UKPSC AE 2022: Uttarakhand Combined State Engineering Service Examination, MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (PAPER I)
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1. Acceleration of a body can be expressed as
dv d2 s dv
(a) (b) (c) v· (d) All of these
dt dt2 ds
2. The centre of gravity of the coupler link in a four bar mechanism would experience
(a) no acceleration (b) only linear acceleration
(c) only angular acceleration (d) both linear and angular acceleration
3. Which one of the following is an inversion of slider crank mechanism ?
(a) elliptical tramel (b) hand pump
(c) Scotch yoke (d) Oldham’s coupling
4. Minimum number of teeth for involute rack and pinion arrangement of 20 pressure angle
is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 34
5. Critical speed of a rotating shaft depends upon
(a) mass (b) stiffness
(c) mass and stiffness (d) mass, stiffness and eccentricity
6. One quarternary joint is equal to how many binary joints ?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
7. Shear centre of a semi-circular arc of radius ‘r’ is
(a) r/ (b) 2r/ (c) 3r/ (d) 4r/
8. The hoop stress induced in a thick cylinder due to external pressure will be
(a) Compressive (b) Shear (c) Tensile (d) None of these
9. Coriolis component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that has
(a) linear displacement (b) rotational motion
(c) tangential acceleration (d) centripetal acceleration
10. The equivalent length (le) of a column hinged at both ends is given as
L L
(a) le = L (b) le = 2L (c) le = (d) le =
2 4
11. A sphere of weight ‘W’ rests in a groove formed by two planes OX and OY and these
planes are inclined at 30 and 60 respectively as shown in figure. If reaction on plane OY
is 200 N, the value of W will be
(a) 250 N (b) 320 N (c) 400 N (d) 600 N
Series-A 2 CES-06
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1. ?
dv d2 s dv
(a)
dt
(b)
dt2
(c) v·
ds
(d)
2.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. 20
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 34
5.
(a) (b)
(c) (d) ,
6. , ?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
7. ‘r’
(a) r/ (b) 2r/ (c) 3r/ (d) 4r/
8.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10. (le)
L L
(a) le = L (b) le = 2L (c) le = (d) le =
2 4
11. ‘W’ OX OY 30 60 ,
OY 200 N W
(a) 250 N (b) 320 N (c) 400 N (d) 600 N
CES-06 3 Series-A
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12. A mechanism has 8 links and 10 rotary joints. Using the Grubler’s criterion, the degree of
freedom for the mechanism will be
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
13. Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude of successive vibrations are
(a) constant (b) in arithmetic progression
(c) in geometric progression (d) in logarithmic progression
14. The static deflection of a shaft with flywheel is 4 mm. What is the critical speed in rad/sec
if g = 10 m/s2 ?
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 5 (d) 10
L
15. For a cantilever shown in fig, the deflection at point ‘A’ which is distance from free end
4
will be
1 WL3 27 WL3 27 WL3 1 WL3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
128 EI 130 EI 128 EI 130 EI
Here : E = Modulus of Elasticity
I = Moment of Inertia
w
16. If = 2 , where ‘w’ is the frequency of excitation and ‘wn’ is the natural frequency of
wn
vibration, then the transmissibility of vibration will be
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
17. The ratio of height of porter governor (when length of arms and links are equal) to the
height of Watt’s governor is ______
(Where m = Mass of the ball; M = Mass on the Sleeve)
(a) m(m + M) (b) M(m + M) (c) (m + M)/m (d) (m + M)/M
18. In a flat belt drive, the slip between the driver pulley and belt is 1 % and that between the
belt and follower pulley is 3 %. If the diameters for driver pulley and follower pulley are
equal, then the velocity ratio of the drive is
(a) 0.96 (b) 0.97 (c) 0.98 (d) 0.99
19. The equivalent stiffness of two springs of equal stiffness used in series is
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
2 3 4
Series-A 4 CES-06
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12. 8 10
( )
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
13.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
14. () 4 .. g = 10 ./(.)2 ,
(rad/sec ) ?
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 5 (d) 10
L
15. ‘A’ 4 , ?
1 WL3 27 WL3 27 WL3 1 WL3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
128 EI 130 EI 128 EI 130 EI
, E =
I =
w
16. w = 2 , ‘w’ ‘wn’ ,
n
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
17. ( )
–
( m = M = )
(a) m(m + M) (b) M(m + M) (c) (m + M)/m (d) (m + M)/M
18. , 1%
3%
(a) 0.96 (b) 0.97 (c) 0.98 (d) 0.99
19.
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
2 3 4
CES-06 5 Series-A
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20. If the ratio of the tension on tight side and slack side of a belt drive is increased by 20
percent, the power is
(a) increased by 20 percent (b) decreased by 20 percent
(c) increased by 10 percent (d) unaffected
21. The extremeties of a Mohr’s circle diameter represent
(a) the maximum and minimum values of the normal stress.
(b) the maximum and minimum values of the tangential stress.
(c) the maximum value of normal stress and the minimum value of tangential stress.
(d) None of these
22. Slenderness Ratio of column may be defined as the ratio of its length to the
(a) radius of gyration (b) maximum radius of gyration
(c) minimum radius of gyration (d) radius of column
23. Point of contra-flexure in a beam is a point where
(a) shear force is zero (b) shear force is maximum
(c) bending moment is maximum (d) bending moment changes sign
24. The maximum deflection in case of a simply supported beam with a point load at the mid-
span is
WL2 WL3 WL4 WL3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
48 EI 48 EI 48 EI 16 EI
Where, W = Total load, L = Length of beam, E = Young’s Modulus of elasticity and
I = Moment of inertia
25. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500 mm and thickness 10 mm is subjected to an internal
pressure of 5 MPa. The value of hoop stress is
(a) 100 MPa (b) 250 MPa (c) 500 MPa (d) 1000 MPa
26. In power transmission through shafts, the polar moment of inertia of the shaft is doubled.
What torque in relation to the original torque will then be required to produce the same
angle of twist ?
(a) one fourth (b) one half (c) double (d) same
27. Find the product of inertia of the area of the quadrant of a circular area with respect to x, y
axis as shown in figure
(a) r2/8 (b) r4/8 (c) r4/16 (d) r2/16
Series-A 6 CES-06
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28. If the length of a column is doubled, Euler’s critical buckling load will be
1 1
(a) of the original value (b) of the original value
2 4
1 1
(c) of the original value (d) of the original value
8 16
29. Rankine constant for cast iron is
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1600 7500 750 9000
30. If the radius of a wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its modulus of elasticity will be
(a) doubled (b) halved
(c) remain unaffected (d) become four times
31. In tensile test performed on Universal Testing Machine (UTM), the parameters actually
measured are
(a) load and elongation (b) true stress and strain
(c) engineering stress and strain (d) Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio
32. Diameter of a shaft is increased from 30 mm to 60 mm. If all other conditions remain
same, the torque carrying capacity will
(a) increase by 4 times (b) increase by 8 times
(c) increase by 16 times (d) decrease by 16 times
E
33. For a material, Poisson’s ratio is 0.3. What is the ratio of , where ‘E’ is Young’s Modulus
K
and ‘K’ is the bulk modulus ?
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.2 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.6
34. A cube having each side of length ‘l’ is constrained in all directions and is heated
uniformly so that temperature is raised to ‘T C’. If ‘’ is the thermal co-efficient of
expansion of the cube material and ‘E’ is the modulus of elasticity, the stress developed in
the cube is :
TE TE TE TE
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 – 2 2 1 + 2
( is Poisson’s ratio)
35. A solid uniform bar of diameter ‘d’ and length ‘l’ is hanging vertically from its free end.
The elongation of the bar due to self weight is
(a) proportional to ‘l’ and inversely proportional to ‘d2’
(b) proportional to ‘l2’ and inversely proportional to ‘d2’
(c) proportional to ‘l’ but independent of ‘d’.
(d) proportional to ‘l2’ but independent of ‘d’
36. The maximum distortion energy theory of failure is suitable to predict the failure of which
one of the following types of materials ?
(a) Plastics (b) Composite materials
(c) Ductile materials (d) Brittle materials
Series-A 8 CES-06
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28. ,
1 1 1 1
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
29. , ?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1600 7500 750 9000
30. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
31. () ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
32. 30 .. 60 ..
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
E
33. ‘ ’ 0.3 K (E K ) ,
‘E’ ‘K’
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.2 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.6
34. ‘l’
‘T C’ ‘’ ,
‘E’ ( ) ,
TE TE TE TE
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 – 2 2 1 + 2
( )
35. ‘d’ ‘l’
,
(a) ‘l’ ‘d2’ (b) ‘l2’ ‘d2’
(c) ‘l’ ‘d’ (d) ‘l2’ ‘d’
36. ()
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
CES-06 9 Series-A
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37. A member is subjected to the combined action of bending moment of 400 N m and torque
of 300 N m. The equivalent bending moment and equivalent torque in N m on the member
will be respectively :
(a) 400 and 550 (b) 450 and 500 (c) 500 and 400 (d) 550 and 400
38. A slider moves with a velocity ‘v’ on a link rotating with an angular velocity ‘’, the
Corioli’s component of acceleration is given by
v
(a) 2 v (b) v (c) (d) 2 v
2
39. What type of contact occurs during meshing of helical gears ?
(a) Point (b) Line (c) Area (d) Curved area
40. The maximum efficiency for spiral gear is
sin ( + ) + 1 cos ( – ) + 1
(a) (b)
cos ( – ) + 1 sin ( + ) + 1
cos ( + ) + 1 cos ( – ) + 1
(c) (d)
cos ( – ) + 1 cos ( + ) + 1
Here = shaft angle
= friction angle
41. If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem are :
1 = 100 MPa and 2 = 40 MPa.
Magnitude of maximum shear stress is
(a) 20 MPa (b) 30 MPa (c) 50 MPa (d) 60 MPa
42. Differential gear in an automobile is a
(a) epicyclic gear train (b) compound gear train
(c) complex gear train (d) None of these
43. A fixed gear having 200 teeth meshes with another gear having 50 teeth. The centre line of
both the gears being joined by an arm, so as to form an epicyclic gear train. The number of
revolutions made by the smaller gear for one revolution of the arm is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
44. A bar produces a lateral strain of magnitude 60 10–5 m/m when subjected to tensile stress
of magnitude 300 MPa along the axial direction. What is the elastic modulus of the
material if the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3 ?
(a) 100 GPa (b) 150 GPa (c) 200 GPa (d) 400 GPa
45. A water main pipe line having 1 metre diameter contains water at a pressure head of 100
metres. The permissible tensile stress for the material of main pipe line in 25 MPa. What
will be the minimum thickness of the water main pipe line ? (Take g = 10 m/sec 2)
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 50 mm
Series-A 10 CES-06
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46. For two meshing gears, their
(a) number of teeth must be same (b) addendum must be same
(c) dedendum must be same (d) module must be same
47. During transverse vibration, shaft is subjected to which types of stresses ?
(a) Tensile stresses (b) Torsional shear stresses
(c) Bending stresses (d) Shear stresses
48. In automobiles, Hooke’s Joint is used between which of the following ?
(a) Clutch and gear box (b) Gear box and differential
(c) Differential and wheels (d) Flywheel and clutch
49. A system will be in the state of resonance when the ratio of the frequency of external force
to the natural frequency of the system is
(a) 2 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.25 (d) 1.0
50. Torsional Pendulum is used to determine mass moment of inertia of
(a) flywheel (b) rigid bar (c) (a) and (b) (d) None of these
51. The net effect of creep in belt is to
(a) increase the speed of driven pulley (b) increase the power output
(c) decrease the speed of driven pulley (d) decrease the speed of driver pulley
52. The swaying couple is due to the
(a) primary unbalanced force (b) secondary unbalanced force
(c) partial balancing (d) None of these
53. Pitch Point on a CAM is
(a) any point on pitch curve
(b) any point on pitch circle
(c) the point on pitch curve having maximum pressure angle
(d) None of these
54. What is the condition of driving shaft and driven shaft having equal speed in Hooke’s Joint ?
(a) cos = sin (b) sin = + tan (c) tan = cos (d) cot = cos
Here, = angle through which the driving shaft turns, = angle of inclination of the
driving and driven shaft
55. The necking in case of ductile materials begins at the
(a) elastic limit point (b) upper yield point
(c) lower yield point (d) ultimate point
Series-A 12 CES-06
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46.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
47. , ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
48. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
49.
(a) 2 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.25 (d) 1.0
50. ?
(a) (b) () (c) (a) (b) (d)
51.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
52.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
53. (CAM)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
54. ?
(a) cos = sin (b) sin = tan (c) tan = cos (d) cot = cos
, = , =
55. ()
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
CES-06 13 Series-A
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56. The ratio of maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the
static force is known as
(a) Damping factor (b) Damping co-efficient
(c) Logarithmic decrement (d) Magnification factor
57. At nodal point in a shaft, the amplitude of torsional vibration is
(a) zero (b) minimum (c) maximum (d) None of these
58. The module of a gear is
(a) equal to circular pitch (b) equal to diametral pitch
(c) reciprocal of diametral pitch (d) reciprocal of circular pitch
59. In a simple gear train, the first and the last gear will rotate in the same direction when the
number of gears are
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5
60. The value of Poisson’s ratio is generally between
1 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) –1 and (c) and 1 (d) – 3 and – 2
2 4
61. Number of links in a Pantograph mechanism are
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
62. The coupling which is the inversion of the double slider crank chain is
(a) Universal coupling (b) Oldham’s coupling
(c) Box coupling (d) None of these
63. The velocity of the belt for maximum power is
T T T T
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3m 4m 5m 6m
Here T = maximum Tension in belt
m = mass of belt/metre
64. In general, total frictional torque acting on the clutch is given by
1 3
(a) nWR (b) nWR (c) nWR (d) None of these
2 4
Here n = Number of pair of friction
= Coefficient of friction
R = Mean radius of friction surface
W = Load
65. Partial balancing in locomotives results in
(a) hammer blow (b) variation in tractive effort
(c) swaying couple (d) All of these
max
66. If C1 is the co-efficient of speed fluctuation of a flywheel, then the ratio of will be
min
1 + 2C1 2 – C1 1 – 2C1 2 + C1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 – 2C1 2 + C1 1 + 2C1 2 – C1
Here = angular speed
Series-A 14 CES-06
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56.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
57.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
58.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
59.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5
60.
1 3
(a) 1 2 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) –3 –2
2 4
61. -
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
62.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
63. ()
T T T T
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3m 4m 5m 6m
, T = () , m = ()
64. ,
1 3
(a) nWR (b) nWR (c) nWR (d)
2 4
, n = , = , R = , W = ()
65.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
max
66. - C1 ,
min
1 + 2C1 2 – C1 1 – 2C1 2 + C1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 – 2C1 2 + C1 1 + 2C1 2 – C1
, =
CES-06 15 Series-A
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67. Find the friction force for the following figure :
(a) R/sin (b) R/cos (c) R cot (d) R/cosec
Here R = Reaction in the plane of groove
= Co-efficient of friction between belt and sides of the groove
68. An inline, four cylinder four stroke engine is balanced in which of the following ?
1. Primary forces 2. Primary couples
3. Secondary forces 4. Secondary couples
Select the correct answer using the above codes given below :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4
69. A point ‘B’ on a rigid link ‘AB’ moves with respect to ‘A’ with angular velocity (’
rad/sec. The total acceleration of ‘B’ with respect to ‘A’ will be equal to
(a) Vector sum of radial component and Coriolis component.
(b) Vector sum of tangential component and Coriolis component.
(c) Vector sum of radial component and tangential component.
(d) Vector difference of radial component and tangential component.
70. The gap kept between the tool and work piece in electrochemical machining is
(a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.45 mm (c) 0.35 mm (d) 0.75 mm
71. In Merchant equation, 2 – + is equal to
(a) (b) /2 (c) /3 (d) /4
72. In an orthogonal machining operation, the chip thickness and the uncut thickness are equal
to 0.45 mm. If the tool rake angle is 0, the shear plane angle is
(a) 45 (b) 30 (c) 18 (d) 60
73. Auto-collimator is used to check
(a) Roughness (b) Concavity
(c) Angle (d) Auto-mobile balance
74. Which one of the following is not related to grinding ?
(a) truing (b) dressing (c) buffing (d) glazing
75. The Euler’s crippling load for a 2 m long steel rod of uniform cross-section hinged at both
ends is 1 kN. The Euler’s crippling load for a 1 m long steel rod of same cross-section area
and hinged at both ends will be
(a) 0.5 kN (b) 2.0 kN (c) 4.0 kN (d) 0.25 kN
Series-A 16 CES-06
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76. Which of the following operation does not based on metal deformation ?
(a) Coining (b) Bending (c) Rolling (d) None of these
77. In a blanking operation, the clearance is provided on
(a) Punch (b) Die (c) both punch & die (d) Work piece
78. Deep drawing operation is performed in a
(a) Simple die (b) Compound die (c) Progressive die (d) Special die
79. What is Blocking Impression ?
(a) A process in casting (b) A process in welding
(c) A process in drop forging (d) A process in machining
80. Die inserts are used because
(a) replacement of wornout die parts are economical
(b) helpful in good surface finish
(c) parts ejection is easy from die mould
(d) None of these
81. Ironing is a process which is carried in
(a) Explosive forming (b) Deep drawing
(c) Rolling (d) Extrusion
82. Up-setting operation is done on a metal piece to
(a) increase its length (b) reduce cross section
(c) (a) & (b) both (d) increase cross section
83. Which type of chip formation is obtained in machining of thermosetting plastics ?
(a) Continuous chip (b) Built up edge
(c) Discontinuous chip (d) None of these
84. The metal removing rate of Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM) as compared to Electro-
Discharge machining (EDM) is
(a) more (b) less (c) same (d) None of these
85. Slip gauges are usually made of
(a) Cast iron (b) Aluminium (c) Alloy Steel (d) Copper
86. Which one of the following is the hardest cutting tool material next only to diamond ?
(a) Cemented Carbide (b) Ceramics
(c) Silicon (d) Cubic boron nitride
Series-A 18 CES-06
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76. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
77.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
78. ________
(a) (b) (c) (d)
79. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
80. -
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
81. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
82. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
83. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
84. (...) (...)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
85. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
86. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
CES-06 19 Series-A
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87. Which type of electrodes are used in milling application in electro-discharge machining
process ?
(a) Flat type electrodes (b) Spherical type electrodes
(c) Cylindrical type electrodes (d) Tubular type electrodes
88. In which process, there is no direct contact between tool and work piece ?
(a) Turning (b) Facing
(c) Broaching (d) Water Jet Machining
89. During punching operation maximum stress concentration occurs at
(a) the edge of punch & die (b) centre of punch & die
(c) at the die block only (d) stress is uniformly distributed
90. A cutter breaks while cutting gears and is removed by the operator. What is suitable
symbol on the flow process chart for this act ?
(a) Operation (b) Inspection
(c) Delay (d) Operation & Inspection &
91. In which type of welding electrode wheel is used ?
(a) Spot welding (b) Seem welding
(c) Projection welding (d) None of these
92. Stellite tools are
(a) Tungsten Carbide Tools (b) H.S.S. tools
(c) Cast Cobalt alloy (d) Carbon and medium alloy steel
93. Which one of the following processes is most commonly used for the forging of bolt heads
of hexagonal shape ?
(a) Closed die drop forging (b) Open die upset forging
(c) Closed die press forging (d) Open die progressive forging
94. In a single point turning operation of steel with a cemented carbide tool, Taylor’s tool life
exponent is 0.25. If the cutting speed is halved, the tool life will
(a) increase by 8 times (b) increase by 16 times
(c) increase by 4 times (d) decrease by 4 times
95. In case of open die forging if initial disc diameter is dint & final disc diameter is dfinal, the
true strain is given by
dfinal
(a) dfinal/dint (b) 2 ln (c) dint/dfinal (d) d2int/d2final
dint
96. The relation between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is
Vn V
(a) VnT = C (b) VTn = C (c) =C (d) =C
T Tn
Series-A 20 CES-06
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87.
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
88. , () ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
89.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
90.
?
(a) ( ) (b)
(c) (d) &
91. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
92.
(a) (b) H.S.S.
(c) - () (d)
93.
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
94. 0.25
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 4 (d) 4
95. dint dfinal ,
dfinal
(a) dfinal/dint (b) 2 ln (c) dint/dfinal (d) d2int/d2final
dint
96. (T) (V) / , ,
Vn V
(a) Vn T = C (b) VTn = C (c) =C (d) =C
T Tn
CES-06 21 Series-A
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97. The rolls used for rolling mills contain the following
(a) Body (b) Neck (c) Wabbler (d) All of these
98. Advantage of cold forming is
(a) Grain refinement takes place.
(b) Strength and hardness increases.
(c) No consequent heat treatment is needed.
(d) Force required is relatively small.
99. Clearance is provided to die in which operation ?
(a) Blanking operation (b) Piercing operation
(c) perforating operation (d) All of these
100. Which of the following control chart provide information about the proportion of defective
(Percentage defective or fraction defective) ?
–
(a) P – Chart (b) X – Chart (c) C – Chart (d) R – Chart
101. In ‘Method Study’, O symbol is used for
(a) Operation (b) Delay (c) Inspection (d) Motion
102. Which of the following is not a part of SPC ?
(a) Histogram (b) Sigma chart
(c) Acceptance Sampling (d) Design of Experiment
103. In case of VED analysis, ‘E’ stands for
(a) Easily available (b) Essential item
(c) Extra item (d) Empty item
104. A tie for leaving variable in simplex procedure implies
(a) optimality (b) cycling (c) no solution (d) degeneracy
105. What is balance delay in an assembly line ?
(a) line efficiency 100 (b) 100 – line efficiency (in percentage)
line efficiency
(c) (d) None of these
100
106. Plastic deformation means deformation
(a) beyond elastic limits (b) within elastic limits
(c) in plastic die (d) None of these
Series-A 22 CES-06
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97. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
98. ( ) ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
99. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
100. ( )
?
–
(a) P- (b) X - (c) C- (d) R-
101. ‘ ’ O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
102. ... ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
103. ‘VED’ ‘E’
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
104. (tie)
(a) () (b)
(c) (d)
105. ?
(a) 100 (b) 100 – ( )
(c)
100
(d)
106.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
CES-06 23 Series-A
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107. Production Flow Analysis (PFA) is a method of identifying part families that uses data
from
(a) Engineering drawing (b) CAD model
(c) Bill of material (d) Production schedule
108. A process is being controlled by taking sample periodically and testing by ‘GO-NOT-GO’
gauge. The control chart used in this is
(a) X and R-Chart (b) P – Chart
(c) C – Chart (d) U – Chart
109. In ABC method of Inventory control, Group C constitutes items having low consumption
value. What is the usual percentage of such items of the total items ?
(a) 70 to 80% (b) 20 to 30% (c) 10 to 15% (d) 0 to 5%
110. If the lead time is increased from 5 to 10 days in the basic EOQ model, then the Economic
order quantity will
(a) increase by 10% (b) increase by 20%
(c) remain same (d) decrease by 10%
111. In a single server queuing model, the arrival rate is , the service rate is . Which of the
following is the probability of system being idle ?
(a) (b) (c) 1 – (d) 1 –
112. Arrival Rate () follows :
(a) Poisson Distribution (b) Exponential Distribution
(c) Binomial Distribution (d) Normal Distribution
113. Which one of the following is not a function of production control ?
(a) Routing (b) Dispatching (c) Scheduling (d) Forecasting
114. The phrase “house of quality” is associated with
(a) Japan (b) Zero defect production
(c) QFD (d) Process capability analysis
115. Control limits on ‘R’ chart with usual notations are
– – – –
(a) R 3 d3 R/d2 (b) R 3 A2 R/d2
– – – –
(c) R 3 c2 R/d2 (d) R 3 A2 R/d2 & zero
116. Penalty cost method is also called as
(a) Least cost method (b) North-West corner method
(c) Vogel’s Approximation method (d) None of these
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107. (PFA) ,
(a) (b) CAD
(c) (d)
108. ‘--’ -
(a) (b) -
(c) - (d) -
109. ...
?
(a) 70 80% (b) 20 30% (c) 10 15% (d) 0 5%
110. (EOQ) 5 10 ,
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) (d) 10%
111. ,
?
(a) (b) (c) 1– (d) 1–
112. ()
(a) (b) (c) (d)
113. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
114. “ ” ?
(a) (b)
(c) ... (d)
115. ‘R’
– – – –
(a) R 3 d3 R/d2 (b) R 3 A2 R/d2
– – – –
(c) R 3 c2 R/d2 (d) R 3 A2 R/d2
116.
(a) (b) -
(c) (d)
CES-06 25 Series-A
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117. Interchangeability can be achieved by
(a) Standardisation (b) Decentralisation
(c) Outsourcing (d) All of these
118. In case of acceptance sampling whatever is the incoming quality, the outgoing quality
cannot be poor than
(a) AOQ (b) AOQL
(c) Customer’s risk (d) (Acceptance No/lot size) * 100
119. In case of process capability analysis, which is the most desirable condition ?
(a) USL – LSL < UNTL – LNTL (b) USL – LSL UNTL – LNTL
(c) USL – LSL = UNTL – LNTL (d) USL – LSL > UNTL – LNTL
120. Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a rate of 50 per hour and tickets are issued in order
of their arrival. The average time taken for issuing a ticket is 1 minute. Assuming that
customer arrivals follows Poisson distribution and service time follows exponential
distribution, the average waiting time in queue in minute is ______
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
121. In an assembly line, five workers are assigned tasks which take times of 10, 8, 6, 9 & 10
minutes respectively. The balance delay is
(a) 14.0 % (b) 14.8 % (c) 16.0 % (d) 16.8 %
122. If the annual demand of an item becomes half, ordering cost double, holding cost one
fourth and the unit cost twice, then what is the ratio of the new EOQ and the earlier EOQ ?
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d) 2
2 2
123. A variable which has no physical meaning but is used to obtain an initial basic feasible
solution to the linear programming problem is referred as
(a) Basic variable (b) Artificial variable
(c) Non-basic variable (d) Simple variable
124. Graphical method, simplex method and transportation method are concerned with
(a) break-even analysis (b) value analysis
(c) linear programming (d) queuing theory
125. Fulkerson’s Rule is connected with
(a) Numbering of events in network construction
(b) Numbering of components in scheduling
(c) In simulation model
(d) In queuing theory
126. Critical path is a path in the network diagram with
(a) maximum number of activities
(b) least time consumed path
(c) optimum time consumed path
(d) no possible delay in any activity on the path
Series-A 26 CES-06
Text of page 27
117.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
118. , _______
(a) ... (AOQ) (b) .... (AOQL)
(c) (d) ( ./ ) * 100
119. ?
(a) USL – LSL < UNTL – LNTL (b) USL – LSL UNTL – LNTL
(c) USL – LSL = UNTL – LNTL (d) USL – LSL > UNTL – LNTL
120. 50
1
, ______
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
121. -
10, 8, 6, 9 10
(a) 14.0% (b) 14.8% (c) 16.0% (d) 16.8%
122. , ,
, EOQ EOQ ?
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d) 2
2 2
123.
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
124. , ?
(a) - (b)
(c) (d)
125. ‘ ’ ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d) ()
126.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
CES-06 27 Series-A
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127. In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity is
(a) average level of inventory
(b) optimum lot size
(c) lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
(d) capacity of warehouse
128. In a control chart, uniformly small deviations from the mean indicates
(a) mistake/rounding-off of data (b) reduction of invariability
(c) error in sampling procedure (d) None of these
129. In a work study experiment, it is observed that a worker completes a job in an average time
of 15 minutes with a performance rating of 120%. The time required for another worker
having performance rating of 80% to complete the similar job (rounded off to one decimal
place) in minutes is _____.
(a) 22.5 minutes (b) 16.5 minutes (c) 20.5 minutes (d) 17.5 minutes
130. Co-ordination number for Face Centered Cubic (FCC) crystal structure is
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
131. Tensile strength of steel is increased by addition of ______
(a) Manganese (b) Sulphur (c) Phosphorous (d) Carbon
132. Which indentor is used for micro-hardness test ?
(a) Hardened Brinell steel ball (b) Vicker’s diamond pyramid
(c) Cone shape diamond (d) Knoop indentor
133. The process which does not improve the fatigue strength of a material is
(a) shot-peening (b) cold rolling (c) electroplating (d) polishing
134. Hardenability of a metal may be determined by
(a) Charpy test (b) Brinell test (c) Jominy test (d) Rockwell test
135. Hume – Rothery guidelines are related to
(a) Heat treatment (b) Solid-solution formation
(c) Fatigue failure (d) Rate of corrosion
136. Strain hardening co-efficient of perfectly plastic material is
(a) 0.00 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 1.00
137. For BCC cubic structure, atomic packing factor is
(a) 0.64 (b) 0.68 (c) 0.72 (d) 0.74
138. The inter-arrival time of customers at a barber shop are exponential with an average time
10 min. and the length of service time 6 min. assumed to be exponential. Find the
probability that a customer arriving at a barber shop will have to wait equal to
(a) 0.15 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.42 (d) 0.60
Series-A 28 CES-06
Text of page 29
127. ,
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
128.
(a) / (b)
(c) (d)
129. ( ) , 120%
15 80%
( ) ?
(a) 22.5 (b) 16.5 (c) 20.5 (d) 17.5
130.
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
131. ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
132. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
133. (fatigue) ?
(a) - (b) (c) (d)
134.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
135. - -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
136. ?
(a) 0.00 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 1.00
137. BCC
(a) 0.64 (b) 0.68 (c) 0.72 (d) 0.74
138. 10
6
(a) 0.15 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.42 (d) 0.60
CES-06 29 Series-A
Text of page 30
139. Phosphorus in cast iron
(a) increases its fluidity (b) reduces hardness
(c) increases brittleness (d) None of these
140. The phase boundary between alpha and (alpha + beta) regions is called
(a) Liquidus (b) Solidus (c) Solvus (d) None of these
141. In an imperfection free crystal, the resistivity at zero kelvin will be
(a) Infinite (b) Zero (c) Negative (d) Unity
142. Malleability of Silver may be determined by
(a) tensile test (b) torsion test (c) compression test (d) shear test
143. Line imperfection in a crystal is called
(a) Miller defect (b) Frankel defect (c) Schottky defect (d) Edge dislocation
144. Bakelite is an example of
(a) an elastomer (b) a fibre (c) a thermoset (d) a thermoplast
145. What type of fracture occurs when a brittle material is under torsion ?
(a) Cup and Cone (b) Granular transverse
(c) Granular helicoidal (d) Smooth transverse
146. Gypsum solution in water is an example of
(a) Dilatant fluids (b) Bingham fluids
(c) Thixotropic fluids (d) Rheopectic fluids
147. Piezometer is suitable for
(a) Small and Positive Pressure Measurement
(b) Small and Positive Force Measurement
(c) Small and Positive Electric Pulse Measurement
(d) All of these
148. What causes transformation of deformed martensite into austenite phase ?
(a) Heating (b) Cooling (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
149. 18-4-1 High Speed Steel (HSS) cutting tool contains 18 percent of
(a) Chromium (b) Tungsten (c) Vanadium (d) Carbon
150. The binding material used in cemented carbide tool is
(a) Ni (b) Cr (c) C (d) Co
Series-A 30 CES-06
Text of page 31
139.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
140. ( + )
(a) (b) (c) (d)
141. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
142.
(a) (b)
(c) (d) ( )
143. ?
(a) (b)
(c) () (d) (-)
144. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
145. , ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
146.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
147.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
148. ?
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
149. 18-4-1 - 18
(a) (b) (c) (d)
150. ________
(a) Ni () (b) Cr () (c) C () (d) Co ()
CES-06 31 Series-A
Text of page 32
151. We do normalizing of steel to
(a) improve its mechanical properties (b) refine grain structure
(c) remove internal stresses (d) All of these
152. The unit cell with three lattice parameters is
(a) Tetragonal (b) Orthorhombic (c) Monoclinic (d) Triclinic
153. A cation vacancy and an anion vacancy in a crystal of the type AB is called
(a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect
(c) Pair of vacancies (d) None of these
154. The ratio of long and short unit cell dimensions of ideal HCP crystal structure should be
(a) 1.56 (b) 1.89 (c) 1.633 (d) 1.59
155. Crystal structure of metals is studied by
(a) metallographic technique (b) X-ray technique
(c) electron microscopy (d) high powered microscope
156. Cermets are
(a) metals for high temperature use with ceramic like properties.
(b) ceramics with metallic strength and lusture.
(c) coated tool materials.
(d) metal-ceramic composite
157. The angle between two opposite faces of the diamond pyramid in Vicker’s hardness test is
(a) 118 (b) 120 (c) 136 (d) 140
158. Which of the following information about killed steel is correct ?
(a) have minimum impurity level
(b) have almost zero percentage of phosphorus and Sulphur
(c) are produced by LD process
(d) are free from oxygen
159. Assuming atoms to be perfect spheres, what is the value of the highest possible Atomic
Packing Factor (APF) in metals ?
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.74 (c) 0.66 (d) 0.50
160. The defect which takes place due to imperfect packing of atoms during crystallization, is
called
(a) line defect (b) surface defect (c) point defect (d) None of these
Series-A 32 CES-06
Text of page 33
151.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
152. (Cell)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
153. AB
(a) ( ) (b)
(c) (d)
154. ... ?
(a) 1.56 (b) 1.89 (c) 1.633 (d) 1.59
155. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
156. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
157.
(a) 118 (b) 120 (c) 136 (d) 140
158. ?
(a) (b)
(c) .. (d)
159.
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.74 (c) 0.66 (d) 0.50
160. –
(a) (b) (c) (d)
CES-06 33 Series-A
Text of page 34
161. A rocket consumes fuel at the rate of 125 kg/s and ejects exhaust gases at a speed of
80 km/s. The thrust (in MN) experienced by the rocket will be
(a) 1.56 (b) 10 (c) 0.64 (d) 0.01
162. Redundant Truss is a type of _____
(a) Perfect Truss (b) Imperfect Truss (c) Stable Truss (d) None of these
163. Two weight 800 N and 200 N are connected by a thread and they move along a rough
horizontal plane as shown in figure. The = 0.3. Find the acceleration of the weight.
(a) 1.0 m/sec2 (b) 0.760 m/sec2 (c) 0.981 m/sec2 (d) None of these
164. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a
(a) reverted gear train (b) simple gear train
(c) sun and planet gear (d) differential gear
165. Which of the governor is spring loaded ?
(a) Watt Governor (b) Porter Governor
(c) Proel Governor (d) Hartnell Governor
166. Equation of motion for a single degree of freedom system is 4 x + 9x + 16x = 0.
The damping ratio of the system is
9 9 9 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
128 16 64 8
2
167. The resultant of two equal forces having angle in between will be
3
(a) Twice to either force (b) Half to either force
(c) Zero (d) Equal to either force
168. Two particles with masses in the ratio of 1 : 9 are moving with equal kinetic energies. The
magnitude of their linear momentum will conform to the ratio
(a) 1 : 9 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
169. The number of natural frequencies associated with a cantilever beam undergoing
transverse vibration are
(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 1000 (d)
170. A string 2 m long is tied to the ends of a uniform rod that weighs 120 N and is 1.6 m long.
The string passes over a nail so that the rod hangs vertically. The tension in the string is
(a) 50 N (b) 75 N (c) 100 N (d) 125 N
171. A solid sphere of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’, rolling down on inclined plane has a velocity ‘u’
along the plane, its total kinetic energy will be
7 5 3 2
(a) mu2 (b) mu2 (c) mu2 (d) mu2
10 3 5 3
Series-A 34 CES-06
Text of page 35
161. 125 / 80 ../
(MN)
(a) 1.56 (b) 10 (c) 0.64 (d) 0.01
162. –
(a) (b) (c) (d)
163. 800 200
() 0.3 ,
(a) 1.0 ./2 (b) 0.760 ./2 (c) 0.981 ./2 (d)
164. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
165. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
166.
4x + 9x + 16x = 0
9 9 9 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
128 16 64 8
2
167. , ,
3
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
168. , 1 : 9 ,
(a) 1:9 (b) 9:1 (c) 1:3 (d) 3:1
169. ,
(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 1000 (d)
170. , 120 1.6 , 2
(a) 50 (b) 75 (c) 100 (d) 125
171. ‘m’ ‘r’ , ‘u’ ,
7 5 3 2
(a) mu2 (b) mu2 (c) mu2 (d) mu2
10 3 5 3
CES-06 35 Series-A
Text of page 36
172. The velocity of a particle (v) moving with simple harmonic motion at any instant given by
( angular velocity ; r Amplitude; y displacement)
(a) (y2 – r2) (b) (r2 – y2) (c) 2 (r2 – y2) (d) 2 (y2 – r2)
173. Pick up the correct statement :
(a) The rate of doing work is known as energy.
(b) The product of mass and velocity is known as energy.
(c) The capacity of doing work is known as energy.
(d) The product of mass and acceleration is known as energy.
174. The inertia force acts in
(a) an opposite direction to that of accelerating force.
(b) same direction as that of accelerating force.
(c) perpendicular direction to that of accelerating force.
(d) None of these
175. When a body is about to slide down from the inclined plane, then
(a) the angle of response > the angle of friction.
(b) the angle of response < the angle of friction.
(c) the angle of response = the angle of friction.
(d) None of these
176. The angle of friction ‘’ is given by the relation
Rn F
(a) tan = (b) tan =Rn F (c) tan = (d) tan = F – Rn
F Rn
Where Rn = Normal reaction
and F = Frictional force
177. A body will be in equilibrium, when
(a) two equal collinear forces are acting on it in same direction.
(b) two equal and opposite collinear forces are acting on it.
(c) two non-equal and opposite collinear forces are acting on it.
(d) None of these
178. A ball of mass ‘m’ rolls without slipping on a horizontal plane with angular velocity ‘’
and has simple rectilinear motion of velocity ‘v’. The kinetic energy possessed by the body
is equal to
k2 mv2 k mv2 k2 mv2 r2
(a) mv2 1 + 2 (b) 1+ (c) 1 + 2 (d) 1 + 2
r 2 r 2 r 2 k
Where k = radius of gyration
and r = radius of the ball
179. The branch of science dealing with motion along with forces causing it, is known as
(a) hydrostatic (b) kinetics (c) kinematics (d) static
180. The centre of gravity of a solid cone with height ‘h’ is at a distance of _____ from centre
of its base.
(a) h/4 (b) h/3 (c) h/2 (d) None of these
___________
Series-A 36 CES-06
Text of page 37
172. (v)
( ; r ; y )
(a) (y2 – r2) (b) (r2 – y2) (c) 2 (r2 – y2) (d) 2 (y2 – r2)
173.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
174. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
175. ,
(a) > (b) <
(c) = (d)
176. ‘’ ?
Rn F
(a) tan = (b) tan =Rn F (c) tan = (d) tan = F – Rn
F Rn
, Rn = & F =
177. ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
178. ‘m’ ‘’
‘v’
k2 mv2 k mv2 k2 mv2 r2
(a) mv2 1 + 2 (b) 1+ (c) 1 + 2 (d) 1 + 2
r 2 r 2 r 2 k
, k = r =
179. - ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
180. ‘h’ ,
(a) h/4 (b) h/3 (c) h/2 (d)
__________
CES-06 37 Series-A
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Space For Rough Work / Series-A 38 CES-06
Text of page 39
Space For Rough Work / CES-06 39 Series-A
Text of page 40
Space For Rough Work / Series-A 40 CES-06
Page 1 of 40
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.