UKPSC AE 2023: Uttarakhand Combined State Engineering Service Examination, Agriculutre Second
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Agricultural Engineering – II
1. Which is standard yard stick for measuring knock characteristics of fuel ?
(a) Cetane number (b) Volatility (c) Octane number (d) Detonation
2. Most popular type of clutch fitted on tractor is
(a) Multiple disc type (b) Hydraulic cylinder type
(c) Single plate type (d) Cone type
3. Tappet clearance of a tractor engine is measured by means of
(a) Feeler gauge (b) Screw gauge
(c) Simple measuring scale (d) Vernier calliper
4. When the distance of tractor front wheels at front is more than the distance at the back of
front wheels, it is called
(a) Toe-in (b) Track-width (c) Camber angle (d) Toe-out
5. The lower hitch of the tractor hitch system undergoes through which type of load ?
(a) Axial and bending (b) Axial, bending and shear
(c) Torsion, bending and shear (d) Axial and crushing
6. A diesel engine works on the principle of
(a) variable pressure cycle (b) variable volume cycle
(c) constant pressure cycle (d) constant volume cycle
7. Air cleaner is a part of
(a) Engine lubricating system (b) Engine cooling system
(c) Engine air-fuel supply system (d) Hydraulic system
8. If the pump delivers fluid of 30 lpm at 40 MPa, how much fluid power does the pump develop ?
(a) 10 kW (b) 20 kW (c) 30 kW (d) 40 kW
9. Which of the following parameter reduces the tractive efficiency of traction devices ?
(a) Slippage (b) Steering (c) Friction (d) All of these
10. The Transmission Ratio (TR) of a pair of gears in a gearbox should satisfy the condition
(a) 0.25 TR 2.0 (b) 2.0 TR 4.0 (c) 4.0 TR 6.0 (d) 6.0 TR 8.0
11. In hydrostatics, power is transmitted at
(a) low pressure and high velocity (b) high pressure and high velocity
(c) low pressure and low velocity (d) high pressure and low velocity
12. In a diesel engine the duration between time of injection and time of ignition is called
(a) Ignition lag (b) Period of ignition (c) Explosion period (d) Burning period
13. The height of cylinder of an engine is given by ________ where L is stroke length of piston
in mm.
(a) L + 0.2 L (b) L + 0.15 L (c) L + 0.25 L (d) L + 0.3 L
Series-A 2 AGN-02
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- II
1. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
4. , ,
(a) - (b) (c) (d) -
5. ?
(a) (b) ,
(c) , (d)
6.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7. - ______
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
8. 40 30
?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40
9. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10. (TR) ?
(a) 0.25 TR 2.0 (b) 2.0 TR 4.0 (c) 4.0 TR 6.0 (d) 6.0 TR 8.0
11.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
12.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13. ______ , L – ..
(a) L + 0.2 L (b) L + 0.15 L (c) L + 0.25 L (d) L + 0.3 L
AGN-02 3 Series-A
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14. Valve timing diagram of 4-stroke cycle engine is a function of
(a) Engine speed (b) Torque
(c) Compression ratio (d) Mean effective pressure
15. In forced feed water cooled engines _________ pump is used.
(a) Gear type (b) Vane type (c) Centrifugal type (d) Piston type
16. The optimum operating temperature of I.C. engine ranges from
(a) 70 to 90 C (b) 120 to 150 C (c) 200 to 250 C (d) 250 to 300 C
17. Turbocharger is a type of supercharger which is driven by
(a) Engine (b) Exhaust gases from engine
(c) Dynamo (d) Alternator
18. First tractor testing station in India was established at
(a) Hisar (b) Budhni (c) Anantpur (d) Dispur
19. Crank throw of crankshaft is
(a) half of piston stroke (b) equal to piston stroke
(c) three times of piston stroke (d) five times of piston stroke
20. Thermosiphon type water cooling system does not have a
(a) Radiator (b) Water pump (c) Radiator fan (d) Water jackets
21. In an I.C. engine, the camshaft gear is commonly called
(a) Two time gear (b) Three time gear (c) Four time gear (d) Half time gear
22. To maintain a constant speed of engine under varying load conditions, the engines are
provided with
(a) Nozzle (b) Governor (c) Gear (d) Thermostat
23. A fully charged lead-acid battery has ________% sulphuric acid and _________% water.
(a) 36 and 64 (b) 32 and 68 (c) 40 and 60 (d) 64 and 36
24. The temperature at which fuel catches fire is called
(a) Pour point (b) Cloud point (c) Smoke point (d) Flash point
25. The Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), hp is given by _____
where, D = Diameter of cylinder in inches
N = Number of cylinders
D2N D2N D2N N2D
(a) hp = 2.5 (b) hp = 3.5 (c) hp = 4.5 (d) hp = 3.5
26. The type of furrow opener recommended for use in hard or trashy ground and in sticky soil
(a) Single disc type (b) Runner type (c) Lister type (d) Hoe type
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14.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
15. ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16.
(a) 70 90 C (b) 120 150 C (c) 200 250 C (d) 250 300 C
17. -
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
19.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
20. ( )
(a) (b) (c) (d)
21. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22. - ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23. ______ % ______%
(a) 36 64 (b) 32 68 (c) 40 60 (d) 64 36
24. ,
(a) (b) ( )
(c) (d)
25. (...), (hp)
D =
N =
D2N D2N D2N N2D
(a) hp = 2.5 (b) hp = 3.5 (c) hp = 4.5 (d) hp = 3.5
26. ()
,
(a) () (b)
(c) (d) ()
AGN-02 5 Series-A
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27. _________ is a type of thresher whose cylinder consists of a flywheel with corrugation in
its periphery and sides which rotate inside a closed casing and concave.
(a) Drummy (b) Hammer mill (c) Raspbar (d) Syndicator
28. The frog of a M.B. plough is made of
(a) Mild steel (b) Brass (c) Soft centre steel (d) Aluminium
29. The peripheral speed of a thresher is a function of rpm of cylinder and ________.
(a) diameter of threshing cylinder (b) diameter of threshing pulley
(c) diameter of prime mover pulley (d) None of these
30. Swirl plate is a component of
(a) Planter (b) Duster (c) Nozzle (d) Fog generator
31. A wheel of an implement to maintain a uniform depth of working in soil is known as ______.
(a) Rear furrow wheel (b) Land wheel
(c) Front furrow wheel (d) Gauge wheel
32. Concavity of disc of disc-harrow affects
(a) Penetration (b) Width (c) Moisture content (d) Working speed
33. In case rotor plugs with soil in a rotavator, the suggested remedy is
(a) Speed up rotor (b) Slow down rotor speed
(c) Replace rotavator (d) None of these
34. The relationship between PTO hp of tractor and drawbar hp under heavy soil is given as
(a) DBHP = 66.67% of PTO HP (b) DBHP = 55.67% of PTO HP
(c) DBHP = 47.62% of PTO HP (d) DBHP = 33.33% of PTO HP
35. The specific fuel consumption in g/PTO HP/h recommended for tractor having power
category range between 25 to 35 PTO hp.
(a) 250 (b) 200 (c) 150 (d) 100
36. Optimum droplet size in micron meter for killing flying insects
(a) 10 – 15 (b) 30 – 50 (c) 60 – 100 (d) 250 – 500
37. Operating pressure for power sprayers ranges between
(a) 20 – 55 kg/cm2 (b) 65 – 90 kg/cm2 (c) 10 – 20 kg/cm2 (d) 1 – 7 kg/cm2
38. Lead given in the cutterbar in a mower is
(a) 1 cm/m (b) 2 cm/m (c) 3 cm/m (d) 4 cm/m
39. For safety requirement minimum length of feeding chute of thresher is
(a) 90 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 120 cm
40. Rotavator produces
(a) positive draft (b) zero draft (c) negative draft (d) none of these
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27. ______ ,
(a) (b) - (c) (d)
28.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
29. , () ______
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
30. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
31. , ,
(a) (b) () (c) (d)
32. ()
(a) () (b) (c) (d)
33. , ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
34.
(a) DBHP = 66.67% of PTO HP (b) DBHP = 55.67% of PTO HP
(c) DBHP = 47.62% of PTO HP (d) DBHP = 33.33% of PTO HP
35. 25 35 / /
(a) 250 (b) 200 (c) 150 (d) 100
36.
(a) 10 – 15 (b) 30 – 50 (c) 60 – 100 (d) 250 – 500
37.
(a) 20 – 55 kg/cm2 (b) 65 – 90 kg/cm2 (c) 10 – 20 kg/cm2 (d) 1 – 7 kg/cm2
38. ?
(a) 1 / (b) 2 / (c) 3 / (d) 4 /
39.
(a) 90 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 120
40.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
AGN-02 7 Series-A
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41. Cone index is an indication of soil hardness and is expressed as
(a) Force per unit length (b) Force per unit volume
(c) Force per unit surface (d) Force per unit area
42. A large tilt angle is best suited for
(a) Loamy soils (b) Non-cohesive soils (c) Sticky soils (d) Silty soils
43. Bearing in disc harrow gangs is subjected to
(a) Radial loads (b) Thrust loads (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
44. The maximum operating depth for disc harrow is usually ________ of the disc diameter.
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/5
45. In combine harvester the reel speed is given by
(a) 0.50 travel speed (b) 1.25 travel speed
(c) 1.50 travel speed (d) 1.75 travel speed
46. Movement of soil across a tillage tool surface without sticking is called
(a) Slipping (b) Grading (c) Trenching (d) Scouring
47. Zero till seed-cum-fertilizer drill has ________ type furrow openers.
(a) Shovel (b) Shoe (c) Disc (d) Inverted T
48. Vertical suction is provided in tractor operated mould board plough to control
(a) Width of cut (b) Pulverization of soil
(c) Depth of cut (d) Direction of motion
49. A four bottom 40 cm M.B. plough has working width of 15 cm and draft 1600 kg. The speed
of operation is 4.5 km/h and field efficiency of 70%. The actual field capacity is ______.
(a) 0.72 ha/h (b) 0.50 ha/h (c) 0.18 ha/h (d) 0.12 ha/h
50. Type of Mould Board used in sticky soil is
(a) General purpose type (b) Stubble type
(c) Slat type (d) Sod type
51. Tractor operated tandem disc harrow has
(a) Two ganges (b) Three ganges (c) Four ganges (d) Six ganges
52. The power developed by a pair of bullocks weighing 800 kg, while walking at a speed of
3 km/h is
(a) 8.88 hp (b) 32 hp (c) 0.88 hp (d) 0.53 hp
53. Which of the following implements is generally used for deep tillage ?
(a) Vertical disc plough (b) Harrow
(c) Cultivator (d) Subsoiler
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41.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
42.
(a) (b) -
(c) (d)
43. () ?
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
44. ________
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/5
45. ()
(a) 0.50 (b) 1.25
(c) 1.50 (d) 1.75
46.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. -- ______ ( )
(a) (b) (c) (d) ( )
48. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
49. 4 40 .. ( 40 ..) 15 ..
1600 .. 4.5 ../ 70%
_______
(a) 0.72 . (b) 0.50 . (c) 0.18 . (d) 0.12 .
50.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
51.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
52. 3 ../ 800 ..
(a) 8.88 hp (b) 32 hp (c) 0.88 hp (d) 0.53 hp
53. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
AGN-02 9 Series-A
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54. This type of ploughing is suitable for the field which has lower elevation in the centre.
(a) Gathering (b) Casting
(c) Mixed method (d) Corner to corner method
55. If a primary tillage implement giving poor penetration in the field, what would be the reason
for this cause ?
(a) Top link is too long. (b) Top link is too short.
(c) Plough frame is bent. (d) None of these
56. A soil core of 700 cm3 taken by a core sampler weighed 1.050 kg after oven drying. Particle
density of soil is 2.70 g/cm3. Determine the porosity of soil.
(a) 40% (b) 42% (c) 46% (d) 44.4%
57. The check basin method is suitable when the soil have
(a) high infiltration rate only (b) low infiltration rate only
(c) high as well as low infiltration rate (d) None of these
58. Amongst the major river basins, the largest catchment area in India is for
(a) Ganga (b) Sindhu (c) Brahmaputra (d) Godavari
59. For accurate measurement of small discharges in water channels which weir is most suitable ?
(a) 90 V-notch weir (b) Rectangular weir
(c) Cipolletti weir (d) Trapezoidal weir
60. What will be the gross depth of irrigation if net depth of irrigation is 12 cm and the irrigation
efficiency is 80% ?
(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm
61. A stream of 20 l/s is available for applying 3.6 cm of irrigation water in one hectare field.
What will be the irrigation time ?
(a) 10 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 5 hours
62. In the National Water Policy 2002 the highest priority in allocation of water resources of
India is given to
(a) Ecology (b) Irrigation (c) Drinking water (d) Industries
63. The rate of water application for a sprinkler system should be less than
(a) Infiltration rate of soil (b) Hydraulic conductivity of soil
(c) Drainage coefficient (d) Evaporation rate
64. The nature of Hooghoudt’s equation used for design of drainage system is
(a) parabolic (b) elliptic (c) hyperbolic (d) circular
65. The usual mesh size of the screen hole in a screen filter used in drip irrigation system is
(a) 80 mesh (b) 100 mesh (c) 120 mesh (d) 140 mesh
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54.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
55. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
56. 700 1.050 . .
2.70 / ..
(a) 40% (b) 42% (c) 46% (d) 44.4%
57. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
58. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
59. ?
(a) 90 (b)
(c) (d)
60. 12 .. 80 ?
(a) 10 .. (b) 12 .. (c) 15 .. (d) 18 ..
61. 20 3.6 ..
?
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 5
62. 2002
(a) (b) (c) (d)
63. () :
(a) () (b)
(c) (d)
64. ?
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
65.
(a) 80 (b) 100 (c) 120 (d) 140
AGN-02 11 Series-A
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66. The exchangeable sodium ratio of an alkali soil is greater than
(a) 4 (b) 8.5 (c) 12 (d) 15
67. An irrigation water source has the concentration of Na+, Ca++ and Mg++ as 18, 10 and 8 milli
equivalent per litre respectively. What is the SAR of water ?
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 9
68. The overland flow in an irrigation border strip is a case of
(a) steady flow (b) unsteady flow
(c) steady flow with decreasing discharge (d) unsteady flow with decreasing discharge
69. In sub-irrigation system, water reaches to the plants through ________.
(a) deep percolation (b) surface flow
(c) capillary action (d) syphon tubes
70. For minimum volume of excavation the bottom width (b), depth (d) and side slope () of a
trapezoidal channel are related as
2d tan 2b tan
(a) b = 2d tan 2 (b) d = 2b tan 2 (c) b = 2 (d) d = 2
71. The relationship between the radius of curvature (R) and the degree of the curve () in case
of alignment of drainage ditches is given by
15 15 30 30
(a) R = (b) D = (c) R = (d) D =
sin2 sin2 sin2 sin2
72. Which of the following is the most hazardous element in irrigation water in relation to crop
growth and production ?
(a) Potassium (b) Magnesium (c) Sodium (d) Calcium
73. If salt concentration of soil at field capacity and salt concentration in irrigation water is same,
then the theoretical leaching requirement would be
(a) zero (b) equal to the normal condition
(c) infinite (d) None of these
74. The pipe cavity method of determining hydraulic conductivity was proposed by
(a) Hooghoudt (b) Luthin (c) Kirkham (d) Darcy
75. Which of the following is not an assumption considered while deriving Hooghoudt’s
equation ?
(a) Soil is homogeneous.
(b) Darcy’s law is valid.
(c) Hydraulic gradient is equal to slope of water table.
(d) Water flows randomly.
Series-A 12 AGN-02
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66. ( )
(a) 4 (b) 8.5 (c) 12 (d) 15
67. Na+, Ca++ Mg++ 18, 10 8 .
?
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 9
68.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
69. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
70. (b), (d)
() -
2d tan 2b tan
(a) b = 2d tan 2 (b) d = 2b tan 2 (c) b = 2 (d) d = 2
71. , (R) ()
15 15 30 30
(a) R = (b) D = (c) R = (d) D =
sin2 sin2 sin2 sin2
72. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
73. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
74. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
75. , ?
(a)
(b)
(c) ,
(d)
AGN-02 13 Series-A
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76. In tile drainage, Blinding is the process of placing loose top soil to a depth of _______ cm
in the trench immediately after laying the tile.
(a) 5 to 10 (b) 15 to 20 (c) 30 to 45 (d) 45 to 75
77. Negative value of Leaching Requirement (LR) indicates
(a) Effective Rainfall > Evapotranspiration
(b) Effective Rainfall = Evapotranspiration
(c) Effective Rainfall < Evapotranspiration
(d) None of these
78. The concept of drainable porosity is appropriately useful in the design of ________.
(a) Surface drainage (b) Sub-surface drainage
(c) Bio drainage (d) None of these
79. Which of the following method is used to measure hydraulic conductivity when the
watertable is present near the ground surface ?
(a) Single Auger hole method (b) Hooghoudt’s equation
(c) The pipe cavity method (d) Cylinder permeameter method
80. Tube wells in hard rock areas are called
(a) Cavity wells (b) Gravity wells (c) Bore wells (d) Dug wells
81. Gypsum blocks are used for measuring
(a) E.C. (b) Soil moisture content
(c) pH (d) SAR
82. The border length for medium loam soil is
(a) 150 to 300 m (b) 100 to 180 m (c) 60 to 120 m (d) 300 to 400 m
83. In a right angle triangle notch if Q is the discharge, H is head over the crest, then
(a) Q H (b) Q 1/H (c) Q H3/2 (d) Q H5/2
84. Find the Delta for a crop if the duty for a base period of 140 days is 3456 hectare/m3/s.
(a) 345.6 mm (b) 350 mm (c) 310 mm (d) 390 mm
85. Which among the following have maximum porosity ?
(a) Clay soil (b) Sand soil (c) Gravel soil (d) Silt soil
86. Surging is used in
(a) Rainfall analysis (b) Terrace construction
(c) Tubewell development (d) Bund construction
87. A geologic formation which may contain water but is essentially impermeable to the flow
of water through it is known as
(a) Aquifer (b) Aquifuge (c) Aquiclude (d) Aquitard
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76. , ______
(a) 5 10 (b) 15 20 (c) 30 45 (d) 45 75
77. (LR)
(a) > - (b) = -
(c) < - (d)
78. ______
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
79. , -
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
80.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
81. ______
(a) .. (b) (c) .. (d) ...
82. ()
(a) 150 – 300 m (b) 100 – 180 m (c) 60 – 120 m (d) 300 – 400 m
83. Q H
(a) Q H (b) Q 1/H (c) Q H3/2 (d) Q H5/2
84. 140 3456 hectare/m3/s
(a) 345.6 mm (b) 350 mm (c) 310 mm (d) 390 mm
85. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
86.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
87. ,
(a) ()(b) (c) (d)
AGN-02 15 Series-A
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88. Keeping the hydraulic properties of the aquifer as constant, doubling the diameter of the tube
well, increases the well yield by about
(a) 7% (b) 8% (c) 11% (d) 15%
89. An unconfined aquifer of porosity 35%, permeability 35 m/day and specific yield 0.15 has
an area of 100 km2. The water table falls by 0.2 m during a drought. The volume of water
lost from storage in mm3 is ________
(a) 7.0 (b) 3.0 (c) 4.0 (d) 10.0
90. In one dimensional flow in an unconfined aquifer between two water bodies, when there is
a recharge, the water table profile is
(a) a parabola (b) part of an ellipse (c) a straight line (d) an arc of a circle
91. An aquifer confined at top and bottom by impermeable layers is stratified into three layers.
The respective thickness (m) and coefficient of permeability (m/day) of three layers are 4, 2
and 6 m and 30, 10 and 20 m/day. The transmissivity of the aquifer is m2/day is
(a) 260 (b) 227 (c) 80 (d) 23
92. The geophysical method of groundwater exploration which is suitable for both cased and
uncased well is
(a) Electrical resistivity (b) Electric logging
(c) Gamma ray logging (d) Seismic refraction surveying
93. In the design of a tubewell, the velocity of water entering a well screen should be kept about
_________ cm/sec.
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
94. Leakage factor is a property of
(a) Confined aquifer (b) Unconfined aquifer
(c) Semi-confined aquifer (d) Perched aquifer
95. The formula for computation of discharge rate from interfering wells was proposed by
(a) Dupuit (b) Thiem (c) Theis (d) Muskat
96. Perched aquifers generally occur
(a) below water table (b) above water table
(c) in aquicludes (d) in artesion aquifers
97. When there is an increase in the atmospheric pressure, the water level in a well penetrating
a confined aquifer
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) None of these
98. For a water bearing strata the sum of specific yield and specific retention is equal to
(a) Void ratio (b) Bulk density (c) Porosity (d) Specific gravity
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88. ()
(a) 7% (b) 8% (c) 11% (d) 15%
89. 100 .. 35%, 35 ./
0.15 0.20
______
(a) 7.0 (b) 3.0 (c) 4.0 (d) 10.0
90. ( )
() ( ) () -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
91.
() (/) 4, 2 6 30, 10 20 /
/
(a) 260 (b) 227 (c) 80 (d) 23
92. - - ,
(a) (b) ()
(c) () (d)
93. , ______ /
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
94. ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
95. , ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
96.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
97. _____
(a) (b) (c) (d)
98.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
AGN-02 17 Series-A
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99. Which one of the following has got upper layer as impermeable ?
(a) Confined aquifer (b) Unconfined aquifer
(c) Both confined and unconfined aquifer (d) Perched aquifer
100. The length of screen in cavity well is decided
(a) by sieve analysis of aquifer material (b) using well log
(c) no screen is provided (d) None of these
101. If unconfined, confined and leaky aquifer occur together in vertical cross section then such
an aquifer is called
(a) Artesian aquifer(b) Recharge zone (c) Layered aquifer (d) Perched aquifer
102. Which of the following is an open well ?
(a) Masonry well (b) Jetted well (c) Bored well (d) Drilled well
103. In case of unconfined aquifer, water storage coefficient is virtually equivalent to ________
(a) Specific retention (b) Specific yield
(c) Porosity (d) Transmissivity
104. Tubewells are developed to ________.
(a) increase their specific capacity (b) prevent sanding
(c) obtain maximum economic well life (d) All of these
105. The actual size of the slots in well screen may be fixed at 8% of the ________ size of the
gravel pack.
(a) D10 (b) D50 (c) D60 (d) D90
106. Which among the following statement is false ?
(a) South west monsoon is principal reason for rain in India.
(b) Western disturbance cause rainfall in Himalaya and Jammu Kashmir.
(c) Average annual rainfall of India is 118.3 cm.
(d) Rainfall variability is least in scanty rainfall areas.
107. For instantaneous unit hydrograph which among the following statement is most
appropriately correct ?
(a) It is of 1 unit depth magnitude flood hydrograph.
(b) One unit rainfall depth occurring instantaneously.
(c) Excess unit rainfall occurring instantaneously over the catchment.
(d) Occurring at any instant in a long storm.
108. For a catchment with an area of 360 km2, the equilibrium discharge of S curve obtained by
summation of 4 h unit hydrograph is
(a) 90 m3/s (b) 278 m3/s (c) 800 m3/s (d) 250 m3/s
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99. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
100. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
101. , -
______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
102. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
103. ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
104. .......
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
105. , ______ 8%
(a) D10 (b) D50 (c) D60 (d) D90
106. ?
(a)
(b)
(c) 118.3 ..
(d)
107. ?
(a) ()
(b)
(c)
(d)
108. 360 km2 S () 4 h
,
(a) 90 m3/s (b) 278 m3/s (c) 800 m3/s (d) 250 m3/s
AGN-02 19 Series-A
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109. The St. Venant equations for unsteady open channel flow are
(a) Continuity and momentum equations.
(b) Momentum equation in two different forms.
(c) Momentum and energy equations.
(d) Energy and continuity equations.
110. The volume of direct runoff generated from a 4 h unit hydrograph for the same watershed
during the month of January and July
(a) Volume in January will be more than volume of July.
(b) The peak of hydrograph in July is more than January but volume will be same.
(c) July month’s direct runoff volume is higher than January month.
(d) Will be the same.
111. In chute spilway the hydraulic jump is created at its
(a) inlet (b) sides (c) middle (d) outlet
112. Seepage line in an earth embankment is also known as
(a) Phreatic line (b) Lowermost flow line
(c) Runoff line (d) Water pressure line
113. The vertical interval of contour bund at 4.5% slope and moderate rainfall region with good
vegetation cover by Ramser method will be
(a) 0.80 m (b) 1.31 m (c) 2.10 m (d) 0.5 m
114. The kinetic energy of raindrops compared to runoff is
(a) 100 times more (b) 100 times less (c) 250 times more (d) 50 times more
115. When 4th order stream joins the 5th order stream, then the order of final stream will be
(a) 3rd order (b) 2nd order (c) 4th order (d) None of these
116. For the same organic matter content which soil among the following has lowest soil
erodibility ?
(a) Loamy sand (b) Silt clay (c) Clay loam (d) Silt loam
117. The flow mass curve is an integral curve of
(a) The hydrograph (b) The hyetograph
(c) The flow duration curve (d) The S curve
118. The surface runoff generated from a watershed will be increased in case of
(a) Deforestation (b) Various Stream linking within watershed
(c) Increased crop cover (d) Both (a) and (b)
119. The rainfall erosivity factor is calculated from the data of
(a) Daily rainfall recorder (b) Recording raingauge
(c) Erosivity meter (d) Stage recorder
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109.
(a) (b) -
(c) (d)
110. 4 h
(a) ,
(b)
(c)
(d)
111. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
112. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
113. 4.5%
(a) 0.80 m (b) 1.31 m (c) 2.10 m (d) 0.50 m
114. ______
(a) 100 (b) 100 (c) 250 (d) 50
115.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
116. , ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
117.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
118.
(a) () (b)
(c) (d) (a) (b)
119. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
AGN-02 21 Series-A
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120. The depth of the flow over a rectangular weir should not be more than about
(a) half the crest length. (b) two-third of the crest length.
(c) three-fourth of the crest length. (d) The length of the weir.
121. If the allowable percentage error is 10% and coefficient of variation is 30%, what will be
additional number of raingauge stations required in a watershed having already 04 raingauge
stations ?
(a) 9 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 3
122. For a watershed having an area of 400 ha and length 2 km, the form factor would be
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8
123. In grassed waterway, if the resistance offered by grass waterway () is doubled, then the
flow velocity (v), would become
(a) 2v (b) v2 (c) v/2 (d) v2/2
124. Approximate reduction in wind velocity (%) at a distance of 30 to 40 times the height of the
shelter belt towards the leeward side is
(a) 0 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 80
125. During bench terracing, the area lost is minimum when the terrace has a
(a) Flat batter slope (b) Vertical batter slope
(c) 30 batter slope (d) 45 batter slope
126. The spacing of sod checks used to stabilize gully beds usually vary from
(a) 0 to 1 m (b) 1.5 to 2.0 m (c) 2.5 to 10 m (d) 10 to 20 m
127. Which of the following structures are also used in the form of spur for control of stream
bank erosion ?
(a) Drop spillway (b) Chute spillway (c) Gabion (d) Drop inlet spillway
128. For “Undular Jump” the value of Froude number (F) ranges between
(a) 1 to 1.7 (b) 1.7 to 2.5 (c) 2.5 to 4.5 (d) 4.5 to 9.0
129. Which of the following types of soil movement is responsible for 50 to 75 percent of total
weight of soil erosion by wind ?
(a) Suspension (b) Saltation (c) Surface creep (d) None of these
130. The standard Symon’s type raingauge has a collecting area of radius
(a) 60.15 cm (b) 25.40 cm (c) 12.70 cm (d) 6.35 cm
131. Standard Curve Number (CN) and Potential maximum retention (S) are related as
25400 25400 10000
(a) CN = 254 + S (b) S = 254 + CN (c) CN = 100 + S (d) None of these
132. The length of each staggered contour trenches varies from
(a) 1 to 2 m (b) 2 to 3 m (c) 3 to 4 m (d) 4 to 5 m
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120. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
121. 10% 30% 4
, ?
(a) 9 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 3
122. 400 2 ..
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8
123. () (v)
(a) 2v (b) v2 (c) v/2 (d) v2/2
124. , 30 40 (%)
(a) 0 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 80
125. ,
(a) (b)
(c) 30 (d) 45
126.
(a) 0 1 (b) 1.5 2.0 (c) 2.5 10 (d) 10 20
127. ()
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
128. “ ”
(a) 1 1.7 (b) 1.7 2.5 (c) 2.5 4.5 (d) 4.5 9.0
129. 50 75
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
130.
(a) 60.15 .. (b) 25.40 .. (c) 12.70 .. (d) 6.35 ..
131. (CN) (S)
25400 25400 10000
(a) CN = 254 + S (b) S = 254 + CN (c) CN = 100 + S (d)
132. ()
(a) 1 2 (b) 2 3 (c) 3 4 (d) 4 5
AGN-02 23 Series-A
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133. In maps, the standard colour used for land capability class VIII is
(a) Green (b) Yellow (c) Blue (d) Purple
134. Doubling the length of slope of land, increases soil erosion about ________ times.
(a) 0.5 (b) 2.0 (c) 1.4 (d) 1.7
135. The “Middle Third” rule is associated with design of
(a) Gravity dam (b) Bench terraces (c) Contour bund (d) Wind break
136. For a triangular channel the specific energy (E) and critical depth (yc) are related as
5 5 5 5
(a) E = 4 yc (b) yc = 4 E (c) E = 4 + yc (d) yc = 4 + E
137. The terminal velocity of water droplets in raindrop erosion varies from ________ m/s.
(a) 1 to 4.0 (b) 4.5 to 9.0 (c) 10.0 to 25.0 (d) 25.0 to 40.0
138. The log-Pearson Type-III distribution is used for approximate estimation of the frequency of
(a) Peak flood (b) Extreme value distribution
(c) Daily peak (d) Measured annual flood peak
139. The reduction in soil erosion with minimum tillage operation is about
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
140. The flow duration curve is a graph between
(a) the discharge and time.
(b) accumulated discharge and time.
(c) the discharge and the percentage of time of such discharge is equal or exceeds.
(d) cumulative volume of flow and time.
141. In a watershed the line joining points of equal travel time of water is known as
(a) Isohyet (b) Isovel (c) Isochrone (d) Iso-pluvial line
142. Blaney-Criddle method is adopted to estimate
(a) Open pan evaporation (b) Potential evaporation
(c) Actual evapotranspiration (d) Potential evapotranspiration
143. For a rainfall distribution which is symmetrical about mean, the skewness coefficient is
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) may be positive or negative
144. For synthetic unit hydrograph, the lag time is defined as the time difference between the
(a) Centroid of rainfall excess to centroid of surface runoff.
(b) Centroid of rainfall to line joining the first inflation.
(c) Centroid of rainfall to peak of runoff rate distance.
(d) Start of rainfall to peak of runoff rate distance.
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133. VIII
(a) (b) (c) (d)
134. ______
(a) 0.5 (b) 2.0 (c) 1.4 (d) 1.7
135. “ ” ( ) ?
(a) (b) ( )(c) (d)
136. (E) (yc)
5 5 5 5
(a) E = 4 yc (b) yc = 4 E (c) E = 4 + yc (d) yc = 4 + E
137. -
(a) 1 4 (b) 4.5 9.0
(c) 10.0 25.0 (d) 25.0 40.0
138. – ____
(a) () (b)
(c) (d)
139. -
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
140.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
141.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
142.
(a) (b) ()
(c) (d) ()
143.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
144.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
AGN-02 25 Series-A
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145. Effective rainfall hyetograph is a plot between
(a) Rainfall intensity and time (b) Rainfall depth and time
(c) Direct runoff and time (d) Runoff and time
146. Cloud formation occurs in
(a) Troposphere (b) Exosphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Stratosphere
147. The arial characteristics of rainfall are presented by
(a) Mass curve (b) Hydrograph (c) Double mass curve (d) DAD curve
148. In channel routing by Muskingum method, the value of routing coefficient C0 and C1 are
–0.2 and 0.5 respectively. The value of third coefficient C2 will be
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.2 (c) –0.5 (d) 0.7
149. With respect to storm pattern advanced pattern represents
(a) Intense rainfall during the end of storm.
(b) Intense rainfall at the middle of storm.
(c) Intense rainfall at beginning of storm.
(d) Uniform Intensity rainfall during the storm.
150. Which of the following has the lowest pan coefficient ?
(a) Colorado Sunken Pan (b) Class ‘A’ Land Pan
(c) USGS Floating Pan (d) ISI Standard Pan
151. If x1, x2 and x3 are rainfall magnitude having return period 40, 80 and 120 years, which
statement of the following is true ?
(a) x1 < x2 < x3 (b) x1 < x2 and x3 < x2 (c) x1 > x2 > x3 (d) x1 < x2 and x2 > x3
152. The salinity in water ________.
(a) reduces evaporation (b) increases evaporation
(c) does not affect evaporation (d) None of the above
153. In soil erosion by water, if the slope is increased by four times, then the kinetic energy would
(a) remain same (b) increased by two times
(c) increased by four times (d) Can’t say anything
154. ________ is the practice of growing alternate strips of close growing and intertilled crops in
the same field.
(a) Crop rotation (b) Contour cropping (c) Strip cropping (d) Cropping intensity
155. In universal soil loss equation A = RKLSCP, the term C denotes
(a) Supporting conservation practice factor (b) Climate factor
(c) Crop cover management factor (d) None of these
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145.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
146. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
147.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
148. C0 C1 –0.2 0.5
C2
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.2 (c) – 0.5 (d) 0.7
149.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
150.
(a) (b) ‘A’
(c) .... (d) ISI
151. x1, x2 x3 40, 80 120 ?
(a) x1 < x2 < x3 (b) x1 < x2 x3 < x2 (c) x1 > x2 > x3 (d) x1 < x2 x2 > x3
152.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
153.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
154. - -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
155. A = RKLSCP ‘C’
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
AGN-02 27 Series-A
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156. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system ?
(a) Volume (b) Temperature (c) Mass (d) Energy
157. The value of one bar in SI units is equal to
(a) 100 N/m2 (b) 1000 N/m2 (c) 1 104 N/m2 (d) 1 105 N/m2
158. In an irreversible process there is a
(a) no gain of heat (b) gain of heat (c) no loss of heat (d) loss of heat
159. In S.I. unit, the value of mechanical equivalent of heat is
(a) 1 N-m/J (b) 10 N-m/J (c) 100 N-m/J (d) 1000 N-m/J
160. The processes or systems that do not involve heat transfer are called
(a) Isothermal processes (b) Equilibrium processes
(c) Adiabatic processes (d) Steady processes
161. For real gases Cp = Cv occurs at
(a) Critical temperature (b) Absolute zero temperature
(c) Triple point (d) All temperature
162. The efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine depends on
(a) temperature of source only (b) temperature of sink only
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) working substances
163. Kelvin-Planck’s law deals with
(a) conservation of heat (b) conservation of mass
(c) conversion of heat into work (d) conversion of work into heat
164. The heating and expanding of a gas is called
(a) Thermodynamic system (b) Thermodynamic cycle
(c) Thermodynamic process (d) Thermodynamic law
165. In S.I. unit, one tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to
(a) 50 kcal/min (b) 210 kJ/min (c) 50 kJ/min (d) 210 kcal/min
166. At very low pressure the compressibility factor Z-approaches
(a) peak value (b) zero (c) unity (d) minimum value
167. Which of the following expands in volume upon freezing ?
(a) Mercury (b) Alcohol (c) Water (d) Chloroform
168. As the pressure decreases, the deviation of the real gas from the ideal gas behaviour
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) decreases due to the inter molecular forces
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156. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
157. .. ______
(a) 100 /2 (b) 1000 /2 (c) 1 104 /2 (d) 1 105 /2
158.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
159. .. ,
(a) 1 -/ (b) 10 -/
(c) 100 -/ (d) 1000 -/
160. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
161. Cp = Cv
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
162.
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
163. - :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
164.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
165. .. ,
(a) 50 (b) 210
(c) 50 (d) 210
166. (Z) ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
167. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
168.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
AGN-02 29 Series-A
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169. Which of the following gases has the highest value of specific heat ratio (r) ?
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Methane (d) Helium
170. ‘There is no entropy transfer from a system to its surroundings’, under which method ?
(a) By heat transfer (b) By work transfer
(c) By mass transfer (d) By heated mass transfer
171. Heat transfer is a
(a) Path function (b) Point function (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
172. For the same compression ratio, efficiency of Otto cycle is
(a) same as diesel cycle (b) less than diesel cycle
(c) more than diesel cycle (d) None of the above
173. The Zeroth law of thermodynamics defines
(a) Internal energy (b) Temperature (c) Enthalpy (d) Pressure
174. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
(a) commercial refrigerators (b) domestic refrigerators
(c) gas liquefaction (d) air conditioning
175. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency () of Otto, diesel and dual cycle follow the
order :
(a) diesel > Otto > dual (b) dual > Otto > diesel
(c) Otto > dual > diesel (d) diesel > dual > Otto
176. In milk chilling plants the usual secondary refrigerant is
(a) Ammonia solution (b) Sodium silicate
(c) Glycol (d) Brine
177. The gas constant (R) is equal to the
(a) sum of the two specific heat. (b) difference of two specific heat.
(c) product of two specific heat. (d) ratio of two specific heat.
178. The system which exchanges neither energy nor matter with any other system or with
environment is
(a) Isolated system (b) Adiabatic system (c) Open system (d) All of these
179. A Quasi-Static process is also called a
(a) Irreversible process (b) Reversible process
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
180. The latent heat of vaporization at critical point is
(a) less than zero (b) equal to zero (c) greater than zero (d) None of these
__________
Series-A 30 AGN-02
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169. (r) ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
170. ‘ ’ ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
171.
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
172.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
173.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
174.
(a) (b)
(c) (d) -
175. , () ?
(a) > > (b) > >
(c) > > (d) > >
176.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
177. (R)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
178. - ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
179. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
180.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
_____________________________________
AGN-02 31 Series-A
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Space For Rough Work / Series-A 32 AGN-02
Page 1 of 32
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.