UKPSC Co-operative Supervisor & Environment Supervisor (Group C) 2023: General Knowledge, General Studies and Subjective Knowledge
Text of page 2
Section-A
General Knowledge, General Studies
1. Mangal Pandey was a sepoy of which regiment ?
(a) Royal Gorkha Rifle (b) 34th Bengal Native Infantry
(c) Sikh Regiment (d) None of these
2. In which of the following years the Planning Commission was replaced by ‘NITI Aayog’ ?
(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2015
3. In which of the following years the local self-government institutions were given the
constitutional status ?
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1994 (d) 1991
4. Which one of the following is responsible for preparation of budget and its presentation in
the Parliament ?
(a) Revenue Department (b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services (d) Department of Expenditure
5. Which one is the longest river of Peninsular India ?
(a) Krishna (b) Narmada (c) Godavari (d) Mahanadi
6. During the period of 2001-2011, which of the following states has maximum population
growth ?
(a) Bihar (b) West Bengal (c) Assom (d) Meghalaya
7. Which one of the following countries was at the top of the medal tally in the ‘Asian Athletics
Championship 2023’ ?
(a) Japan (b) China (c) India (d) North Korea
8. Which one of the following is India’s ranking in the World Press Freedom Index-2023 ?
(a) 150th (b) 152nd (c) 161st (d) 172nd
9. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution were amended for EWS
reservation ?
(a) 11 and 12 (b) 15 and 16 (c) 21 and 22 (d) 31 and 32
10. The place, where the Chandrayaan-3 was landed on the moon, is known as :
(a) Ram Setu Point (b) Pragyan Sthal (c) Shiv Shakti Point (d) None of these
11. By what name the area of Uttarakhand was known in the age of Ramayana and Mahabharat ?
(a) Him Bhumi (b) Pavitra Bhumi (c) Deva Bhumi (d) Kirat Bhumi
12. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
Inscription District
(a) Taleshwar grant plate – Almora
(b) Kandar grant plate – Champawat
(c) Pandukeshwar grant plate – Chamoli
(d) Bhudev’s Prashasti – Bageshwar
Series-A 2 ESE
Text of page 3
-
,
1. ?
(a) (b) 34
(c) (d)
2. ‘ ’ ‘ ’ ?
(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2015
3. ?
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1994 (d) 1991
4. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
5. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6. 2001-2011 ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7. ‘ 2023’ ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8. -2023 ?
(a) 150 (b) 152 (c) 161 (d) 172
9. ... ( )
?
(a) 11 12 (b) 15 16 (c) 21 22 (d) 31 32
10. , -3, ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12. ?
(a) –
(b) –
(c) –
(d) –
ESE 3 Series-A
Text of page 4
13. With which tribe the ‘Jagda fair’ is associated ?
(a) Boxa (b) Tharu (c) Raji (d) Jaunsari
14. Which river is associated with famous “Maun Fair” ?
(a) Aglad river (b) Alaknanda river (c) Pindar river (d) Ramganga river
15. According to census 2011, which of the following districts of Uttarakhand has the lowest
sex-ratio ?
(a) Champawat (b) Udhamsingh Nagar
(c) Dehradun (d) Nainital
16. Forest Research Institute (FRI), Dehradun was established in which of the following years ?
(a) 1900 (b) 1906 (c) 1908 (d) 1904
17. In which of the following Dham, maximum number of Pilgrims visited in the year 2022 ?
(a) Badrinath (b) Kedarnath (c) Gangotri (d) Yamunotri
18. Pt. Deendayal Upadhyaya ‘Home Stay Vikas Yojana’ in Uttarakhand was introduced in –
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
19. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for
every wrong answer. If he attempts all 60 questions and secures 130 marks, the number of
questions he attempted correctly, is :
(a) 35 (b) 38 (c) 40 (d) 42
20. Find the missing number from among the given alternatives :
(a) 22 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 35
21. Sphygmomanometer is a device used to measure the following.
(a) Intensity of Earthquake (b) Blood pressure of human beings
(c) Very high temperature (d) Pollution in Air
22. Following radiation has the highest penetration power.
(a) X-rays (b) Radio waves (c) Gamma rays (d) Infrared rays
23. In Computer codes system following is correct.
(a) 1 nibble = 2 bits (b) 1 nibble = 4 bits
(c) 1 nibble = 8 bits (d) 1 nibble = 16 bits
24. Dandi March started on :
(a) March 10, 1930 (b) March 12, 1930 (c) March 10, 1931 (d) March 12, 1931
25. Rudramadevi, the female King belongs to which dynasty ?
(a) Chalukya of Badami (b) Pandyas of Madras
(c) Gangas of Mysore (d) Kakatiya of Warangal
Series-A 4 ESE
Text of page 5
13. ‘ ’ ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
14. ‘ ’ ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. 2011 , ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16. (...), ?
(a) 1900 (b) 1906 (c) 1908 (d) 1904
17. 2022 ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18. . –
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
19. 4 1
60 130 ,
:
(a) 35 (b) 38 (c) 40 (d) 42
20. :
(a) 22 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 35
21. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22. :
(a) X- (b) (c) (d)
23. :
(a) 1 = 2 (b) 1 = 4 (c) 1 = 8 (d) 1 = 16
24. –
(a) 10, 1930 (b) 12, 1930 (c) 10, 1931 (d) 12, 1931
25. , ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ESE 5 Series-A
Text of page 6
Section-B
Subjective Knowledge
26. Select the pairs of isobars from the following nuclei :
23 24 24
12Na , 12Mg , 11Na
(a) 12Mg24, 11Na24 (b) 12Na23, 12Mg24 (c) 12Na23, 11Na24 (d) None of these
27. The ratio of momenta of an electron and an -particle which are accelerated from the rest
by a potential difference of 100 volt is
(me – mass of electron, m – mass of -particle)
2m e me me
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
m m 2m
28. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. It is suspended in
mid air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. What is the magnitude of the magnetic
field B ? (Ignore the earth’s magnetic field and take g = 9.8 m/s 2)
(a) 0.65 T (b) 1.53 T (c) 6.5 T (d) 15.3 T
29. The mechanical energy (E) of a weakly damped oscillator is given by (Symbols have their
usual meaning)
1
(a) E(t) = kA2 e–bt/m (b) E(t) = kA2 e–bt/m
2
1
(c) E(t) = kA e–bt/m (d) E(t) = kA e–bt/m
2
L
30. If L and R represent inductance and resistance respectively, then the dimensions of will
R
be
(a) M0L0T–1 (b) M0LT
(c) M0L0T (d) cannot be expressed in terms of M, L, T
31. Find the torque of a force 7^i + 3^j – 5k^ about the origin. The force acts on a particle whose
position vector is ^i – ^j + k.
^
(a) 2^i + 12^j + 10k^ (b) 10^i + 2^j + 12k^ (c) 12^i + 10^j + 2k^ (d) 6^i + 5^j + 9k^
32. A man of weight 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
uniform speed, 10 m/s. What will be the reading on the scale ? (Take g = 10 m/s 2)
(a) 700 kg (b) 70 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 105 kg
33. A refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept inside at 9 ºC. If room temperature is 36 ºC,
calculate the coefficient of performance.
(a) 10.14 (b) 10.00 (c) 10.44 (d) 10.30
34. Two charges 3 10–8 C and –2 10–8 C are located 20 cm apart. At what point on the line
joining the two charges is the electric potential zero ?
(a) 9 cm and 60 cm (b) 12 cm and 45 cm (c) 12 cm and 60 cm (d) 9 cm and 45 cm
Series-A 6 ESE
Text of page 7
-
26. :
23 24 24
12Na , 12Mg , 11Na
(a) 24
12Mg , 11Na
24 (b) 23
12Na , 12Mg
24 (c) 12Na23, 11Na24 (d)
27. - 100
- ?
(me → , m – - )
2m e me me
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
m m 2m
28. 200 g 1.5 m 2A
B B (
) g = 9.8 m/s2
(a) 0.65 T (b) 1.53 T (c) 6.5 T (d) 15.3 T
29. (E) ( )
1
(a) E(t) = kA2 e–bt/m (b) E(t) = kA2 e–bt/m
2
1
(c) E(t) = kA e–bt/m (d) E(t) = kA e–bt/m
2
30. L R : L/R :
(a) M0L0T–1 (b) M0LT
(c) M0L0T (d) M, L T
31. : 7^i + 3^j – 5k^ -
^i – ^j + k^
(a) 2^i + 12^j + 10k^ (b) 10^i + 2^j + 12k^ (c) 12^i + 10^j + 2k^ (d) 6^i + 5^j + 9k^
32. 70 kg 10 m/s
(g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 700 kg (b) 70 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 105 kg
33. 9 °C 36 °C ,
(a) 10.14 (b) 10.00 (c) 10.44 (d) 10.30
34. 3 × 10–8 C –2 × 10–8 C 20 cm
?
(a) 9 cm 60 cm (b) 12 cm 45 cm
(c) 12 cm 60 cm (d) 9 cm 45 cm
ESE 7 Series-A
Text of page 8
35. An ebonite plate (K = 3), 6 mm thick, is introduced between the parallel plates of a capacitor
of plate area 2 10–2 m2 and plate separation is 0.01 m. The capacitance of the capacitor
would be (0 = 8.85 10–12 F/m)
(a) 2.95 pF (b) 29.5 pF (c) 0.295 pF (d) 29.5 F
36. A Galvanometer is converted into Ammeter by connecting the Shunt resistance in which
way across the Galvanometer ?
(a) Series (b) Parallel (c) Series and Parallel (d) None of these
37. A blacksmith fixes iron ring on the rim of the wooden wheel of a horse cart. The diameters
of the rim and the iron ring are 5.243 m and 5.231 m, respectively at 27 ºC. To what
temperature should the ring be heated so as to fit the rim of the wheel ?
(Coefficient of linear expansion of Iron is 1.20 10–5k–1)
(a) 281 ºC (b) 280 ºC (c) 218 ºC (d) 812 ºC
38. A TV tower has a height of 75 m. What is the maximum distance and area upto which this
TV transmission can be received ? Take the radius of the earth as 6.4 106 m.
(a) 25 km and 3000 km2 (b) 30 km and 3010 km2
(c) 31 km and 3018 km2 (d) 32 km and 3020 km2
39. In the binary number system 111 represents
(a) One (b) Three (c) Seven (d) One hundred eleven
40. In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency if the input frequency is 50 Hz ?
(a) 25 Hz (b) 30 Hz (c) 40 Hz (d) 50 Hz
41. Bernoulli’s equation is
1
(a) P + 2 + gh = constant (b) P + + gh = constant
2 2
1 gh
(c) P + 2 + gh = constant (d) P + 2 + = constant
2 2
42. The elastic potential energy per unit volume of the wire (W) is
1 1 1
(a) W = (b) W = (c) W = (d) W =
2 2 2
43. The half-life of Polonium is 140 days. In what time, will 15 g of Polonium be disintegrated
out of its initial mass of 16 g ?
(a) 560 days (b) 2100 days (c) 2240 days (d) 280 days
44. A wire of resistance R is cut into ten equal parts, which are then joined in parallel. The
new resistance is
(a) 0.01R (b) 0.1R (c) 10R (d) 100R
Series-A 8 ESE
Text of page 9
35. (K = 3), 6 mm , 2 × 10–2 2
0.01 . ,
(0 = 8.85 10–12 F/m)
(a) 2.95 pF (b) 29.5 pF (c) 0.295 pF (d) 29.5 F
36. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
37. 27 ºC
: 5.243 m 5.231 m
? ( 1.20 10–5k–1 )
(a) 281 ºC (b) 280 ºC (c) 218 ºC (d) 812 ºC
38. TV 75 . TV
? 6.4 106 .
(a) 25 km 3000 km2 (b) 30 km 3010 km2
(c) 31 km 3018 km2 (d) 32 km 3020 km2
39. 111 :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
40. 50 Hz , ?
(a) 25 Hz (b) 30 Hz (c) 40 Hz (d) 50 Hz
41.
1
(a) P + 2 + gh = (b) P + + gh =
2 2
1 gh
(c) P + 2 + gh = (d) P + 2 + =
2 2
42. (W) :
1 1 1
(a) W = (b) W = (c) W = (d) W =
2 2 2
43. 140 16 g 15 g ?
(a) 560 (b) 2100 (c) 2240 (d) 280
44. R ,
?
(a) 0.01R (b) 0.1R (c) 10R (d) 100R
ESE 9 Series-A
Text of page 10
ΔV
45. The average depth of Indian ocean is about 3000 m. The fractional compression,
V
of water at the bottom of the ocean would be (given that the bulk modulus of water is
2.2 109 Nm–2 and g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 1.26% (b) 1.30% (c) 1.36% (d) 1.46%
46. Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What are the total surface area and the volume
of the cube to appropriate significant figures ?
(a) 310.3 m2; 370.7 m3 (b) 311.1 m2; 371.6 m3
(c) 311.2 m2; 372.5 m3 (d) 311.3 m2; 373.7 m3
47. The colour of light emitted by a Light Emitting Diode (LED) depends on
(a) the forward bias voltage (b) the reverse bias voltage
(c) the amount of forward current (d) the type of semiconductor material used
48. As a result of radioactive decay, 92U238 nucleus is converted into 91Pa234. The particles
emitted during this decay are
(a) a proton and a neutron (b) an alpha particle and a beta (–) particle
(c) two – particles and a neutron (d) two – particles and a proton
49. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a photo electron of zero velocity from the
surface of this metal, the wavelength of the incident radiation should be
(a) 2700 A ° (b) 1700 A° (c) 5900 A° °
(d) 3108 A
50. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(a) raises the potential barrier (b) reduces the majority carrier current
(c) lowers the potential barrier (d) reduces the minority carrier current
51. Colligative property of dilute solutions depend upon;
(a) Chemical nature of particles (b) Size of particles
(c) Number of particles (d) Temperature of particles
52. Atomic number of an element is equal to number of ________ in the nucleus.
(a) Sum of protons & neutrons (b) Protons
(c) Neutrons (d) Sum of neutrons & electrons
53. Total number of atoms per unit cell in a face centered cubic unit is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
54. What is the unit of rate constant ‘K’ for the first order reactions ?
(a) mol–1 (b) mol–1 litre–1 s–1 (c) s mol–1 (d) s–1
55. Adsorbate is that substance
(a) that is deposited on the surface of another substance
(b) able to take in and hold liquid
(c) which evaporates from the surface of metal
(d) None of these
Series-A 10 ESE
Text of page 11
45. 3000 m , ΔV
V
, 2.2 109 Nm–2 ( g = 10 ms–2 )
(a) 1.26% (b) 1.30% (c) 1.36% (d) 1.46%
46. 7.203 m
(a) 310.3 m2; 370.7 m3 (b) 311.1 m2; 371.6 m3
(c) 311.2 m2; 372.5 m3 (d) 311.3 m2; 373.7 m3
47. (LED) :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
48. , 92U238 91Pa234
:
(a) (b) - –
(c) – (d) -
49. 4 eV
:
°
(a) 2700 A °
(b) 1700 A °
(c) 5900 A °
(d) 3108 A
50. p-n ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
51. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
52. , _______
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
53.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
54. ‘K’
(a) mol–1 (b) mol–1 litre–1 s–1 (c) s mol–1 (d) s–1
55.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ESE 11 Series-A
Text of page 12
56. Sugar dissolves in water due to the formation of
(a) Covalent bond (b) Hydrogen bonding (c) Ionic bond (d) Co-ordinate bond
57. For an electrolyte the value of Vantt Hoff factor is
(a) greater than one (b) less than one
(c) equal to one (d) equal to zero
58. What is the hybridisation of N atom in CH3 – NH – CH2 – CH3 ?
(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d
59. Which of the following disaccharides contains fructose ?
(a) Maltose (b) Lactose (c) Sucrose (d) Cellobiose
60. The most electro-negative element is :
(a) S (b) N (c) O (d) F
61. The number of unpaired electrons in Cr atom is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
62. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g mL–1. Calculate the molality of the solution.
(a) 1.79 M (b) 3.79 M (c) 2.79 M (d) 0.79 M
63. Electron gain enthalpy of halogens follows, the order
(a) Cl > F > Br > I (b) I > Br > Cl > F (c) F > Cl > Br > I (d) Cl > Br > I > F
64. Mathematically, Boyle’s law can be represented as
(a) V I/P (b) V = K/P (c) VP = K (d) All of these
65. Predict the final product ‘C’ in the following reaction :
HBr NaCN H2O/H+
CH2 = CH2 A B C
(a) CH3 – COOH (b) CH3 – CH2 – OH (c) CH3 – CH2 – CHO (d) CH3 – CH2 COOH
66. The Pentose sugar present in DNA is
(a) – D – 2 – deoxyribose (b) – D – 2 – deoxyribose
(c) – D – ribose (d) – D – ribose
Series-A 12 ESE
Text of page 13
56. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) -
57. - :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
58. CH3 – NH – CH2 – CH3 N ?
(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d
59. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
60. :
(a) S (b) N (c) O (d) F
61. Cr :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
62. NaCl 3 M 1.25 g mL–1
(a) 1.79 M (b) 3.79 M (c) 2.79 M (d) 0.79 M
63. , :
(a) Cl > F > Br > I (b) I > Br > Cl > F (c) F > Cl > Br > I (d) Cl > Br > I > F
64.
(a) V I/P (b) V = K/P (c) VP = K (d)
65. ‘C’ :
HBr NaCN H2O/H+
CH2 = CH2 A B C
(a) CH3 – COOH (b) CH3 – CH2 – OH (c) CH3 – CH2 – CHO (d) CH3 – CH2 COOH
66. .. :
(a) – D – 2 – (b) – D – 2 –
(c) – D – (d) – D –
ESE 13 Series-A
Text of page 14
67. Give the IUPAC name of the following compound :
(a) 2-phenyl ethanoic acid (b) 1-phenyl ethanoic acid
(c) 2-benzyl ethanoic acid (d) 1-benzyl ethanoic acid
68. – D – Glucose and – D – Glucose are called :
(a) Epimer (b) Homomer (c) Anomer (d) Rotamer
69. About the term ‘Molarity’ of the solution, which statement is correct ?
(a) Number of moles dissolved in 1 kg of solvent
(b) Number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 litre of solvent
(c) Number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 litre of solution
(d) Number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 kg of solution
70. Which of the following is not a allotrope of carbon ?
(a) Graphite (b) Diamond (c) Ceramic (d) Fullerene
71. The scattering of light by colloidal particles is called :
(a) Brownian movement (b) Tyndall effect
(c) Adsorption (d) Electrophoresis
72. Which of the following does not show Tyndall effect ?
(a) Colloidal solution (b) Isotonic solution
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
73. Which of the following antibiotic drug was discovered by Alexander Fleming ?
(a) Ofloxacin (b) Tetracycline (c) Penicillin (d) None of these
74. Which of the following is not a type of the synthetic detergent ?
(a) Natural Detergents (b) Anionic Detergents
(c) Cationic Detergents (d) Polyionic Detergents
75. Natural Rubber is made by the use of monomer :
(a) Neoprene (b) Isoprene (c) Ethylene (d) Styrene
Series-A 14 ESE
Text of page 15
67. IUPAC :
(a) 2- (b) 1-
(c) 2- (d) 1-
68. – D – – D – :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
69. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
70. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
71. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
73. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
74. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
75.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ESE 15 Series-A
Text of page 16
Candidate should answer the following questions selecting any one section from
Optional Subject Section-1 (Q. No. 76 to 100 Subject : Biology) and
Optional Subject Section-2 (Q. No. 101 to 125 Subject : Mathematics)
For Optional Subject ‘Section – 1’ (Biology)
76. What term is used for the production of seeds without fertilization ?
(a) Apomixis (b) Parthenocarpy (c) Polyembryony (d) None of these
77. What other term is used for triple fusion ?
(a) Single fertilization (b) Double fertilization
(c) Triple fertilization (d) Tetra fertilization
78. Exudation of water sap through leaf margins is called ______
(a) Guttation (b) Transpiration (c) Condensation (d) None of these
79. Where does light reaction take place in plants ?
(a) In stroma (b) In thylakoids (c) In cytoplasm (d) In golgi bodies
80. What is the Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of carbohydrates ?
(a) Less than one (b) One (c) More than one (d) None of these
81. Any plane that passes through the centre divide the animal body into two equal halves is
called
(a) Asymmetrical (b) Radial symmetry
(c) Bilateral symmetry (d) None of these
82. Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but not in DNA ?
(a) Adenine (b) Thymine (c) Uracil (d) Guanine
83. Dobson Unit (DU) is used to measure the following :
(a) Depth of sea (b) Thickness of rocks (c) Ozone layer (d) None of these
84. What is the role of bile juice in digestion ?
(a) Digestion of carbohydrates (b) Digestion of proteins
(c) Breakdown of nucleic acids (d) Emulsification of fats
Series-A 16 ESE
Text of page 17
‘-1’ ( 76 100 : )
‘-2’ ( 101 125 : )
‘-1’ ()
76. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
77. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
78. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
79. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
80. (RQ) ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
81. , –
(a) (b)
(c) ( ) (d)
82. ... ... ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
83. (..) :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
84. () ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ESE 17 Series-A
Text of page 18
85. Goblet cells secrete
(a) Mucus (b) Digestive juice (c) Glucagon (d) Insulin
86. In which stage of cell cycle DNA synthesis takes place ?
(a) M-phase (b) G1-phase (c) S-phase (d) G2-phase
87. Which among the following is correct statement ?
(a) Primary and Secondary spermatocytes are haploid cells.
(b) Primary and Secondary spermatocytes are diploid cells.
(c) Secondary spermatocytes and Spermatid are haploid cells.
(d) None of these
88. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is secreted from ________.
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Adenohypophysis (c) Neurohypophysis (d) Ovary
89. What is in-breeding ?
(a) Mating of closely related population of a species
(b) Mating of unrelated species
(c) Mating of clones of different species
(d) Mating of two different organisms
90. Which region of the globe exhibits highest species diversity ?
(a) Amazon forests (b) Himalaya (c) Madagascar (d) Siberia
91. The desirable approach to save a threatened plant from extinction is –
(a) Ex-situ conservation (b) In-situ conservation
(c) Biopreservation (d) None of these
92. Which of the following constitute a food chain ?
(a) Grass, Wheat and Mango (b) Grass, Goat and Human
(c) Goat, Cow and Elephant (d) Grass, Fish and Goat
Series-A 18 ESE
Text of page 19
85. –
(a) () (b) (c) (d)
86. ... ?
(a) M- (b) G1- (c) S- (d) G2-
87. ?
(a)
(b)
(c) ()
(d)
88. ... ( ) ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
89. ?
(a)
(b)
(c) -
(d)
90. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
91.
(a) - (b) - (c) (d)
92. ?
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
ESE 19 Series-A
Text of page 20
93. Energy flow in an ecosystem is always –
(a) unidirectional (b) bidirectional (c) multidirectional (d) None of these
94. The first human like beings, the hominid was called –
(a) Australopithecus (b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo habilis (d) Homo sapiens
95. Who proposed struggle for existence and survival of the fittest in nature ?
(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck (c) Linneaus (d) Miller
96. Which among the following is the largest phylum of animal kingdom ?
(a) Annelida (b) Mollusca (c) Protozoa (d) Arthropoda
97. Metameric segmentation is found in ________
(a) Hydra (b) Ascaris (c) Earthworm (d) Starfish
98. The Xylem in plants is responsible for –
(a) Transport of water (b) Transport of food
(c) Transport of amino acid (d) Transport of oxygen
99. What is the nature of endosperm tissue in angiosperm ?
(a) Triploid (3X) (b) Diploid (2X) (c) Haploid (X) (d) Tetraploid (4X)
100. One of the most resistant organic material-sporopollenin is present in –
(a) Intine (b) Micropyle (c) Exine (d) Embryo-sac
Series-A 20 ESE
Text of page 21
93. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
94. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
95. - ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
96. ?
(a) ( ) (b) ()
(c) () (d) ()
97. :
(a) (b) ( )
(c) (d) ( )
98. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
99. ?
(a) (3X) (b) (2X) (c) (X) (d) (4X)
100. - :
(a) : (b) (c) (d) -
ESE 21 Series-A
Text of page 22
For Optional Subject ‘Section – 2’ (Mathematics)
3 2i sin
101. If is purely real, then the value of is :
1 – 2i sin
nπ
(a) n (b) 2n (c) (2n + 1) (d)
2
where n z
102. An agency conducted a survey of 1000 consumers and found that 720 consumers like
Product A and 450 consumers like Product B. What is the least number of consumers that
must have liked both products ?
(a) 170 (b) 190 (c) 270 (d) 280
103. A family has two children. What is the probability that both the children are boys given that
at least one of them is a boy ?
1 1 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4 4
104. In each of the three identical boxes I, II, III, there are two coins. Both coins in Box I are of
gold, both coins in Box II are of silver and Box III contains one gold and one silver coin. If
a box is chosen at random and then a coin is drawn from it which comes out to be of gold,
what is the probability that the other coin in the box is also of gold ?
2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
3 3 2
( x 2 1)e x
105. The value of ( x 1)2 dx, where C is a constant of integration, is :
x – 1 x ( x – 1)
(a) e +C (b) ex + C
x 1 ( x 1) 2
xe x xe x
(c) +C (d) +C
x 1 ( x 1) 2
1 x x2
106. The value of determinant x 2 1 x is :
x x2 1
2 2
(a) 1 – x3 (b) (1 – x3) (c) 1 + x + x2 (d) (1 + x + x2)
Series-A 22 ESE
Text of page 23
‘-2’ ()
3 2i sin
101. , :
1 – 2i sin
nπ
(a) n (b) 2n (c) (2n + 1) (d)
2
n z
102. () 1000 720 A
450 B
?
(a) 170 (b) 190 (c) 270 (d) 280
103. ,
?
1 1 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4 4
104. I, II, III 2 I , II
III
, ?
2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2
( x 2 1)e x
105. ( x 1) 2 dx : C
x – 1 x ( x – 1)
(a) e +C (b) ex + C
x 1 ( x 1) 2
xe x xe x
(c) +C (d) +C
x 1 ( x 1) 2
1 x x2
2
106. x 1 x :
x x2 1
2 2
(a) 1 – x3 (b) (1 – x3) (c) 1 + x + x2 (d) (1 + x + x2)
ESE 23 Series-A
Text of page 24
3 – 2 2
107. If A = , I2 is the identity matrix of order 2 and A = kA – 2I2, then the value of k
4 – 2
is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
108. If f(x) = x3 – 5x2 – 3x is defined on the interval [1, 3], then the value(s) of C in the Lagrange’s
mean value theorem is (are) :
7 7 3
(a) 1 and (b) (c) (d) 1
3 3 7
109. For the function f(x) = sin x + cos x, x [0, 2], which of the following statement is correct ?
5
(a) f(x) is increasing in , (b) f(x) is decreasing in 0,
4 4 4
5
(c) f(x) is decreasing in , 2 (d) None of these
4
110. Major axis of an ellipse is along the x-axis and it passes through the points (4, 3) and
(–1, 4). Its equation is :
(a) 15x2 + 9y2 = 245 (b) 7x2 + 9y2 = 247
(c) 7x2 + 15y2 = 247 (d) 15x2 + 7y2 = 245
111. Foci of a hyperbola are (0, 12) and length of latus rectum is 36. Its equation is :
(a) y2 – 3x2 = 108 (b) 3y2 – x2 = 108 (c) 2y2 – 3x2 = 67 (d) 3y2 – 2x2 = 72
112. A circle passes through points (2, 3) and (–1, 1) and its centre lies on the straight line
x – 3y – 11 = 0. Equation of the circle is :
(a) x2 + y2 – 7x + 5y – 14 = 0 (b) x2 + y2 + 7x – 7y + 12 = 0
(c) x2 + y2 + 7x – 5y + 14 = 0 (d) x2 + y2 – 7x – 5y + 11 = 0
113. Vertex of a parabola is at the origin. It passes through the point (5, 2) and is symmetric with
respect to y-axis. Its equation is :
(a) 3x2 = 26y (b) 2x2 = 9y (c) 2x2 = 25y (d) 2y2 = 25x
Series-A 24 ESE
Text of page 25
3 – 2
107. A = , I2 2 A = kA – 2I2, k :
2
4 – 2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
108. f(x) = x3 – 5x2 – 3x, [1, 3] , C /
/ :
7 7 3
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) 1
3 3 7
109. f(x) = sin x + cos x, x [0, 2] , ?
5
(a) , (b) 0,
4 4 4
5
(c) , 2 (d)
4
110. x- (4, 3) (–1, 4) :
(a) 15x2 + 9y2 = 245 (b) 7x2 + 9y2 = 247
(c) 7x2 + 15y2 = 247 (d) 15x2 + 7y2 = 245
111. (0, 12) 36 :
(a) y2 – 3x2 = 108 (b) 3y2 – x2 = 108 (c) 2y2 – 3x2 = 67 (d) 3y2 – 2x2 = 72
112. (2, 3) (–1, 1) x – 3y – 11 = 0
:
(a) x2 + y2 – 7x + 5y – 14 = 0 (b) x2 + y2 + 7x – 7y + 12 = 0
(c) x2 + y2 + 7x – 5y + 14 = 0 (d) x2 + y2 – 7x – 5y + 11 = 0
113. (5, 2) y-
:
(a) 3x2 = 26y (b) 2x2 = 9y (c) 2x2 = 25y (d) 2y2 = 25x
ESE 25 Series-A
Text of page 26
114. , are the roots of the equation x2 – ( + ) x + = 0. The equation whose roots are the
reciprocals of the roots of the above equation, will be
(a) x2 – x + ( + ) = 0 (b) ( + ) x2 – x + 1 = 0
(c) ( + ) x2 – x + = 0 (d) x2 – ( + ) x + 1 = 0
dy
115. Particular solution of the differential equation = – 4xy2, given that y = 1 at x = 0, is :
dx
1 1 1 1
(a) y =
(b) y = 2
(c) y =
(d) y = 2
x 1 2x 1 x –1 2x – 1
ydx – xdy
116. The general solution of the differential equation = 0 is :
y
(a) y = Cx (b) y = Cx2 (c) xy = C (d) x = Cy2
117. Anil wants to invest at most ` 12,000 in Bonds A and B. He has to invest at least ` 2,000 in
Bond A and at most ` 4,000 in Bond B. Rate of interest in Bond A and B are 8% and 10%
per annum, respectively. Formulate the LPP.
(a) Max Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
Subject to
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
(b) Min Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
Subject to
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
(c) Max Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
Subject to
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
(d) Max Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
Subject to
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
118. If A and B are two sets such that n(A B) = 50, n(A) = 28, n(B) = 32, then n(A B) will
be :
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20
Series-A 26 ESE
Text of page 27
114. x2 – ( + ) x + = 0 ,
, :
(a) x2 – x + ( + ) = 0 (b) ( + ) x2 – x + 1 = 0
(c) ( + ) x2 – x + = 0 (d) x2 – ( + ) x + 1 = 0
dy
115. = – 4xy2 , y = 1, x = 0, :
dx
1 1 1 1
(a) y =
(b) y = 2
(c) y =
(d) y = 2
x 1 2x 1 x –1 2x – 1
ydx – xdy
116. = 0 :
y
(a) y = Cx (b) y = Cx2 (c) xy = C (d) x = Cy2
117. ` 12,000 A B A ` 2,000
B ` 4,000 A B : 8% 10%
(a) Max Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
(b) Min Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
(c) Max Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
(d) Max Z = 0.08x + 0.10y
x + y 12000, x 2000, y 4000, x 0, y 0
118. A B n(A B) = 50, n(A) = 28, n(B) = 32, n(A B) :
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20
ESE 27 Series-A
Text of page 28
x18 – 1
119. xlim
1 x 9 – 1 is equal to
2
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) (d) 2
3
120. For the function f(x) = | x – 1 | + | x – 2 |, which one of the following statement is correct ?
(a) f(x) is differentiable at x = 1 (b) f(x) is differentiable at x = 2
(c) f(x) is continuous at x = 1 and x = 2 (d) f(x) is discontinuous at x = 0
x 1 y 3 z – 2
121. Co-ordinates of the point of intersection of the line and the plane
1 3 –2
3x + 4y + 5z = 5 are :
(a) (1, –3, 2) (b) (–1, –2, –3) (c) (–1, 2, 3) (d) (1, 3, –2)
122. A class teacher has the following absentee record of 40 students. What is the mean number
of days, a student was absent ?
No. of Days : 0–6 6 – 10 10 – 14 14 – 20 20 – 28 28 – 38 38 – 40
No. of Students : 11 10 7 4 4 3 1
(a) 10.52 (b) 12.12 (c) 12.47 (d) 14.92
123. Three relations are given below :
I : R1 = {(2, 1), (3, 1), (4, 2)}
II : R2 = {(2, 2), (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 4)}
III : R3 = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5), (5, 6), (6, 7)}
Which of the following is true ?
(a) I and II are functions. (b) I and III are functions.
(c) II and III are functions. (d) I, II and III are functions.
124. Equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes x + y + z = 6 and
2x + 3y + 4z = –5 and the point (1, 1, 1) is :
(a) 20x + 23y + 26z = 69 (b) 23x + 20y + 19z = 72
(c) 26x – 20y – 19z = 76 (d) 20x – 22y + 17z = 68
a ib
125. If x + iy = , then the value of x2 + y2 is :
a – ib
a 2 – b2
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) a2 + b2 (d)
a 2 b2
Series-A 28 ESE
Text of page 29
x18 – 1
119. xlim
1 x 9 – 1
2
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) (d) 2
3
120. f(x) = | x – 1 | + | x – 2 | , ?
(a) f(x), x = 1 (b) f(x), x = 2
(c) f(x), x = 1 x = 2 (d) f(x), x = 0
x 1 y 3 z – 2
121. 3x + 4y + 5z = 5 :
1 3 –2
(a) (1, –3, 2) (b) (–1, –2, –3) (c) (–1, 2, 3) (d) (1, 3, –2)
122. 40
?
: 0–6 6 – 10 10 – 14 14 – 20 20 – 28 28 – 38 38 – 40
: 11 10 7 4 4 3 1
(a) 10.52 (b) 12.12 (c) 12.47 (d) 14.92
123. :
I : R1 = {(2, 1), (3, 1), (4, 2)}
II : R2 = {(2, 2), (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 4)}
III : R3 = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5), (5, 6), (6, 7)}
?
(a) I II (b) I III (c) II III (d) I, II III
124. x + y + z = 6 2x + 3y + 4z = –5 (1, 1, 1)
:
(a) 20x + 23y + 26z = 69 (b) 23x + 20y + 19z = 72
(c) 26x – 20y – 19z = 76 (d) 20x – 22y + 17z = 68
a ib
125. x + iy = , x2 + y2 :
a – ib
a 2 – b2
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) a2 + b2 (d)
a 2 b2
ESE 29 Series-A
Text of page 30
Space For Rough Work / Series-A 30 ESE
Text of page 31
Space For Rough Work / ESE 31 Series-A
Text of page 32
Space For Rough Work / Series-A 32 ESE
Page 1 of 32
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.