UKPSC ITI Foreman Instructor 2024: Government Industrial Training Institute Foreman Instructor Examination, Electronics Engineering


Text of page 2
1. The value of x for the expression given below is
(193)x = (623)8
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16
2. The hexadecimal equivalent output of the following operation is
(FC2)16 (DE)16 = ?
(a) AAA3C (b) EAA3C (c) DAA3C (d) DBB3C
–
3. The dual of the Boolean expression (A + AB) = A + B is :
–
(a) A(A + B) = AB (b) A (A + B) = A
(c) A(BC) = (AB)C (d) A + BC = (A + B)(A + C)
4. The expression for shaded area in the given Venn diagram is
–– –– – –
(a) AB + BC (b) ABC + ABC (c) ABC + ABC (d) None of these
5. Convert (396)10 to excess-3 code
(a) 110001100 (b) 110001111 (c) 110001101 (d) 100011111
6. All Boolean expressions can be implemented with
(a) NAND gate only
(b) NOR gate only
(c) Combination of AND, OR and NOT gate
(d) All of these
7. In an even Parity scheme which of the following words contains an error ?
(a) 10101010 (b) 11110100 (c) 11110101 (d) 10100000
8. The expression for difference for full substractor is
(a) A B bi (b) A B bi (c) A B (d) A B
9. Which of the following is not true ?
– –
(a) A A = A (b) A A = 0 (c) A + A = 0 (d) A + 1 = 1
10. An exclusive-OR function is expressed as
–– – – – – – –
(a) AB + AB (b) AB + AB (c) (A + B) + (A + B) (d) (A + B) + (A + B)
11. The OR operation can be produced with
(a) Two NOR gates (b) Four NAND gates (c) Three NAND gates (d) Both (a) and (c)
12. Which of the following logic gates will have an output of 1 ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
13. Which of the following flipflop is used as a latch ?
(a) S-R FF (b) T – FF (c) D – FF (d) J-K – FF
Series-A 2 ELE
Text of page 3
1. x ?
(193)x = (623)8
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16
2. (FC2)16 (DE)16 = ?
(a) AAA3C (b) EAA3C (c) DAA3C (d) DBB3C
–
3. (A + AB) = A + B ?
–
(a) A(A + B) = AB (b) A (A + B) = A
(c) A(BC) = (AB)C (d) A + BC = (A + B)(A + C)
4. ?
–– –– – –
(a) AB + BC (b) ABC + ABC (c) ABC + ABC (d)
5. (396)10 excess-3
(a) 110001100 (b) 110001111 (c) 110001101 (d) 100011111
6.
(a) NAND (b) NOR
(c) AND, OR NOT (d)
7. ?
(a) 10101010 (b) 11110100 (c) 11110101 (d) 10100000
8.
(a) A B bi (b) A B bi (c) A B (d) A B
9. ?
– –
(a) A A = A (b) A A = 0 (c) A + A = 0 (d) A + 1 = 1
10. (X – OR) ?
–– – – – – – –
(a) AB + AB (b) AB + AB (c) (A + B) + (A + B) (d) (A + B) + (A + B)
11. OR
(a) 2 NOR (b) 4 NAND (c) 3 NAND (d) (a) (c)
12. 1 ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
13. - ?
(a) S-R FF (b) T – FF (c) D – FF (d) J-K – FF
ELE 3 Series-A
Text of page 4
14. Out of TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5 and INTR, which interrupt has highest priority ?
(a) TRAP (b) RST 6.5 (c) RST 7.5 (d) INTR
15. What is the size of stack pointer register in 8085 ?
(a) 8-bit (b) 16-bit (c) 32-bit (d) 64-bit
16. What is the clock frequency of 8085 microprocessor ?
(a) 3 MHz (b) 9 MHz (c) 12 MHz (d) 16 MHz
17. In 8085, while executing LDAX B, the accumulator is loaded with _____.
(a) The content of memory location pointed by BC register pair
(b) The content of register B only
(c) 8-bit address stored in register B
(d) None of these
18. Which semiconductor memory uses more number of transistors ?
(a) DRAM
(b) SRAM
(c) Both (a) and (b) uses equal number of transistors
(d) None of these
19. Which one of the volatile memory requires regular refresh cycles ?
(a) SRAM (b) DRAM (c) Hard disk (d) Floppy disk
20. In 8085, when reset is activated program counter goes to
(a) 0034 H (b) 003C H (c) 0000 H (d) 0032 H
21. In 8085, which one is a non-maskable interrupt ?
(a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 6.5 (c) RST 5.5 (d) TRAP
22. Which of the following command of 8085 will move the value at Port-3 to Register-2 ?
(a) MOV P2, R3 (b) MOV R3, P2 (c) MOV 3P, R2 (d) MOV R2, P3
23. What operation is performed by the following instruction ?
ORL A, direct
(a) OR register to accumulator (b) OR direct byte to accumulator
(c) OR accumulator to direct byte (d) None of these
24. In 8085, what type of data is handled ?
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
25. Which one is a 3-byte instruction ?
(a) A CALL (b) L CALL (c) S JMP (d) None of these
26. In 8085 how many pins are assigned to Port-0 ?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32
27. Who introduced RISC architecture ?
(a) IBM (b) INTEL (c) MOTOROLA (d) SUN Microsystem
28. To reduce the memory access time, we generally make use of
(a) Heaps (b) SDRAMS
(c) Caches (d) High capacity RAMS
29. Which of the following steps is not included in the process of reception ?
(a) Decoding (b) Encoding (c) Storage (d) Interception
30. The peak amplitude of the simple amplitude modulated wave is given by
(a) VC + VM (b) VM (c) VC (d) VC + VMsinMt
Series-A 4 ELE
Text of page 5
14. TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5 INTR ?
(a) TRAP (b) RST 6.5 (c) RST 7.5 (d) INTR
15. 8085 ?
(a) 8- (b) 16- (c) 32- (d) 64-
16. 8085 ?
(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 16
17. 8085 LDAX B ?
(a) BC
(b) B
(c) B 8-bit
(d)
18. ?
(a) DRAM
(b) SRAM
(c) (a) (b)
(d)
19. ?
(a) SRAM (b) DRAM (c) (d)
20. 8085 ?
(a) 0034 H (b) 003C H (c) 0000 H (d) 0032 H
21. 8085 - ?
(a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 6.5 (c) RST 5.5 (d) TRAP
22. 8085 -3 -2 ?
(a) MOV P2, R3 (b) MOV R3, P2 (c) MOV 3P, R2 (d) MOV R2, P3
23. ?
ORL A, direct
(a) (OR) (b) (OR)
(c) (OR) (d)
24. 8085 ?
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
25. 3- ?
(a) A CALL (b) L CALL (c) S JMP (d)
26. 8085 – 0 ?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32
27. RISC ?
(a) IBM ( ) (b) INTEL ()
(c) MOTOROLA () (d) SUN Microsystem ( )
28. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
29. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
30.
(a) VC + VM (b) VM (c) VC (d) VC + VMsinMt
ELE 5 Series-A
Text of page 6
31. The modulation index of an AM wave is given by :
VC VM
(a) (b) (c) (VC + VM)/2 (d) (VC – VM)/2
VM VC
32. In the FM system, the level of frequency deviation depends on
(a) Message amplitude (b) Message frequency
(c) Both Message amplitude & frequency (d) Message amplitude, frequency and phase
33. A telephone signal of 4 kHz is to be transmitted by PCM. If the signal to quantization noise
is to be attend of 40 dB, the number of levels into which the signal is to be encoded will be
(a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 81 (d) 128
34. Indicate the antenna that is not wide band :
(a) Discone (b) Folded dipole (c) Helical (d) Marconi
35. Which of the following does not apply to the Yagi-Uda Antenna Array ?
(a) Good Bandwidth (b) Parasitic elements
(c) Folded dipole (d) High gain
36. A message signal has maximum frequency of 4 kHz, the minimum sampling frequency will
be :
(a) 2 kHz (b) 4 kHz (c) 8 kHz (d) 14 kHz
37. The bandwidth of AM wave is given by
(a) fc + fm (b) fc – fm (c) 2fm (d) 2fc
38. The wide band FM is the case where the modulation index value is
(a) Around Zero (b) Much less than unity
(c) Larger than unity (d) None of these
39. A superheterodyne receiver with IF frequency of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal at 1200 kHz.
The image frequency will be
(a) 750 kHz (b) 900 kHz (c) 1650 kHz (d) 2100 kHz
40. In a 100 Amplitude modulated signal, if the total transmitted power is P, then carrier power
will be :
2 1 1 1
(a) P (b) P (c) P (d) P
3 2 3 4
41. Calculate the percentage power saving, when the carrier & one of the sideband are
suppressed in an AM wave modulated to a depth of 100.
(a) 83.3 (b) 70.0 (c) 89.5 (d) 60
42. Pre-emphasis deals with
(a) emphasizing low frequency components
(b) emphasizing high frequency components
(c) emphasizing a band of mid frequency components
(d) eliminating low frequency components
43. If the operating frequency of an antenna is 1 MHz. Then what is its minimum mechanical length ?
(a) 100 m (b) 200 m (c) 75 m (d) 400 m
44. A dipole antenna carries RMS current of 300 A and its radiation resistance is 2 . Find the
power radiated by the antenna.
(a) 135 kW (b) 200 kW (c) 180 kW (d) 90 kW
45. Antenna which provide circularly polarized wave
(a) Helical Antenna (b) Dipole Antenna
(c) Yagi-Uda Antenna (d) Parabolic reflector antenna
46. Digital communication refers to the transmission of :
(a) Sequence of digital message (b) Digitized Analog signal
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
Series-A 6 ELE

Text of page 8
47. Quantization Noise can be reduced, if the number of levels :
(a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Not depends on levels (d) None of these
48. What type of digital modulation is widely used for digital data transmission ?
(a) Pulse amplitude modulation (b) Pulse width modulation
(c) Pulse positon modulation (d) Pulse code modulation
49. Given circuit works as :
(a) An Ideal integrator (b) Practical integrator
(c) An Ideal differentiator (d) Practical differentiator
50. Determine the output voltage for open loop differential amplifier using op-amp with
Vin = 5Vdc Vin = – 7 Vdc, A = 200,000, VCC = + 15V VEE = – 15V
1 2
(a) 2.4 volt (b) +15 volt (c) – 15 volt (d) None of these
51. For an op-amp circuit CMRR is equal to
Ad Vocm Ad Vcm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Acm Vcm Vcm Ad
52. Determine the voltage gain of the circuit
RF R1+ R2 RF
(a) 1 (b) – (c) (d)
R1 R1 R1
53. The value of negative feedback fraction () is always :
(a) less than 1 (b) more than 1 (c) equal to 1 (d) None of these
Series-A 8 ELE

Text of page 10
54. The relation between voltage gain with negative feedback (Af) & without feedback (A) is :
A A
(a) Af = (b) Af = (c) Af = A(1 – BA) (d) Af = A(1 + BA)
1 – BA 1 + BA
55. Positive feedback is used in which of the following ?
(a) Rectifier circuit (b) Amplifier circuit
(c) Oscillator circuit (d) Detector circuit
56. In LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillations is given by
2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) 2( LC ) (d)
LC 2LC 2 LC
57. Normally a push-pull power amplifier circuit uses which of the following operations ?
(a) Class A (b) Class C (c) Class B (d) Class AB
58. The output transformer used in a power amplifier is a _____ transformer.
(a) 1:1 ratio (b) step-up (c) step-down (d) None of these
59. Emitter follower is used for
(a) Current gain (b) Impedance matching
(c) Voltage gain (d) Power gain
60. Find the maximum input frequency above which output will be distorted for 741 IC having
typical slew rate of 0.5 V/s & O/P range from + 14 V to – 14 V.
(a) 2.12 Hz (b) 8.93 kHz (c) 100 kHz (d) 500 kHz
61. High value of CMRR indicates matching between two input terminals is _____ .
(a) better (b) bad (c) No relation (d) None of these
62. Which one of the following Power amplifier has maximum efficiency ?
(a) Class A (b) Class B (c) Class AB (d) Class C
63. Barkhausen criteria for oscillation is
(a) |BA| = 1 (b) BA = 3n n = 1, 3, 5
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
64. Circuit given below is
(a) An amplifier (b) An oscillator
(c) A high pass filter (d) A saw tooth generator
65. For an operational amplifier circuit with CMRR = 104 and differential gain Ad = 105,
calculate the common mode gain.
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 0.10 (d) 1000
66. Where does the Q Point lie for Class B amplifier ?
(a) Active region (b) Cutoff region
(c) Saturation region (d) Between saturation & active
67. The input and output voltage of Common Emitter (CE) amplifier are
(a) 90 out of phase (b) 180 out of phase
(c) 270 out of phase (d) 360 out of phase
Series-A 10 ELE
Text of page 11
54. (Af) (A) ?
A A
(a) Af = (b) Af = (c) Af = A(1 – BA) (d) Af = A(1 + BA)
1 – BA 1 + BA
55. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
56. ?
2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) 2( LC ) (d)
LC 2LC 2 LC
57. - ?
(a) A (b) C (c) B (d) AB
58. ?
(a) 1 : 1 (b) - (c) - (d)
59. ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
60. 741 IC slew rate
( ) = 0.5 V/s + 14 V – 14 V
(a) 2.12 Hz (b) 8.93 kHz (c) 100 kHz (d) 500 kHz
61. CMRR
(a) (b) (c) (d)
62. ?
(a) Class A (b) Class B (c) Class AB (d) Class C
63.
(a) |BA| = 1 (b) BA = 3n n = 1, 3, 5
(c) (a) (b) (d)
64. ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
65. CMRR = 104 Ad = 105
?
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 0.10 (d) 1000
66. B () Q ?
(a) (b) -
(c) (d)
67. (CE)
(a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 270 (d) 360
ELE 11 Series-A
Text of page 12
68. Crystal oscillator have a limitation of
(a) High Q (b) Aging of the crystal
(c) High output (d) Less availability of quartz crystal
69. Permanent magnets used in instrument are hard core material due to the following reason :
(a) Their energy density is high. (b) They have broad hysterisis loop.
(c) They have high (BH)max product. (d) All of these
70. For which of the following generator a Wein bridge oscillator is most suitable one ?
(a) AF generator (b) RF generator
(c) Function generator (d) Pulse generator
71. Ideal input resistance of a CRO should be of the order of :
(a) Fraction of an ohm (b) Tens of ohm
(c) Kilo ohms (d) Mega ohms
72. Value of resistance of an earthing electrode depends on
(a) Depth to which electrode is driven into earth
(b) Shape & material of electrode
(c) Specific resistance of soil
(d) All of these
73. Which of the following digital voltmeter uses the principle of voltage to time conversion ?
(a) Successive approximation type DVM
(b) Integrating type DVM
(c) Dual slope type DVM
(d) None of these
74. A sampling CRO is used for :
(a) VLF (b) LF (c) HF (d) VHF
75. Q factor is defined as
(a) Resistance/Reactance (b) Reactance/Resistance
(c) Resistance/Impedance (d) Impedance/Resistance
76. For measuring a very high resistance, one should use
(a) Wheatstone bridge (b) Megger
(c) Kelvin double bridge (d) None of these
77. A triangular wave shape is obtained
(a) by integrating a sine wave (b) by integrating a square wave
(c) by differentiating a sine wave (d) by differentiating a square wave
78. A 100 Hz sinusoidal voltage is connected to both X & Y plates of a CRO. Which of the
following waveform is seen on CRO ?
(a) Ellipse (b) Circle (c) Sine wave (d) Straight line
79. A set of reading has a wide range, therefore it has
(a) low accuracy (b) low precision (c) high accuracy (d) high precision
80. An op-amp is used in an electronic multimeter to perform which of the following functions ?
(a) Multiplier (b) Integrator (c) Summer (d) Buffer Amplifier
81. In an instrument gross error occurs due to which of the following ?
(a) Instrumental error (b) Random error
(c) Human error (d) Environmental error
82. Which of the following bridge can be used for measurement of frequency ?
(a) Wein bridge (b) Maxwell’s bridge
(c) Heaviside Campbell bridge (d) Schering bridge
Series-A 12 ELE
Text of page 13
68. :
(a) Q () (b) -
(c) (d)
69. (core)
(a) (b)
(c) (BH)max (d)
70. ?
(a) .. (b) .. (c) (d)
71. CRO ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
73. , ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
74. CRO ( )
(a) VLF (b) LF (c) HF (d) VHF
75. Q
(a) / (b) / (c) / (d) /
76.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
77.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
78. 100 Hz CRO X Y ,
CRO ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
79.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
80. op-amp ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
81. ?
z
(a) (b) (c) (d)
82. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ELE 13 Series-A
Text of page 14
83. Maxwell’s Inductance-Capacitance bridge is suitable for measurement of inductance of :
(a) High Q coil (b) Low Q coil
(c) Medium Q coil (d) Low & medium Q coil
84. For lossless transmission line the condition for & are :
(a) = 0, = 0 (b) = 0, 0 (c) 0, = 0 (d) 0, 0
85. The main purpose of load matching is to avoid
(a) Reflected wave (b) Standing wave (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
86. The reflection coefficient () over normalized load (Zl) is :
Zl – 1 Zl + 1 Zs – 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
Zl + 1 Zl – 1 Zs + 1
87. The value of SWR for complex impedance (Zl) is :
Assume characteristic impedance is Z0
Zl Z0
(a) (b) (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
Z0 Zl
88. The range of SWR is
(a) – 1 to 1 through 0 (b) + 1 to infinity ()
(c) 0 to infinity () (d) None of these
89. In single stub matching, the length of stub is
λ Zl Z 0
(a) tan 1 (b) ( l cos 1 l )
Zλ Zl Z 0 Z
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
90. A low loss transmission line of 100 characteristic impedance is connected to a load of
400 . Calculate its voltage reflection coefficient.
–3 3
(a) (b) (c) 4 (d) – 4
5 5
91. Find the current i2 flowing in loop 2 in following circuit :
(a) 0.5 A (b) 5 A (c) 50 A (d) 10 A
92. Which of the options is best suitable for following dependent source circuit ?
(a) Voltage controlled voltage source (b) Current controlled voltage source
(c) Voltage controlled current source (d) Current controlled current source
Series-A 14 ELE
Text of page 15
83. - ?
(a) Q (b) Q
(c) Q (d) Q
84. ?
(a) = 0, = 0 (b) = 0, 0 (c) 0, = 0 (d) 0, 0
85. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
86. () (Zl) :
Zl – 1 Zl + 1 Zs – 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Zl + 1 Zl – 1 Zs + 1
87. Z0 , SWR
(Zl) ?
Zl Z0
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
Z0 Zl
88. SWR (...) ?
(a) – 1 1 ( ) (b) + 1 ()
(c) () (d)
89. () ?
λ Zl Z 0
(a) tan 1 (b) ( l cos 1 l )
Zλ Zl Z 0 Z
(c) (a) (b) (d)
90. 100 400
?
–3 3
(a) (b) (c) 4 (d) – 4
5 5
91. -2 i2 ?
(a) 0.5 A (b) 5 A (c) 50 A (d) 10 A
92. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ELE 15 Series-A
Text of page 16
93. Find the Z10C of the given network.
ZAZB ZA(ZB + ZC)
(a) ZA + ZB (b) ZB + ZC (c) (d)
ZA + Z B ZA + ZB + ZC
94. Calculate the equivalent resistance (Req) across terminal (ab) in following circuit.
5 11 6 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 5 11 6
95. Given figure is a
(a) Band pass filter (b) Low pass filter (c) High pass filter (d) Band stop filter
96. High frequency response of the active filter is limited due to
(a) Gain bandwidth product of op-amp (b) Slew rate of the op-amp
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
97. The co-axial cable is a line of an example of
(a) balanced line (b) unbalanced line (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
98. The unit of normalized load impedance is
(a) ohm (b) ohm/meter (c) unitless (d) None of these
99. _____ is the one that employs a synchro transmitter and receiver pair.
(a) voltage telemetry system (b) current telemetry system
(c) frequency telemetry system (d) position telemetry system
100. RF telemetry system is usually more suitable if the data to be transmitted over the distance
greater than _____ .
(a) 500 m (b) 100 m (c) 950 m (d) 1 km
101. A 5 channel d.c. to 50 Hz telemetry system uses PAM and PCM systems. What is the lowest
practical sampling rate for good quality data ?
(a) 1010 samples/second (b) 550 samples/second
(c) 125 samples/second (d) 1250 samples/second
102. X-Y recorder _____ .
(a) records one quantity with respect to another quantity
(b) record one quantity on x-axis with time
(c) record one quantity on y-axis with respect to time on x-axis
(d) None of these
Series-A 16 ELE
Text of page 17
93. Z10C ?
ZAZB ZA(ZB + ZC)
(a) ZA + ZB (b) ZB + ZC (c) (d)
ZA + Z B ZA + ZB + ZC
94. (ab) (Req) ?
5 11 6 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 5 11 6
95. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
96. ?
(a) op-amp (b) op-amp
(c) (a) (b) (d)
97.
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
98.
(a) (b) / (c) (d)
99. ______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
100. ?
(a) 500 . (b) 100 . (c) 950 . (d) 1 ..
101. 5 d.c. 50 PAM PCM
?
(a) 1010 / (b) 550 /
(c) 125 / (d) 1250 /
102. X-Y -
(a) (b) x -
(c) y- x- (d)
ELE 17 Series-A
Text of page 18
103. Strip chart recorder and x-y recorder are the types of
(a) Graphic recorder (b) Oscillographic recorder
(c) Magnetic tape recorder (d) None of these
104. Polymer thick film can act as a sensing element.
(a) True (b) False (c) Partially true (d) None of these
105. Which of the following are the most commonly used displays along with microcontroller ?
(a) LEDs (b) LCDs (c) 7 segment display (d) All of these
106. Device that detects optical signal is known as
(a) Photodetector (b) Diode (c) Tunnel diode (d) BJT
107. The operation of _____ is based on the phenomena of electroluminance.
(a) Diode (b) MOSFET (c) LED (d) Varactor Diode
108. The main difference between a Phototransistor and a Photodiode is _____ .
(a) Current gain (b) Voltage gain (c) Power gain (d) None of these
109. Semiconductor material used for manufacturer of LED is
(a) Germanium (b) Gallium Aresenide Phosphide
(c) Boron (d) Indium
110. VHF (Very High Frequency) Band ranges from
(a) 3 to 30 MHz (b) 30 to 300 KHz (c) 30 to 300 MHz (d) 300 to 3000 Hz
111. Piezo-electric transducer are
(a) Passive and inverse transducer (b) Active and inverse transducer
(c) Active and direct transducer (d) Passive and direct transducer
112. The liquid used in LCDs are
(a) Nematic (b) Tantalum (c) Oil (d) Electrolyte
113. The Dot-Matrix LED display is used to display
(a) Only alphabetic characters (b) Alphanumeric characters
(c) Only numeric characters (d) None of these
114. In potentiometer, standarization is done to make the instrument
(a) Sensitive (b) Accurate & direct reading
(c) Precise (d) Stable
115. Photoelectric devices can be categorized as
1. Photoemissive
2. Photoconductive
3. Photovoltaic
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
116. Resistance strain gauges are also known as
(a) Piezoresistive gauges (b) Piezoelectric gauges
(c) Piezomagnetic gauges (d) Piezoconductive gauges
117. The transformer of LVDT consists of a _____ primary winding and _____ secondary
windings.
(a) one, two (b) two, two (c) three, two (d) one, one
118. Thermocouple is made of two _____ metals connected together.
(a) dissimilar (b) similar (c) thin (d) thick
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119. Quality of a muscial sound depends on
(a) Frequency of a note (b) Amplitude of the vibrations
(c) Presence or absences of overtones (d) None of these
120. The natural impedance of a ribbon microphone is
(a) low (b) very low (c) high (d) very high
121. Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of multi-speaker system ?
(a) Intermodulation distortions reduced (b) Smooth overall response is obtained
(c) Flexibility of performance is provided (d) All of these
122. The Kell factor used in Television scanning system has a
(a) Constant value (b) Value varies from 0.64 to 0.85
(c) Value depends on scanning (d) None of these
123. In which of the following, hue control is necessary ?
(a) PAL system (b) NTSC system (c) SECAM system (d) None of these
124. Which of the following camera tube has a higher sensitivity ?
(a) Iconoscope camera tube (b) Image orthicon camera tube
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
125. For compatability, the colour TV system must satisfy which of the following conditions ?
(a) Must have same Bandwidth of 5.5 MHz
(b) Must use the same 7 MHz standard channel of TV
(c) Must employ the same line & frame synchronization pulses
(d) All of these
126. In a colour picture tube degaussing is performed for the following reasons :
(a) Magnetization of steel & iron parts (b) Demagnetization of steel & iron parts
(c) Electrification of steel & iron parts (d) None of these
127. What is approximate speed of sound in dry air at normal room temperature ?
(a) 334 m/sec. (b) 600 m/sec. (c) 840 m/sec. (d) 800 m/sec.
128. A loudspeaker converts
(a) Electrical energy to mechanical energy (b) Acoustic energy to electrical energy
(c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy (d) Electrical energy to acoustic energy
129. The head used in tape decks performs the following functions :
(a) recording (b) reproduction (c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
130. A low pass filter can cut
(a) The lower end of the audio spectrum (b) The higher end of the audio spectrum
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
131. On the compact disk, the information is present in the track in _____ :
(a) Analog form (b) Digital form (c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
132. In NTSC system, the two colour difference signals are
(a) Transmitted together (b) Not transmitted together
(c) Transmitted in quardature (d) Transmitted in anti phase
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119.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
120. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
121. / / / ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
122.
(a) (b) 0.64 0.85
(c) (d)
123. ?
(a) PAL (b) NTSC (c) SECAM (d)
124. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
125. ?
(a) 5.5
(b) 7
(c)
(d)
126.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
127. ?
(a) 334 / (b) 600 / (c) 840 / (d) 800 /
128.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
129.
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
130. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
131. ?
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
132. NTSC ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ELE 21 Series-A
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133. Which among the following is lower limit frequency of human ear ?
(a) 20 Hz (b) 122 Hz (c) 200 Hz (d) 221 Hz
134. The unit of sound pressure used for rating microphone is
(a) Pascal (b) Bar (c) Watt (d) Decibel
135. A true infinite baffle completely eliminates :
(a) Doublet action (b) Speaker resonance (c) Acoustic coupling (d) None of these
136. The width of a standard reel tape used in magnetic recording is
1 1
(a) inch (b) inch (c) 5 inch (d) None of these
4 8
137. For converting an analog signal from microphone into digital signal, which of the following
is used ?
(a) AM (b) FM (c) PCM (d) None of these
138. A Bass reflux enclosure is often referred as
(a) A series tuned circuit (b) A parallel tuned circuit
(c) An acoustic lens (d) An acoustic phase inverter
139. Satellite link BER (Bit Error Rate) typically is around
(a) 10–2 (b) 10–4 (c) 10–6 (d) 10–8
140. Overall frequency arrangement of transponder lies in typically :
(a) L-band (b) C-band (c) X-band (d) Ku band
141. At microwave frequencies, the wave propagation occurs as
(a) Ground wave (b) Space wave (c) Sky wave (d) All of these
142. A wave whose frequency is 9 GHz, falls in which band ?
(a) L (b) X (c) C (d) None of these
143. The Gunn effect occurs in semiconductors only when doped with
(a) N-type impurities (b) P-type impurities
(c) No doping (d) All of these
144. Among given options, identify the wideband microwave amplifier.
(a) Two Cavity Klystron (b) Reflex Klystron
(c) Multi Cavity Klystron (d) TWT (Travelling Wave Tube)
145. If the minimum range is to be doubled in a Radar, the peak power has to be increased by a
factor of
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32
146. Radar principle is used in
(a) Detection of aircraft (b) Telephony
(c) Electron Microscope (d) All of these
147. The height of Geo-Stationary Satellite is _____ .
(a) 32786 km (b) 35786 km (c) 36990 km (d) None of these
148. In Radar system, time interval between successive pulses of clock are referred to as
(a) Pulse reallocation (b) Pulse retriving
(c) Pulse repetition rate/time (d) Post reallocation time
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133.
(a) 20 Hz (b) 122 Hz (c) 200 Hz (d) 221 Hz
134.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
135.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
136.
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 5 (d)
4 8
137.
?
(a) AM (..) (b) FM (..) (c) PCM (...) (d)
138.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
139. (BER)
(a) 10–2 (b) 10–4 (c) 10–6 (d) 10–8
140. ?
(a) L- (b) C- (c) X- (d) Ku-
141. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
142. 9 GHz ?
(a) L (b) X (c) C (d)
143. ?
(a) N – (b) P –
(c) (d)
144. ?
(a) 2 (b)
(c) (d) TWT ( )
145. ?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32
146. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
147. - ?
(a) 32786 km (b) 35786 km (c) 36990 km (d)
148. - ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ELE 23 Series-A
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149. Which among the following optical cable offers lowest dispersion ?
(a) SMSI (Single Mode Step Index) (b) MMSI (Multi Mode Step Index)
(c) MMGI (Multi Mode Graded Index) (d) None of these
150. Which of the following characteristic is exhibited by the LASERs ?
(a) Spatial coherence (b) Temporal coherence
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
151. Generally the attenuation in optical fibre cable is measured in
(a) dB/km (b) dB/m (c) KdB/m (d) dBm/m
152. Transmission of signal through optical fibre is in the form of
(a) sound (b) electricity (c) light (d) speed
153. An optical transmitter transmits 10 watt power, compute its equivalent power in dBm.
(a) 10 dBm (b) – 40 dBm (c) 30 dBm (d) 40 dBm
154. In optical communication, compute the total energy, if energy of each photon is 1 J and the
total 1000 photons are emitted by the system :
(a) 1 J (b) 1000 J (c) 0.001 J (d) 100 J
155. What is the numerical aperture of the fibre, if angle of acceptance is 30 degree
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.36 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.27
156. A single mode fibre has a beat length of 4 cm at 1200 nm. What is birefringence ?
(a) 2 10–5 (b) 1.2 10–5 (c) 3 10–5 (d) 2
157. Distance bandwidth product is maximum in _____ .
(a) SIMM fibre (b) GIMM fibre
(c) SM (Single Mode) fibre (d) None of these
158. Bandgap energy for a material is given by Eg = 1.24 eV, choose the correct option for the
wavelength () at peak emission.
(a) 0.75 m (b) 1.0 m (c) 1.24 m (d) None of these
159. The commercial FM radio band operates between _____ frequency range.
(a) 20 to 20 kHz (b) 30 to 400 kHz (c) 2 to 4 GHz (d) 88 to 108 MHz
160. Which of the following is full form of CDMA ?
(a) Computer Division Multiple Access (b) Code Division Multiple Access
(c) Common Data Multiple Access (d) Computer Data Multiplexing Access
161. Which of the following frequency band is assigned to GSM communication ?
(a) 100 and 200 Hz (b) 1 to 2 GHz
(c) 900 and 1800 MHz (d) 100 to 400 GHz
162. WLL stands for
(a) World Local Loop (b) Wireless Local Loop
(c) Wireless Level Loop (d) World Wireless Loop
163. Frequency reuse is the concept of
(a) TV system (b) Audio Amplifier
(c) Cellular mobile radio system (d) PA system
164. FDMA stands for
(a) Frequency Division Multiplexing Access
(b) Frequency Data Multiplexing Access
(c) Frequency Division Multiple Access
(d) None of these
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165. Calculate the maximum number of users that a GSM can support simultaneously within a
single cell.
(a) 680 (b) 790 (c) 992 (d) 890
166. The widely accepted shape of cell in cellular network is
(a) Triangular (b) Hexagonal (c) Circular (d) None of these
167. Capacity in cellular link can be increased by
(a) Adding new channel & frequency borrowing
(b) Cell splitting and cell sectoring
(c) Forming microcells and picocells
(d) All of these
168. What is the data rate or speed offered by GPRS connection ?
(a) 56-115 Kbps (b) 9-256 Kbps (c) 64-128 Kbps (d) None
169. The quality of service of cellular network is determined by which of the following
probabilities ?
(a) New Call (b) Hand off Call (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
170. Which of the following expression defines the data rate for a noisy channel ?
Here B is bandwidth in Hz & S/N is signal to noise ratio.
S S
(a) C = B log2 1 (b) C = B log10 1
N N
S
(c) C = B 1 (d) None of these
N
171. Which of the following RF ID tag has generally lowest range ?
(a) Active (b) Semi-Passive (c) Passive (d) None of these
172. The frequency band of conventional Blue-tooth system is
(a) 2.1 GHz (b) 2.3 GHz (c) 2.4 GHz (d) None of these
173. GPRS network is a part of _____ in GSM network.
(a) BTS (b) BSS (c) NSS (d) VLR
174. Which of the following is a 2.5 G CDMA standard ?
(a) IS – 95 (b) CDMA – 2000 (c) IS – 95B (d) CDMA – One
175. Which of the following is not a property of spread-spectrum techniques ?
(a) Frequency Planning elimination (b) Interference rejection capability
(c) Multipath Fading (d) Multiuser, Multiple access interface
176. Frequency hopping changes which of the following on regular interval ?
(a) time (b) code (c) frequency (d) hop
177. The maximum length of a PN sequence, that a linear shift register of size m can produce
is _____ .
(a) 2m (b) m (c) 2m
(d) 2 m 1
178. The essential features of GSM Technology
(a) Frequency hopping (b) Use of SIM cards
(c) Discontinuous transmission (d) All of these
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179. In a PNP transistor, base is :
(a) Lightly doped (b) Heavily doped (c) Moderately doped (d) None of these
180. Which type of MOSFET uses physically implanted channel ?
(a) Enhancement (b) Depletion (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
181. Punch through effect occurs in
(a) Long channel devices (b) Short channel devices
(c) Inductors (d) Transformers
182. The capacitance of a reverse biased P-N junction :
(a) increases with increasing the reverse bias
(b) decreases with increasing the reverse bias
(c) depends only on reverse saturation current
(d) makes the P-N junction more effective at high frequencies
183. The Input control parameter of a JFET is _____ .
(a) source voltage (b) drain voltage (c) gate voltage (d) gate current
184. Choose the correct expression for the Fermi-Dirac probability function :
1 1
(a) f(E) = (E E F ) (b) f(E) = (E F E)
1 e /KT 1 e /KT
1 1
(c) f(E) = (E E F )
(d) f(E) = (E E F )
1 e /KT 1 e /KT
185. Choose the correct name of the following device symbol :
(a) P-channel D-MOSFET (b) n-channel E-MOSFET
(c) P-channel E-MOSFET (d) n-channel D-MOSFET
186. Which parameter controls the instantaneous drain current (iD) in low frequency FET model ?
(a) iD = f(VGS, VDS) (b) iD = f(VGS, iGS)
(c) iD = f(VDS, iGS) (d) iD = f(VGS, VSS)
187. The alternative name of source follower configuration is :
(a) Common drain (b) Common source (c) Common gate (d) None of these
188. Choose the correct name for the following symbol :
(a) JFET (b) Tunnel diode (c) UJT (d) Schottky diode
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189. What is the standard thickness of the depletion layer in semiconductor materials ?
(a) 10–2 meter (b) 10–6 meter (c) 10–9 meter (d) 10–12 meter
190. What type of gate biasing is used in a JFET ?
(a) forward (b) reverse
(c) forward as well as reverse (d) None of these
191. Which one is the correct input impedance relationship of a JFET in comparison to an
ordinary BJT transistor ?
(a) Equal to (b) More than (c) Less than (d) None of these
192. In a P-channel MOSFET, the substrate :
(a) is P-type (b) is N-type
(c) may be P-type or N-type (d) None of these
193. The collector leakage current in a transistor is 300 A in CE arrangement. If the transistor
is now connected in CB arrangement, what will be the leakage current ? Given that = 120
(a) 2.4 A (b) 4.6 A (c) 8.2 mA (d) 1.2 mA
194. The 8421 BCD code of the decimal number 1507 is
(a) 0011 1000 0010 0000 (b) 0001 0101 0000 0111
(c) 0000 0001 0001 0101 (d) 0000 1001 0000 0111
195. The output of the given logic circuit is
– – –
(a) ABC (b) ABC (c) ABC (d) ABC
196. Simplified form of the logic expression given below is :
Y = AB A AB
– –
(a) B (b) A (c) 1 (d) 0
197. The simplified form of the below given expression is
––– –
A = XY + XZ + XYZ (XY + Z)
– –
(a) XY (b) XY (c) 1 (d) 0
198. For a Half Adder circuit with input A and B, the expression for sum (S) and carry (C) can
be given as :
–– ––– –– – –––
(a) S = AB + AB and C = AB (b) S = AB + AB and C = AB
–– – – –
(c) S = AB + AB and C = AB (d) S = AB + AB and C = AB
199. In which form the expression Y = AC + BD + EF is known as :
(a) Product Of Product (POP) (b) Hybrid
(c) Sum Of Product (SOP) (d) Product Of Sum (POS)
200. The 1’s complement of the number 11100110 is :
(a) 01011001 (b) 00011010 (c) 00011011 (d) 00011001
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189. ?
(a) 10–2 (b) 10–6 (c) 10–9 (d) 10–12
190. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
191. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
192. -
(a) (P) - (b) (N) -
(c) - - (d)
193. 300 A
? = 120
(a) 2.4 (b) 4.6 (c) 8.2 (d) 1.2
194. 1507 8421 ?
(a) 0011 1000 0010 0000 (b) 0001 0101 0000 0111
(c) 0000 0001 0001 0101 (d) 0000 1001 0000 0111
195.
– – –
(a) ABC (b) ABC (c) ABC (d) ABC
196.
Y = AB A AB
– –
(a) B (b) A (c) 1 (d) 0
197. ?
––– –
A = XY + XZ + XYZ (XY + Z)
– –
(a) XY (b) XY (c) 1 (d) 0
198. A B (S) (C) :
–– ––– –– – –––
(a) S = AB + AB C = AB (b) S = AB + AB C = AB
–– – – –
(c) S = AB + AB C = AB (d) S = AB + AB C = AB
199. Y = AC + BD + EF ?
(a) (POP) (b)
(c) (SOP) (d) (POS)
200. 11100110 1’s ?
(a) 01011001 (b) 00011010 (c) 00011011 (d) 00011001
___________
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Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.