming perception-reaction time of 2.5 s, coefficient of longitudinal friction as
0.50, brake efficiency as 50% and coefficient of gravitational acceleration as 10 m/s/s, the
minimum distance required to avoid collision would be
(a) 153.6 m (b) 187.5 m (c) 375.0 m (d) 307.2 m
174. Number of potential conflict points on a two lane, two-way traffic roads crossing would
be, without pedestrian activity
(a) 11 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 24
175. Which of the following tests is/are performed to test the quality of bitumen ?
(a) Penetration test (b) Flash and fire point test
(c) Loss on heating test (d) All of these
176. Select the correct statement :
(a) Psychological extra widening depends upon the number of traffic lanes.
(b) Mechanical extra widening depends upon the speed of vehicles.
(c) Psychological extra widening depends upon the length of wheel base.
(d) Mechanical extra widening depends upon the length of wheel base and the radius of
curve.
177. Purpose of collision diagram is
(a) to eliminate accidents
(b) to do statistical analysis of accidents
(c) to study pattern of accidents and take remedial measures
(d) to provide assistance to accident victims
178. Tie bar in concrete pavements are provided at
(a) Transverse joint (b) Longitudinal joint
(c) Expansion joint (d) Contraction joint
179. Maximum grade compensation on a curve is given by
[R = radius of curve]
(a) 50/R (b) 75/R (c) 100/R (d) 125/R
180. Maximum number of vehicles can be parked along kerb, if the parking pattern is
(a) Parallel parking (b) 30 angle parking
(c) 45 angle parking (d) 90 angle parking
_________
Series-A 36 CES-05
Text of page 37
171. IRC –
(a) 1 in 12 1 in 15 (b) 1 in 15 1 in 12
(c) 1 in 20 1 in 30 (d) 1 in 30 1 in 20
172. IRC
(a) (b)
(c) 3 (d) 5
173. , 25 ./. -
2.5 . 0.50, - 50% g = 10 ...
,
(a) 153.6 m (b) 187.5 m (c) 375.0 m (d) 307.2 m
174. - ,
–
(a) 11 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 24
175. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
176. :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
177.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
178. () ( ) :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
179. –
[R = ]
(a) 50/R (b) 75/R (c) 100/R (d) 125/R
180. ,
(a) (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 90
____________
CES-05 37 Series-A
Text of page 38
Space For Rough Work / Series-A 38 CES-05
Text of page 39
Space For Rough Work / CES-05 39 Series-A
Text of page 40
Space For Rough Work / Series-A 40 CES-05
Page 1 of 40
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.